NURS 305 EXAM #2 EAQS
Which nursing consideration is important for safe administration of intravenous nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis? 1) Monitor vital signs every 2 hours 2) Protect solution and tubing from light 3) Indicated for decreased cerebral perfusion 4) Initial dose: 20 mcg/kg/min for no more than 20 minutes
2 *photosensitivity
Which beta blocker could be safely prescribed to a patient with hypertension and bronchoconstriction? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Carvedilol 2) Betaxolol 3) Acebutolol 4) Propranolol 5) Metoprolol
2, 3, 5
Which is the correct order of events of thrombus formation due to platelet aggregation? 1) Disruption in the endothelial lining of the blood vessel 2) Adherence of platelets to the broken surface 3) Synthesis of thromboxane A2 4) Activation of receptor protein (glycoprotein IIb/IIIa)
1, 2, 3, 4
Upon assessment of a patient taking digoxin for the management of heart failure, the nurse documents a heart rate of 52 beats per minute, nausea, and a yellowish hue in the patient's vision. What would the nurse expect to hear from the health care provider about the management of this patient? 1) Obtain the digoxin level. 2) Administer the antiemetic. 3) Initiate a clear liquid diet. 4) Measure the oxygen saturation
1
Which beta blocker is nonselective? 1) Carvedilol 2) Bisoprolol 3) Acebutolol 4) Atenolol
1
The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed bumetanide for pulmonary edema. Which finding in the patient's history would be a contraindication for using this medication? 1) Gout 2) Arthritis 3) Hypertension 4) Angina pectoris
1 *loop diuretics cause elevated uric acid levels
Which supplement may increase blood pressure when used with antihypertensive drugs? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Licorice 2) Ephedra 3) Hawthorn 4) Goldenseal 5) Black cohosh
1, 2
Arrange in order the steps that take place when heparin is administered parenterally. 1)Binding with antithrombin III occurs. 2) Thrombin is inhibited. 3) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is inhibited. 4) The formation of fibrin clot is prevented.
1, 2, 3, 4
Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient taking spironolactone? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Assess renal function. 2) Weigh patient every day. 3) Obtain serum electrolytes. 4) Monitor intake and output. 5) Offer high-potassium foods
1, 2, 3, 4
Which is the appropriate order of events involved in the thrombolytic action of alteplase? 1) Binding of the drug to the surface of a clot 2) Promoting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin 3) Digestion of the fibrin mesh in the clot by plasmin 4) Degradation of fibrinogen, prothrombin, and other clotting factors
1, 2, 3, 4
Which nonpharmacologic method can be used to decrease blood pressure? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) stress reduction 2) exercise 3) salt restriction 4) smoking cessation 5) massage
1, 2, 3, 4
The nurse monitors the patient for which side effect associated with amlodipine therapy? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Nausea 2) Dizziness 3) Drowsiness 4) Muscle cramps 5) Visual impairment 6) Erectile dysfunction
all *calcium channel blocker
Which intervention would the nurse implement immediately for a patient newly prescribed digoxin who is concurrently prescribed furosemide? 1) Assess the prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT). 2) Monitor the potassium level. 3) Obtain a baseline hearing assessment. 4) Instruct the patient on a low-sodium, low-fat diet
2 *furosemide is a loop diuretic
Which oral anticoagulant requires routine coagulation monitoring? 1) Apixaban 2) Warfarin 3) Dabigatran 4) Rivaroxaban
2 *monitor PT and INR
Which drug may cause bronchoconstriction? 1) Atenolol 2) Propranolol 3) Verapamil HCl 4) Nicardipine HC
2 *nonselective beta blocker
Which diuretic is beneficial in treating absence or petit mal seizures and open-angle glaucoma? 1) Furosemide 2) Mannitol 3) Acetazolamide 4) Triamterene
3 *carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Which intervention is appropriate for a nurse to take after noting hemorrhagic infarction at the myocardial necrotic area following administration of alteplase through an intracoronary catheter in a patient with a myocardial infarction? 1) administered fresh frozen plasma 2) administering vitamin K1 3) administering aminocaproic acid 4) administering protamine sulphate
3 *fresh, frozen plasma is for bleeding from anticoagulants
Which instruction does a nurse provide a patient who is prescribed nitroglycerin patches in order to prevent the development of tolerance to nitrates? 1) "Apply the nitroglycerin patch every other day." 2) "Use the nitroglycerin patch for acute episodes of angina only." 3) "Use sublingual nitroglycerin if your systolic blood pressure is 140 mm Hg." 4) "Apply the nitroglycerin patch each day, and remove it for 10 hours at night."
4 *give a drug holiday
Which serum digoxin concentration is suggestive of digitalis toxicity? 1) 1.6 ng/mL 2) 1.8 ng/mL 3) 2.0 ng/mL 4) 2.2 ng/mL
4 *greater than 2 ng/mL is toxic
The nurse reviews the history of a patient experiencing premature ventricular contractions who is prescribed propranolol. Which action will be the nurse's priority when noting that the patient has a history of asthma? 1) Seek a bronchodilator prescription. 2) Administer the drug as prescribed. 3) Administer half the prescribed dose of the drug. 4) Ask the health care provider to switch to another drug.
4 *propranolol is a nonselective betablocker; causes bronchoconstriction
Which nursing instruction is beneficial for a patient who is prescribed furosemide? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) avoid taking the drug with food 2) take ginseng along with the drug 3) take this drug before eating dinner 4) take this drug along with breakfast 5) rise slowly from lying or sitting when taking this drug
4, 5
Which medication class may be prescribed with a direct-acting vasodilator to decrease edema? 1) Diuretics 2) Calcium channel blockers 3) Angiotensin II-receptor blockers 4) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
1
Which parameter do chronotropic drugs affect? 1) Heart rate 2) Blood pressure 3) Conduction velocity 4) Myocardial contractility
1
Which rationale explains why a nurse would advise an older adult patient to take furosemide in the morning? 1) To prevent the patient from urinating at night 2) To prevent an increase in overall body weight 3) To prevent orthostatic hypotension changes 4) To prevent fluid and electrolyte imbalances
1
Which side effect of antihypertensive drugs does a nurse recognize as a priority among older patients? 1) Orthostatic hypotension 2) Weight gain 3) Weight loss 4) Fatigue
1
Which statement by the nurse explains the reason for discontinuing aspirin 7 days before surgery? 1) "Aspirin has prolonged platelet activity." 2) "Aspirin can interact with the anesthesia." 3) "Aspirin has prolonged anticoagulant activity." 4) "Aspirin can interact with postoperative pain medication."
1
Which two functions are associated with diuretics? 1) Reducing edema and blood pressure 2) Reducing weight and edema 3) Reducing blood volume and edema 4) Reducing calcium and blood pressure
1
Which class of drugs would be prescribed for a patient who experiences exertional angina? 1) Beta blockers 2) Class Ib antidysrhythmics 3) Calcium channel blockers 4) Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
1 *b/c beta blockers decrease HR & contractility & oxygen consumption
Which statement made by a nurse about warfarin indicates the need for further teaching? 1) "I will advise the patient to use aspirin for pain." 2) "I will advise the patient to shave with an electric razor." 3) "I will teach the patient to avoid smoking." 4) "I will teach the patient to inform his or her dentist about the use of warfarin."
1 *can cause increased bleeding
Which patient assessment would assist a nurse in evaluating therapeutic effects of a calcium channel blocker for angina? 1) Absence of chest pain 2) Patient denies dizziness 3) Reduced dyspnea 4) Decreased swelling in the ankles and feet
1 *decreased workload on heart
Which instructions will a nurse include in the plan of care for a patient receiving warfarin? 1) "Do not take aspirin for pain." 2) "Do not eat foods with potassium." 3) "Avoid the use of acetaminophen." 4) "Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables."
1 *don't take NSAIDs because it increases risk of bleeding (antiplatelet)
Which assessment will the nurse make before administering isosorbide dinitrate? 1) Assess blood pressure. 2) Assess serum electrolytes. 3) Monitor level of consciousness. 4) Measure blood urea nitrogen and creatinine.
1 *isosorbide dinitrate is a vasodilator and can cause hypotension
Which action will a nurse take to address a patient's request for aspirin for a headache, noting the patient is receiving warfarin? 1) Teach the patient about the potential drug interactions with anticoagulants. 2) Explain that the headache is an expected side effect and will subside shortly. 3) Administer 650 mg of acetylsalicylic acid and reassess pain in 30 minutes. 4) Explain to the patient that aspirin is contraindicated and administer ibuprofen instead.
1
Which assessment would a nurse make before administering digoxin? 1) Apical pulse 2) Homans sign 3) Breath sounds 4) Weight in kilograms
1
Which description is accurate regarding the actions of selective alpha-adrenergic blockers in the management of hypertension? 1) Dilates arteries and venules and decreases peripheral resistance 2) Blocks the calcium channel in vascular smooth muscle cells 3) Promotes sodium depletion, decreasing extracellular fluid volume 4) Binds with renin and causes reduction in angiotensin I, angiotensin II, and aldosterone
1
Which drug class is suitable to prevent stroke in a patient with transient ischemic attacks? 1) Antiplatelets 2) Thrombolytics 3) Anticoagulants 4) Antifibrinolytics
1
Which is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide? 1) Encourage intake of foods rich in potassium. 2) Schedule the dose to be taken in the evening. 3) Monitor serum calcium and sodium levels daily. 4) Take the radial pulse for 1 full minute before administering the drug.
1
Which mechanism of action describes how digoxin immune Fab works? 1) Binding to digoxin 2) Decreasing elimination 3) Inducing a heart block 4) speeds up metabolism
1
Which statement describes an important nursing consideration when caring for a patient prescribed a continuous heparin infusion? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Ensure that protamine sulfate is readily available at all times. 2) Ensure that the patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels are monitored correctly. 3) Ensure that the patient is taught dietary restrictions while on the drug. 4) Ensure that a loading dose was initially administered when beginning treatment. 5) Ensure the patient's baseline international normalized ratio (INR) is assessed
1, 2, 4 *dietary changes for warfarin
Which statement about calcium channel blockers (CCBs) is true? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Peripheral edema is a common side effect. 2) CCBs relax the coronary arteries. 3) CCBs increase cardiac contractility and afterload. 4) Nifedipine is the most potent CCB. 5) Diltiazem is indicated for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT).
1, 2, 4, 5
Which symptom will a nurse monitor in a patient with suspected digoxin toxicity? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Anorexia 2) Vomiting 3) Dry cough 4) Visual disturbances 5) Cardiac dysrhythmias
1, 2, 4, 5
Which drug blocks angiotensin II from the angiotensin I receptors? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Losartan 2) Valsartan 3) Moexipril 4) Captopril 5) Irbesartan
1, 2, 5 *ARBs
The nurse is planning care for a patient prescribed mannitol for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which laboratory value would the nurse assess? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Sodium 2) Calcium 3) Potassium 4) Creatinine 5) Magnesium
1, 3
Which clotting factor is affected by oral anticoagulants? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) II 2) IV 3) VII 4) IX 5) X
1, 3, 4, 5
Which information would a nurse include in discharge teaching to a patient prescribed digoxin and hydrochlorothiazide for the management of heart failure? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Obtain pulse before taking digoxin dose. 2) Do not take over-the-counter medications. 3) Include foods high in potassium in the diet. 4) Report signs of toxicity such as blurred vision. 5) Hold drug for heart rate less than 60 beats per minute.
1, 3, 4, 5
Which patient information will a nurse obtain before administering furosemide? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Serum potassium level 2) Level of consciousness 3) Baseline weight 4) Fluid intake and urine output 5) Blood pressure
1, 3, 4, 5
A patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL). On assessment, the nurse notices the patient has muscle weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first intervention? 1) Administer calcium supplements 2) Assess the serum potassium level 3) Reduce salt in the patient's food 4) Give a lower dose of the medication.
2
Which action will be the nurse's priority for a patient receiving an intravenous (IV) antidysrhythmic agent? 1) Evaluate the electroencephalogram (EEG). 2) Monitor the vital signs. 3) Assess electrolyte levels. 4) Elevate the head of the bed.
2
Which calcium channel blocker, when given intravenously, is used to convert dysrhythmias to normal sinus rhythm? 1) Digitalis 2) Diltiazem 3) Carvedilol 4) Methyldopa
2
Which class of drugs is used as the first line of therapy for reducing fluid volume in patients with heart failure (HF)? 1) Nitrates 2) Diuretics 3) Beta blockers 4) Calcium channel blockers
2
Which drugs are known as "clot busters"? 1) Antiplatelets 2) Thrombolytics 3) Anticoagulants 4) Antifibrinolytics
2
Which nursing intervention is essential for the patient receiving alteplase? 1) Monitor blood glucose. 2) Assess for dysrhythmias. 3) Administer prescribed vitamin K if bruising is observed. 4) Stop the drug if the systolic blood pressure drops below 110 mm Hg.
2
Which parameter would be assessed by a nurse in a patient receiving heparin who has bruises covering the abdomen and red-colored urine? 1) Urine culture 2) Platelet level 3) International normalized ratio (INR) 4) Liver function tests
2
Which reason explains why beta blockers and calcium channel blockers are usually not prescribed together? 1) The cost of both medications is substantial. 2) Both drugs decrease myocardial contractility. 3) These drugs have antagonistic effects when combined. 4) Calcium channel blockers are reserved for patients allergic to beta blockers.
2
Which statement by a nurse about the use of medicinal nitrates indicates effective understanding? 1) Medicinal nitrates slow conduction. 2) Medicinal nitrates dilate all blood vessels. 3) Medicinal nitrates have no adverse effects. 4) Medicinal nitrates are used for atrial fibrillation.
2
Which statement is true regarding diuretics? 1) Diuretics promote sodium retention. 2) Diuretics decrease the extracellular fluid volume. 3) Diuretics can be used as monotherapy in stage 2 hypertension. 4) Thiazide diuretics are prescribed for patients with renal insufficiency.
2
Which time period does a nurse expect diuresis to occur following intravenous (IV) administration of furosemide? 1) 1 minute 2) 5 minutes 3) 30 minutes 4) 60 minutes
2
Which laboratory finding would a nurse anticipate observing in a patient who is receiving furosemide? One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Increased chloride levels 2) Decreased sodium levels 3) Decreased calcium levels 4) Decreased potassium levels 5) Increased magnesium levels
2, 3, 4
Which laboratory value would the nurse assess if a patient has a new-onset abnormal cardiac rhythm? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Sodium 2) Calcium 3) Chloride 4) Potassium 5) phosphorus
2, 4
Which class of drugs is used in the treatment of angina pectoris? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Diuretics 2) Beta blockers 3) Antihistamines 4) Nitrates and nitrites 5) Calcium channel blockers (CCBs
2, 4, 5
Which side effects will a nurse monitor after administering lisinopril to a patient? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Anemia 2) Dry cough 3) Hematuria 4) Blurred vision 5) Hyperkalemia
2, 4, 5
Which contraindication would be considered when a patient is prescribed clopidogrel bisulfate? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Trauma 2) Gastrointestinal (GI) bleed 3) Renal disease 4) Hepatic disease 5) Intracranial hemorrhage
2, 5
Which chamber of the heart will have to work harder to pump blood as a result of aortic valve dysfunction? 1) Left atrium 2) Right atrium 3) Left ventricle 4) right ventricle
3
Which class of diuretics is used to manage increased intracranial pressure? 1) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 2) Loop diuretics 3) Osmotic diuretics 4) Potassium-sparing diuretics
3
Which condition indicates an excessive dose of digoxin? 1) Polyuria 2) Dizziness 3) Halo vision 4) Photophobia
3
Which description is accurate regarding the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)? 1) Prevents the release of the sodium-retaining hormone aldosterone 2) Acts by relaxing the smooth muscles of blood vessels, mainly arteries 3) Inhibits formation of angiotensin II and blocks the release of aldosterone 4) Blocks the calcium channel in the vascular smooth muscles promoting vasodilation
3
Which drug is similar in structure to heparin and is a selective inhibitor of clotting factor Xa? 1) Desirudin 2) Warfarin 3) Fondaparinux 4) Argatroban
3
Which explanation describes how anticoagulants work? 1) Anticoagulants dissolve clots. 2) Anticoagulants alter platelet function. 3) Anticoagulants prevent clots from forming. 4) Anticoagulants interfere with drug metabolism.
3
Which nursing assessment is imperative for patients receiving intravenous nitroprusside? 1) Pulse oximetry monitoring 2) Frequent blood glucose monitoring 3) Continuous blood pressure monitoring 4) Noninvasive cardiac output monitoring
3
Which statement by a nurse indicates effective learning about potential drug interactions associated with heparin and warfarin? 1) "The effect of only warfarin decreases with nitroglycerin." 2) "The effect of only heparin increases with oral hypoglycemics." 3) "The effect of both heparin and warfarin increases with aspirin." 4) "The effect of both heparin and warfarin increases with vitamin K."
3
Which statement regarding normal pulmonary circulation is correct? 1) Blood is pumped from the ventricles into the atria. 2) The aorta receives deoxygenated blood from the body. 3) Blood travels to the lungs to exchange CO2 for oxygen. 4) The pulmonary artery pumps oxygenated blood to the body.
3
Which step is an essential nursing intervention when preparing to administer enoxaparin sodium to a patient? 1) Rub the administration site after injecting. 2) Utilize the Z-track method to inject the medication. 3) Administer the medication into subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen. 4) Draw up the medication in a syringe with a 22-gauge, 1½-inch needle.
3
Which therapeutic effects are expected with digoxin? 1) Positive inotropic, positive chronotropic, and negative dromotropic 2) Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic, and positive dromotropic 3) Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic, and negative dromotropic 4) Negative inotropic, negative chronotropic, and negative dromotropic
3
Which drug would a nurse advise a patient to take at bedtime? 1) Furosemide 2) Enalapril 3) Doxazosin 4) Hydralazine
3 * alpha-adrenergic blocker associated with orthostatic hypotension
The nurse is teaching a patient about newly prescribed captopril. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further instruction? 1) "I can take my medication with food." 2) "I will avoid becoming overheated when exercising." 3) "Irritating cough and swollen lips are to be expected." 4) "I will stop using salt substitutes while taking this medication."
3 *adverse effect: angioedema is life-threatening
Which patient being treated for hypertension will receive priority assessment by a nurse? 1) The patient who has been on beta blockers for 1 day 2) The patient who is on a beta blocker and a thiazide diuretic 3) The patient who has stopped taking a beta blocker due to cost 4) The patient who is taking a beta blocker and furosemide
3 *can cause rebound hypertension
Which statement made by a patient demonstrates a need for further instruction regarding the use of sublingual nitroglycerin? 1) "I should keep my nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place that is protected from light." 2) "I should change positions slowly to avoid getting dizzy." 3) "I can take up to five tablets at 3-minute intervals for chest pain if necessary." 4) "If I get a headache, I should keep taking nitroglycerin and use acetaminophen for pain relief.
3 *can take up to 3 tablets, every 5 minutes
Which explanation describes a correct interpretation of observing an international normalized ratio (INR) of 4.0 in a patient receiving warfarin? 1) The level is within the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation. 2) The level is outside the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation; it is too low. 3) The level is outside the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation; it is too high. 4) The level cannot be interpreted without knowing the prothrombin time and an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value.
3 *range is between 2.0-3.0
Which adverse effect does a nurse anticipate occurring from the administration of furosemide? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Hyperchloremia 2) Hypernatremia 3) Hypokalemia 4) Hypophosphatemia 5) Hypomagnesemia
3, 5
Which statement by a nurse about interventions for a patient undergoing thrombolytic therapy requires further teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) "I will check for signs of hemorrhage." 2) "I will frequently monitor the patient's vital signs." 3) "I will collect blood samples for analysis from the veins." 4) "I will monitor the electrocardiogram for any dysrhythmias." 5) "I will administer nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs if the patient reports discomfort."
3, 5 *avoid ventipuncture/arterial sticks
Which assessment finding by a nurse supports the intervention for a new order for a fresh frozen plasma transfusion for a patient on warfarin therapy? Select all that apply. 1) blood in the urine 2) blood from the nose 3) increased pulse rate 4) occult blood in the stool 5) decreased systolic pressure
3, 5 *others describe mild/moderate bleeding that would be corrected with an antidote
On which portion of the renal tubule would the nurse expect the potassium-sparing diuretics to work? 1) Distal tubule 2) Loop of Henle 3) Proximal tubule 4) Collecting tubule
4
The patient asks the nurse to explain the difference between dalteparin and heparin. Which response by the nurse is accurate? 1) "Dalteparin can be given during spinal surgery but heparin cannot." 2) "The only difference is that heparin dosing is based on the patient's weight and dalteparin has a fixed dose." 3) "Dalteparin can be given orally, whereas heparin is given in an injection." 4) "Dalteparin does not require monitoring of the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) like heparin does."
4
Which antidote is used for warfarin overdose? 1) Vitamin A 2) Vitamin B 3) Vitamin D 4) Vitamin K
4
Which diuretic class may cause hypercalcemia? 1) Osmotic diuretics 2) Potassium-sparing diuretics 3) Loop or high-ceiling diuretics 4) Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics
4
Which intervention would the nurse implement immediately when caring for a patient who receives a new prescription for an intravenous (IV) antidysrhythmic? 1) Draw arterial blood gasses. 2) Monitor the patient for tachycardia. 3) Start an IV infusion of Ringer's lactate solution. 4) Place the patient on continuous cardiac monitoring
4
Which outcome is expected with calcium channel blockers (CCBs)? 1) To treat acute myocardial infarction (MI) 2) To reduce exercise-induced elevations in heart rate 3) To prolong the QT interval on the electrocardiogram (ECG) 4) To decrease the afterload and reduce the workload of the heart
4
Which phrase describes how a diuretic lowers blood pressure? 1) Increases blood volume 2) Maintains calcium balance 3) Removes excess potassium 4)Blocks sodium reabsorption
4
Which prescription would a nurse anticipate being ordered for a patient who has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 1.5 and is receiving anticoagulant therapy? 1) Administer protamine sulfate. 2) Increase the heparin drip rate. 3) Hold the next dose of warfarin. 4) Administer an additional dose of warfarin.
4
Which drug will a nurse expect the primary health care provider to prescribe for a patient receiving digoxin who reports headache, dizziness, nausea, and blurred vision and also has a pulse rate of 48 beats per minute? 1) Milrinone 2) Nesiritide 3) Dobutamine 4) Digoxin-immune Fab
4 *SIGNS OF DIGITALIS TOXICITY
Which statement made by a nurse in regard to comparing the mechanisms of action of anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and thrombolytics indicates effective learning? 1) "The antidote to heparin overdose is vitamin K." 2) "Heparin promotes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin." 3) "Antiplatelets are used to prevent thrombosis in the veins by suppressing platelet aggregation." 4) "Necrosis resulting from a blocked artery caused by an embolus may be minimized using alteplase."
4 *antiplatelets help the arteries
Which statement by the nurse about beta blockers is accurate? 1 ) "Beta blockers increase myocardial contractility." 2) "Beta blockers increase the patient's urine output." 3) "Beta blockers increase dilation of the peripheral vessels." 4) "Beta blockers decrease sympathetic stimulation of the heart."
4 *blocks actions of epinephrine and norepinephrine
Which statement by a nurse explains the mechanism of action for amlodipine? 1) "This drug increases myocardial contractility." 2) "This drug selectively inhibits beta receptors." 3) "This drug inhibits the binding of angiotensin II." 4) "This drug inhibits influx of calcium across the cell membrane."
4 *calcium channel blocker *decreases contractility
Which diuretic does a nurse expect will be prescribed for a patient with a creatinine clearance of 22 mL/min? 1) Thiazide diuretic 2) Osmotic diuretic 3) Beta blocker 4) Loop diuretic
4 *can be used for patients with diminished renal function b/c it doesn't reduced renal BF
Which statement about dietary changes made by a patient receiving warfarin indicates the need for further teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) "I will avoid consuming soybean oil." 2) "I will limit the intake of green, leafy vegetables." 3) "I will avoid the intake of foods rich in vitamin C." 4) "I will include ginseng regularly in my diet." 5) "I will include green tea and coffee regularly in my diet.
4, 5 *ginseng, green tea, vitamin C & coffee decrease effectiveness of warfarin *soybean oil is rick in vitamin K, which is the antidote for warfarin
Before administering the daily dose of digoxin to a patient, the nurse notes that the patient is experiencing nausea, headache, malaise, and blurred vision. The patient's pulse rate is 54 beats per minute, and the patient states that he sees yellow halos around objects. Which action would the nurse anticipate taking in this situation? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Hold the dose. 2) Draw a digoxin level. 3) Notify the health care provider. 4) Administer digoxin-immune Fab. 5) Place the patient on a cardiac monitor.
all
Which assessment would the nurse include when caring for a patient receiving mannitol for the treatment of cerebral edema? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1) Vision 2) Blood pressure 3) Heart rate 4) Serum sodium 5) Serum potassium
all