NSG 333 Ch 24- Nursing Management of the Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Newborn Conditions

A newborn at 33 weeks' gestation has an Apgar score of 5 at 10 minutes of life. Which nursing action is a priority?

Begin resuscitation measures. Explanation: Determine the Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes; if less than 7 at 5 minutes, repeat the assessment at 10 minutes of age. If the initial assessment is poor, begin resuscitation measures until the Apgar score is above 7. The Ballard score would not be performed at this time. Reviewing the L & D records or repeating the Apgar are not priorities.

A neonate is diagnosed with Erb's palsy after birth. The parents are concerned about their neonate's limp arm. The nurse explains the neonate will be scheduled to receive what recommended treatment for this condition first?

Immobilization of the shoulder and arm Rationale: Treatment for a neonate with Erb palsy usually involves immobilization of the upper arm across the upper abdomen/chest to protect the shoulder from excessive motion for the first week; then gentle passive range-of-motion exercises are performed daily to prevent contractures. Surgery is not needed to regain function since there is no structural injury. Doing nothing will not help the neonate regain function in the extremity.

What is the term for a small collection of blood that forms underneath the skull as a result of birth trauma?

cephalohematoma Explanation: Vernix caseosa is a thick white substance found on a newborn. Erythema toxicum is a newborn rash. Caput succedaneum is molding or edema.

A preterm newborn is receiving enteral feedings. Which finding would alert the nurse to suspect that the newborn is developing NEC?

feeding intolerance Rationale: The newborn with NEC may exhibit feeding intolerance with lethargy, abdominal distention and tenderness, and bloody stools.

The nurse prepares to administer a gavage feeding for a newborn with transient tachypnea based on the understanding that this type of feeding is necessary because:

oxygen demands need to be reduced. Rationale: For the newborn with transient tachypnea, the newborn's respiratory rate is high, increasing the oxygen demand. Thus, measures are initiated to reduce this demand. Gavage feedings are one way to do so. With transient tachypnea, enzyme activity and kidney function are not affected. This condition typically resolves within 72 hours. The risk for hyperbilirubinemia is not increased.

A nurse is teaching the mother of a newborn experiencing cocaine withdrawal about caring for the neonate at home. The mother stopped using cocaine near the end of her pregnancy. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the mother identifies which action as appropriate for her newborn?

waking the newborn every hour Rationale: Stimuli need to be decreased. Waking the newborn every hour would most likely be too stimulating. Measures such as swaddling the newborn tightly and offering a pacifier help to decrease irritable behaviors. A pacifier also helps to satisfy the newborn's need for nonnutritive sucking. Checking the fontanels provides evidence of hydration.

A neonatal nurse admits a preterm infant with the diagnosis of respiratory distress syndrome and reviews the maternal labor and birth record. Which factors in the record would the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

32 weeks' gestation cesarean birth male gender newborn asphyxia maternal diabetes Explanation: The most common risk factor for the development of RDS is premature birth. Additional risk factors include cesarean birth, male gender, perinatal asphyxia, and maternal diabetes. Age of the mother and hypertension are not factors in the development of RDS.

The nurse is caring for a client who is at her due date. The client asks. "How long is the health care provider going to let me go?" The nurse is correct to state that typical a mother should not pass how many weeks' gestation?

42 weeks Explanation: The nurse is most correct to state that mothers do not progress longer than 42 weeks gestation. At that point, either a cesarean section or an induction would be completed. Actual dates do vary depending on the status of the fetus.

The pediatrician prescribes morphine sulphate 0.2 mg/kg orally q 4 hour for a neonate suffering from drug withdrawal. The neonate weighs 3,800 grams. How much of drug will the nurse give in 24 hours? Record your answer using two decimal places.

Answer: 4.56 Rationale: 3800 grams = 3.8 kg 3.8 kg/kg x 0.20 mg x 6 doses = 4.56 mg in 24 hours

In completing the newborn assessment checklist, the nurse documents a meconium stool. This documentation rules out which condition?

Imperforate anus Explanation: Clinical manifestations of an imperforate anus include not having a meconium stool within the first 24 hours of birth. A hiatal hernia can cause esophageal reflux. Spina bifida occulta is caused by a neural tube defect and is typically asymptomatic, causing no problems. Epispadias is when the opening of the urethra is on the dorsal aspect of the penis.

Which nursing measure is most effective in reducing newborn infections?

Maintain medical asepsis while providing care. Explanation: Nurses possess the education and assessment tools to decrease the incidence of and reduce the impact of newborn infections. Nurses should implement measures for prevention and early recognition, including maintaining medical and surgical asepsis for all providing care. Nurses should outline and carry out measures to prevent hospital-acquired infections, such as thorough handwashing hygiene for all staff.

The nurse is most correct to assess for transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) in which neonate?

The neonate delivered by cesarean section Explanation: While every neonate has the respiratory system assessed, some are at higher risk of complications than others. The neonate born via cesarean section is at highest risk for TTN since this infant did not have the opportunity of having fluid expressed from the lungs as he/she descended down the birth canal. The other options are not in the high-risk category.

When providing care to a newborn with necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC), the nurse would need to report which finding immediately?

abdomen appearing red and shiny Explanation: An abdomen that appears red and shiny in a newborn with NEC indicates peritonitis and must be reported immediately. A decrease in abdominal girth, stools negative for blood, and active bowel sounds suggest that the condition is resolving.

A pregnant woman gives birth to a small for gestational age neonate who is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with seizure activity. The neonate appears to have abnormally small eyes and a thin upper lip. The infant is noted to be microcephalic. Based on these findings, which substance would the nurse suspect the women of using during pregnancy?

alcohol Rationale: This child's features match those of fetal alcohol syndrome, including microcephaly, small palpebral (eyelid) fissures, abnormally small eyes, and fetal growth restriction.

A nurse is reading a journal article about birth defects and finds that some birth defects are preventable. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find as being cited as the current leading preventable cause of birth defects?

alcohol Explanation: Alcohol is now recognized as the leading preventable cause of birth defects and developmental disorders in the United States. Smoking, recreational drugs, and obesity are also contributing factors.

A newborn has an Apgar score of 6 at 5 minutes. Which action would be the priority?

beginning resuscitative measures Rationale: An Apgar score below 7 at 1 or 5 minutes indicates the need for resuscitation. Intravenous fluid therapy and blood cultures may be done once resuscitation is started. Kangaroo care would be appropriate once the newborn is stable.

A newborn is suspected of developing persistent pulmonary hypertension. The nurse would expect to prepare the newborn for which procedure to confirm the suspicion?

echocardiogram Rationale: An echocardiogram is used to reveal right-to-left shunting of blood to confirm the diagnosis of persistent pulmonary hypertension. Chest X-ray would be most likely used to aid in the diagnosis of RDS or TTN. Blood cultures would be helpful in evaluating for neonatal sepsis. Stool for occult blood may be done to evaluate for NEC.

A newborn requires resuscitation secondary to asphyxia. The resuscitation team frequently assesses the newborn's response and continues resuscitation efforts based on which assessment finding?

heart rate of 70 beats/min Explanation: Resuscitation is continued until the newborn has a heart rate higher than 100 beats/min, a good healthy cry, or good breathing efforts and a pink tongue. This last sign indicates a good oxygen supply to the brain.

A neonate undergoing phototherapy treatment must be monitored for which adverse effect?

increased insensible water loss Explanation: Increased insensible water loss is due to absorbed photon energy from the lights. Hyperglycemia isn't a characteristic effect of phototherapy treatment. Phototherapy may cause a mild decrease in platelet count. GI transit time may decrease with the use of phototherapy.

A nurse is caring for a child with complex esophageal atresia who will be undergoing surgery for repair. What comment by the parents indicates further teaching is required?

"After this surgery is done tomorrow, my baby will be able to eat and drink." Explanation: The newborn will need IV fluids to maintain optimal hydration. The first stage of surgery may involve a gastrostomy and a method of draining the proximal esophageal pouch. A chest tube is inserted to drain chest fluids. If the repair is complex, surgery may need to be done in stages.

The nurse is teaching gavage feedings to the mother of a preterm infant. Which instruction is most important?

Gastric residual present Explanation: Check prefeed gastric residual before infusing the next feeding. If the stomach is not empty by the next feeding, allow more time between feedings or give smaller feedings. The other options are important but not the most important.

When providing care to the newborn withdrawing from a drug such as cocaine or heroin, which drug is given to ease the symptoms and prevent complications?

Morphine Explanation: Care of the newborn experiencing substance withdrawal focuses on providing physical and emotional support and also medication administration to ease withdrawal symptoms. Morphine, an opioid, is given to the client to ease the withdrawal symptoms and also gradually remove opioids from the system. The other options do not ease withdrawal symptoms.

An infant is suspected of having persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN). What intervention implemented by the nurse would be appropriate for treating this client?

Provide oxygen by oxygen hood or ventilator. Explanation: The nurse should administer oxygen to the infant in whatever manner needed to help maintain the infant's oxygen levels. Anticonvulsants are not necessary in treating this disorder. The infant's physical environment should be warm, not cool, and stimulation should be limited for these clients.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a neonate experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal. What should be included in this plan?

Swaddle the infant between feedings. Rationale: Supportive interventions to promote comfort include swaddling, low lighting, gentle handling, quiet environment with minimal stimulation, use of soft voices, pacifiers to promote "self-soothing," frequent small feedings, and vertical rocking, which will soothe the newborn's neurological system.

Which assessment finding within the first 24 hours of birth requires immediate health care provider notification?

The skin is jaundiced. Explanation: Pathologic jaundice occurs within the first 24 hours of life and is often related to blood incompatibility. Conversely, physiologic jaundice occurs 48 hours or more after birth, peaks at the 5th to 7th day, and disappears between the 7th and 10th day postpartum. This neonate exhibits pathologic jaundice, which needs to be reported immediately. Milia is common on the newborn. It is appropriate for the newborn to sleep for most of the day and eat a couple ounces of formula.

A preterm newborn is noted to have hypotonia, apnea, bradycardia, a bulging fontanel (fontanelle), cyanosis, and increased head circumference. These signs indicate the newborn has which complication?

intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) Explanation: Signs that may accompany IVH include hypotonia, apnea, bradycardia, a full or bulging fontanel (fontanelle), cyanosis, and increased head circumference.

What would the nurse expect to prioritize in the assessment of a newborn who has a positive Coombs test?

jaundice development Explanation: A direct Coombs test is done to identify hemolytic disease of the newborn; positive results indicate that the newborn's red blood cells have been coated with antibodies and thus are sensitized. The Coombs test is frequently used in the evaluation of a jaundiced infant. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder in which the body cannot process part of a protein called phenylalanine.

A neonate born addicted to cocaine is now being treated with medication for acute neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which medication will be prescribed to relieve withdrawal symptoms?

morphine sulphate Rationale: Pharmacologic treatment is warranted if conservative measures are not adequate. Common medications used in the management of newborn withdrawal include an opioid (morphine or methadone) and phenobarbital as a second drug if the opiate does not adequately control symptoms. The other drugs are not used in NAS treatment.

A 30 weeks' gestation neonate born with low Apgar scores is in the neonatal intensive care unit with respiratory distress syndrome and underwent an exchange transfusion for anemia. Which factors place the neonate at risk for necrotizing enterocolitis? Select all that apply.

preterm birth respiratory distress syndrome low Apgar scores exchange transfusion Rationale: The predisposing factors for the development of necrotizing enterocolitis include preterm labor, respiratory distress syndrome, exchange transfusion, and low birth weight. Low Apgar scores, hypothermia, and hypoglycemia are also risk factors.

Which facial change is characteristic in a neonate with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder?

short, palpebral fissures Explanation: Infants with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder are usually born with microcephaly. Their facial features include short, palpebral fissures and a thin upper lip.

A nurse is providing care to a newborn. The nurse suspects that the newborn is developing sepsis based on which assessment finding?

temperature instability Rationale: Manifestations of sepsis are typically nonspecific and may include hypothermia (temperature instability), oliguria or anuria, lack of interest in feeding, and lethargy.

While caring for a neonate born of a mother with diabetes, the nurse should monitor the neonate for which complication?

macrosomia Explanation: Neonates born of mothers with diabetes are at increased risk for macrosomia (excessive fetal growth) due to the increased supply of maternal glucose combined with an increase in fetal insulin. Along with macrosomia, neonates of mothers with diabetes are at risk for respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hyperbilirubinemia, and congenital anomalies. They are not at greater risk for atelectasis or pneumothorax. Microcephaly is usually the result of cytomegalovirus or rubella virus infection.

The nurse should carefully monitor which neonate for hyperbilirubinemia?

neonate with ABO incompatibility Explanation: The mother's blood type, which is different from the neonate's, has an impact on the neonate's bilirubin level due to the antigen antibody reaction. Neonates of African descent tend to have lower mean levels of bilirubin. Chinese, Japanese, Korean, and Greek neonates tend to have higher incidences of hyperbilirubinemia. Neonates of Rh-negative, not Rh-positive, mothers tend to have hyperbilirubinemia. Low Apgar scores may indicate a risk for hyperbilirubinemia; 9 and 10 associate with normal adjustment to extrauterine life.

A nursing instructor is teaching about newborn congenital disorders and realizes that the student needs further instruction after making which statement?

"All congenital disorders can be diagnosed at birth." Explanation: All congenital disorders are not diagnosed at birth. Hydrocephalus is one such disorder that may be diagnosed at birth but also may not be diagnosed until after a few weeks or months. It is also true that congenital defects may be caused by both genetics and environmental factors.

Which nursing action is required when caring for the post-term infant?

Serial blood glucose levels Explanation: Of the options provided, the one that is required is serial blood glucose levels. The newborn may require IV glucose infusion to stabilize glucose level. The rest of the options are on an as-needed basis.

Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when a newborn has an unexpected anomaly at birth?

Show the newborn to the parents as soon as possible while explaining the defect. Rationale: When an anomaly is identified at or after birth, parents need to be informed promptly and given a realistic appraisal of the severity of the condition, the prognosis, and treatment options so that they can participate in all decisions concerning their child. Removing the newborn from the area or telling them that the newborn needs to go to the nursery immediately is inappropriate and would only add to the parents' anxieties and fears. Telling them that nothing is wrong is inappropriate because it violates their right to know.

Which condition would place a neonate at the least risk for developing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

chronic maternal hypertension Explanation: Chronic maternal hypertension is an unlikely factor because chronic fetal stress tends to increase lung maturity. Second twins may be prone to a greater risk of asphyxia. Premature neonates younger than 35 weeks are associated with RDS. Even with a mature lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio, neonates of mothers with diabetes may still develop respiratory distress.

A nurse is caring for a newborn who was diagnosed with an imperforate anus. Assessment reveals drooling, copious bubbles of mucus in mouth, rattling respirations, and abdominal distention. During feeding, the newborn coughs and becomes cyanotic. Which action by the nurse would be appropriate?

clear the airway Explanation: The newborn is showing signs of esophageal atresia based on the assessment. The nurse would clear the airway and notify the health care provider. Newborns with imperforate anus often have other anomalies including esophageal atresia. With this condition, a gastric tube cannot be inserted beyond a certain point because the esophagus ends in a blind pouch. Therefore gavage feedings would be inappropriate. Although the newborn has copious mucus, suctioning the throat and endotracheal intubation are not warranted. Excess secretions should be removed with a bulb syringe.

When providing postpartum teaching to a couple, the nurse correctly identifies what time as when pathologic jaundice may be found in the newborn?

during the first 24 hours of life Explanation: Pathologic jaundice occurs within the first 24 hours of life and is often related to blood incompatibility. Conversely, physiologic jaundice occurs 48 hours or more after birth, peaks at the 5th to 7th day, and disappears between the 7th and 10th day postpartum. Physiologic jaundice is caused by the normal reduction of red blood cells and occurs in both breastfed and bottle-fed babies.

A client with group AB blood whose husband has group O blood has just given birth. Which complication or test result is a major sign of ABO blood incompatibility that the nurse should look for when assessing this neonate?

jaundice within the first 24 hours of life Explanation: The neonate with an ABO blood incompatibility with its mother will have jaundice within the first 24 hours of life (pathologic jaundice). The neonate would have a positive Coombs test result. Jaundice after the first 24 hours of life is physiologic jaundice. Bleeding from the nose and ear should be investigated for possible causes but probably isn't related to ABO incompatibility.

The use of breast milk for premature neonates helps prevent which condition?

necrotizing enterocolitis Explanation: Components specific to breast milk have been shown to lower the incidence of necrotizing enterocolitis in premature neonates. Infantile respiratory distress syndrome isn't directly influenced by breast milk or breastfeeding. Down syndrome and Turner syndrome are genetic defects and aren't influenced by breast milk.

At a preconception counseling class, a client expresses concern and wonders how Healthy People 2030 will improve maternal-infant outcomes. Which response(s) by the nurse is appropriate? Select all that apply.

Healthy People 2030 will reduce the rate of fetal and infant deaths Healthy People 2030 will decrease the number of all infant deaths (within 1 year) Healthy People 2030 will decrease the number of neonatal deaths (within the first year) Healthy People 2030 will foster early and consistent prenatal care. Rationale: One of the leading health indicators as identified by Healthy People 2030 refers to decreasing the number of infant deaths. Acquired and congenital conditions account for a significant percentage of infant deaths. Specific objectives include reducing the rate of fetal deaths at 20 or more weeks of gestation though the nursing action of fostering early and consistent prenatal care; reducing the rate of all infant deaths (within 1 year) through the nursing actions of including education to place infants on their backs for naps and sleep to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), avoiding exposing newborns to cigarette smoke, and ensuring that infants with birth defects receive health care needed in order to thrive; and reducing the occurrence of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) through the nursing actions or counseling girls and women to avoid alcohol use during pregnancy, and participating in programs for at-risk groups, including adolescents, about the effects of substance use, especially alcohol, during pregnancy.

A newborn is exhibiting symptoms of withdrawal and toxicology test have been prescribed. Which type of specimen should the nurse collect to obtain the most accurate results?

Meconium Rationale: Toxicology screening of a newborn can include testing from blood, urine and meconium. These tests identify which drugs the newborn has been exposed to in utero. A meconium sample can detect which drugs the mother has been using from the second trimester of pregnancy until birth. It is the preferred method of testing. A urine screen identifies only the drugs the mother has used recently. The nurse should be careful not to mix the meconium sample with urine as it alters the results of the test. Blood samples can be taken and they will yield results of current drugs in the newborn's system, but they are invasive and noninvasive testing will provide the same results. If possible, testing on the mother is preferred. This testing provides quick results of what drugs the mother has been exposing the fetus to in utero. This will help in planning and providing care for the drug-exposed newborn. Sputum is not used for toxicology studies.

Which information would the nurse include when teaching a new mother about the difference between pathologic and physiologic jaundice?

Pathologic jaundice appears within 24 hours after birth. Rationale: Pathologic jaundice appears within 24 hours after birth whereas physiologic jaundice commonly appears around the third or fourth days of life. Kernicterus is more commonly associated with pathologic jaundice. An exchange transfusion is used only if the total serum bilirubin level remains elevated after intensive phototherapy. With this procedure, the newborn's blood is removed and replaced with nonhemolyzed red blood cells from a donor. Physiologic jaundice often is treated at home.

Which environmental consideration is most helpful to promoting comfort when the neonate is withdrawing from alcohol and drugs?

Provide a dark, quiet environment Explanation: A dark and quiet environment provides relaxation and allows the opportunity for the neonate to withdraw from the alcohol and drugs without becoming overstimulated. Massage and tactile stimulation can stimulate the neonate, leading to seizures. A dark environment is more helpful than soothing music.

A preterm newborn is admitted to the neonatal intensive care with the diagnosis of an omphalocele. What nursing actions would the nurse perform? Select all that apply.

The abdominal contents are protected Fluid loss of the neonate will be minimized Perfusion to the exposed abdominal contents will be maintained. Rationale: Nursing management of newborns with omphalocele or gastroschisis focuses on preventing hypothermia, maintaining perfusion to the eviscerated abdominal contents by minimizing fluid loss, and protecting the exposed abdominal contents from trauma and infection. Weight loss at this point is not a priority, and neither is assessing bilirubin.

A nurse is caring for a 25-year-old G1P0 at 37 weeks' gestation. The client's history indicates that the client has had alcohol abuse disorder throughout their pregnancy. What signs and symptoms does the nurse expect the newborn to exhibit? Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.

The nurse recognizes the newborn is exhibiting signs and symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome, which include thin upper lip, high-pitched, shrill cry, jitteriness, and flat midface. Explanation: Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is caused by intake of alcohol by the pregnant parent during pregnancy; alcohol consumption may be periodic or chronic. Newborns born with FAS have characteristic facial features, are more susceptible to congenital defects, and often have developmental delays. Newborns with FAS have a high-pitched and shrill cry and are generally jittery, a flat midface, a thin upper lip, small and wide-spaced eyes not large narrow-spaced eyes, and are not easily consoled and have a poor, not an increased appetite.

Which congenital condition is an immediate emergency requiring notification of the health care provider?

Tracheoesophageal fistula Explanation: The congenital condition which is a medical emergency is a tracheoesophageal fistula. This condition can lead to respiratory distress and pneumonitis. Hypospadias is the urethra opening terminating on the ventral surface of the penis, instead of the tip. Cleft palate is the opening in the roof of the mouth. An atrial septal defect is an opening between the right and left atrial. Hypospadias, cleft palate, and an atrial septal defect may be surgically repaired but are not immediate emergencies.

A client who gave birth 2 hours ago expresses concern about her baby developing jaundice. Which response from the nurse would be best?

"I understand your concern because as many as 50% of babies can develop jaundice." Explanation: As many as 50% of term newborns will develop physiologic jaundice. Physiologic jaundice occurs after the first 24 hours of life and is not pathologic. Pathologic jaundice will develop within the first 24 hours of life.

A term neonate is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. At birth, thick green amniotic fluid was noted. Which action is the priority?

Continue assessment and evaluation for respiratory distress. Explanation: The standard prevention and treatment for meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) previously included vigorous suctioning of the mouth and nares. Previously infants have been given intubation and airway suctioning; routine tracheal suction is recommended only for depressed infants. Use of orogastric suctioning to prevent MAS is not supported by evidence from current studies. Guidelines suggest not stimulating infants born with meconium staining with vigorous sucking in order to avoid aspiration. Continued assessment and ongoing evaluation of the newborn for respiratory distress is the best option. CPAP would not be warranted.

A nurse is assigned to care for a newborn with esophageal atresia. What preoperative nursing care is the priority for this newborn?

Prevent aspiration by elevating the head of the bed, and inserting an NG tube to low suction. Explanation: The preoperative nursing care focuses on preventing aspiration by elevating the head of the bed and inserting an NG tube to low suction to prevent aspiration. Documenting the amount and color of drainage is not needed with the NG tube in place. An infant with esophageal atresia is NPO and fed nothing until after the defect is repaired. Administering antibiotics and total parenteral nutrition is a postoperative nursing intervention when caring for a newborn with esophageal atresia.

The nurse is examining a newborn and notes that there is bruising and swelling on the newborn's head, limited to the right side of the scalp and does not cross the suture lines. How will the nurse interpret this finding?

This is a cephalohematoma that typically spontaneously resolves without interventions. Explanation: The newborn is exhibiting signs of a cephalohematoma, a collection of blood under the periosteum of the skull. It is caused by birth trauma and should resolve spontaneously. If the swelling crosses the suture line, caput succedaneum is suspected. A subarachnoid hemorrhage in a newborn usually results in symptoms such as seizures, apnea, and bradycardia.

The nursing instructor is teaching a session on techniques that the nursing students can use to properly address concerns of parents with children who are born with a cleft lip and palate. The instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly choose which nursing intervention as being the most effective in these situations?

Use reflective listening with nonjudgmental support. Explanation: Families are naturally apprehensive and find it difficult not to overprotect a child who is ill. They often increase the child's anxiety and cause fear in the child about participating in normal activities. Children are rather sensible about finding their own limitations and usually limit their activities to their capacity if they are not made unduly apprehensive. Some families can adjust well and provide guidance and security for the sick child. Others may become confused and frightened and show hostility, disinterest, or neglect; these families need guidance and counseling. The nurse has a great responsibility to support the family. The nurse's primary goal is to reduce anxiety in the child and family. This goal may be accomplished through open communication and ongoing contact.

A neonate is exhibiting signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which findings would confirm this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

frequent sneezing persistant fever shrill, high-pitched cry frequent yawning Rationale: Manifestations of neonatal abstinence syndrome include a shrill, high-pitched cry; persistent fever; frequent yawning; and frequent sneezing. Rather than adequate rooting and sucking, these actions will be frantic in a neonate with abstinence syndrome. In addition, these neonates will have hypertonic muscle tone, not hypotonic reflexes.

A nurse is assigned to care for a high-risk newborn with a periventricular-intraventricular hemorrhage (PVH-IVH) in the home environment after discharge. For which condition should the nurse monitor the infant?

hydrocephalus Explanation: A significant number of newborns with PVH-INH will incur brain injury, leading to complications that may include hydrocephalus. The nurse should monitor for the incidence of hydrocephalus in this high-risk newborn. Urinary tract infection is not a condition that persists after discharge. Spina bifida is most often noted at birth and would not need to be assessed by the nurse. Formula intolerance is not specific to high-risk newborns.

A nurse is caring for a newborn whose chest X-ray reveals marked hyperaeration mixed with areas of atelectasis. The infant's arterial blood gas analysis indicates metabolic acidosis. For which dangerous condition should the nurse prepare when providing care to this newborn?

meconium aspiration syndrome Explanation: The nurse should assess for meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn. Meconium aspiration involves patchy, fluffy infiltrates unevenly distributed throughout the lungs and marked hyperaeration mixed with areas of atelectasis that can be seen through chest X-rays. Direct visualization of the vocal cords for meconium staining using a laryngoscope can confirm aspiration. Lung auscultation typically reveals coarse crackles and rhonchi. Arterial blood gas analysis will indicate metabolic acidosis with a low blood pH, decreased PaO2, and increased PaCO2. Newborns with choanal atresia, diaphragmatic hernia, and pneumonia do not exhibit these manifestations.

While reviewing a newborn's medical record, the nurse notes that the chest X-ray shows a ground glass pattern. The nurse interprets this as indicative of:

respiratory distress syndrome. Rationale: The chest X-ray of a newborn with RDS reveals a reticular (ground glass) pattern. For TTN, the chest X-ray shows lung overaeration and prominent perihilar interstitial markings and streakings. A chest X-ray for asphyxia would reveal possible structural abnormalities that might interfere with respiration, but the results are highly variable. An echocardiogram would be done to evaluate persistent pulmonary hypertension.

Which sign appears early in a neonate with respiratory distress syndrome?

tachypnea more than 60 breaths/minute Explanation: Tachypnea and expiratory grunting occur early in respiratory distress syndrome to help improve oxygenation. Poor capillary filling time, a later manifestation, occurs if signs and symptoms aren't treated. Crackles occur as the respiratory distress progressively worsens. A pale gray skin color obscures earlier cyanosis as respiratory distress symptoms persist and worsen.

Which nursing actions limit overstimulation of the preterm infant? Select all that apply.

Speak softly to the infant. Keep lights low in the nursery. Coordinate nursing care. Explanation: It is noted that excessive noise can overstimulate the preterm infant. It is up to the nurse to protect the neurologic status of the infant. Minimize overstimulation by speaking softly to the infant and keeping the lights in the nursery low. Also, coordinate nursing care to minimize interruptions. Tapping and opening the isolette portholes can startle the infant.

The nurse suspects a preterm newborn receiving enteral feedings of having necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). What assessment finding best correlates with this diagnosis?

bloody stools Explanation: NEC assessment includes assessing the newborn's health history and physical examination as well as laboratory and diagnostic testing. The onset of NEC is demonstrated by the development of feeding intolerance, abdominal distention, and bloody stools in a preterm infant receiving enteral feedings. As the disease worsens, the infant develops signs and symptoms of septic shock with RDS, temperature instability, lethargy, hypotension, and oliguria.

The nurse is admitting a term, large-for-gestational-age neonate weighing 4,610 g (10 lb, 2 oz), born vaginally with a mid-forceps assist, to a 15-year-old primipara. What would the nurse anticipate as a result of the birth?

midclavicular fracture Rationale: Trauma to the newborn may result from the use of mechanical forces, such as forceps during birth. Primarily injuries are found in large babies and babies with shoulder dystocia. Associated traumatic injuries include fracture of the clavicle or humerus or subluxations of the shoulder or cervical spine.

A 36-week neonate born weighing 1,800 g has microcephaly and microphthalmia. Based on these findings, which risk factor might be expected in the maternal history?

use of alcohol Explanation: The most common sign of the effects of alcohol on fetal development is restricted growth in weight, length, and head circumference. Intrauterine growth restriction is not characteristic of marijuana use. Gestational diabetes usually produces large-for-gestational-age neonates. Positive group B streptococcus is not a relevant risk factor.

After teaching the parents of a newborn with periventricular hemorrhage about the disorder and treatment, which statement by the parents indicates that the teaching was successful?

"Our newborn could develop a learning disability later on." Rationale: Periventricular hemorrhage has long-term sequelae such as seizures, hydrocephalus, periventricular leukomalacia, cerebral palsy, learning disabilities, vision or hearing deficits, and intellectual disability. Covering the eyes is more appropriate for the newborn receiving phototherapy. The bleeding in the brain can lead to serious long-term effects. Blood transfusions are not used to treat periventricular hemorrhage.

A nurse is explaining to the parents the preoperative care for their infant born with bladder exstrophy. The parents ask, "What will happen to the bladder while waiting for the surgery?" What is the nurse's best response?

"The bladder will be covered in a sterile plastic bag to keep it moist." Explanation: In the preoperative period, infant care is focused on protecting the exstrophied bladder and preventing infection. The infant is kept in a supine position, and the bladder is kept moist and covered with a sterile plastic bag. Change soiled diapers immediately to prevent contamination of the bladder with feces. Sponge-bathe the infant only (rather than immersing him or her in water) to prevent pathogens in the bath water from entering the bladder. Consult the ostomy nurse if necessary.

A woman gave birth to a healthy term newborn about 2 hours ago. She asks the nurse about the appearance of her newborn's head. Assessment reveals swelling of the head that extends across the midline. Which response by the nurse would be appropriate?

"The swelling in your newborn's head is due to the head pressing against your cervix during labor and birth. It will go away on its own in a few days." Explanation: Assessment indicates that the newborn has caput succedaneum. This is soft tissue swelling caused by edema of the head against the dilating cervix during the birth process. In caput succedaneum, swelling is not limited by suture lines; it extends across the midline and is associated with head molding. It does not usually cause complications other than a misshapen head and usually resolves over the first few days without treatment. Cephalohematoma is the subperiosteal collection of blood secondary to the rupture of blood vessels between the skull and periosteum. Suture lines delineate its extent and it is usually located on one side, over the parietal bone. Cephalohematoma resolves gradually over 2 to 3 weeks without treatment. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (one of the most common types of intracranial trauma) may be due to hypoxia/ischemia, variations in blood pressure, and the pressure exerted on the head during labor. Bleeding is of venous origin, and underlying contusions also may occur. Subarachnoid hemorrhage requires minimal handling to reduce stress. Subdural hemorrhage (hematomas) involves tears of the major veins or venous sinuses overlying the cerebral hemispheres or cerebellum. Increased pressure on the blood vessels inside the skull leads to tears. Subdural hematoma requires aspiration; can be life-threatening if it is in an inaccessible location and cannot be aspirated.

A 2-hour-old neonate born via caesarean birth has begun having a respiratory rate of 110 breaths/min and is in respiratory distress. What intervention(s) is a priority for the nurse to include in this neonates's care? Select all that apply.

Keep the head in a "sniff" position Administer oxygen Ensure thermoregulation Rationale: This neonate is experiencing manifestations of transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN). It occurs from delayed clearing of the lungs from fluid, and can be seen in neonates born via cesarean birth, because they have not had the experience of the compression on the thorax during vaginal delivery. This starts within the first 6 hours of life and can last up to 72 hours. The priority interventions for this neonate are oxygen, thermoregulation and minimal stimulation. Keeping the head in a neutral or "sniff " position allows for optimal airway. If the neonate becomes cold, then respiratory distress and or sepsis can develop. Minimal stimulation conserves the neonate's respiratory and heat requirements. The neonate may need placement of a peripheral IV for hydration and/or a feeding tube for formula or breast milk. The neonate should not be nipple fed until the respirations are under 60 breaths/min. A chest x-ray and an arterial blood gas may be needed also, but they would only be necessary if the neonate is in severe distress. The arterial blood gas results would show mild hypoxemia, a midly elevated CO2 level, and a normal pH.

The nurse in the neonatal intensive care unit is caring for a neonate she suspects is at risk for an intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH). Which nursing actions would be priorities? Select all that apply.

Maintain fetal flexed position Administer fluids slowly Assess for bulging fontanel Measure head circumference daily. Rationale: Care of the newborn with IVH is primarily supportive. Correct anemia, acidosis, and hypotension with fluids and medications. Administer fluids slowly to prevent fluctuations in blood pressure. Avoid rapid volume expansion to minimize changes in cerebral blood flow. Keep the newborn in a flexed, contained position with the head elevated to prevent or minimize fluctuations in intracranial pressure. Continuously monitor the newborn for signs of hemorrhage, such as changes in the level of consciousness, bulging fontanel, seizures, apnea, and reduced activity level. Also, measuring head circumference daily to assess for expansion in size is essential in identifying complications early. Moro reflex and intake and output are routine and not associated with IVH.

A newborn infant has been diagnosed with persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN). In providing care for this newborn what intervention should be the nurse's priority?

Measure blood pressure Rationale: PPHN occurs when there is persistent fetal circulation after birth. The pulmonary pressures do not decrease at birth when the newborn begins breathing causing hypoxemia, acidosis and vasoconstriction of the pulmonary artery. This newborn requires much care and possibly extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO). The nurse should monitor the newborn's blood pressure regularly, because hypotension can occur from ensuing heart failure and the persistent hypoxemia. Vasopressors may be needed for this newborn. The newborn should not be suctioned. Doing so causes more stimulation and worsens respiratory issues. Arterial blood gases will be obtained regularly, but they are not a priority nursing intervention. Oxygen saturation should always be monitored in a newborn with respiratory distress.

A 33 weeks' gestation neonate is being assessed for necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). Which nursing actions would the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Perform hemoccult tests on stools Monitor abdominal girth Measure gastric residual before feeds Assess bowel sounds before each feed. Rationale: Always keep the possibility of NEC in mind when dealing with preterm newborns, especially when enteral feedings are being administered. Note feeding intolerance, diarrhea, bilestained emesis, or grossly bloody stools. Perform hemoccult tests on the bloody stool. Assess the neonate's abdomen for distention, tenderness, and visible loops of bowel. Measure the abdominal circumference, noting an increase. Listen to bowel sounds before each feeding. Determine residual gastric volume prior to feeding; when it is elevated, be suspicious for NEC. Assessing urine output is not essential.

The nurse is caring for a neonate. Which is the most important step the nurse can take to prevent and control infection?

Practice meticulous handwashing. Explanation: To prevent and control infection, the nurse should practice meticulous handwashing, scrubbing for 3 minutes before entering the nursery, washing frequently during caregiving activities, and scrubbing for 1 minute after providing care. Checking for signs of infection can detect, not prevent, infection. The nurse should use sterile technique for invasive procedures, not all caregiving. The nurse should wear gloves whenever contact with blood or body fluids is possible.

The nurse is working in the special care nursery caring for a newborn withdrawing from alcohol. Which nursing intervention promotes client comfort?

Swaddle and decrease stimulation Explanation: Swaddling and decreasing stimulation is helpful in providing relaxation and comfort for the newborn withdrawing from alcohol. Benzodiazepines are to prevent seizure activity. Providing small amounts of formula frequently supports weight gain. Promoting parental bonding is important for the newborn and parents to help the infant meet developmental milestones.

After teaching a group of new mothers about the physiologic jaundice in breastfed and bottle-fed newborns, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the mothers state which information?

The decline in bilirubin levels occurs more quickly in bottle-fed newborns. Explanation: Breastfed newborns typically have peak bilirubin levels on the fourth day of life; bottle-fed newborns usually have peak bilirubin levels on the third day of life. The rate of bilirubin decline is less rapid in breastfed newborns compared with bottle-fed newborns. Jaundice associated with breastfeeding presents in two distinct patterns: early-onset and late-onset. Bottle-fed newborns have more frequent bowel movements, thus reducing the bilirubin levels more quickly than breast-fed newborns.

The nurse is caring for a neonate with an exstrophy of the bladder. When the nurse is planning care, which client goal is the priority?

The neonate will be free from infection. Explanation: The highest priority goal is that the neonate will be free from infection. This neonate has open mucosa of the bladder. In addition, the neonate's urinary tract is developed and leads to the bladder and then the kidneys. Nursing intervention must include frequent vital signs; inspection of the site; observation for drainage, color and clarity of urine in diaper; and frequent urinalysis as ordered until surgical correction. Bonding is always a goal when caring for a neonate and family. Having an adequate urine output is an appropriate goal. Due to the sensitive nature of the mucosa, it is important for the neonate to not experience discomfort, particularly when the area is being cleansed.

A nurse is providing care to a newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which action would the nurse most likely include in the plan of care?

covering the newborn's eyes while under the bililights Rationale: During phototherapy, the newborn's eyes are covered to protect them from the lights. The newborn is turned every 2 hours to expose all areas of the body to the lights and is kept undressed, except for the diaper area, to provide maximum body exposure to the lights. Fluid intake is increased to allow for added fluid, protein, and calories.

The nurse is caring for an infant born to a mother with cocaine use disorder during her pregnancy. The nurse would likely notice that this infant:

cries when touched. Explanation: Developmental delays occur in young children of mothers with a substance use disorder. Infants of mothers with cocaine use disorder do not like to be touched or held and avoid the caregiver's gaze, which contributes to bonding delays. Infants of mothers with cocaine use disorder are often restless and below average weight when born.

The nurse frequently assesses the respiratory status of a preterm newborn based on the understanding that the newborn is at increased risk for respiratory distress syndrome because of:

deficiency of surfactant. Rationale: A preterm newborn is at increased risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) because of a surfactant deficiency. Surfactant helps to keep the alveoli open and maintain lung expansion. With a deficiency, the alveoli collapse, predisposing the newborn to RDS. An inability to clear fluids can lead to transient tachypnea. Immature respiratory control centers lead to an increased risk for apnea. Smaller respiratory passages led to an increased risk for obstruction.

The nurse is feeding a 2-day-old in the nursery when the infant begins choking and becomes cyanotic. Frothy sputum is observed coming from the mouth. What congenital malformation does the nurse understand these symptoms indicate?

esophageal atresia Explanation: Any mucus or fluid that a newborn with esophageal atresial swallows enters the blind pouch of the esophagus. The pouch fills and overflows, usually resulting in aspiration into the trachea. The newborn with this disorder has frothing, excessive drooling, and periods of respiratory distress with choking and cyanosis.

A nurse in the newborn nursery has noticed that an infant is frothing and appears to have excessive drooling. Further assessment reveals that the baby has episodes of respiratory distress with choking and cyanosis. What disorder should the nurse suspect based on these findings?

esophageal atresia Explanation: Any swallowed mucus or fluid enters the blind pouch of the esophagus when a newborn suffers from esophageal atresia. The newborn with this disorder will have frothing, excessive drooling, and periods of respiratory distress with choking and cyanosis. If this happens, no feedings should be given until the newborn has been examined.

A woman with hydramnios has just given birth. The nurse recognizes that the infant must be assessed for which condition?

esophageal atresia Explanation: Esophageal atresia must be ruled out in any infant born to a woman with hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid). Hydramnios occurs because, normally, a fetus swallows amniotic fluid during intrauterine life. A fetus with esophageal atresia cannot effectively swallow, so the amount of amniotic fluid can grow abnormally large. The other conditions listed are not associated with hydramnios.

A newborn with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) is not responding to conventional treatment. Which measure would the nurse anticipate as possibly necessary for this newborn?

extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) Rationale: If conventional measures are ineffective, then the nurse would need to prepare the newborn for ECMO. Hyperoxygenation, ventilatory support, and direct tracheal suctioning are typically used initially to promote tissue perfusion. However, if these are ineffective, ECMO would be the next step.

A newborn is suspected of having fetal alcohol syndrome. Which finding would the nurse expect to assess?

flattened maxilla Rationale: A newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome exhibits characteristic facial features such as microcephaly (not hydrocephaly), small palpebral fissures, and abnormally small eyes, flattened or absent maxilla, epicanthal folds, thin upper lip, and missing vertical groove in the median portion of the upper lip. Bradypnea is not typically associated with fetal alcohol syndrome. Fine and gross motor development is delayed, and the newborn shows poor hand-eye coordination but not hypoactivity.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman who is struggling with controlling gestational diabetes mellitus. What effect does the nurse predict this situation may have on the fetus?

grow to an unusually large size Explanation: Maternal diabetes is the most widely known contributing factor to large-for-gestational-age newborns. LGA babies are frequently born to mothers with diabetes and poor glucose control. Continued high blood glucose levels in the mother lead to an increase in insulin production in the fetus. Increased insulin levels act as a fetal growth hormone causing macrosomia, an unusually large newborn with a birth weight of greater than 4,500 grams (9 pounds, 14 ounces). The incidence of birth defects in newborns born of a mother with gestational diabetes is not greatly increased. IUGR is not a typical outcome of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. It is more likely that the newborn will be large-for-gestational-age.

The nurse is admitting to the nursery a newborn of a mother who continued to drink alcohol during her pregnancy. Which finding does the nurse predict to encounter on the newborn's assessment?

hyperactive and irritable Explanation: The newborn that is withdrawing from alcohol typically is hyperactive, irritable, has trouble sleeping, and may have tremors or seizures. Characteristics of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder include low birth weight, and small height and head circumference. This newborn is prone to respiratory difficulties, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperbilirubinemia.

A newborn has not passed any stools in the first 24 hours after birth, and his abdomen is becoming distended. The nurse recognizes that which condition could explain such findings?

imperforate anus Explanation: Imperforate anus is stricture of or absence of the anus. Although the condition can be detected by a prenatal sonogram and other assessments, some instances of the stricture will not be detected at birth as the anus appears as usual and the stricture exists so far inside that it cannot be seen. In this case, by 24 hours, no stool will be passed; abdominal distention will become evident. The other conditions listed would not produce the symptoms described.

A newborn is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). While assessing the newborn, the nurse realizes that which maternal factor would most place the infant at risk for RDS?

maternal gestational diabetes Explanation: Prolonged rupture of membranes, gestational or chronic maternal hypertension, maternal opioid addiction, and the use of prenatal corticosteroids reduces the newborn's risk for RDS because of the physiologic stress imposed on the fetus. Chronic stress experienced by the fetus in utero accelerates the production of surfactant before 35 weeks' gestation and thus reduces the incidence of RDS at birth. Maternal diabetes produces high levels of insulin that inhibits surfactant production thus placing the newborn more at risk for developing RDS.

A newborn has been diagnosed with a group B streptococcal infection shortly after birth. The nurse understands that the newborn most likely acquired this infection from which cause?

mother's birth canal Rationale: Most often, a newborn develops a group B streptococcus infection during the birthing process when the newborn comes into contact with an infected birth canal. Improper hand washing, contaminated formula, and nonsterile catheter insertion would most likely lead to a late-onset infection, which typically occurs in the nursery due to horizontal transmission.

A premature infant in the neonatal intensive care unit exhibits worsening respiratory distress and is noted to have abdominal distention, absent bowel sounds, and frequent diarrhea stools that are positive for hemoccult. What diagnosis would be most likely to correlate with the symptoms?

necrotizing enterocolitis Explanation: Observations for the development of NEC in the premature newborn may include feeding intolerance with abdominal distention, abdominal tenderness, and bloody or hemoccult-positive stools. Diarrhea is present with NEC and worsening of respiratory distress. Decreased or absent bowel sounds are noted. Rotavirus causes inflammation of a child's stomach and digestive tract, usually triggering vomiting, diarrhea, and fever and not seen in a preterm infant. Garamycin-resistant bacteria is usually seen in older adults.

A newborn is found to have hemolytic disease. Which combination would be found related to the blood types of this newborn and the parents of the newborn?

newborn who is type A, mother who is type O Explanation: Hemolytic disease of the newborn may develop when a mother and the unborn fetus have different blood types. The disease occurs when the immune system of the mother sees the fetus's red blood cells as foreign. Antibodies then develop against the fetus's red blood cells. These antibodies attack the red blood cells beginning at birth, causing them to break down too early. There is more than one way in which the fetus's blood type may not match the mother's. Commonly, it is the result of ABO incompatibility. It also occurs with Rh factor incompatibility. Of the options provided, the newborn with type A and the mother with type O will result in hemolytic disease of the newborn.

A newborn, born at 33 weeks' gestation, is on a ventilator in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). The newborn receives surfactant therapy. Which would the nurse expect to assess as a positive response to this therapy?

oxygen saturation 98% Explanation: Rescue treatment is indicated for newborns with established respiratory distress syndrome who require mechanical ventilation and supplemental oxygen. The earlier the surfactant is administered, the better the effect on gas exchange with an aim to have the oxygen saturation level of 98%. Glucose level assessment does not correlate with this therapy. The heart rate of 60 beats/min is an abnormal finding and not a positive result of the therapy. The PaCO2 greater than 45 mm Hg indicates respiratory acidosis. The normal value should be from 35 to 45 mm Hg.

A 32 weeks' gestation newborn is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. The assessment reveals a pale dyspneic newborn with marked tremors, a bulging anterior fontanel (fontanelle), and a high-pitched cry. What diagnosis best correlates with the assessment findings?

periventricular-intraventricular hemorrhage Explanation: If periventricular-intraventricular hemorrhage is suspected, evaluate the newborn for a drop in hematocrit, pallor, and poor perfusion as evidenced by respiratory distress and oxygen desaturation. Note seizures, lethargy, or other changes in level of consciousness, bulging fontanel, weak sucking, metabolic acidosis, high-pitched cry, or hypotonia. Palpate the anterior fontanel (fontanelle) for tenseness. PPHN, MAS, and RDS would not present with a bulging anterior fontanel (fontanelle) and high-pitched cry and therefore do not correlate.

When assessing a newborn, the nurse determines that the newborn is most likely experiencing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) based on which finding?

see-saw respirations Explanation: Typically the newborn with RDS demonstrates signs and symptoms of severe respiratory distress at birth or within a few hours of birth. Fine, inspiratory crackles are noted on auscultation of a newborn with RDS. See-saw respirations are characteristic of RDS. A newborn with RDS typically demonstrates generalized cyanosis.

Which newborn would the nurse suspect to be most at risk for intellectual disability due to the mother's actions during pregnancy?

the child of a client who admits to drinking a liter of alcohol daily during the pregnancy Explanation: Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder is one of the most common known causes of intellectual disability. The newborn is also at risk for fetal alcohol spectrum disorder and other alcohol-related birth defects. The other illicit drugs are not linked to intellectual disability but have many other teratogenic effects on the fetus/newborn. Marijuana has not shown to have teratogenic effects on the fetus.

At the breech forceps birth of a 32 weeks' gestation neonate, the nurse notes olygohydramnios with green thick amniotic fluid. The maternal history reveals a mother of Hispanic ethnicity with marked hypertension, who admits to using cocaine daily. Which factor(s) may contribute to meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)? Select all that apply.

the forceps breech birth maternal cocaine use maternal hypertension oligohydramnios present Rationale: The predisposing factors for meconium aspiration syndrome include postterm pregnancy and breech presentation with forceps. Ethnicity (Pacific Islander, Indigenous Australian, Black African) is a factor. Postterm neonates are at risk for MAS, but preterm neonates are not. Exposure to drugs during pregnancy, especially tobacco and cocaine, predispose the neeonate to MAS. Maternal hypertension and oligohydramnios also contribute to MAS.

Which respiratory disorder in a neonate is usually mild and runs a self-limited course?

transient tachypnea of the newborn Explanation: Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) has an invariably favorable outcome after several hours to several days. The outcome of pneumonia depends on the causative agent involved and may have complications. Meconium aspiration, depending on severity, may have long-term adverse effects. In persistent pulmonary hypertension, mortality is more than 50%.