NUR242 PrepU Ch 12 Nursing management during pregnancy

The nurse is assessing a client's risk for sexually transmitted infections. Which statement by the client would be cause for concern?

"I am unsure who the father of the baby is. I will be raising it alone." Explanation: While many individuals have complex social issues, if a client states that she is unsure of the father of the baby, it is understood that she has had recent, multiple sex partners. Sex with multiple partners places the client and fetus at risk for a sexually transmitted infection.

At the first prenatal visit of all clients who come to the clinic appropriate blood screenings are obtained. The nurse realizes that a hemoglobin A1C above which level is concerning for diabetes and warrants further testing?

6.5% Explanation: A hemoglobin A1C level of at least 6.5% is concerning for overt diabetes, and further testing should be conducted to ensure the client does not have diabetes. If glucose testing is not diagnostic of overt diabetes, the woman should be tested for gestational diabetes from 24 to 28 weeks' gestation with a 75-gm oral glucose tolerance test.

A pregnant client tells the nurse, "My health care provider told me that I have the best type of pelvic shape to deliver my baby vaginally." The nurse interprets this statement as indicating that the client has which pelvic shape?

gynecoid Explanation: A gynecoid, or "female," pelvis has an inlet that is well rounded forward and backward and has a wide pubic arch. This pelvic type is ideal for childbirth. In an android, or "male," pelvis, the pubic arch forms an acute angle, making the lower dimensions of the pelvis extremely narrow. A fetus may have difficulty exiting from this type of pelvis. In an anthropoid, or "ape-like," pelvis, the transverse diameter is narrow; the anteroposterior diameter of the inlet is larger than usual. Even though the inlet is large, the shape of the pelvis does not accommodate a fetal head as well as a gynecoid pelvis. A platypelloid, or "flattened," pelvis has a smoothly curved oval inlet, but the anteroposterior diameter is shallow. A fetal head might not be able to rotate to match the curves of the pelvic cavity.

Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform when assessing fetal well-being through abdominal ultrasonography in a client?

Instruct the client to refrain from emptying her bladder. Explanation: When assessing fetal well-being through abdominal ultrasonography, the nurse should instruct the client to refrain from emptying her bladder. The nurse must ensure that abdominal ultrasonography is conducted on a full bladder and should inform the client that she is likely to feel cold, not hot, initially in the test. The nurse should obtain the client's vital records and instruct the client to report the occurrence of fever when the client has to undergo amniocentesis, not ultrasonography.

The nurse is providing care for a pregnant client who has been given the necessary requisitions for laboratory work by the primary care provider. The client notices that the lab tests include testing for HIV and other sexually transmitted infections, and expresses alarm, stating, "I don't understand why the doctor would suspect that I've got these diseases." What is the nurse's most therapeutic statement?

"Every pregnant client is tested for these diseases; it doesn't necessarily suggest that the doctor suspects that you have them."

A pregnant client reports frequent urination and tells the health care provider that she has stopped drinking water during the day since she cannot take many breaks during work. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?

"Fluids are necessary so your blood volume can double, which is normal in pregnancy."

A gravida woman in her second trimester has shared that she still enjoys a glass of wine about once a week with dinner. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?

"There is no amount of alcohol consumption in pregnancy that is considered safe for the fetus."

A young couple are very excited to discover they are pregnant and ask the nurse when to expect the baby. Based on a July 20 LMP, which day will the nurse predict for delivery?

April 27 Explanation: Naegele rule is to subtract 3 months and add 7 days from the first day of the last menstrual period to determine an expected due date, making the client's due date April 27

What instruction should a nurse offer to a pregnant client or a client who wishes to become pregnant to help her avoid exposure to teratogenic substances?

Avoid medications. Explanation: The nurse should instruct a client who is pregnant or one who wants to conceive to avoid medications and thus avoid exposure to any kind of teratogenic substance

During the physical examination at the first prenatal visit a speculum examination is performed and a bluish-colored cervix is noted. How will the nurse interpret this finding?

Chadwick sign Explanation: Because of increased pelvic congestion during pregnancy, the cervix and vaginal mucosa will have a bluish coloration, which is called Chadwick sign. A softened cervix is called Goodell sign, and the uterine isthmus being softened is called Hegar sign. Naegele rule is used to calculate the expected date of delivery (EDD).

A client in the first trimester reports having nausea and vomiting, especially in the morning. Which instruction would be most appropriate to help prevent or reduce the client's compliant?

Eat dry crackers or toast before rising.

A nurse is collecting data during an admission assessment of a client who is pregnant with twins. The client has a 4-year-old child who was delivered at 38 weeks' gestation and tells the nurse that she does have a history of spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) within the first trimester. The nurse is correct to document the history as:

G = 3, T = 1, P = 0, A = 1, L = 1 Explanation: The GTPAL stands for Gravida -- number of pregnancies, which is 3 (current, 4-year-old, and miscarriage); Term -- only one pregnancy thus far carried to term; Preterm deliveries -- 0; Abortions (either elective or miscarriage) -- 1; Living children -- 1. Do not be distracted by the twins. That is still one pregnancy

The nurse performs a nonstress test (NST) on a client at 36 weeks' gestation. What criteria does the nurse look for on the tracing to determine that the NST is reactive?

Presence of 2 accelerations in 20 minutes Explanation: An NST is an assessment of fetal well-being. The criteria for a reactive NST is the presence of two accelerations in a 20-minute window. The presence of decelerations or contractions would require further evaluation of fetal status

The nurse discovers a new prescription for Rho(D) immune globulin for a client who is about to undergo a diagnostic procedure. The nurse will administer the Rho(D) immune globulin after which procedure?

amniocentesis Explanation: Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure whereby a needle is inserted into the amniotic sac to obtain a small amount of fluid. This places the pregnancy at risk for a woman with Rh(D)-negative blood, since the puncture can allow the seepage of blood and amniotic fluid into the woman's system. She should receive Rho(D) immune globulin after the procedure to protect her and future babies. The CST, NST, and a biophysical profile are noninvasive tests.

The nurse advises a pregnant client to keep a small high-carbohydrate, low-fat snack at the bedside. The nurse should point out this will assist with which condition?

nausea and vomiting Explanation: Women will commonly experience nausea and vomiting upon awakening first thing in the morning. Clients who experience this should be encouraged to have small snacks at their bedside for eating prior to moving from the bed. Heartburn is a result of pressure and hormone action. Faintness is due to pressure on the vena cava, not blood sugar

To prevent exposure to hepatitis A virus, the nurse teaches the pregnant client to avoid which food?

raw fish

A pregnant client reports occasional headaches. She wants to know what she can take to alleviate the discomfort. What would be the best response by the nurse?

"Acetaminophen is considered relatively safe to take for your headaches during your pregnancy." Explanation: The medication that is approved for the treatment of headaches in pregnant women is acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is considered relatively safe to take during pregnancy

The nurse is providing education regarding fetal kicks/movement to a primigravid client at 22 weeks' gestation. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"I will document how long it takes my baby to move 10 times." Explanation: A healthy fetus moves and kicks regularly. Instruction to the first time mother includes onset of feeling the fetal kicks (16 to 20 weeks' gestation) and understanding typical kick counts (10 kicks per 1 hour). Clients are encouraged to document each kick or change in position on a piece of paper. If 10 movements are not felt within 2 hours, the client should contact her health care provider. It is unrealistic to think the client will record fetal movement and kicks each hour. Kick count should be completed daily, not weekly

The gravid client reports craving and sometimes eating starch. When she questions the nurse about this behavior what information should be included in the nurse's response? Select all that apply.

"Nonfood cravings such as this are often tied to nutritional imbalances." "Eating things such as starch may be dangerous." "This is known as pica and can be associated with pregnancy."

The nurse is assessing a client at her first prenatal visit and notes that she is exposed to various chemicals at her place of employment. Which statement by the client would indicate she needs additional health education to protect her and her fetus?

"The gloves they provide irritate my hands, so I don't use them." Explanation: There are various chemicals which are recognized for their teratogenic effects and must be avoided during pregnancy. The nurse should find out which chemicals the client is exposed to and determine the risk factor. The greatest danger is the client handling chemicals without a barrier protection such as gloves. The other issues may also be dangers depending on the chemicals and the environment in which the client is working and should also be evaluated

At 24 weeks' gestation a client is asked to drink a sweet orange solution and then wait an hour to have blood drawn. The client asks if this is the test to determine if she has diabetes. What is the best response by the nurse?

"This is a screening procedure. If your result is elevated you will be scheduled for a longer test to determine if you have gestational diabetes." Explanation: A glucose tolerance test involves a glucose load and a blood glucose level 1 hour later. It is a screening test used to determine if the client needs a full 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. A 1-hour glucose tolerance test is not diagnostic of insulin resistance nor gestational diabetes. If the screening test is elevated the client is scheduled for the diagnostic test at approximately 24 to 26 weeks' gestation. If a client is eventually diagnosed with gestational diabetes, the initial treatment is diet therapy, not insulin

The nurse assesses a 20-week gestational client at a routine prenatal visit. What will the nurse predict the fundal height to be on this client experiencing an uneventful pregnancy?

20 cm Explanation: Between weeks 18 and 32 the fundal height in centimeters should match the gestational age of the pregnancy. At 20 weeks' the fundal height should be at the umbilicus. A fundal height smaller than expected can indicate that the original dates were miscalculated, oligohydramnios, or that the fetus is smaller than expected. If the fundal height is larger than expected this can indicate multiple gestation, the original dates were miscalculated, polyhydramnios, or a molar pregnancy

What advice should the nurse provide to a pregnant client who admits to continuing to drink alcohol 1 to 2 times a week?

Alcohol should not be consumed during pregnancy. Explanation: There is no safe amount of alcohol to consume during pregnancy. If the client refuses or has a problem, alert the health care provider for the appropriate referral.

The nurse will be assisting a client during an amniocentesis. Which nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Be certain she is aware of potential complications. Explanation: The client should be aware of the potential complications and risks, and should sign an informed consent. Opioids are contraindicated for pregnant woman due to side effects. She should maintain bed rest for the remainder of the day, with light housework the following day and a return to normal activities on the third day. It may take 2 or 3 weeks before the test results come back from the laboratory.

A pregnant client at full-term gestation calls the nurse to report contractions every 6 to 7 minutes that are getting stronger. The membranes are intact. The client lives 45 minutes away from the hospital and had a 4-hour labor with the previous birth. What will the nurse advise?

Come to the hospital now for assessment. Explanation: Generally, clients are advised to come to the hospital once contractions are 5 minutes apart, but because this client has a history of fast (4 hour) labor and lives 45 minutes away from the hospital, the client should be advised to come to the hospital now. Membranes may rupture at any point in labor and should not dictate the timing of hospital admission. Bloody show is a normal finding in labor, but it does not determine the stage of labor or when the client should come to the hospital.

A woman has come to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. Which method would be the most effective way for the nurse to initiate data gathering for a health history?

Conduct an interview in a private room to obtain her health history. Explanation: Health interviewing is always conducted best in a quiet, private setting before examination procedures begin.

The client states that the first day of her last menstrual period is March 23. The nurse is most correct to calculate using Naegele rule that the estimated date of delivery is:

December 30 Explanation: Using Naegele rule, since the first day of the client's last menstrual period is March 23, 7 days are added leading to the 30th. Subtracting 3 months from March is December. Thus, December 30 is the estimated date of delivery

At 34 weeks' gestation a client is diagnosed with preeclampsia and sent home on bed rest. The nurse teaches the client to contact the provider immediately if she experiences which change?

Decreased fetal movement Explanation: Decreased fetal movement may indicate decreased fetal oxygenation as a result of hypertension. This is a risk to fetal well-being and the provider needs to be contacted.

The nurse is preparing a care plan for a primigravida client and her partner who are excited about her pregnancy and ask lots of questions on various subjects. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize for this client and her partner in this care plan?

Deficient knowledge

A client at 28 weeks' gestation is asking for a laxative for constipation. What action would the nurse recommend?

Eat fiber-rich foods. Explanation: Increasing dietary fiber is the best way to address constipation. Laxatives, suppositories, and enemas only provide temporary relief and may stimulate labor.

At her prenatal visit a client reports that she cannot find any shoes that are comfortable. Assessment of her legs reveals dependent edema. The nurse suggests that the client attempt which actions to help reduce the edema? Select all that apply.

Elevate feet and legs when sitting or lying. Avoid foods high in sodium, sugar, and fats. Drink 6 to 8 glasses of water each day

A woman relates to the nurse that she understands that dietary fat is bad for her and that she should avoid it during pregnancy. How should the nurse respond?

Fats are essential during pregnancy, and vegetable oils are a good source. Explanation: Omega-3 fatty acids, particularly linoleic acid, are fats that are essential for new cell growth but cannot be manufactured by the body. Vegetable oils such as safflower, corn, olive, peanut, and cottonseed, fatty fish, omega-3 infused eggs, and omega-3 infused spreads are all good sources. Pregnant women should ingest between 200 and 300 mg daily. Because some fish may be contaminated by mercury, alert women that the American Pregnancy Association (APA) recommends that marlin, orange roughy, tilefish, swordfish, shark, king mackerel, and bigeye and ahi tuna should be avoided during pregnancy.

A woman reports that her last menstrual period (LMP) occurred February 1, 2017. Using the Naegele rule, what would be her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?

November 8, 2017 Explanation: To determine the due date using Naegele rule, add 7 days to the date of the first day of the LMP, and then subtract 3 months.

A client at 32 weeks' gestation is admitted to labor and delivery with vaginal bleeding and contractions. The physician orders a course of two steroid injections. The client asks why she needs steroids. What is the best explanation by the nurse?

The steroids speed up the development of the lungs. Explanation: Steroids given to the mother before birth help to speed up the development of the fetal lungs. The use of prenatal steroids has decreased the mortality rate in preterm infants

A nurse at the health care facility assesses a client at 20 weeks' gestation. The client is healthy and progressing well, without any sign of complications. Where should the nurse expect to measure the fundal height in this client?

at the level of the umbilicus Explanation: In the 20th week of gestation, the nurse should expect to find the fundus at the level of the umbilicus. The nurse should palpate at the top of the symphysis pubis between 10 to 12 weeks' gestation. At 16 weeks' gestation, the fundus should reach halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. With a full-term pregnancy, the fundus should reach the xiphoid process.

A nurse is conducting a program about the importance of prenatal care for a group of women in a community health clinic. Which information would the nurse include when describing the purpose of prenatal care? Select all that apply.

identify women at risk for complication Establish a baseline of present health. Determine the gestational age of the fetus. Monitor for fetal development and maternal well-being

The nurse is caring for a client having chorionic villus sampling using the transcervical approach. When preparing the client for the procedure, in which position is the client placed?

lithotomy position Explanation: The lithotomy position with the legs in stirrups is the best position to access the cervical region.

A pregnant adolescent asks the nurse which sport would be safe for her to learn during pregnancy. Which activity would the nurse suggest as safe?

swimming

In preparing for a preconception class, the nurse plans to include a discussion of potential risk factors. Which risk factor would be most important to include?

the use of OTC drugs with teratogens Explanation: Risk factors for adverse pregnancy have been demonstrated by statistics gathered for smoking during pregnancy, consuming alcohol during pregnancy, not taking adequate folic acid supplements during pregnancy, being obese, taking prescription or OTC drugs that are known teratogens, and having a preexisting condition that can negatively affect pregnancy if unmanaged

The nurse is reinforcing health care provider education on the technique for an amniocentesis. Which piece of equipment will the nurse have ready?

ultrasound equipment Explanation: First, the health care provider identifies a pocket of amniotic fluid using an ultrasound machine

A 27-year-old client is in the first trimester of an unplanned pregnancy. She acknowledges that it would be best if she were to quit smoking now that she is pregnant, but states that it would be too difficult given her 13 pack-year history and circle of friends who also smoke. She asks the nurse, "Why exactly is it so important for me to quit? I know lots of smokers who have happy, healthy babies." What can the nurse tell the client about the potential effects of smoking in pregnancy?

"Babies of women who smoke tend to weigh significantly less than other infants." Explanation: Smoking during pregnancy is linked with low birth weight but not cardiac anomalies, intellectual disability, or nicotine dependence

The nurse is conducting a teaching session for breastfeeding mothers. Which statement by a mother requires further clarification by the nurse?

"I am glad I can have my two cups of coffee in the morning again."

The nurse is completing the teaching for a newly pregnant client with a BMI of 23. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of weight gain during this pregnancy?

"I need to gain 25 to 35 pounds (11 to 16 kg) during this pregnancy." Explanation: A prepregnant BMI of 23 is in the normal category, and this client needs to gain 25 to 35 lbs (11 to 16 kg) during this pregnancy. Lower weight gain would be recommended for women with a BMI of over 25.

A nurse is teaching a client who is 30 weeks' pregnant about ways to deal with pyrosis (heartburn). The nurse determines a need for additional teaching based on which client statement?

"I should lie down for 1/2 hour after eating." Explanation: The client should remain sitting for 1 to 3 hours after eating and avoid lying down within 3 hours of eating. Cutting out caffeine, chewing food slowly, and raising the head of the bed are helpful in reducing pyrosis (heartburn) of pregnancy.

The nurse is conducting nutrition education with a 17-year-old pregnant client. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching by the nurse?

"I should not eat pizza because it has too much fat." Explanation: The pregnant adolescent can continue to eat foods that the client likes as long as it provides sufficient nutrients. Pizza provides several food groups, so does not need to be eliminated from the diet; this requires further teaching.

After teaching the pregnant woman about ways to minimize flatulence and bloating during pregnancy, the nurse understands that which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching?

"I'll switch to chewing gum instead of using mints." Explanation: Eating mints can help reduce flatulence; chewing gum increases the amount of air that is swallowed, increasing gas build-up. Increasing fluid intake helps to reduce flatus. Gas-forming foods such as beans, cabbage, and onions should be avoided. Increasing physical exercise, such as walking, aids in reducing flatus.

The nurse is reviewing client data following a regular monthly appointment at 6 months' gestation. Which fundal height requires no further intervention?

24 cm Explanation: An anticipated fundal height for 24 weeks' gestation (6 months) is 24 cm. Between 18 and 32 weeks' gestation, the fundal height in centimeters should match the gestational age. All of the other measurements would require further intervention

A woman is in her early second trimester of pregnancy. The nurse would instruct the woman to return for a follow-up visit every:

4 weeks. Explanation: The recommended follow-up visit schedule is every 4 weeks up to 28 weeks, every 2 weeks from 29 to 36 weeks, and then every week from 37 weeks to birth.

Utilize the GTPAL system to classify a woman who is currently 18 weeks pregnant. This is her 4th pregnancy. She gave birth to one baby vaginally at 26 weeks who died, experienced a miscarriage, and has one living child who was delivered at 38 weeks gestation.

4, 1, 1, 1, 1 Explanation: The GTPAL system is used to classifying pregnancy status. G = gravida, T= term, P = preterm, A = number of abortions, L= number of living children

The nurse discovers a soft systolic murmur when auscultating the heart of a client at 32 weeks' gestation. Which action would be most appropriate?

Document this and continue to monitor the murmur at future visits. Explanation: Due to the increased blood volume that occurs with pregnancy, soft systolic murmurs may be heard and are considered normal.

A woman was diagnosed as having experienced a missed abortion at 10 weeks' gestation. When reviewing the client's medical records, which finding would most likely be noted?

Feeling diminished signs of pregnancy such as breast tenderness and nausea. Explanation: A "missed abortion" results when the products of conception die in utero but are not expelled. The woman may experience a diminishing of pregnancy signs and symptoms as the hormonal levels begin to decline. There is no heavy or consistent vaginal bleeding. There is no cramping

A 41-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are anxiously awaiting the results of various blood tests to evaluate the fetus for potential Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and spina bifida. Client education should include which information?

Further testing will be required to confirm any diagnosis. Explanation: Nursing management related to marker screening tests consists primarily of providing education about the tests. Remind the couple that a definitive diagnosis is not made without further tests such as an amniocentesis. The blood tests are not definitive but only strongly suggest the possibility of a defect. For some conditions there are no treatments. The couple may request a second set, but the health care provider will probably suggest proceeding with the more definitive methods to confirm the diagnosis.

The nurse is educating a woman about the importance of folic acid before conception and during pregnancy, to prevent neural tube defects in the fetus. The client plans to take prenatal vitamins and minerals. What food source would the nurse recommend to add to the woman's diet?

Green leafy vegetables Explanation: Green leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. In the past, green tea was thought to interfere with the absorption of folic acid; however, studies do not support this. The women would be advised to avoid green and iced tea due to the caffeine content.

A pregnant woman comes to the clinic for a prenatal visit for her third pregnancy. She reveals she had a previous miscarriage at 12 weeks and her 3-year-old son was born at 32 weeks. How should the nurse document this woman's obstetric history?

G3, T0, P1, A1, L1

A woman who is 4 months pregnant notices frequent heart palpitations and leg cramps. She is anxious to learn how to alleviate these. Which nursing diagnosis would best apply to her?

Health-seeking behaviors related to ways to relieve discomforts of pregnancy Explanation: Health-seeking behaviors is a diagnosis used to describe clients who are actively interested in learning ways to improve their health

A nurse caring for a client in labor has asked her to perform Lamaze breathing techniques to avoid pain. Which should the nurse keep in mind to promote effective Lamaze-method breathing?

Remain quiet during client's period of imagery. Explanation: According to the Lamaze method of preparing for labor and birth, the nurse must remain quiet during the client's period of imagery and focal point visualization to avoid breaking her concentration. The nurse should ensure deep abdominopelvic breathing by the client according to the Bradley method, along with ensuring the client's concentration on pleasurable sensations. The Bradley method emphasizes the pleasurable sensations of birth and involves teaching women to concentrate on these sensations when "turning on" to their own bodies. The nurse should ensure abdominal breathing during contractions when using the Dick-Read method

A 31-year-old client at 28 weeks' gestation reports frequent low back pain and ankle edema by the end of the day. Which suggestion should the nurse prioritize for this client?

Rest when possible with feet elevated at or above the heart. Explanation: Resting in the recumbent position helps alleviate stress on the back, and elevating the legs will help relieve the edema.

A client in her third trimester of pregnancy wishes to formula feed her baby. What instruction should the nurse provide?

Serve the formula at room temperature. Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to serve the formula to her infant at room temperature. The nurse should instruct the client to follow the directions on the package when mixing the powder because different formulas may have different instructions. The infant should be fed every 3 to 4 hours, not every 8 hours. The nurse should specifically instruct the client to avoid refrigerating the formula for subsequent feedings. Any leftover formula should be discarded

A woman is concerned that orgasm will be harmful during pregnancy. Which statement is factual?

Some women experience orgasm intensely during pregnancy. Explanation: Because of pelvic congestion, orgasm may be achieved more readily by pregnant women than nonpregnant women

A pregnant client is planning a vacation to a different state and questions the nurse concerning precautions. Which suggestion should the nurse prioritize for this client who will be traveling by automobile?

Stop and walk every 2 hours. Explanation: Walking increases venous return and reduces the possibility of thrombophlebitis, a risk for pregnant women who sit for extended periods of time. Limiting mileage, sitting in the back with the feet elevated, and limiting trips may help, but they are not enough to prevent phlebitis.

The health care provider has prescribed an over-the-counter antacid for a pregnant client in her first trimester who is having ongoing nausea, vomiting, and heartburn. Which instruction concerning the antacid should the nurse prioritize after noting the client is also prescribed a multivitamin supplement?

Take antacid 1 hour after the multivitamin. Explanation: Antacids interfere with the uptake of the vitamin contents so the client should take the antacid 1 hour after taking the multivitamin. Caffeine should be avoided due to increases in blood pressure and diuretic effects. Antacids can be taken more often than solely at bedtime, and some clients need them after each meal. Antacids do not have to be taken with dairy products. The priority is to avoid allowing the antacid to cancel out the multivitamin

The client is 32 weeks' pregnant and has been referred for a biophysical profile (BPP) after a nonreassuring nonstress test (NST). Which statement made by the client indicates that the nurse's explanation of the procedure was effective?

The BPP is an ultrasound that measures breathing, body movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. Explanation: A biophysical profile uses a combination of factors to determine fetal well-being based upon five fetal biophysical variables. An NST is done to measure FHR acceleration. Then an ultrasound is done to measure breathing, body movements, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. Each variable receives a score from 0 to 2 for a maximum score of 10. A score of 6 or less indicates altered fetal well-being and indicates a need for further assessment. A needle is not involved with the BPP. The BPP does not detect placental problems, and the BPP is not a screening for neural tube defects.

While reviewing the medical record of a client, the nurse notes that the client is para 2. What does the nurse know from this information?

The client has had 2 pregnancies reaching viability. Explanation: Para refers to the number of pregnancies that have reached viability, regardless of whether the infants were born alive, which in this case is 2. Gravida refers to a person who is or has been pregnant. Primigravida refers to a person who is pregnant for the first time. Nulligravida refers to a person who has never been and is not currently pregnant

The nurse is assisting a pregnant client who underwent a nonstress test that was ruled reactive. Which factor will the nurse point out when questioned by the client about the results?

The fetal heart rate increases with activity and indicates fetal well-being. Explanation: A nonstress test is a noninvasive way to monitor fetal well-being. A reactive NST is a positive sign the fetus is tolerating pregnancy well by demonstrating heart rate increase with activity, and this indicates fetal well-being. This test is not used to determine congenital anomalies or deformities. It does not determine the speed by which fetus is developing. Further evaluation would be necessary if the results were nonreactive.

A pregnant woman states that she would like to take a tub bath but has heard from her aunt that this could be dangerous to the baby. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client?

Tub baths are fine unless you are unstable on your feet or are experiencing vaginal bleeding. Explanation: Daily tub baths or showers are recommended. Women should not soak for long periods in extremely hot water or hot tubs, however, as heat exposure for a lengthy time could lead to hyperthermia in the fetus and birth defects, specifically esophageal atresia, omphalocele, and gastroschisis. As pregnancy advances, a woman may have difficulty maintaining her balance when getting in and out of a bathtub. If so, she should change to showering or sponge bathing for her own safety. If membranes rupture or vaginal bleeding is present, tub baths become contraindicated because there might be a danger of contamination of uterine contents. Soap is not a teratogen to the fetus.

A pregnant client in her second trimester informs the nurse that she needs to travel by air the following week. Which precaution should the nurse instruct the client to take during the flight?

Wear support hose. Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to wear support hose while traveling by air. The nurse should also instruct the client to periodically exercise the legs and ankles, and walk in the aisles if possible.

During pregnancy, the cardinal rule concerning medications and herbal remedies is that all drugs cross the placenta and have a potential impact on the fetus. What is one disease where treatment must continue during pregnancy?

asthma Explanation: Treatment (including medications) for certain diseases and conditions must continue during pregnancy. Examples include epilepsy, asthma, diabetes, and depression

A potential complication for the mother and fetus is Rh incompatibility; therefore, assessment should include blood typing. If the mother is Rh negative, her antibody titer should be evaluated. If treatment with Rho(D) immune globulin is indicated, the nurse would expect to administer it at which time?

at 28 weeks Explanation: If indicated, Rho(D) immune globulin should be given at 28 weeks for prophylaxis and again following birth if the infant is Rh+.

A nurse is reading a journal article about the use of real-time ultrasonography, which allows the health care provider to obtain information about the fetus. The nurse would expect the article to describe which type of information?

biophysical profile Explanation: A biophysical profile uses real-time ultrasound to allow assessment of various parameters of fetal well-being. This may include fetal movements, fetal tone, and fetal breathing, as well as assessment of amniotic fluid volume with or without assessment of fetal heart rate. Chromosomal abnormalities are detected via amniocentesis. Neural tube defect treatment is not evaluated via biophysical profile, and although the placenta may be observed, it is not the focus of this procedure

Which possible complication associated with back pain can lead to premature contractions?

bladder or kidney infection Explanation: Obtaining a detailed account of a woman's back symptoms is crucial because back pain can be an initial sign of a bladder or kidney infection.

A nurse is conducting a class with group of pregnant women who are all in their first trimester of pregnancy. During the class, the women are discussing the various discomforts that they are experiencing. The nurse would expect to hear reports about which discomforts? Select all that apply.

breast tenderness nausea urinary frequency

The nurse is teaching about an iron supplement that the client is going to take every day. The nurse teaches the client to take the iron supplement with which type of fluid?

citrus juice Explanation: The citric acid in juice enhances absorption of iron in the GI tract

While assessing a client's breast during the third trimester, which finding would the nurse expect?

colostrum from the nipples Explanation: During the third trimester, the nipples express colostrum. Areolae and nipples appear enlarged with darker pigmentation during the third trimester. The nurse assesses for the softness of the breast, color, and pain in the nipple area in nursing mothers

A woman calls the prenatal clinic and says that she thinks she might be in labor. She shares her symptoms over the phone with the nurse and asks what to do. The nurse determines that she is likely in true labor and that she should head to the hospital. Which symptom is an indicator of true labor?

contractions beginning in the back and sweeping forward across the abdomen Explanation: True labor contractions usually begin in the back and sweep forward across the abdomen similar to tightening of a rubber band. They gradually increase in frequency and intensity over a period of hours.

A nurse is providing education to a client who is 8 weeks' pregnant. The client stated she does not like milk. What is a source of calcium that the nurse can recommend to the client?

dark, leafy green vegetables

When preparing a class for a group of pregnant women about nicotine use during pregnancy, the nurse describes the major risks associated with nicotine use, including:

decreased birth weight in neonates. Explanation: The nurse should inform the client that children born of mothers who use nicotine will have a decreased birth weight. Spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) is associated with caffeine use. Increased risks of stillbirth and placental abruption (abruptio placentae) are associated with mothers addicted to cocaine

Some pregnant women hire a trained professional to provide support during pregnancy and birth, to provide emotional support during labor and birth, and to aid in establishing breastfeeding. What is the name of the woman who takes this role?

doula Explanation: The pregnant woman may hire a doula to provide support for labor and birth and help with establishing breastfeeding. A doula can also provide support for the postpartum period

The nurse is describing pregnancy danger signs to a pregnant woman who is in her first trimester. Which danger sign might occur at this point in her pregnancy?

excessive vomiting Explanation: Excessive vomiting is a warning sign in the first trimester.

During a follow-up visit to the prenatal clinic, a pregnant client asks the nurse about using a hot tub to help with her backache. The nurse recommends against the use based on the understanding that what can occur?

fetal tachycardia Explanation: Pregnant women should avoid hot tubs, saunas, whirlpools, and tanning beds. The heat may cause fetal tachycardia as well as raise the maternal temperature. Exposure to bacteria in hot tubs that have not been cleaned sufficiently is another reason to avoid them during pregnancy

A pregnant woman has been diagnosed with pica since she eats lead paint chips for their sweetness. The nurse educating this woman should strongly encourage her to abandon this practice because it may have which consequence to the fetus?

neurological challenges Explanation: Lead ingestion during pregnancy may lead to a newborn who is both cognitively and neurologically challenged. Formaldehyde exposure can lead to spontaneous abortions (miscarriages). Breathing air filled with pollutants (such as carbon monoxide) has been shown to lead to fetal growth restriction. The rubella virus' teratogenic effects on a fetus can be devastating, such as hearing impairment, cognitive and motor challenges, cataracts, and cardiac defects.

The nurse is assisting a primigravida on calculating the due date of her baby using Naegele rule. The most important information provided by the mother is:

the first day of the last menstrual period. Explanation: Naegele rule is calculated using the first day of the last menstrual period. From there, 7 days are added and then 3 months are subtracted. The ovulation date, intercourse date, or last day of the menstrual period are not needed.