NURS 3110 Exam 1
A pregnant client with AIDS asks the nurse if her baby will die of AIDS. Which response should the nurse provide? "Drug therapy can help prevent your child from contracting the virus." B. "There are drugs that can be given after birth to reverse the disease process." C. "Acquired immune deficiency can be unpredictable in the newborn." D. "There are special tests that we can do to see if your unborn baby is positive."
"Drug therapy can help prevent your child from contracting the virus."
Parents should encourge what kind of diet if their child has an upset stomach while completing a course of antibiotics?
- Bananas, rice, applesauce, tea, or toast - bland
Doxorubicin is an antitumor antibiotic that is used in the treatment of many different liquid (leukemia, lymphoma) and solid tumors. Name an adverse event that may occur in an individual receiving doxorubicin.
- Cardiotoxicity - Neutropenia - Pancytopenia - Low blood counts - Nausea and vomiting - Alopecia, hair loss
Name a topical antifungal medication that can treat a superficial tinea infection.
- Clotrimazole - Terbinafine - Ketoconazole - Miconazole
What class of medication does prednisone belong to?
- Corticosteroid - Steroid
List two Black Box warnings associated with ibuprofen.
- Gastrointestinal bleeding - Risk of cardiovascular event - Risk of thrombotic event - heart attack or stroke
What property of prednisone leads to growth delays in children who take prednisone chronically?
- Hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis - Suppression of hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis - Suppression
Name a vaccine that is contraindicated in pregnancy.
- Smallpox - Varicella - Measles mumps rubella - Chickenpox(any live virus)
The varicella zoster virus vaccine is given in two doses; one at ages four to six years. At what age range is the other dose given?
12-15 months
The educator has reviewed the use for immunosuppressants with a nurse. Which statements made by the nurse indicate an understanding of the information? Select all that apply. A. "Immunosuppressants prevent tissue rejection." B. "Immunosuppressants treat severe inflammatory diseases." C. "Immunosuppressants dampen the immune response." D. "Immunosuppressants stimulate new immunity." E. "Immunosuppressants eradicate the immune system."
A. "Immunosuppressants prevent tissue rejection." B. "Immunosuppressants treat severe inflammatory diseases." C. "Immunosuppressants dampen the immune response."
Which describes pathogenicity? A. Ability of organisms to cause infection. B. Ability disease to occur when pathogens are present. C. Ability to disrupt the DNA of the pathogen. D. Ability to kill pathogens.
A. Ability of organisms to cause infection.
Which nursing interventions are required for the client prescribed amphotericin B (Fungizone)? Select all that apply. A. Administer the medication by IV push. B. Administer acetaminophen before giving the amphotericin B (Fungizone). C. Review the BUN level. D. Administer corticosteroids 1 hour after infusion is completed. E. Monitor for GI bleeding.
A. Administer the medication by IV push. B. Administer acetaminophen before giving the amphotericin B (Fungizone). C. Review the BUN level.
Which individual should receive a hepatitis B vaccine? Select all that apply. A. All newborn infants B. Clients with HIV C. International travelers D. People who are incarcerated E. People with alcoholism.
A. All newborn infants B. Clients with HIV D. People who are incarcerated
Which should the nurse assess the client for that is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin)? Select all that apply. A. Neuromuscular toxicity B. Nephrotoxicity C. Cardiotoxicity D. Neurotoxicity E. Acute toxicity
A. Neuromuscular toxicity B. Nephrotoxicity D. Neurotoxicity
Which physical areas does a superficial fungal infection affect? Select all that apply. A. Skin B. Lungs C. Nails D. GI tract E. Vagina
A. Skin C. Nails E. Vagina
Which question should the nurse ask the client that is prescribed cefepime (Maxipime)? A. "Are you allergic to penicillin?" B. "Are you breastfeeding?" C. "Are you pregnant?" D. "Are you allergic to tetracycline?"
A. "Are you allergic to penicillin?"
A client with tuberculosis asks why they are prescribed multiple drugs. Which information should the nurse include in the education? A. "Multiple drugs are necessary because the bacteria are likely to develop resistance to just one drug." B. "Current research indicates that the most effective way to treat tuberculosis is with multiple drugs." C. "Treatment for tuberculosis is complex, and multiple drugs must be continued for as long as you are contagious." D. "Multiple drug treatment is necessary to help develop an immunity to tuberculosis."
A. "Multiple drugs are necessary because the bacteria are likely to develop resistance to just one drug."
Which of the following is the best initial treatment for acute, localized inflammation? A. Ice B. Heat C. Ibuprofen D. Acetaminophen
A. Ice
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving vincristine to treat lung cancer. The nurse should monitor the client and recognize which of the following manifestations as an indication that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to the drug. A. Weak hand grasps B. Constricted pupils C. Bradycardia D. Crackles
A. Weak hand grasps
A nurse is assessing a client following trastuzumab infusion to treat metastatic breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to the drug. Select all that apply A. Wheezing B. Dysrhythmias C. Hypotension D. Fever E. Ascites
A. Wheezing B. Dysrhythmias C. Hypotension D. Fever
Which of the following is not true about penicillin class antibiotics? A. broad-spectrum penicillin has limited clinical utility. B. Penicillin class antibiotics have an excellent safety profile. C. Penicillin class antibiotics may be used in children and pregnant women. D. Penicillin was first mass produced after World War II.
A. broad-spectrum penicillin has limited clinical utility.
which of the following is true regarding anti fungal medications? Select all that apply. A. localized fungal infections are commonly treated with over-the-counter anti fungal medications B. systemic fungal infections are common nosocomial infections C. medications for systemic fungal infections are well tolerated D. fungal infections of the hair and scalp, as well as fingernails and toenails, often require systemic anti fungal therapy
A. localized fungal infections are commonly treated with over-the-counter anti fungal medications D. fungal infections of the hair and scalp, as well as fingernails and toenails, often require systemic anti fungal therapy
Which of the following drugs is an antimetabolite? A.Methotrexate B.Cyclophosphamide C.Tamoxifen D.Vincristine
A.Methotrexate
Name a macrolide antibiotic.
Azithromycin Clarithromycin Erythromycin
Which finding should the nurse instruct the client receiving tamoxifen to immediately report to the healthcare provider? A. Size increase of the tumor B. A temperature of 101.1°F C. Weight gain of 3 pounds in 1 week D. Nausea and vomiting
B. A temperature of 101.1°F
Which client is at the greatest risk for acquiring a fungal infection? A. The client with anemia pregnant with triplets B. The client with malignant melanoma who is receiving chemotherapy C. The client with severe burns over 20% of the body D. The adolescent client with a fractured femur
B. The client with malignant melanoma who is receiving chemotherapy
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed an antifungal. Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? A. "I will avoid drinking carbonated beverages." B. "I will get up slowly to avoid feeling dizzy." C. "I will take my prescription with milk." D. "I will increase my fluid intake to 2 L per day."
B. "I will get up slowly to avoid feeling dizzy."
On which of the following would it be appropriate to use a disinfectant? A. Surgical wounds B. Exam tables C. Intact skin D. Surgical instruments E. Counter tops
B. Exam tables D. Surgical instruments E. Counter tops
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a new dx of bacterial meningitis. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe a drug from which of the following classifications of antibiotics? A. First generation cephalosporins B. Third generation cephalosporins C. Monobactams D. Macrolides
B. Third generation cephalosporins
Which of the following drugs is an alkylating agent? A.Methotrexate B.Cyclophosphamide C.Tamoxifen - hormone antagolist D.Vincristine - natural product
B.Cyclophosphamide
Which is a priority nursing assessment for the client receiving multiple antibiotics? A. Assessing renal and liver function tests B. Assessing blood cultures for the presence of bacteria C. Assessing changes in stool, white patches in the mouth, and urogenital itching or rash D. Assessing whether or not the client has adequate food and fluid intake
C. Assessing changes in stool, white patches in the mouth, and urogenital itching or rash
Which is a nursing priority to include in the teaching for the client prescribed an immunosuppressant? A. Eat plenty of fruits and vegetables. B. Obtain adequate exercise. C. Avoid large crowds. D. Drink plenty of fluids.
C. Avoid large crowds.
Which laboratory values should the nurse plan on monitoring for the client receiving amphotericin B (Fungizone)? Select all that apply. A. Serum amylase B. Serum sodium C. BUN D. Serum glucose E. Serum creatinine
C. BUN E. Serum creatinine
Which laboratory test is used to evaluate the degree of damage to the immune system caused by HIV? A. Liver function studies B. Complete blood count C. CD4 T-cell count D. Platelets
C. CD4 T-cell count
The nurse is caring for a client suspected of an overdose of amphotericin B (Fungizone). Which condition should the nurse observe the client for? A. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome B. Acute renal failure C. Cardiorespiratory arrest D. Hepatotoxicity
C. Cardiorespiratory arrest
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for a client requiring an extended spectrum penicillin? A. Ampicillin B. Oxacillin C. Piperacillin D. Penicillin V
C. Piperacillin
A client suspected of having hepatitis C asks the nurse why cultures are being obtained when hepatitis is a virus. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Obtaining a culture will rule out a bacterial infection." B. "Cultures are needed to rule out a bacterial infection." C. "Hepatitis C viruses can be cultured." D. "There is a strain of hepatitis C that is a combination of a bacteria and virus.
C. "Hepatitis C viruses can be cultured."
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I will cut back on my alcohol intake "If I experience lightheadedness I will sit down immediately."while taking this prescription." B. "I may experience dark tarry stools." C. "I will make sure I increase my fluid intake." D. "If I experience lightheadedness I will sit down immediately."
C. "I will make sure I increase my fluid intake."
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for the client prescribed ganciclovir (Cytovene)? A. "You may notice your eyes becoming swollen with the use of this prescription." B. "You may experience sensitivity to light after the use of the prescription." C. "This drug will need to be applied multiple times a day." D. "You can expect some burning and stinging after the instillation of the prescription."
C. "This drug will need to be applied multiple times a day."
A parent asks the nurse when their infant will receive the hepatitis A vaccine. Which information should the nurse provide? Select all that apply. A. "The first dose will be administered before you take your baby home from the newborn nursery." B. "It will be included in the series of immunizations given at 2 months, 4 months, and 6 months." C. "Your child will receive the first dose at 12 months." D. "Not until school age." E. "About 6 to 12 months after the initial vaccine, a booster will be given."
C. "Your child will receive the first dose at 12 months." E. "About 6 to 12 months after the initial vaccine, a booster will be given."
Which of the following organisms has the most in common with a virus? A.Mycobacterium species B.Tinea species C.Babesiosis D.Giardia
C.Babesiosis
Which of the following best represents why chemotherapies are effective in killing cancer cells? A.All chemotherapies are administered intravenously. B.All chemotherapies have anti-inflammatory properties. C.Many chemotherapies target rapidly dividing cells. D.Many chemotherapies have anti-infective properties.
C.Many chemotherapies target rapidly dividing cells.
Which of the following drugs is a hormone antagonist? A.Methotrexate B.Cyclophosphamide C.Tamoxifen D.Vincristine
C.Tamoxifen
Which action should the nurse take after discontinuing an intravenous infusion of doxorubicin (Adriamycin) that has extravasated? A. Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water. B. Inspect the area for irritation. C. A warm, wet compress should be placed on the site. D. Apply ice packs to the area immediately.
D. Apply ice packs to the area immediately.
Which describes the action of aromatase inhibitors? A. Suppress the ovary and adrenal gland from producing estrogen B. Weaken the effect of estrogen on ER-positive tumors C. Block the estrogen receptors that stimulate the growth of ER-positive tumors D. Block an enzyme that catalyzes the final step in the synthesis of estrogen
D. Block an enzyme that catalyzes the final step in the synthesis of estrogen
Which adverse effects should the nurse monitor the client receiving vincristine (Oncovin) for? A. Nephrotoxicity B. Cardiotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Neurotoxicity
D. Neurotoxicity
For which adverse effect should the nurse assess a client prescribed efavirenz (Sustiva)? A. Cardiac arrest B. Bone marrow suppression C. Seizures D. Rash
D. Rash
Which question should the nurse ask the client who has been receiving dolutegravir (DTG)? A. "Are you experiencing any dizziness in the morning?" B. "Have you had any difficulty urinating?" C. "Are you having any trouble with constipation?" D. "How have you been sleeping?"
D. "How have you been sleeping?"
Which of the following drugs is a natural product? A.Methotrexate B.Cyclophosphamide C.Tamoxifen D.Vincristine
D.Vincristine
What does bactericidal mean? A. Bacteria can no longer be eradicated by specific antibiotic B. Range of antibiotic activity C. A lab test that determines which antibiotics will successfully treat a specific infection D. An agent which inhibits the growth of bacteria E. An agent which kills bacteria
E. An agent which kills bacteria
Which of the following is not associated with corticosteroid use? Select all that apply. A. Hypertension B. Diabetes C. Growth delay in children D. Cataract formation E. Asthma
E. Asthma
Which describes the primary purpose of general pharmacotherapy for the treatment of HIV/AIDS? A. Decrease general transmission B. Relieve symptoms for a longer period of time C. Stop the virus from replicating D. Eliminate viral load
Relieve symptoms for a longer period of time
Identify the following organisms: strep
bacteria
A common side effect of the biologic response modifier neupogen is
bone pain
Name a first generation cephalosporin medication.
cephalexin cefadroxil cefazolin
What class of antibiotic should not be used in people with a true penicillin allergy?
cephalosporin
Which immunosuppressant medication is commonly used to prevent tissue rejection in transplant patients?
cyclosporine
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are contraindicated in patients with renal compromise/disease. What pharmacokinetic process is responsible for this contraindication?
excretion
Metronidazole is contraindicated in which trimester of pregnancy?
first
Which adverse event associated with prednisone is responsible for increases in blood pressure commonly seen in patients taking prednisone?
fluid retention water retention sodium retention
Identify the following organism : candida
fungi
Metronidazole is a very useful anti-infective, antiprotozoan medication. Name a protozoal disorder metronidazole is used to treat.
giardia, trichomonas
What is often the first vaccine given in childhood, recommended for the first dose to be given immediately after birth?
hep B
Which common childhood skin infection is topical mupirocin used to treat?
impetigo
What medication is most commonly used to treat tuberculosis (TB)?
isoniazid
What is an important Black Box warning for acetaminophen?
liver failure
Which class of antibiotics does metronidazole belong to?
none
Aminoglycoside antibiotics are typically reserved for severe systemic infections due to aerobic, gram negative bacteria (E. coli, Serratia, Proteus, Klebsiella, and Pseudomonas). Name a serious toxicity associated with aminoglycoside antibiotics.
ototoxicity
Identify the following organisms: trichomonas
parasite
Immune globulins represent which type of immunity?
passive
What is the effect of prednisone on blood sugar?
raises
List the two antineoplastics approved for prophylaxis of breast cancer in women who are at hisk risk for the disease
raloxifene, tamoxifen
Zidovudine was one of the first medications FDA approved for the treatment of HIV. What currently limits the use of zidovudine?
resistance
Methicillin resistant staph aureus (MRSA) infection is treated with which sulfonamide class antibiotic?
sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim
Name a natural substance that is commonly used in pediatric chemotherapy cancer treatment.
- Etoposide - Vincristine - Irinotecan - Topotecan
What is the most common adverse event associated with the use of an immunostimulant or interferons?
- Flulike symptoms - Fever - Myalgia - Body aches
Name an antiviral medication used in the treatment of influenza.
- baloxavir - oseltamivir - peramivir - zanamivir
Name a drug in the floroquinolone class of antibiotics.
- ciprofloxacin - levofloxacin - ofloxacin - moxifloxacin
Name two classes of drugs used to treat Human Immunodificiency Virus (HIV).
- nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors - nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors - protease inhibitors - entry and integrase strand transfer inhibitors
Mebendazole is the most commonly prescribed antihelminthic medication. It is used for the treatment of which disorders?
- pinworm - roundworm - enterobiasis - ascaris
Nystatin is available in topical and oral formulations. It is frequently used in infants and small children to treat what common fungal infections?
- thrush - oral candida - diaper rash - diaper dermatits
Hepatitis C infection remains problematic as there is no vaccine currently available. Untreated hepatitis C infection will lead to cirrhosis and/or liver cancer. Name a medication which is currently available in oral formulations for the treatment of chronic hepatitis C, genotype 1.
- velpatasvir sofosbuvir - ledipasvir sofosbuvir - ledipasvir sofosbuvir - elbasvir grazoprevir
Which prophylactic treatment should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for a client prior traveling to Africa? A. Antimalarial drugs B. Antibiotics C. Immunizations for malaria D. Protease inhibitors
A. Antimalarial drugs
Which information should the nurse include in the client teaching about pharmacotherapy for influenza? A. Antiviral prescriptions can be used to treat active influenza infections. B. Antiviral prescriptions decrease the risk of transmission of the flu. C. Antiviral prescriptions should be administered within 72 hours of flu symptoms occurring. D. Antiviral prescriptions can increase resistance to other strains of the flu.
A. Antiviral prescriptions can be used to treat active influenza infections.
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed an oral suspension of nystatin (Nystop) for oral fungal infection? A. Apply with a swab to the affected area. B. Mix the solution in 1 cup of water. C. Swish in the mouth for 2 minutes. D. Swallow the solution as soon as possible.
A. Apply with a swab to the affected area.
A client with leukemia asks the nurse where the cancer in her body is located. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. Bone marrow B. Connective tissue C. Lymphoid tissue D. Epithelial tissue
A. Bone marrow
Which is the most common type of opportunistic fungal infection? A. Candida albicans B. Pneumocystis jiroveci C. Microsporum species D. Cryptococcus neoformans
A. Candida albicans
The nurse notes a client has a gram-negative urinary tract infection. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate? A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) C. Tetracycline (Sumycin) D. Gentamicin (Garamycin)
A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Which describes the primary purpose of the use of pharmacotherapy to treat herpes viruses? Select all that apply. A. Decreases the frequency of herpes episodes. B. Decreases the risk of secondary infections. C. Inactivates the herpes virus. D. Diminishes the intensity of the acute disease. E. Decreases the risk of spreading the infection.
A. Decreases the frequency of herpes episodes. D. Diminishes the intensity of the acute disease.
Which findings indicate the prescription used to treat a client's tuberculosis is therapeutic? Select all that apply. A. Diminished cough B. Diminished nausea C. Diminished fever D. Diminished pain E. Diminished sputum
A. Diminished cough C. Diminished fever D. Diminished pain E. Diminished sputum
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl)? Select all that apply. A. Do not drink alcohol with this medication. B. Do not take this medication with milk or milk products. C. Drink at least 3000 mL of fluid per day with this medication. D. Do not become pregnant while taking this medication. E. You may experience a metallic taste while on this medication.
A. Do not drink alcohol with this medication. D. Do not become pregnant while taking this medication. E. You may experience a metallic taste while on this medication.
Which symptom should the nurse instruct the client prescribed a salicylate to report immediately to the healthcare provider? Select all that apply. A. Edema B. Drowsiness C. Fatigue D. Decreased urine output E. Darkening of urine
A. Edema D. Decreased urine output E. Darkening of urine
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed mebendazole (Vermox)? Select all that apply. A. Effectively treats adult parasites B. High concentrations of the drug remain in the intestine C. Generally requires a few days of therapy D. Treatment of the larva will require a different prescription E. The prescription should be taken with a high-fat meal
A. Effectively treats adult parasites B. High concentrations of the drug remain in the intestine C. Generally requires a few days of therapy E. The prescription should be taken with a high-fat meal
For a client receiving zidovudine (Retrovir), for which adverse reactions should the nurse increase surveillance? Select all that apply. A. Fatigue and generalized weakness B. New onset headache C. Constipation D. Edema E. Liver palpable on physical examination
A. Fatigue and generalized weakness B. New onset headache E. Liver palpable on physical examination
Which symptoms should the nurse instruct a client receiving amphotericin B (Fungizone) to report? Select all that apply. A. Fever B. Hearing loss C. Dizziness D. Constipation E. Heart palpitations
A. Fever B. Hearing loss C. Dizziness E. Heart palpitations
Which information in the health history should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed ibuprofen for a mild ankle sprain? Select all that apply. A. Hypertension B. History of injury to the same ankle C. Alcohol abuse D. Allergy to aspirin E. Recent history of a peptic ulcer
A. Hypertension C. Alcohol abuse D. Allergy to aspirin E. Recent history of a peptic ulcer
For which should the nurse monitor the older adult receiving chemotherapy? Select all that apply. A. Hypotension B. Incontinence C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Urinary retention E. Reduced deep tendon reflexes
A. Hypotension C. Peripheral neuropathy E. Reduced deep tendon reflexes
Which intervention should the nurse integrate into the plan of care for a client receiving cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) experiencing oral irritation? A. Instruct the client to avoid extreme temperatures of food selections. B. Instruct the client to rinse her mouth with normal saline. C. Instruct the client to use an antiseptic mouthwash. D. Instruct the client to drink cold beverages.
A. Instruct the client to avoid extreme temperatures of food selections.
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate prescribed for a client with trichomoniasis? A. Metronidazole (Flagyl) B. Nitazoxanide (Alinia) C. Praziquantel (Biltricide) D. Chloroquine (Aralen)
A. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Which is a nursing priority action for the client receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) intravenously? A. Monitor the client for hearing loss. B. Draw daily blood chemistries. C. Place the client on isolation precautions. D. Decrease the fluids for the client during therapy.
A. Monitor the client for hearing loss.
A client tells the nurse they have been taking aspirin to treat muscle pain. Based on this statement, which findings in the client's history should the nurse be concerned about? Select all that apply. A. Myocardial infarction at age 61 B. Helicobacter pylori infection treatment last month C. No influenza vaccine in last 2 years D. Mild hypertension E. History of migraine headaches
A. Myocardial infarction at age 61 B. Helicobacter pylori infection treatment last month
Which prescription may be a causative factor in a client's fever of unknown origin? Select all that apply. A. Paroxetine (Paxil) B. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) C. Penicillin G D. Metformin (Glucophage) E. Furosemide (Lasix)
A. Paroxetine (Paxil) - SSRI B. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) - antipsychotic drug
Which should the nurse recognize is the safest classification of antibiotics that is commonly prescribed? A. Penicillin B. Sulfonamides C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides
A. Penicillin
Which data should the nurse review prior to administering nystatin to a female client? A. Positive pregnancy B. Type of contraception used C. Height and weight D. Last menstrual period
A. Positive pregnancy
Which findings are symptoms of inflammation? A. Redness B. Warmth C. Itching D. Rash E. Pain
A. Redness B. Warmth C. Itching E. Pain
Which outcome should the nurse anticipate for a client with herpes receiving acyclovir (Zovirax)? A. Report of decreased pain using the approved pain scale. B. Identification of the names of the client's sexual contacts in the past month. C. Report of a decrease in the number of lesions in the affected area. D. Absence of a reoccurrence of infection in the affected area.
A. Report of decreased pain using the approved pain scale.
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis? Select all that apply. A. Return to the clinic in 1 month for laboratory work. B. Report any numbness in your hands or feet. C. Take your prescription with food. D. Avoid the use of alcohol. E. Avoid aged cheeses and smoked meats.
A. Return to the clinic in 1 month for laboratory work. B. Report any numbness in your hands or feet. D. Avoid the use of alcohol. E. Avoid aged cheeses and smoked meats.
Which describes the mechanism of action of corticosteroids on the inflammatory response? Select all that apply. A. Suppress the release of histamine B. Inhibit certain functions of phagocytes C. Inhibit the release of C-Reactive protein D. Inhibit the biosynthesis of prostaglandins E. Inhibit certain functions of lymphocytes
A. Suppress the release of histamine B. Inhibit certain functions of phagocytes D. Inhibit the biosynthesis of prostaglandins E. Inhibit certain functions of lymphocytes
Which therapeutic interventions should the nurse include when teaching a client about the primary treatments for cancer? Select all that apply. A. Surgery B. Chemotherapy C. Nutrition therapy D. Alternative medicine E. Radiation therapy
A. Surgery B. Chemotherapy E. Radiation therapy
Which signs of inflammation should the nurse anticipate for a client that has experienced a sports-related injury to their leg? Select all that apply. A. Swelling B. Pain C. Warmth D. Pallor E. Pitting edema
A. Swelling B. Pain C. Warmth
A client has just been prescribed highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for the treatment of AIDS. Which teaching point is a priority for this client? A. Taking medications as scheduled is vital to successful treatment. B. Know which medications target which phases of the HIV replication cycle. C. Medications must be taken for 3 years after viral load is not measurable. D. The goal of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) is to reduce plasma human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) to the lowest possible level.
A. Taking medications as scheduled is vital to successful treatment.
Which should the nurse identify as pharmacotherapy with natural products that have antineoplastic activity? Select all that apply. A. Taxanes B. Antimetabolites C. Vinca alkaloids D. Topoisomerase inhibitors E. Alkylating agents
A. Taxanes C. Vinca alkaloids D. Topoisomerase inhibitors
Which information should the nurse provide when educating a client about the reduction of the development of antibiotic resistance? Select all that apply. A. The best way to prevent antibiotic resistance is to prevent infections from occurring. B. Antibiotic prescriptions are not used for the treatment of colds and influenza. C. Take the full amount of any prescribed medication. D. See your healthcare provider as soon as you feel ill. E. Use good infection control measures.
A. The best way to prevent antibiotic resistance is to prevent infections from occurring. B. Antibiotic prescriptions are not used for the treatment of colds and influenza. C. Take the full amount of any prescribed medication. E. Use good infection control measures.
Which describes the main mechanism of action of alkylating agents? A. They change the shape of the DNA double helix and prevent nucleic acid from completing normal cell division. B. When cancer cells attempt to synthesize proteins, RNA, or DNA metabolic pathways are disrupted and the cancer cells die or their growth is slowed. C. The agents can become incorporated into the structures of DNA and RNA, resulting in a disruption of nucleic acid function. D. They either directly or indirectly bind to cancer cells causing an activation of the immune response which results in the destruction of the cancer cells.
A. They change the shape of the DNA double helix and prevent nucleic acid from completing normal cell division.
Which unit of measurement should the nurse anticipate penicillin to be prescribed? A. Units B. Grams C. Milligrams D. Grains
A. Units
Which topics should the nurse include in the education of the client prescribed testosterone treatment for cancer? Select all that apply. A. Weight gain B. Sweating C. Hair loss D. Constipation E. Nervousness
A. Weight gain B. Sweating E. Nervousness
Which information should the nurse include in the explanation of inflammation for a client? Select all that apply. A. When cells are damaged nearby vessels get bigger. B. The vessels in the area allow fluids to escape. C. Inflammation produces pus. D. Inflammation causes bleeding and inability to clot. E. Inflammation causes pain.
A. When cells are damaged nearby vessels get bigger. B. The vessels in the area allow fluids to escape. C. Inflammation produces pus. E. Inflammation causes pain.
Which priority question should the nurse ask the female client that has been prescribed penicillin G? A. "Are you taking birth control pills?" B. "Are you breastfeeding?" C. "Are you pregnant?" D. "Do you plan to become pregnant?"
A. "Are you taking birth control pills?"
A client with a benign tumor on his arm asks the nurse why he is not being treated with anything. Which response should the nurse provide? Select all that apply. A. "Benign tumors do not metastasize." B. "Many of the tumors are resistant to treatment." C. "Treatment will only be required if the tumor continues to grow." D. "Your tumor is slow growing." E. "Benign tumors rarely require treatment."
A. "Benign tumors do not metastasize." D. "Your tumor is slow growing." E. "Benign tumors rarely require treatment."
The nurse notifies the supervisor after accidentally sticking herself with a needle while starting an intravenous (IV) line on a client with AIDS. Which response should the supervisor provide the nurse to decrease her anxiety? A. "Fortunately, the chances of you contracting HIV after the stick are very small." B. "Did you use the hospital protocols for starting IV lines on a client with AIDS?" C. "Workers' compensation will cover the cost of your illness and medications." D. "If you are started on medications soon, it will decrease the severity of the disease."
A. "Fortunately, the chances of you contracting HIV after the stick are very small."
Which statement made by a client receiving interferon Alfa-2b (Intron-A) should the nurse recognize as adverse effects of the therapy? Select all that apply. A. "I have been feeling dizzy." B. "I have an itchy rash on my legs." C. "I have lost my appetite." D. "I am so frequently tired." E. "My bones feel achy."
A. "I have been feeling dizzy." C. "I have lost my appetite." D. "I am so frequently tired."
Which question by a client receiving interferon alfa-2b (Intron-A) indicates further assessment is necessary? A. "I really feel sad; do I need to see a psychiatrist?" B. "Is it safe to drink grapefruit juice with this medication?" C. "Is it okay to use aspirin or ibuprofen products while on this medication?" D. "Do I need to limit my fluids while on this medication?"
A. "I really feel sad; do I need to see a psychiatrist?"
The nurse has provided the education for a client prescribed cyclosporine (Neoral). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I should not have grapefruit." B. "I will check my blood pressure as it may run low." C. "I should take my prescription at mealtimes." D. "I may experience an increased urine output."
A. "I should not have grapefruit."
The nurse has provided education for a client post-transplant surgery that is prescribed immunosuppressant drugs. Which statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? Select all that apply. A. "I will report hair loss to my healthcare provider." B. "I will wear a protective mask when going out in public." C. "I will avoid exposure to individuals who have infections." D. "I will make sure I use reliable contraception." E. "I will avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables."
A. "I will report hair loss to my healthcare provider." C. "I will avoid exposure to individuals who have infections." D. "I will make sure I use reliable contraception." E. "I will avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables."
The nurse has provided education about cancer prevention to a community group. Which statements made by the participants indicate an understanding of the information? Select all that apply. A. "I've been thinking about trying a vegetarian diet. Now may be a good time." B. "I am going to call my doctor and schedule a pap smear." C. "I think I will start taking vitamin A and selenium." D. "I've never been a drinker, but I am going to start drinking a glass of wine with dinner." E. "I am going to read the label on that new bottle of sunscreen I bought."
A. "I've been thinking about trying a vegetarian diet. Now may be a good time." B. "I am going to call my doctor and schedule a pap smear." E. "I am going to read the label on that new bottle of sunscreen I bought."
The nurse plans to teach the client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) about bacterial infections. Which information should the nurse include in this teaching? Select all that apply. A. "If just a few bacteria make you sick, this is virulence." B. "Most bacteria have developed antibiotic resistance." C. "Pathogens are divided into two classes, bacteria and viruses." D. "Pathogenicity means the bacteria can cause an infection." E. "Actually, most bacteria will not harm us."
A. "If just a few bacteria make you sick, this is virulence." D. "Pathogenicity means the bacteria can cause an infection." E. "Actually, most bacteria will not harm us."
Which education should the nurse provide a client that has been prescribed a second 10-day course of a corticosteroid? Select all that apply. A. "Make certain you do weight-bearing exercises at least three times each week." B. "Weigh yourself every day." C. "Let us know if you develop a fever." D. "Monitor the color of your urine." E. "If you feel jittery or anxious, discontinue the medication."
A. "Make certain you do weight-bearing exercises at least three times each week." B. "Weigh yourself every day." C. "Let us know if you develop a fever."
Which client statement made by the client indicates the treatment with an anti-inflammatory has been successful? Select all that apply. A. "My fever went away yesterday." B. "I've not been coughing up so much phlegm." C. "The skin over my knee is only slightly red and hot to the touch." D. "The pain in my shoulder is gone." E. "My rash has not spread any further."
A. "My fever went away yesterday." D. "The pain in my shoulder is gone."
Which statement should the nurse include when discussing antibiotic resistance with a client? A. "Resistance to antibiotics can occur by the common use for nosocomial infections." B. "Resistance to antibiotics can occur anytime they are prophylactic prescribed." C. "Resistance to antibiotics most often occurs when a client has a suppressed immune system." D. "Resistance to antibiotics most often occurs when prescribed to treat the wrong organism."
A. "Resistance to antibiotics can occur by the common use for nosocomial infections."
Which should the nurse include as the causes of cancer when providing client education? Select all that apply. A. "Some cancers have a strong genetic component." B. "Cancer can result from tissue trauma." C. "Cancers have a very strong environmental component." D. "Cancer can result from increased levels of stress." E. "Cancer can result from damaged tumor suppressor genes.
A. "Some cancers have a strong genetic component." C. "Cancers have a very strong environmental component." E. "Cancer can result from damaged tumor suppressor genes.
A parent expressed the concern that some vaccines contain live microbes. Which statements should the nurse include in the discussion with the parent? Select all that apply. A. "The microbes are live but are weakened." B. "The microbes are not able to cause the disease." C. "The measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine are an example." D. "The microbes in the vaccines are killed." E. "The microbes are only found in toxoid vaccines."
A. "The microbes are live but are weakened." C. "The measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine are an example."
Which information should the nurse include in the client teaching for amebiasis? Select all that apply. A. "The primary symptom is diarrhea." B. "Severe muscle cramping is a common symptom." C. "Amebiasis may damage the liver." D. "Brain abscesses are the typical fatal event." E. "Amebiasis is contracted through contact with contaminated water."
A. "The primary symptom is diarrhea." C. "Amebiasis may damage the liver." E. "Amebiasis is contracted through contact with contaminated water."
A client with hepatitis C asks the nurse what his chance is of developing chronic hepatitis C. Which information should the nurse provide? A. "The risk of you developing chronic hepatitis C is about 70%." B. "The risk of you developing chronic hepatitis C is about 40%." C. "The risk of you developing chronic hepatitis C is based on your compliance with the initial treatment." D. "The risk of you developing chronic hepatitis C is based on your immunity."
A. "The risk of you developing chronic hepatitis C is about 70%."
A client asks the nurse why he is receiving several chemotherapeutic agents as treatment for cancer. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Using multiple drugs will help kill more of the cancer." B. "Using multiple drugs decreases the incidence of side effects." C. "Using multiple drugs means a shorter treatment time." D. "Using multiple drugs is more cost effective in treating cancer."
A. "Using multiple drugs will help kill more of the cancer."
A parent tells the nurse they do not want their child vaccinated because there are too many risks associated with the vaccines. Which response should the nurse provide the parent? A. "Vaccinations have some risks, but the benefits outweigh the risks." B. "Vaccinations will be required for child to attend school." C. "The community has been misinformed about the use of vaccines." D. "Vaccinations are safe so there is no reason to worry."
A. "Vaccinations have some risks, but the benefits outweigh the risks."
A parent of a child diagnosed with pinworms tells the nurse they are concerned about administering the prescription because it may be toxic. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. A. "Very little of the drug is absorbed into the system." B. "Severe infestations can result in malabsorption." C. "It is critical that you give this medication." D. "Many types of pinworms are resistant to treatment." E. "The child may be at an increased risk for immunosuppression."
A. "Very little of the drug is absorbed into the system." B. "Severe infestations can result in malabsorption." E. "The child may be at an increased risk for immunosuppression."
The nurse provides client education about viruses. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? Select all that apply. A. "Viruses are nonliving particles." B. "The structure of viruses is complex." C. "Viruses can infect plants as well as animals." D. "A virion is a mature virus." E. "Viruses are intracellular parasites."
A. "Viruses are nonliving particles." C. "Viruses can infect plants as well as animals." D. "A virion is a mature virus." E. "Viruses are intracellular parasites."
A client who has had malaria for many years asks the nurse why the prescriptions might not cure his or her illness when there are several drugs available. Which is the best response by the nurse? A. "When cysts occur late in the disease, the parasite is too resistant for the prescriptions to be effective." B. "When erythrocytes rupture, the parasites are too numerous for prescriptions to be effective." C. "Once the parasite starts multiplying in your liver, prescriptions are usually ineffective." D. "Late in the illness, the immune system is too overwhelmed for prescriptions to be effective."
A. "When cysts occur late in the disease, the parasite is too resistant for the prescriptions to be effective."
A newly delivered obstetrical client with an A- blood type asks when she will get her Rh0(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) injection. Which statement should the nurse provide? A. "When we verify your infant's Rh factor." B. "When we verify your Rh factor." C. "When we verify your infant's blood type." D. "When we verify your blood type."
A. "When we verify your infant's Rh factor."
Which statements should the supervisor use to respond to a newly employed nurse who states, "I am not certain I want to get a hepatitis shot"? Select all that apply. A. "Working in a hospital puts you at a higher risk for being exposed to hepatitis B." B. "You can be protected from hepatitis B with one immunization." C. "This immunization is administered to children before they are 2 years old." D. "If you don't get this vaccine, you must wear gloves at all times." E. "The vaccine is 90% effective in preventing hepatitis B."
A. "Working in a hospital puts you at a higher risk for being exposed to hepatitis B." C. "This immunization is administered to children before they are 2 years old." E. "The vaccine is 90% effective in preventing hepatitis B."
A parent tells the nurse, "I am breastfeeding, so my baby is receiving my immunity, I do not see why any other vaccinations are necessary." Which responses should the nurse include in the discussion? Select all that apply. A. "You are correct that your baby will receive some passive immunity from you." B. "The immunity your baby is receiving only lasts while you are breastfeeding." C. "There are some diseases for which immunity is not passed from mother to child." D. "Your baby will need the extra protection provided by standard immunizations." E. "Vaccines are not indicated until you completely stop breastfeeding."
A. "You are correct that your baby will receive some passive immunity from you." C. "There are some diseases for which immunity is not passed from mother to child." D. "Your baby will need the extra protection provided by standard immunizations."
A client recovering from hepatitis B asks the nurse if he is immune to hepatitis B. Which information should the nurse provide the client? Select all that apply. A. "You are now immune to getting hepatitis B again." B. "Chronic hepatitis B may take years to develop." C. "If your immune system weakens, you can acquire a new case of hepatitis B." D. "Annual hepatitis immunoglobulin will prevent you from acquiring the illness again." E. "One dose of interferon will boost your immunity to hepatitis B."
A. "You are now immune to getting hepatitis B again." B. "Chronic hepatitis B may take years to develop."
A client with severe inflammation of the knee prescribed a corticosteroid asks why they need to return to the clinic for a 10-day follow-up. Which information should the nurse provide the client? Select all that apply. A. "Your prescribed treatment will be evaluated." B. "The knee should be re-examined." C. "Corticosteroids should only be taken for 1 to 3 weeks." D. "Your prescription may be changed to an NSAID." E. "You may require additional treatment for several more weeks with a corticosteroid."
A. "Your prescribed treatment will be evaluated." B. "The knee should be re-examined." C. "Corticosteroids should only be taken for 1 to 3 weeks." D. "Your prescription may be changed to an NSAID."
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed rifampin (Rifadin)? A. "Your urine may turn reddish orange." B. "Your stools may turn black." C. "Your skin may turn yellowish orange." D. "Your sweat may turn yellow."
A. "Your urine may turn reddish orange."
Which is an early laboratory marker of inflammation? A. C-Reactive protein B. Bradykinin C. Histamine D. Prostaglandins
A. C-Reactive protein
A client who had a kidney transplant 5 days prior says to the nurse, "I am glad I did not reject my kidney." Which information should the nurse provide the client? Select all that apply. A. Cell-mediated rejection takes place about 2 weeks after transplant. B. Chronic rejection may occur months after transplant. C. Chronic rejection may occur years after transplant. D. Transplant rejection does not occur until several days after transplant. E. Transplant rejection is rare in kidney transplants.
A. Cell-mediated rejection takes place about 2 weeks after transplant. B. Chronic rejection may occur months after transplant. C. Chronic rejection may occur years after transplant.
A nurse is instructing a client how to self-administer enfuvirtide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "Allow the vial to sit until the solution is completely clear and without particulates." B. "After reconstituting with sterile water, vigorously shake the vial to mix the solution." C. "Use the medication immediately upon removing from the refrigerator." D. "Use the same location for five injections before rotating to a new site."
A. "Allow the vial to sit until the solution is completely clear and without particulates."
A nurse in a provider's office receives a call from a client who has been taking penicillin V three times daily and reports abdominal cramping with bloody diarrhea for several days. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client? A. "Bring in a stool sample for testing." B. "Take the drug only twice daily." C. "Use an over-the-counter anti-diarrheal medication." D. "Return to the clinic for blood work."
A. "Bring in a stool sample for testing."
A nurse is teaching a client about maraviroc. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "It is important to report any noticeable rash immediately as it might indicate an issue with your liver." B. "Make sure you take this medication without any other medications first thing in the morning." C. "You might experience flu-like symptoms for which you can take any over-the-counter medication." D. "The side effects of this medication are minimal, so you can continue to work and drive as normal."
A. "It is important to report any noticeable rash immediately as it might indicate an issue with your liver."
A nurse is teaching a client about immunizations. Which of the following information should the nurse include about the teaching? A. "You should receive a tetanus booster every 10 years." B. "You should not receive the influenza immunization if you have a common cold." C. "You do not have to receive the shingles vaccine if you have received two doses of the varicella virus vaccine." D. "As long as you don't have risk factors, you will start receiving the pneumococcal vaccine when you are 50 years old."
A. "You should receive a tetanus booster every 10 years."
A nurse is teaching a guardian of a child about the recommended age range to receive the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine. Which of the following age ranges should the nurse include? A. 11 to 12 years old B. 7 to 9 years old C. 13 to 15 years old D. 15 to 17 years old
A. 11 to 12 years old
A nurse is preparing to administer enfuvirtide to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to perform. Select all that apply. A. Administer the drug subcutaneously. B. Discard the unused portion. C. Roll the vial gently to reconstitute the solution. D. Inject the solution at room temperature. E. Expect a cloudy solution.
A. Administer the drug subcutaneously. C. Roll the vial gently to reconstitute the solution. D. Inject the solution at room temperature.
Which of the following scenarios best describes a superinfection? A. An infant taking amoxicillin for an ear infection develops oral thrush. B. A patient needs to take two different antibiotics for a wound infection based on a culture and sensitivity of the wound. C. A young woman taking oral contraceptives is advised to use a back up method of birth control when prescribed doxycycline for Lyme disease. D. Culture and sensitivity shows a patient presumptively treated with sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim needs a different antibiotic for treatment of a urinary tract infection.
A. An infant taking amoxicillin for an ear infection develops oral thrush
Which of the following disorders involve the inflammatory response? Select all that apply. A. Appendicitis B. Sprained ankle C. COVID-19 infection D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Gout
A. Appendicitis B. Sprained ankle C. COVID-19 infection D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Gout
A nurse is preparing to administer the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to a child. The nurse should recognize that the MMR vaccine provides which of the following types of immunity? A. Artificial active immunity B. Active C. Passive D. Artificial passive immunity
A. Artificial active immunity
What does resistance mean? A. Bacteria can no longer be eradicated by specific antibiotic B. Range of antibiotic activity C. A lab test that determines which antibiotics will successfully treat a specific infection D. An agent which inhibits the growth of bacteria E. An agent which kills bacteria
A. Bacteria can no longer be eradicated by specific antibiotic
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin and has a new prescription for trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole to treat a urinary tract infection. The nurse should clarify the prescriptions with the provider because taking these two drugs concurrently can increase the client's risk for which of the following? A. Bleeding B. Thrombosis C. ECG changes D. Ototoxicity
A. Bleeding
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for imatinib to treat chronic myeloid leukemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? Select all that apply. A. Clean fruits and vegetables thoroughly. B. Increase calcium intake. C. Weigh yourself daily. D. Perform hand hygiene frequently. E. Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice.
A. Clean fruits and vegetables thoroughly. C. Weigh yourself daily. D. Perform hand hygiene frequently. E. Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice.
Which of the following applies to COVID-19? Select all that apply. A. Communicability B. Toxigenicity C. Virulence D. Pathogenicity
A. Communicability C. Virulence D. Pathogenicity
Which of the following are benefits of treatment with acetaminophen? Select all that apply. A. Cost B. Anti-inflammatory properties C. Liver toxicity D. Safety E. No risk of upper GI bleeding
A. Cost E. No risk of upper GI bleeding
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of breast cancer about the drug tamoxifen. The nurse should tell the client that which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking tamoxifen? A. Deep-vein thrombosis B. COPD C. Diabetes mellitus D. Alcohol use disorder
A. Deep-vein thrombosis
A nurse is reviewing a client's prescriptions prior to administering gentamicin to the client to treat a systemic infection. The nurse should clarify the use of gentamicin with the provider if the client is taking which of the following drugs? A. Ethacrynic acid B. Diphenhydramine C. Acetaminophen D. Levothyroxine
A. Ethacrynic acid
A nurse is preparing to administer paclitaxel IV to a client who has ovarian cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take. Select all that apply. A. Give the client an antihistamine. B. Infuse the drug over 1 hr. C. Administer the drug through non-PVC tubing. D. Use an in-line filter. E. Add heparin to the paclitaxel solution.
A. Give the client an antihistamine. C. Administer the drug through non-PVC tubing. D. Use an in-line filter.
A nurse is teaching the guardian of a 4- month- old infant about recommended immunizations for the infant. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse include? A. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine (Hib) B. Varicella vaccine C. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MCV4) D. Tetanus-diphtheria-acelluar pertussis vaccine (Tdap)
A. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine (Hib)
A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed zidovudine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider? A. Hemoglobin 7.1 g/dL B. RBC count 5.2/mm3 C. Neutrophil 57% D. Triglycerides 125 mg/dL
A. Hemoglobin 7.1 g/dL
A nurse is teaching a client about recommended immunizations. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse recommend the client receive starting at 50 years of age? A. Herpes zoster vaccine B. Human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV) C. Pneumococcal vaccine D. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine (Hib)
A. Herpes zoster vaccine
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking isoniazid to treat treatuberculosis. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects of the drug? Select all that apply. A. Jaundice B. Numbness of the hands C. Dizziness D. Hearing loss E. Oral ulcers
A. Jaundice B. Numbness of the hands C. Dizziness
Which of the following nosocomial infections are now commonly found in the community? Select all that apply. A. MRSA B. VRE C. C. diff D. CRE
A. MRSA C. C. diff
Which of the following miscellaneous antibiotics is very useful in clinical practice? A. Metronidazole B. Chloramphenicol C. Linezolid D. Vancomycin
A. Metronidazole
A nurse is preparing a client who has a new prescription for maraviroc therapy. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects. Select all that apply. A. Paresthesia B. Cough C. Tinnitus D. Jaundice E. Fever
A. Paresthesia B. Cough D. Jaundice E. Fever
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for cisplatin to treat testicular cancer. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects? Select all that apply. A. Paresthesia B. Sore throat C. Flank pain D. Tinnitus E. Conjunctivitis
A. Paresthesia B. Sore throat C. Flank pain D. Tinnitus
Which of the following severe adverse events occur with macrolide antibiotics but not penicillin or cephalosporin antibiotics? A. QT prolongation B. Superinfection C. Anaphylaxis D. Pseudomembranous colitis
A. QT prolongation
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for delavirdine therapy to treat HIV-1. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse reactions to this drug? A. Rash B. Insomnia C. Rhinitis D. Alopecia
A. Rash
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has suspected HIV-associated muscle wasting. Which of the following findings supports this diagnosis? A. Report of fever for thirty days. B. BMI 26 C. Fecal impaction D. Report of high alcohol consumption.
A. Report of fever for thirty days.
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking metronidazole to treat an anaerobic intra-abdominal bacterial infection. The nurse should recognize that cautious use of the drug is indicated if the client also has which of the following? A. Seizure disorder B. Hearing loss C. Asthma D. Anemia
A. Seizure disorder
How about an antiseptic? A. Surgical wounds B. Exam tables C. Intact skin D. Surgical instruments E. Counter tops
A. Surgical wounds C. Intact skin
Which of the following signs and symptoms are characteristic of inflammation? Select all that apply. A. Swelling B. Shortness of breath C. Nausea and vomiting D. Redness E. Itching
A. Swelling D. Redness E. Itching
A nurse in a provider's office receives a call from a client who is taking ciprofloxacin to treat a respiratory tract infection and reports dyspepsia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client? A. Take an antacid at least 2 hr after taking the drug. B. Take the drug with a cup of coffee. C. Take an iron supplement with the drug. D. Take the drug with 240 mL (8 oz) of milk.
A. Take an antacid at least 2 hr after taking the drug.
Which of the following do Clostridium species and anthrax have in common? A. The ability to form spores B. They are both aerobic bacteria C. They all cause tetanus D. They all cause food poisoning E. Their toxoids all have pharmacologic use
A. The ability to form spores
A nurse is teaching a client who has cancer about ways to increase protein and calories in foods. Which of the following actions should the nurse include? Select all that apply. A. Top fruit with yogurt. B. Sprinkle cheese on a baked potato. C. Dip chicken in eggs before cooking. D. Use peanut butter as a spread on crackers. E. Add water in place of milk in soups.
A. Top fruit with yogurt. B. Sprinkle cheese on a baked potato. C. Dip chicken in eggs before cooking. D. Use peanut butter as a spread on crackers?
A nurse is considering drug therapy options for a client who has metastatic breast cancer that is positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). Which of the following drugs should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe? A. Trastuzumab B. Imatinib C. Leuprolide D. Flutamide
A. Trastuzumab
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for mercaptopurine to treat leukemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? Select all that apply. A. Use contraception if pregnancy is a risk. B. Perform oral hygiene frequently. C. Avoid activities that require mental alertness. D. Perform hand hygiene frequently. E. Avoid activities that can cause injury.
A. Use contraception if pregnancy is a risk. B. Perform oral hygiene frequently. D. Perform hand hygiene frequently. E. Avoid activities that can cause injury.
A nurse in an oncology clinic is caring for a client who is undergoing treatment for cancer and reports difficulty eating due to inability to taste food. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend? A. Use plastic utensils to eat. B. Eat foods that are warm. C. Avoid citrus juices. D. Increase foods high in pectin.
A. Use plastic utensils to eat.
Which of the following medications are used for HIV infection? Select all that apply. A.Ritonavir B.Zidovudine C.Acyclovir D.Tenofovir
A.Ritonavir B.Zidovudine D.Tenofovir
Which should the nurse recognize is a broad-spectrum penicillin? Select all that apply. A. Oxacillin B. Ampicillin C. Piperacillin D. Amoxicillin E. Dicloxacillin
B. Ampicillin D. Amoxicillin
Which class of antifungals is the largest and most versatile group? A. Mycolic acid inhibitor B. Azole C. Polyene D. Anthelminthic
B. Azole
Which describes the major difference between B cell lymphocytes and T cell lymphocytes? A. T cells produce clones. B. B cells produce antibodies. C. B cells produce clones. D. T cells produce antibodies.
B. B cells produce antibodies.
Which should the nurse understand can be used to minimize bone marrow toxicity? Select all that apply. A. Alkylating agents B. Bone marrow transplantation C. Hormone antagonists D. Platelet administration E. Growth factor therapy
B. Bone marrow transplantation D. Platelet administration E. Growth factor therapy
A parent tells the nurse their child receiving leukemia chemotherapy has been exposed to varicella (chickenpox). Which instruction should the nurse provide the parent? A. Bring the child to the clinic immediately to receive a vaccination for chickenpox. B. Bring the child into the clinic as soon as possible to receive an injection of varicella immune globulin. C. Keep the child away from other children to avoid further exposure to varicella. D. If the child develops chicken pox come into the clinic for an injection of varicella immune globulin.
B. Bring the child into the clinic as soon as possible to receive an injection of varicella immune globulin.
Which is the most important nursing consideration for clients receiving alkylating agents? A. Skin integrity B. CBC with differential C. Nutritional intake D. Nausea and vomiting
B. CBC with differential
Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor the client receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for? A. Hepatotoxicity B. Cardiotoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Neurotoxicity
B. Cardiotoxicity
Which should the nurse monitor a client for that is prescribed cefotaxime (Claforan)? A. Tachycardia B. Diarrhea C. Fever D. Headache
B. Diarrhea
Which information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a client prescribed tetracycline? Select all that apply. A. Take the medication with antacids. B. Do not take the prescription with iron supplements. C. Do not take the prescription with milk. D. Do not take the prescription with vitamins. E. Take the prescription with food.
B. Do not take the prescription with iron supplements. C. Do not take the prescription with milk. E. Take the prescription with food.
Which laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate evaluating prior to a client receiving ibuprofen (Advil) for long-term therapy? Select all that apply. A. Electrolytes B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit C. Bleeding times D. Liver function tests E. Serum amylase
B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit C. Bleeding times D. Liver function tests
Which is a priority assessment when planning care for a client receiving immunostimulant therapy? A. Changes in weight B. Hepatic enzymes C. Intake and output D. Vital signs
B. Hepatic enzymes
The nurse notes a client that has received intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) develops an upper body rash and has a decreased urine output. In addition to notifying the healthcare provider, which is the nurse's priority action? A. Obtain a stat x-ray B. Hold the next dose of vancomycin (Vancocin) C. Administer an antihistamine D. Obtain a sterile urine specimen
B. Hold the next dose of vancomycin (Vancocin)
Which information should the nurse include in the discussion with a client about humoral and cell-mediated immune responses? A. Humoral immunity refers to immune responses where targets are attacked by immune cells. B. Humoral immunity refers to immune responses that are mediated by antibodies. C. B lymphocytes are an important part of cell-mediated immunity. D. Helper T cells are an important part of humoral immunity.
B. Humoral immunity refers to immune responses that are mediated by antibodies.
Which action should the nurse take after discontinuing an intravenous infusion of vincristine (Oncovin) that has extravasated? Select all that apply. A. Apply local ice packs. B. Inject hyaluronidase per protocol. C. Place a tourniquet on the client's arm above the IV site. D. Place warm compresses on the site. E. Administer prednisone per protocol.
B. Inject hyaluronidase per protocol. D. Place warm compresses on the site.
Which priority nursing actions should the nurse take prior to administering penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin LA) to a client? Select all that apply. A. Have the client lie down and assess vital signs. B. Inquire about a history of allergies to penicillin. C. Inform the client that they will need be observed for 30 minutes after the injection. D. Inform the client that they will need someone to drive them home. E. Advise the client to rest for the remainder of the day.
B. Inquire about a history of allergies to penicillin. C. Inform the client that they will need be observed for 30 minutes after the injection.
A client tells the nurse they have been treated with interferon alfa-2b for cancer. Which types of cancer should the nurse recognize the client may have been treated for? Select all that apply. A. Breast cancer B. Malignant melanoma C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Bladder cancer E. Oral cancer
B. Malignant melanoma C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Bladder cancer
Which should the nurse monitor a client for that is receiving a salicylate? Select all that apply. A. Neurotoxicity B. Ototoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Cardiotoxicity E. Pulmonary toxicity
B. Ototoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity
Which treatment plan should the nurse anticipate for the client with a sore throat, with white patches on the tonsils and swollen cervical lymph nodes? A. Prescription for blood cultures. B. Prescription for a throat culture. C. Prescription of a narrow-spectrum antibiotic. D. Prescription of a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
B. Prescription for a throat culture.
Which information should the nurse include when discussing the bodies defense against an invading organism? A. Specific body defense includes the complement system. B. Specific body defense usually only acts against a single organism. C. Nonspecific body defense is effective primarily against bacteria. D. Nonspecific body defense is also known as the immune response.
B. Specific body defense usually only acts against a single organism.
Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for the older client receiving nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) therapy? A. The client will refrain from taking other medications with the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). B. The client will report any bleeding or bruising while taking the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). C. The client will avoid the use of caffeine while taking the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). D. The client will report any mood changes while taking the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
B. The client will report any bleeding or bruising while taking the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
Which describes the growth fraction ratio? A. The number of replicating cells to the number of active cells. B. The number of replicating cells to the number of resting cells. C. The number of nonreplicating cells to the number of resting cells. D. The number of nonreplicating cells to the number of active cells.
B. The number of replicating cells to the number of resting cells.
Which information should the nurse provide the client prescribed oseltamivir (Tamiflu)? Select all that apply. A. This prescription is administered via inhalation. B. This prescription should be taken immediately. C. This prescription will keep you from getting the flu. D. This is an expensive prescription. E. This prescription will be helpful if you have influenza or a cold.
B. This prescription should be taken immediately. D. This is an expensive prescription.
Which clinical finding indicates the nurse should hold the dose of methotrexate (MTX)? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Ulcerative stomatitis C. Elevated white blood cell count D. Elevated serum uric acid level
B. Ulcerative stomatitis
For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor the client prescribed tamoxifen? A. Fatigue B. Vaginal discharge C. Signs of dehydration D. Cough
B. Vaginal discharge
The nurse is preparing to administer a second dose of diphtheria-pertussis-tetanus (DPT) when the parent expresses concern that their child developed a red rash after the previous diphtheria-pertussis-tetanus (DPT) immunization. Which action should the nurse take? A. Instruct the parent to give the child acetaminophen (Tylenol) if another rash develops. B. Withhold this immunization and contact the healthcare provider. C. Administer only a pertussis-tetanus immunization. D. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) prior to the diphtheria-pertussis-tetanus (DPT) immunization.
B. Withhold this immunization and contact the healthcare provider.
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a parent of a child diagnosed with ascariasis? Select all that apply. A. "Your child has pinworms." B. "Children get worms from playing in infected soil." C. "Treatment will consist of medication for 3 days." D. "No treatment will be necessary after I give this one pill." E. "No treatment is necessary; the worms will die on their own."
B. "Children get worms from playing in infected soil." C. "Treatment will consist of medication for 3 days."
A client asks the nurse why there aren't better drugs for HIV infection when so much money is spent on research. Which response should the nurse provide? A. "Developing new drugs is difficult because of the perception that AIDS is no longer a problem." B. "Developing new drugs is difficult because the virus mutates so readily." C. "Developing new drugs is difficult because we still do not understand the virus." D. "Antiviral drugs are difficult to create."
B. "Developing new drugs is difficult because the virus mutates so readily."
The nurse reviewing a client's records notes the client has been receiving nitazoxanide (Alinia). Which question should the nurse ask the client? A. "Do you still have mosquito bites?" B. "Do you have access to clean water?" C. "Are you still cleaning the cat litter box?" D. "Has your partner been treated?"
B. "Do you have access to clean water?"
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed a topical antifungal. Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is needed? A. "I will make sure my clothing is loose over the area." B. "I will protect the area with an occlusive dressing." C. "I will not scrub the area where the prescription will be applied." D. "I will allow the area to dry after applying the prescription."
B. "I will protect the area with an occlusive dressing."
The nurse has provided education for a client with AIDS prescribed antiviral treatment. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I will need to limit my travel to avoid people with other infections." B. "I will still need to take precautions to avoid spreading the virus to others." C. "I will not be able to continue working at my high-stress job anymore." D. "I will need to be on a high-calorie diet to enhance the effect of the medication."
B. "I will still need to take precautions to avoid spreading the virus to others."
A client asks the nurse if they can use liquid acetaminophen (Tylenol) that is used for an older child for their 4-month-old baby with a fever. Which response should the nurse provide? A. "You can use the same prescription for both children." B. "Infant drops should be used because they are different from liquid medicine." C. "You can use the same medication, just use half the recommended dosage." D. "Infants should not be given acetaminophen (Tylenol) because it damages the liver."
B. "Infant drops should be used because they are different from liquid medicine."
The nursing educator reviews the subject of fungal infections with a nurse. Which statements made by the nurse indicate an understanding of the information? Select all that apply. A. "Superficial infections are more difficult to treat than systemic infections." B. "Newer medications can be used for superficial as well as systemic infections." C. "Systemic infections are much more common than superficial infections." D. "Superficial infections are considered more benign than systemic infections." E. "Systemic infections require oral medications that have serious adverse effects."
B. "Newer medications can be used for superficial as well as systemic infections." D. "Superficial infections are considered more benign than systemic infections." E. "Systemic infections require oral medications that have serious adverse effects."
A client with cancer that has not responded to treatment asks the nurse why he is being offered palliative chemotherapy. Which information should the nurse include in the discussion? Select all that apply. A. "Palliative chemotherapy can continue to help slow the growth of the cancer." B. "Sometimes the chemotherapy can reduce the size of the tumor." C. "The cancer may still respond to treatment." D. "Chemotherapy can sometimes reduce the pain." E. "Chemotherapy may well improve your quality of life."
B. "Sometimes the chemotherapy can reduce the size of the tumor." D. "Chemotherapy can sometimes reduce the pain." E. "Chemotherapy may well improve your quality of life."
The nurse has provided parental education on infant immunization. Which statements made by the parent indicates an understanding of the information? Select all that apply. A. "The immunizations are more effective if they are given closer together." B. "The baby might have a mild fever and be fussy for a few days." C. "I will call the healthcare provider immediately if the baby develops a fever." D. "I can give acetaminophen (Tylenol) if the baby has a mild fever." E. "I should be concerned that a mild fever may indicate an allergic reaction has occurred."
B. "The baby might have a mild fever and be fussy for a few days." D. "I can give acetaminophen (Tylenol) if the baby has a mild fever."
A client with AIDS asks the nurse why he must take so many prescriptions. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Because the earlier we start multiple medications, the better the outcome." B. "To decrease the possibility of the virus developing resistance to the medications." C. "To provide you with the most effective treatment for your illness." D. "Research has shown single medications to be ineffective."
B. "To decrease the possibility of the virus developing resistance to the medications."
Which of the following is true regarding aminoglycoside antibiotics? A. Aminoglycoside antibiotics are commonly prescribed oral antibiotics. B. Aminoglycoside antibiotics are commonly found in over-the-counter anti-infective topical products. C. Aminoglycoside antibiotics do not have any Black Box warnings. D. Aminoglycoside antibiotics are first line treatments for urinary tract infections caused by E. coli.
B. Aminoglycoside antibiotics are commonly found in over-the-counter anti-infective topical products.
A nurse is caring for a client who has streptococcal pharyngitis and an allergy to penicillin. The nurse should recognize that which of the following drugs can be safely administered to this client? A. Nafcillin B. Azithromycin C. Cephalexin D. Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid
B. Azithromycin
A nurse in a provider's office receives a call from a patient who is taking tetracycline orally to treat a chlamydia infection and reports severe blood-tinged diarrhea. The nurse should suspect the client is experiencing which of the following? A. Hemorrhoids B. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea C. Diverticular disease D. Small bowel obstruction
B. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin receiving acyclovir IV to treat a viral infection. The nurse should recognize that cautious use of the drug is essential if the client also has which of the following conditions? A. Heart failure B. Dehydration C. Asthma D. Tinnitus
B. Dehydration
Which of the following statements is false? A. Mycobacteria species are the causative agent of tuberculosis B. Fungal organisms are plant-like and rely on photosynthesis C. Protozoal, helminthic, and amebic infections are all parasitic infections D. a patient with a helminthic infection will have an elevated eosinophil count
B. Fungal organisms are plant-like and rely on photosynthesis
A nurse is teaching a client who is undergoing cancer treatment about interventions to manage stomatitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? A. I will consume more food in the morning. B. I will avoid toasting my bread. C. I will add more citrus foods to my diet. D. I will try chewing larger pieces of food.
B. I will avoid toasting my bread.
Which of the following was thought to be an advantage of COX-2 inhibitors versus aspirin or NSAIDs? A. Cost B. Less risk of upper GI bleeding C. More potent anti-inflammatory effects D. Safety
B. Less risk of upper GI bleeding
What does spectrum mean? A. Bacteria can no longer be eradicated by specific antibiotic B. Range of antibiotic activity C. A lab test that determines which antibiotics will successfully treat a specific infection D. An agent which inhibits the growth of bacteria E. An agent which kills bacteria
B. Range of antibiotic activity
Which of the following is false regarding sulfonamide antibiotics? A. Sulfonamide antibiotics were first used prior to World War II. B. Sulfonamide antibiotics are not currently used in clinical practice due to resistance. C. Sulfonamide antibiotics typically cause gastrointestinal side effects. D. People allergic to sulfonamide antibiotics may also be allergic to thiazide diuretics.
B. Sulfonamide antibiotics are not currently used in clinical practice due to resistance.
A nurse in a provider's office receives a call from a client who was recently hospitalized and treated with imipenem IV for a bacterial infection and reports an inability to eat due to mouth pain. The nurse should identify that the client might be experiencing which of the following as an adverse effect of this drug? A. Malabsorption B. Superinfection C. Anorexia D. Dental caries
B. Superinfection
Which of the following do all bacteria have in common? A. They are all the same shape B. They all require a cell wall C. They all need oxygen to reproduce D. They are all Gram-
B. They all require a cell wall
Which describes the direct action of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for fever reduction? Select all that apply. A. Constriction of peripheral blood vessels B. Increase activity of the sweat glands C. Dilation of peripheral blood vessels D. Direct action at the level of the hypothalamus E. Decreases tissue inflammation
C. Dilation of peripheral blood vessels D. Direct action at the level of the hypothalamus
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching about bacteria with a client? Select all that apply. A. Bacteria are either aerobic or anaerobic. B. Bacteria are multicellular organisms. C. E. coli are gram-negative bacteria. D. Gram staining is one way to identify bacteria. E. Spherical-shaped bacteria are called cocci.
C. E. coli are gram-negative bacteria. D. Gram staining is one way to identify bacteria. E. Spherical-shaped bacteria are called cocci.
Which finding is a common adverse effect of an anti-inflammatory prescription? A. Diarrhea B. Palpitations C. Heartburn D. Hypotension
C. Heartburn
Prior to administering a prescribed dose of gentamicin (Garamycin), the nurse notes a client's serum level of gentamicin (Garamycin) is 12 mcg/mL? Which action should the nurse take? A. Request a new serum level B. Request a new culture and sensitivity C. Hold the dose of gentamicin D. Administer the dose of gentamicin
C. Hold the dose of gentamicin
Which adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in a client receiving acyclovir (Zovirax)? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Auditory and visual hallucinations C. Increased serum creatinine D. Respiratory distress
C. Increased serum creatinine
Which describes the mechanism of action for Ibuprofen (Advil)? A. Blocks pain impulses sent to the brain B. Directly acts on the hypothalamus C. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis D. Decreases stimulation of sensory nerve fibers
C. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
Which mechanism of action do azole antifungals have? A. Impair fungal cellular growth B. Interferes with DNA replication C. Interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol D. Cytotoxic effect on the fungus
C. Interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol
Which describes a major characteristic of viruses? A. Intracellular bacterial in nature B. Extracellular bacterial in nature C. Intracellular parasites D. Extracellular parasites
C. Intracellular parasites
Which of the following should the nurse identify as a component of the specific immune response? A. Epithelial lining of the skin B. Gastrointestinal membrane C. Lymphocytes D. Phagocytes
C. Lymphocytes
Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed aspirin (ASA)? A. Discontinue taking the aspirin if you experience stomach upset. B. Take the aspirin on an empty stomach in the morning. C. Take the aspirin with a glass of milk. D. Take the aspirin with orange juice in the morning.
C. Take the aspirin with a glass of milk.
Which describes the action of urinary antiseptics? Select all that apply. A. They can be administered intravenously. B. They are used as first-line treatment of urinary tract infections. C. Therapeutic levels of the drug are reached in the kidney. D. They treat local infections in the urinary tract. E. The anti-infective action is are specific to the urinary system.
C. Therapeutic levels of the drug are reached in the kidney. D. They treat local infections in the urinary tract. E. The anti-infective action is are specific to the urinary system.
Which describes a characteristic of the class of carbapenems? A. They have one of the longest half-lives. B. They have some of the narrowest antimicrobial spectrums. C. They have some of the broadest antimicrobial spectrums. D. They have one of the lowest resistance rates.
C. They have some of the broadest antimicrobial spectrums.
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed hepatis A immunoglobulin after being exposed to hepatitis A? A. You will need another booster in 6 months. B. You will not need to worry about contracting hepatitis A for the next 5 to 8 years. C. This injection may keep you from contracting hepatitis A. D. If you plan on traveling out of the country, you will need another injection.
C. This injection may keep you from contracting hepatitis A.
Which is the nurse's priority when preparing to administer intravenous vesicant chemotherapy? A. Place the client in reverse isolation prior to administering the vesicant. B. Notify the healthcare provider for a central line placement. C. Understand the protocol for extravasation. D. Wear gloves when drawing up the medication.
C. Understand the protocol for extravasation.
A client receiving interferon alfa-2b (Intron-A) tells the nurse that they get very sleepy and thirsty every time they take the prescription. Which assessment question should the nurse ask the client? A. "Have you had any flu symptoms lately?" B. "Are you consuming at least eight glasses of water daily?" C. "Are you including beverages with alcohol in your diet?" D. "How much time have you spent out in the sun?"
C. "Are you including beverages with alcohol in your diet?"
A client asks the nurse why they need a booster vaccine. Which response should the nurse provide? A. "Boosters stimulate the production of antibodies." B. "Boosters reactive your immunity." C. "Boosters provide sustained protection." D. "Boosters cover the new strains of viruses."
C. "Boosters provide sustained protection."
A client with cancer asks the nurse how cancer occurs. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Cancer is caused primarily by viruses in the environment." B. "Cigarette smoking and second-hand smoke are the primary causes of cancer." C. "Cancer cells are the body's cells that have lost the ability to control their growth." D. "Cancer is genetic; you inherited the predisposition for cancer."
C. "Cancer cells are the body's cells that have lost the ability to control their growth."
The nurse has provided education about the action of histamines for a client. Which statement indicates an understanding of the information? A. "Histamine constricts vessels, causing capillaries to become more permeable." B. "Histamine is inhibited by nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)." C. "Histamine dilates the vessels in the nose, so it is congested and stuffy." D. "Histamine is primarily stored in phagocyte cells in the skin."
C. "Histamine dilates the vessels in the nose, so it is congested and stuffy."
The nurse has provided education for a client being treated for pinworms with mebendazole (Vermox). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I must have three negative stool cultures before I am cured." B. "I will consume high-fiber foods to help with passage of the worms." C. "I will make sure to chew the tablet." D. "I will avoid aspirin while I am on this medication."
C. "I will make sure to chew the tablet."
Which statement made by a client prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra) should the nurse be concerned about? A. "I forgot to take iron today." B. "If I go out I will make sure to use a strong sunscreen." C. "I will not take my warfarin at the same time." D. "I will take this prescription with water."
C. "I will not take my warfarin at the same time."
A client prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) for 10 days to treat strep throat tells the nurse that they are going to stop the prescription when they feel better. Which initial response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Stopping the prescription early could result in resistance to the antibiotic." B. "You should get another throat culture if your symptoms return." C. "If you stop the prescription early, you may have not effectively killed the bacteria." D. "If you do stop your prescription early, make sure you get another throat culture."
C. "If you stop the prescription early, you may have not effectively killed the bacteria."
A client that is experiencing inflammation from an injury asks the nurse how long it will take to respond to treatment. Which is the best response by the nurse? A. "With proper care, it will take about a month for symptoms to resolve." B. "It will depend on your response to the prescriptions." C. "It will take about a week and a half for the symptoms to resolve." D. "The inflammatory process is too complex to predict a time frame for healing."
C. "It will take about a week and a half for the symptoms to resolve."
A client asks the nurse why lung cancers are less sensitive to antineoplastic agents. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Lung cancer cells grow in a high-oxygen environment, so they are not very sensitive to antineoplastic agents." B. "Lung cancer cells have a very erratic cell cycle, and this is why there isn't much difference between the number of replicating and resting cells." C. "Lung cancer cells have a low growth fraction, which means there isn't much difference between the number of replicating and resting cells." D. "Lung cancer cells have been growing for a long time before detection, so they are less sensitive to antineoplastic agents."
C. "Lung cancer cells have a low growth fraction, which means there isn't much difference between the number of replicating and resting cells."
A pregnant client with HIV receiving zidovudine asks the nurse why they will not test the newborn for HIV immediately after birth. Which response should the nurse provide? A. "The most sensitive test is the one done at 6 months of age." B. "The tests are much more accurate when your baby gets to be 1 week old." C. "Since you are taking zidovudine, a test at birth will not be accurate." D. "Testing will continue until your baby is 1 year old."
C. "Since you are taking zidovudine, a test at birth will not be accurate."
A client tells the nurse they do not understand why their prescribed antibiotic did not kill the bacteria that caused their infection. Which response should then nurse provide the client? A. "Your healthcare provider will want additional blood work to identify type of bacteria." B. "Your infection is not a serious one and overtime your body should be able to kill the bacteria." C. "Some antibiotics work with your body's ability to help kill the infection." D. "Your healthcare provider will most likely prescribe a different type of antibiotic."
C. "Some antibiotics work with your body's ability to help kill the infection."
A client with a fungal infection of the toenails prescribed oral terbinafine (Lamisil) asks the nurse how a pill will heal the nail infection. What should be the nurse's response? A. "The prescription works by destroying toxins excreted by the fungi in your nails." B. "The prescription works by destroying circulating fungi in your blood." C. "The prescription accumulates in the nail beds and remains there for many months." D. "The prescription will be combined with a topical agent to increase effectiveness."
C. "The prescription accumulates in the nail beds and remains there for many months."
The nurse has completed the teaching for a client with HIV prescribed zidovudine (Retrovir). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? A. "Zidovudine (Retrovir) therapy frequently results in the development of anemia." B. "Zidovudine (Retrovir) will need to be stopped if bone marrow depression occurs." C. "Zidovudine (Retrovir) prevents spread of the virus through sexual contact." D. "Zidovudine (Retrovir) will slow the disease, but not cure it."
C. "Zidovudine (Retrovir) prevents spread of the virus through sexual contact."
What does sensitivity mean? A. Bacteria can no longer be eradicated by specific antibiotic B. Range of antibiotic activity C. A lab test that determines which antibiotics will successfully treat a specific infection D. An agent which inhibits the growth of bacteria E. An agent which kills bacteria
C. A lab test that determines which antibiotics will successfully treat a specific infection
A nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B IV to a client who has a systemic fungal infection. Which of the following drugs should the nurse administer prepare to administer prior to the infusion to prevent or minimize adverse reactions ? Select all that apply. A. Aspirin B. Hydrocortisone C. Acetaminophen D. Diphenhydramine E. Ibuprofen
C. Acetaminophen D. Diphenhydramine
A nurse is teaching a community program on nutritional guidelines for cancer prevention. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? Select all that apply. A. Consume refined grains. B. Increase intake of red meats. C. Add cruciferous vegetables. D. Use oil high in saturated fat. E. Eat foods high in vitamin A.
C. Add cruciferous vegetables. E. Eat foods high in vitamin A.
A nurse should recognize that enfuvirtide can be prescribed to clients who have which of the following conditions? A. Advanced prostate cancer B. Primary brain tumors C. Advanced HIV D. Metastatic ovarian cancer
C. Advanced HIV
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for acyclovir to treat a herpes simplex infection. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor for this client? A. Prothrombin time B. Hct C. BUN D. Aspartate aminotransferase
C. BUN
A patient who is taking amoxicillin to treat a respiratory infection contacts the health care professional to report a rash and wheezing. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide? A. Wait 1 hr and contact the provider if there is no improvement. B. Skip today's dose of amoxicillin and resume taking the drug tomorrow. C. Call emergency services immediately. D. Take an NSAID to reduce skin and airway inflammation.
C. Call emergency services immediately.
Which of these infections would stimulate memory B lymphocytes to provide lifelong immunity? A. Common cold B. Influenza C. Chicken pox D. COVID-19
C. Chicken pox
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking nitrofurantoin to treat a urinary tract infection. The nurse should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse effects of the drug? A. Constipation B. Dark brown urine C. Cough D. Tremors
C. Cough
A. Cytotoxic and helper T cells along with B lymphocytes directly kill bacteria B. Cytotoxic and helper T cells along with B lymphocytes are all involved in antibody production C. Cytotoxic and helper T cells provide cell-mediated immunity while B lymphocytes provide humoral immune responses D. Cytotoxic and helper T cells provide humoral immune responses while B lymphocytes provide cell-mediated immunity
C. Cytotoxic and helper T cells provide cell-mediated immunity while B lymphocytes provide humoral immune responses
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for topotecan therapy to treat resistant, small-cell lung cancer. The nurse should advise the client against taking which of the following types of over-the-counter drugs while receiving the therapy? A. Folic acid B. St. John's wort C. Ibuprofen D. Aluminum hydroxide
C. Ibuprofen
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for rifampin to treat tuberculosis. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe which of the following drugs to the client to prevent possible resistance to rifampin? A. Gentamicin B. Vancomycin C. Isoniazid D. Metronidazole
C. Isoniazid
medications for helminthic infections include all the following except: A. metronidazole B. Ivermectin C. Isoniazid D. Mebendazole
C. Isoniazid
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking itraconazole to treat a fungal infection. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects of the drug? A. Tingling in the hands and feet B. Joint pain C. Swelling of hands or feet D. Excessive sweating
C. Swelling of hands or feet
Which of the following is a Black Box warning for all fluroquinolone antibiotics? A. Pseudomembranous colitis B. Hepatotoxicity C. Tendon rupture D. Photosensitivity
C. Tendon rupture
Which of the following is false regarding tetracycline antibiotics? A. Tetracycline is effective for treating Lyme disease as well as genitourinary infections such as chlamydia. B. Tetracycline causes weakening and staining of dentin. C. Tetracycline is bactericidal. D. Medications such as antacids can interfere with the absorption of tetracycline antibiotics.
C. Tetracycline is bactericidal.
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin gentamicin therapy to treat an infection. The nurse should monitor the client for an alteration in which of the following? A. Bowel function B. Peripheral pulses C. Urine output D. Level of consciousness
C. Urine output
TB has been present for centuries and historically was a very significant public health threat. What aspect of treatment for TB supports the need for community health nurses? A. medication toxicity B. communicability C. potential treatment noncompliance D. lack of reliable screening
C. potential treatment noncompliance
Which laboratory test should the nurse anticipate prescribed to help identify the correct antibiotic to be used for the treatment of a client with a fever of 104°F? A. Liver function tests B. Complete blood count (CBC) C. Urinalysis D. Blood for culture and sensitivity
D. Blood for culture and sensitivity
Which should a client be monitored for when prescribed a glucocorticoid? A. Hypoglycemia B. Weight loss C. Hypotension D. Bruising
D. Bruising
Which is produced by T cells? A. Leukotrienes B. Lymphocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Cytokines
D. Cytokines
Which are included in the class of immunosuppressants? A. Gamma globulin B. Antipsychotics C. antifungals D. Glucocorticoids
D. Glucocorticoids
Which vaccine is initially administered in the scheduled series of vaccinations? A. Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis B. Meningococcal conjugate C. Measles, mumps, and rubella D. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis B
Which is the nurse's priority assessment for a client prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune)? A. Headaches B. Cardiac output C. Peripheral edema D. Infection
D. Infection
Which describes the action of bactericidal drugs? A. Disrupt normal cell function. B. Slow the growth of the bacteria. C. High potency. D. Kill the bacteria.
D. Kill the bacteria.
Which information should the nurse include in the education for influenza vaccinations? Select all that apply. A. The influenza vaccine is administered as an injection. B. Children should not receive influenza immunizations until age 10. C. Intranasal vaccine is available for preschool children. D. Many adults have a choice between injectable and intranasal forms of immunization. E. A child will receive one dose at 6 months and then every year.
D. Many adults have a choice between injectable and intranasal forms of immunization. E. A child will receive one dose at 6 months and then every year.
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed an antiretroviral agent? A. Weigh yourself daily. B. Use barrier protection when genital lesions are present. C. Monitor your blood pressure daily. D. Practice good handwashing.
D. Practice good handwashing.
Which client should the nurse recognize has the highest risk for developing cancer? A. The client who frequently forgets self-breast exams but has routine mammograms B. The client who usually applies sunscreen when going outdoors C. The client who is 25 pounds overweight but exercises regularly D. The client who consumes excessive alcohol
D. The client who consumes excessive alcohol
Which should the nurse recognize as the primary factor for nonadherence to the prescribed treatment for clients with AIDS? A. The difficulty with availability of medications to treat AIDS B. The weight gain associated with the medications C. A lack of understanding of the reason for taking the medications D. The necessity of having to take multiple medications throughout the day
D. The necessity of having to take multiple medications throughout the day
For which finding should the nurse notify the healthcare provider for a client prescribed prednisone? A. Asthma B. Arthritis C. History of heart failure D. Unexplained fever
D. Unexplained fever
Which laboratory test should the nurse use to evaluate the efficacy of the treatment with antiviral prescriptions? A. CD4 T-cell count B. T4 lymphocyte count C. Viral cultures D. Viral load
D. Viral load
Which of the client's current prescriptions should the nurse consult the healthcare provider about who has prescribed acetaminophen (Tylenol) four times a day? A. Heparin 5000 units subcutaneously every 8 hours B. Penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin LA) 2.4 million units IM one time C. Paroxetine (Paxil) 37.5 mg orally every day D. Warfarin (Coumadin) 2 mg orally every day
D. Warfarin (Coumadin) 2 mg orally every day
A parent expressed concern to the nurse that their child does not have adequate immunity to chicken pox. Which response should the nurse provide? A. "It is unpredictable as to who will develop chicken pox." B. "If you are concerned, we can administer a booster." C. "As long as your child has received all of their vaccinations, they should have adequate immunity." D. "A titer can be drawn to determine if there is adequate immunity."
D. "A titer can be drawn to determine if there is adequate immunity."
Which statement made by a client indicates an understanding of the maximum daily amount of ibuprofen (Motrin)? A. "I cannot take over 3600 mg/day." B. "I cannot take over 4000 mg/day." C. "I cannot take over 3000 mg/day." D. "I cannot take over 3200 mg/day.
D. "I cannot take over 3200 mg/day.
Which information should the nurse include when providing education for an adult female client that is beginning the series of hepatitis B immunizations? A. "Contact your healthcare provider if you develop pain at the injection site, mild fever, or soreness." B. "Immediately report any signs of bleeding such as hematuria, or bleeding from the gums." C. "Avoid crowded areas where you might be exposed to an infectious disease." D. "Practice reliable birth control for 3 months after the administration of the vaccinations."
D. "Practice reliable birth control for 3 months after the administration of the vaccinations."
Which statement should the nurse include in the parental teaching for the administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) to a child? A. "Baby aspirin can be substituted for acetaminophen (Tylenol)." B. "Acetaminophen (Tylenol) should be administered with a high-carbohydrate meal." C. "Due to the lasting effects, acetaminophen (Tylenol) should only be given to children once a day." D. "Read the labels of all over-the-counter medications for the amount of acetaminophen (Tylenol)."
D. "Read the labels of all over-the-counter medications for the amount of acetaminophen (Tylenol)."
Which statement should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)? A. "Dizziness may occur do a decrease in blood pressure." B. "The prescription may exacerbate your asthma." C. "Constipation is common; include roughage in your diet." D. "Take your medication with food."
D. "Take your medication with food."
A client asks why tamoxifen is so effective for the treatment of breast cancer. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Tamoxifen works by inhibiting the cellular mitosis of breast cancer." B. "Tamoxifen works by binding to the DNA of breast cancer cells." C. "Tamoxifen works by inhibiting the metabolism of breast cancer cells." D. "Tamoxifen works by blocking estrogen receptors on breast tissue."
D. "Tamoxifen works by blocking estrogen receptors on breast tissue."
A client with Hodgkin's disease asks the nurse why he is receiving corticosteroids for chemotherapy. Which response should the nurse include in the discussion? A. "The prescription blocks substances for tumor growth." B. "The prescription causes bone marrow suppression." C. "The red blood cells are destroyed." D. "They suppress cell division in lymphocytes."
D. "They suppress cell division in lymphocytes."
A client tells the nurse they would prefer to indefinitely take prednisone to treat their inflammatory disease. Which is the best response by the nurse? A. "When you experience remission you will not need the prescription." B. "The best treatment for your condition is to alternated prescriptions." C. "The prescription will lose its effect after your body builds up a tolerance to it." D. "This is not recommended due to the serious side effects."
D. "This is not recommended due to the serious side effects."
A client receiving an oral nystatin suspension for a candida infection tells the nurse that he cannot continue to "swish and swallow" because his nausea is too great. What should be the nurse's response? A. "I will ask your healthcare provider if a pill form can be substituted." B. "Try having a carbonated drink after you swallow the prescription." C. "I will request an antiemetic to be prescribed for you." D. "You can swish the prescription around and then spit it out."
D. "You can swish the prescription around and then spit it out."
A client asks the nurse when she should start having Pap tests to help detect cervical cancer? A. "By age 21, but earlier if you have a family history of cancer." B. "You should start testing by age 21 or if you begin using alcohol." C. "By age 21 or earlier if you are smoking." D. "You should start the testing by age 21."
D. "You should start the testing by age 21."
The nurse is preparing education for a client prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl). Which laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate to be affected by the prescription? A. BUN/Creatinine B. Electrolytes C. CBC D. ALT/AST
D. ALT/AST
Which should the nurse anticipate prescribed for a client with a complicated MRSA infection? A. Clindamycin (Cleocin) B. Telithromycin (Ketek) C. Linezolid (Zyvox) D. Quinupristin/dalfopristin (Synercid)
D. Quinupristin/dalfopristin (Synercid)
Which of the following is false regarding cephalosporin antibiotics? A. Subsequent generations of cephalosporins are broader spectrum than earlier generations. B. Vaginal yeast infections commonly occur in women prescribed a cephalosporin antibiotic. C. Cephalosporin antibiotics are safe for children and pregnant women. D. All patients with a penicillin allergy are allergic to cephalosporins.
D. All patients with a penicillin allergy are allergic to cephalosporins.
What does bacteriostatic mean? A. Bacteria can no longer be eradicated by specific antibiotic B. Range of antibiotic activity C. A lab test that determines which antibiotics will successfully treat a specific infection D. An agent which inhibits the growth of bacteria E. An agent which kills bacteria
D. An agent which inhibits the growth of bacteria
When administering oral erythromycin to a client who has acute diphtheria, a nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects? A. Hypothermia B. Blurred vision C. Constipation D. Cardiac dysrhythmias
D. Cardiac dysrhythmias
A nurse is caring for a client who has a gynecologic infection and a history of alcohol use disorder. The nurse should identify that which of the following drugs can cause a reaction similar to disulfiram if the client drinks alcohol while taking it? Select all that apply. A. Nitrofurantoin B. Amoxicillin C. Aztreonam D. Cefotetan E. Metronidazole
D. Cefotetan E. Metronidazole
A nurse should recognize that maraviroc is used in the treatment of which of the following conditions? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Meningeal infection C. Pancreatitis D. Chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5)-tropic HIV-1
D. Chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5)-tropic HIV-1
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for intrathecal cytarabine therapy to treat meningeal leukemia. The nurse should inform the client that they will also receive which of the following drugs to reduce the risk of neurotoxicity? A. Diphenhydramine B. Leucovorin C. Folic acid D. Dexamethasone
D. Dexamethasone
What category would COVID-19 vaccines fall into? A. Attenuated B. Inactivated C. Toxoid D. Recombinant
D. Recombinant
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for aztreonam to treat a respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings in the client's medical record should the nurse recognize as requiring cautious use for this prescription and report to the provider? A. Glaucoma B. Closed-head injury C. Heart failure D. Renal impairment
D. Renal impairment
A nurse should recognize that raltegravir is used to treat clients who have which of the following conditions? A. Hairy cell leukemia B. Thyroid cancer C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Resistant HIV
D. Resistant HIV
A nurse is administering cefotetan IV to a client to treat an intra-abdominal infection. The nurse notes that the IV insertion site is warm, edematous, and painful to the touch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Decrease the rate of the cefotetan infusion. B. Administer diphenhydramine to the client. C. Request a prescription for another antibiotic. D. Stop the cefotetan infusion.
D. Stop the cefotetan infusion.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for ritonavir and zidovudine therapy to treat HIV-1. The nurse should inform the client that zidovudine is prescribed with ritonavir for which of the following reasons? A. To prevent an infusion reaction B. To increase platelet production C. To protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of ritonavir D. To prevent drug resistance
D. To prevent drug resistance
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who takes an oral contraceptive and is about to begin rifampin therapy to treat tuberculosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Increase the rifampin dose. B. Increase the oral contraceptive dose. C. Allow 2 hr between taking the two drugs. D. Use a non-hormonal form of contraception.
D. Use a non-hormonal form of contraception.
u A nurse is caring for a client whose sputum culture results indicate methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications will likely be administered to this client? A. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole B. Tetracycline C. Cephalexin D. Vancomycin
D. Vancomycin
which of the following parasitic diseases is spread through a tick bite? A. malaria B. glardia C. trichomonas D. babesiosis
D. babesiosis
A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking ciprofloxacin to treat a urinary tract infection. The client also takes prednisolone to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Recognizing the adverse effects of ciprofloxacin, the nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following? A. tachycardia b. hair loss C. insomnia D. tendon pain
D. tendon pain
Of the following viral infections, which one is curable with antiviral therapy? A.Herpes simplex B.Influenza C.Rubeola D.Hepatitis C
D.Hepatitis C
Which statement about viral infections and/or their pharmacologic treatment is false? A.Some viral infections are associated with malignancy. B.Medications used to treat viral infections often interact with other medications. C.Some viral infections are associated with birth defects in a fetus. D.Resistance is not a problem with antiviral medications like it is with antibiotics.
D.Resistance is not a problem with antiviral medications like it is with antibiotics.
Name an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections.
acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir
Ingestion of what substance while taking metronidazole causes a disulfiram reaction?
alcohol
Which type of chemotherapy changes the shape of DNA's double helix, thereby preventing cell division?
alkylating agents nitrogen mustards nitrosoureas
What is the first-line recommended antibiotic treatment for an acute middle ear infection (otitis media)?
amoxicillin
What is the most serious adverse event associated with penicillin?
anaphylaxis
This medication may cause Reye's syndrome in children.
aspirin
Fluconazole is a newer systemic antifungal medication which has largely replaced use of Amphotericin B because of fluconazole's improved safety and tolerability. Fluconazole, however, has a narrow spectrum of activity and is effective against only one type of Candida species. Which species does fluconazole effectively treat?
candida albicans
People with HIV who are on antiviral medications are often so successfully treated their viral loads are undetectable. However, the antiviral medications have the potential to cause serious side effects and interact with many other medications. Some antiviral's significantly increase levels of cholesterol and triglycerides. Elevated cholesterol and triglycerides will increase the patient's risk for which chronic conditions?
cardiovascular disease, diabetes, dyslipidemia
Which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug should not be given to a child younger than six months of age?
ibuprofen, motrin
Which class of antibiotics is contraindicated in children younger than 8 years due to the risk of permanently staining teeth and tooth decay?
tetracycline
The following viral infections all have one factor in common; varicella-zoster, hepatitis A and B, influenza, measles, mumps, rubella, polio, human papilloma virus, rabies, and rotavirus. What is that factor?
vaccines
What is the term for an antineoplastic drug that has the potential to cause tissue damage or necrosis if it escapes from a blood vessel during infusion?
vesicant
Identify the following organisms: herpes
virus
What is the most common side effect of tetracycline class antibiotics?
vomiting, GI upset, nausea
Amphotericin B is an intravenous medication used to treat systemic fungal infections. What common adverse effects do patients experience with Amphotericin B infusions?
vomiting, rigors, chills, fever, headache
