OARM
o Which is the drug of choice to treat a patient with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)? § a. Lorazepam (Ativan) § b. Buspirone (BuSpar) § c. Fluvoxamine (Luvox) § d. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C
Illicit substances—
any chemical that alters biologic function and is not required for health maintenance
Bradykinesia-
very slow movement
o Which adverse effects associated with levodopa therapy would support the nursing diagnosis risk for injury? § a. Nausea and vomiting § b. Orthostatic hypotension § c. Anorexia and depression § d. Tachycardia and palpitations
B
o Which vitamin will reduce the therapeutic effects of levodopa? § a. A § b. B6 § c. C § d. D
B
a. A young male patient taking an antipsychotic is experiencing an oculogyric crisis. The nurse prepares to administer i. a. diphenhydramine. ii. b. haloperidol. iii. c. aripiprazole. iv. d. risperidone.
A
o The nurse is caring for a patient with a new prescription for donepezil (Aricept) for symptoms of mild dementia. Which symptom exhibited by the patient should the nurse report to the physician immediately? § a. Bradycardia § b. Vomiting § c. Diarrhea § d. Dyspepsia
A
o The nurse is developing a teaching plan for patients prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). Which information about this medication should be included? § a. There is minimal potential for abuse. § b. Signs of improvement can be seen within 3 days. § c. Sedation is increased compared with other antianxiety medications. d. It stimulates the action of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
A
o What is the recommended time over which antianxiety medications must be gradually tapered before discontinuation? § a. 1 week § b. 1 month § c. 6 months d. 1 year
B
o What must be administered before glucose infusions for a patient in alcohol withdrawal to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy? § a. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) § b. Thiamine § c. Diazepam (Valium) d. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
B
o What must be administered before glucose infusions for a patient in alcohol withdrawal to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy? § a. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) § b. Thiamine § c. Diazepam (Valium) § d. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
B
o What will the nurse instruct patients who are on daily disulfiram (Antabuse) to avoid? § a. All forms of cough syrup § b. Alcohol § c. Benzodiazepines § d. Aspirin products
B
o Which is a benzodiazepine of choice when treating anxiety associated with alcohol withdrawal? § a. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) § b. Oxazepam (Serax) § c. Diazepam (Valium) § d. Clorazepate (Tranxene)
B
o Which meal contains the best sources of dietary fiber? § a. Eggs, bacon, orange juice § b. Salad, whole wheat toast, sliced peach § c. Roast beef, mashed potatoes with gravy, corn, milk d. Grilled hamburger on a bun, fresh carrot sticks, potato chips
B
o Which nursing action is accurate when administering colchicine? § a. Administer the medication subcutaneously. § b. Maintain fluid intake of at least eight 8-ounce glasses daily. § c. Increase fiber in the diet to prevent constipation. § d. Inform the patient that pain will be alleviated in 2 weeks.
B
o Which patient is most likely to respond quickly to antianxiety therapy with benzodiazepines? § a. Patient with a history of long-term anxiety § b. Patient with recent anxiety reactions § c. Patient with severe depression in addition to being anxious d. Patient with incidents of auditory hallucinations
B
a. On what is the choice of tricyclic antidepressants based? i. a. The need to decrease the action of norepinephrine, dopamine, or serotonin ii. b. Patient age and gender iii. c. An absence of adverse effects, such as orthostatic hypotension iv. d. The need for stimulation and increased mental alertness
B
o Dopamine agonists have been linked with which adverse effects in patients with Parkinson's disease? § a. Oculogyric crisis § b. Tardive dyskinesia § c. Sudden sleep events d. Akathisia
C
a. The nurse is preparing 0800 medications for a patient with the medical diagnosis of end stage renal disease. When reviewing the medication administration record (MAR), the nurse notices the patient is scheduled to receive an MAOI drug. Which intervention(s) will the nurse perform before administering the drug? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Assess temperature. ii. b. Provide an alternative drug. iii. c. Hold the MAOI drug. iv. d. Consult with the prescribing health care provider. v. e. Assess urine output prior to administration.
C, D
o What point(s) should be included when teaching a patient about the use of apomorphine for treatment of Parkinson's disease? (Select all that apply.) § a. The restoration of function resulting from stimulation of dopamine receptors is permanent. § b. Apomorphine may be administered intravenously for rapid relief. § c. Apomorphine does not have any opioid activity. § d. A multidose injector pen is commonly used to administer apomorphine. § e. You may experience nausea and vomiting, which can be treated with trimethobenzamide (Tigan). § f. You may experience sleep attacks or episodes of daytime sleepiness.
C, D, E, F
Mixed kwashiorkor-marasmus—
inadequate protein and wasting of fat stores and muscle
Dependence/addiction—
symptoms of compulsive use, tolerance, and withdrawal symptoms on discontinuation
Substance abuse:
8.7% of U.S. population
a. What will the nurse include in a teaching plan for a patient with depression being treated with amitriptyline (Elavil)? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Dryness of the mouth is normal; sucking on sugar free hard candy and ice chips or chewing gum may help alleviate this problem. ii. b. Rise slowly from a supine or sitting position to avoid dizziness and orthostatic hypotension. iii. c. Avoid alcohol and barbiturates. iv. d. If adverse effects occur, discontinue the medication. v. E. An immediate elevation in mood will be noted.
A, B, C
o A female patient is admitted to the adult psychiatric floor with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder. Anxiolytic medications and group therapy have been prescribed. Evaluation of therapeutic outcomes related to her acute stay can be measured by which assessment(s)? (Select all that apply.) § a. She is able to sleep 5 hours during the night. § b. The tremor and pacing she exhibited on admission are reduced. § c. She is able to attend and actively participate in group sessions. § d. She is eating only 10% of her meals. e. She complains of chest pain before group therapy.
A, B, C
o What provide(s) energy sources for body activities and metabolism? (Select all that apply.) § a. Protein § b. Fat § c. Carbohydrate § d. Minerals § e. Vitamins
A, B, C
a. Which area(s) should be addressed by the nurse when obtaining a history of a patient admitted with depression? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Current medications and medical history ii. b. Recent stressors and support system iii. c. Family history of mood disorder iv. d. Dietary patterns e. Insurance coverage
A, B, C, D
o What important point(s) of patient education should be included about disulfiram (Antabuse) therapy? (Select all that apply.) § a. The patient should return for liver function tests in 10 to 14 days following initiation of therapy. § b. Headache, fatigue, and a metallic taste are common adverse effects that usually resolve. § c. Avoid alcohol ingestion to prevent a reaction. d. Carefully read all labels for possible alcohol content, including perfumes and over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as cough syrups. e. Report to the health care provider any allergic symptoms, such as hives or pruritus.
A, B, C, D
a. Which drug(s) interact(s) with SSRI agents? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Tranylcypromine (Parnate) ii. b. Lithium (Eskalith) iii. c. Warfarin (Coumadin) iv. d. Furosemide (Lasix) v. e. Propranolol (Inderal)
A, B, C, E
a. Which is/are extrapyramidal adverse effect(s) of antipsychotic agents? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Spasmodic movements of muscle groups ii. b. Masklike expression iii. c. Lip smacking iv. d. Inability to sit in one place for an extended period e. Weight gain
A, B. C, D
o A patient has completed substance abuse treatment for alcoholism. What will assist in long-term goal attainment and promote abstinence? (Select all that apply.) § a. Naltrexone therapy § b. Regular attendance at NA § c. Regular contact with his program sponsor § d. Following the 12-step program of AA e. Diazepam therapy to reduce the likelihood of DT
A, C, D
o A patient is being discharged on psyllium (Metamucil). Which explanation(s) by the nurse would be accurate regarding fiber intake? (Select all that apply.) § a. It adds bulk to fecal content. § b. It enhances gastric emptying. § c. It decreases blood cholesterol concentration. § d. It decreases postprandial blood glucose concentration. § e. It stimulates the appetite.
A, C, D
o What can be directly absorbed from the GI tract into the bloodstream? (Select all that apply.) § a. Glucose § b. Sucrose § c. Fructose § d. Galactose § e. Lactose f. Maltose
A, C, D
a. Which food(s) containing significant amounts of tyramine will be contraindicated when a patient is on MAOI therapy? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Beer ii. b. Red meat iii. c. Aged cheeses iv. d. Green vegetables e. Bananas
A, C, E
a. Which postoperative narcotic analgesic will most likely be prescribed to a patient whose current medications include a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), a thyroid hormone, and a multivitamin? i. a. Meperidine (Demerol) ii. b. Morphine iii. c. Ibuprofen (Advil) d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol
B
o A newly admitted patient asks the nurse why the physician has ordered the DASH diet for him. The nurse informs the patient that this diet is ordered to encourage healthy eating specifically for the diagnosis of § a. diabetes. § b. hypertension. § c. arthritis. § d. seizure disorder.
B
a. Why is a combination of antipsychotic agents with benzodiazepines useful in initial treatment of the agitated patient? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Antipsychotics are not effective for 2 days. ii. b. Benzodiazepines allow for lower dosages of antipsychotic agents to be used, thereby decreasing serious adverse effects seen with high-dose therapy. iii. c. It assists in calming the psychotic patient. iv. d. It allows for rapid increase in dosing of the antipsychotic agents to expedite treatment of hallucinations. e. It effectively treats extrapyramidal adverse effects associated with antipsychotic agents.
B, C
o A patient recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease is placed on memantine (Namenda). The family asks why this medication is given. Which explanation(s) by the nurse is/are accurate? (Select all that apply.) § a. Memantine prevents the neurodegeneration of the disease. § b. Memantine improves word recall. § c. Memantine increases the ability to do tasks. § d. Memantine improves sleep. § e. Memantine increases appetite.
B, C
o Clonidine (Catapres) is used in treating which opioid withdrawal symptom(s)? (Select all that apply.) § a. Hypertension § b. Tremors § c. Agitation § d. Depression § e. Sweating f. Nausea
B, C, E
a. The nurse must be sure to instruct the patient about which potential adverse effect(s) of tricyclic antidepressants? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Diarrhea ii. b. Dryness of mouth, nose, and throat iii. c. Constipation iv. d. Nocturia v. e. Urinary retention f. Blurred vision
B, C, E, F
a. The psychiatric nurse is educating an elderly patient and family about antipsychotic drug therapy. When providing this education, the nurse will include which statement(s)? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Hallucinations may be reduced within 1 week of starting. ii. b. Rapid increase in dosages will increase frequency of adverse effects. iii. c. Older patients should be observed for hypertension. iv. d. Tardive dyskinesia may be reversible in early stages. v. e. Full therapeutic response may require 6 to 8 weeks to be achieved.
B, D, E
a. Which statement(s) is/are true regarding the pharmacologic actions of certain antidepressant drugs? (Select all that apply.) i. a. MAOIs block the effects of dopamine in the CNS. ii. b. SSRIs inhibit the destruction and reuptake of serotonin at the synaptic cleft. iii. c. Tricyclic antidepressants block the action of norepinephrine and epinephrine in the SNS. iv. d. Monocyclic antidepressants such as bupropion (Wellbutrin) have an unknown mechanism of action. v. e. SNRIs prolong the action of neurotransmitters by decreasing the destruction of serotonin and norepinephrine.
B, D, E
o A health professional colleague is suspected of having a substance abuse problem because of the person's frequent absenteeism, mood swings when at work, diminished alertness, and poor patient care. Which action(s) will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) § a. Confront the individual. § b. Document specific examples of inappropriate actions. § c. Avoid assigning this individual to patients with narcotic medication orders or high acuities. § d. Notify law enforcement of the suspicions. e. Submit a confidential report to an appropriate supervisor.
B, E
a. The nurse is assessing a patient who is complaining of hearing voices. What is this patient experiencing? i. a. Delusions ii. b. Flight of ideas iii. c. Disorganized thinking iv. d. Hallucinations
D
o Allopurinol
blocks the terminal step in uric acid formation by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase
Akinesia—
loss of movement Starts in one hand or arm
Dyskinesia—
loss of voluntary movement, slow and jerky
Impairment—
failure to fulfill major obligations at work, school, or home
o Marasmus—
lack of calories and protein
o Substance abuse—
periodic purposeful use of a substance that leads to clinically significant impairment
o The nurse is preparing to educate a patient and significant other about antianxiety medications before the patient's discharge. What is pertinent information to be included in the teaching plan? § a. Discuss, review, and validate the behavior monitoring system and intervention flow sheet the patient and significant other will continue to use following discharge. § b. Discuss the possible dependence associated with the medication at length to make sure the patient does not overuse the drug. § c. Instruct the patient to educate family members about the medication therapy, based on recollection of discussions with the nurse. § d. Provide all instructions verbally, with repetition as needed when requested by the patient.
A
o What condition is allopurinol (Zyloprim) used to treat? § a. Gout resulting from antineoplastic therapy § b. Acute attacks of gouty arthritis § c. Cholelithiasis § d. First time gout attacks
A
o What is the rationale for administering levodopa instead of dopamine for treatment of Parkinson's disease? § a. Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier when administered orally. § b. Levodopa is much less expensive. § c. The half-life of dopamine is too short. d. Dopamine has too many reactions with other medications
A
o When a patient taking a monoamine oxidase B inhibitor receives his dietary tray, the nurse knows to remove the § a. cheese. § b. eggs. § c. bread. § d. coffee.
A
o Which dietary fats are cardioprotective? § a. Monounsaturated § b. Polyunsaturated § c. Saturated d. Trans
A
o Which food is a good source of vitamin A? § a. Sweet potatoes § b. Apples § c. Bananas § d. Whole grain bread
A
a. Which instruction(s) is/are most pertinent to include in the discharge teaching of a patient on lithium (Eskalith) who is being discharged? (Select all that apply.) i. a. "Persistent vomiting and profuse diarrhea are signs of toxicity and must be reported to the health care provider immediately." ii. b. "It is important to comply with schedules for blood tests to assess therapeutic levels." iii. c. "You should avoid foods such as Chianti wine and aged cheeses." iv. d. "The common adverse effects to expect, which are excessive nausea, anorexia, and abdominal cramps, tend to resolve." v. e. "You will be gradually weaned off this medication." vi. f. "Take the medication with food or milk."
A, B, D. F
o Parkinson's disease has which characteristic symptom(s)? (Select all that apply.) § a. Muscle tremors § b. Posture alterations § c. Muscle flaccidity § d. Tachycardia e. Slow body movement
A, B, E
Which enteral formula works well in patients with respiratory disorders? A. Nutren pulmonary B. Glucerna C. Ensure D. NovoSource Renal
C
Which type of monitoring does the nurse expect to be part of the patient's plan of care during the initiation of total parental nutrition? A. Pancreatic amylase every 12 hrs B. Echocardiogram daily C. Blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours D. Serum electrolytes every eight hours
C
a. A patient is admitted to a long-term psychiatric setting. The MAOI medication previously prescribed is discontinued by the physician. New orders are obtained to initiate imipramine therapy. The nurse will provide the first dose of imipramine to the patient _____ the MAOI drug. i. a. immediately following the last dose of ii. b. in 1 week following the last dose of iii. c. in 14 days following the last dose of d. before discontinuing
C
a. Which psychological manifestation of depression will improve in response to antidepressant therapy? i. a. Loss of energy ii. b. Palpitations iii. c. Sleep disturbances d. Social withdrawal
D
· Dopamine agonist (apormorphine-Apokyn)
o Facial grimacing, chewing motions, bobbing of the head, rocking (dyskinesia effects)-if reduce meds will take care of it
o Tremors
occur at rest, start in hand, face
Propulsive uncontrolled movement—
occurs when mobility has deteriorated to cause patient to have quickened and shortened steps; leads to falls
a. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a newly prescribed drug, nefazodone, for treatment of depression. Which physical assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider immediately? i. a. Bradycardia ii. b. Dizziness iii. c. Drowsiness d. Urinary retention
A
o The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with gout who has elevated uric acid levels. Which medication will likely be administered? § a. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) § b. Disulfiram (Antabuse) § c. Lactulose (Cephulac) § d. Memantine (Namenda)
A
a. What will the nurse include in a teaching plan for a patient with depression being treated with amitriptyline (Elavil)? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Dryness of the mouth is normal; sucking on sugar free hard candy and ice chips or chewing gum may help alleviate this problem. ii. b. Rise slowly from a supine or sitting position to avoid dizziness and orthostatic hypotension. iii. c. Avoid alcohol and barbiturates. iv. d. If adverse effects occur, discontinue the medication. e. An immediate elevation in mood will be noted.
A, B, C
o The nurse is preparing to begin administration of apomorphine to a patient. Before administering, the nurse will perform a baseline assessment of the patient's (Select all that apply.) § a. mobility. § b. orientation. § c. intellectual ability. § d. alertness. § e. vital signs.
A, B, D, E
a. Which adverse effect(s) may occur as a result of antipsychotic drug therapy? (Select all that apply.) i. a. Acute dystonia ii. b. Akathisia iii. c. Weight loss iv. d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome v. e. Hypoglycemia f. Tardive dyskinesia
A, B, D, F
o A patient is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which action(s) will the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.) § a. Assess for electrolyte imbalance. § b. Check residual volume qid. § c. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position. § d. Monitor blood glucose levels. § e. Discard the solution every 24 hours.
A, D, E
o Which condition(s) and/or circumstance(s) warrant caution when colchicine is used for a patient with gout? (Select all that apply.) § a. Older adult § b. Compromised immunity § c. Psychosis § d. Renal failure § e. Cardiac compromise
A, D, E
o The nurse is providing information to a patient with chronic gout arthritis who is prescribed probenecid. Which information by the nurse is accurate regarding the action of this drug? § a. It prevents uric acid crystal formation. § b. It promotes uric acid excretion. § c. It provides analgesia. d. It treats acute gout attacks
B
o The nurse receives an order to administer colchicine 0.6 mg every 1 to 2 hours until the patient exhibits adverse effects. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect? § a. Diminished fever § b. Diarrhea or nausea § c. Increased urination § d. Decrease in erythema
B
tacrine (Cognex)
Anti-Alzheimer's Agent, Cholinergic (Cholinesterase Inhibitor) Indication: Mild to moderate dementia associated with Alzheimer's disease Action: Increases levels of acetylcholine in CNS by inhibiting its breakdown Therapeutic effects: Improves cognitive function (not a cure) Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, Jaundice associated with a previous course of tacrine therapy Use Cautiously: History for risk of GI bleed. including NSAID therapy Adverse reactions/Side effects: CNS:Dizziness, headache CV:Bradycardia GI:GI bleed, anorexia, diarrhea, drug-induced hepatitis, dyspepsia, nausea, vomiting Assessment: Cognitive function, heart rate, BP. Lab testing: May cause ALT alterations, monitor levels every other week for first 16 weeks, then monthly for 2 months, then every three months through out therapy
a. The nurse is teaching a patient about medication treatment for depression. The patient asks how long it will take before sleep and appetite will begin to improve. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? i. a. 3 days ii. b. 1 week iii. c. 4 weeks d. 2 months
B
a. Which statement is true regarding the adverse effects associated with antipsychotic medications? i. a. Tardive dyskinesia is a common, reversible condition. ii. b. Painful dystonic reactions can occur in the first 72 hours of initiation of therapy. iii. c. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a common adverse effect. iv. d. Pseudoparkinsonian symptoms can cause Parkinson's disease.
B
o A patient admitted 48 hours ago has a diagnosis of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and is receiving IV hydration and transfusions. When making rounds, the nurse observes the patient to be having a tonic-clonic seizure. What may be the cause of the seizure? § a. Low blood counts as a result of bleeding § b. Alcohol withdrawal § c. Alkalosis § d. Inadequate nutrition
B
o A patient is admitted into a substance abuse treatment center and is withdrawing from alcohol. Which statement made by the patient's family member shows a need for further education? § a. "Withdrawal symptoms can begin within a few hours of discontinuation of drinking." § b. "Withdrawal symptoms will improve within 24 hours." § c. "Less than 1% of patients develop delirium tremens." § d. "Benzodiazepines are commonly used for detoxification."
B
o A patient is prescribed memantine (Namenda) 10 mg by mouth daily in liquid form. When preparing this medication, the nurse observes that memantine (Namenda) oral solution has 2 mg/mL in 360 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare? § a. 2.5 § b. 5 § c. 10 d. 15
B
o The nurse is providing information to a patient recently prescribed entacapone. Which statement is correct? § a. This medication is not to be taken with carbidopa levodopa. § b. Dosage is adjusted according to the patient's response. § c. There will be fewer incidences of dopaminergic effects, such as confusion. § d. This medication increases the production of dopamine in the brain.
B
a. A patient who is taking an MAOI to treat depression admits to eating pickled herring and cheese and drinking red wine. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to a potential complication? i. a. Constipation ii. b. Hypotension iii. c. Neck stiffness d. Urinary retention
C
a. A patient with schizophrenia has been nonadherent with his home medication regimen. He requires frequent admissions to the intensive psychiatric unit for treatment of acute psychotic episodes. Which medication regimen would be appropriate for this patient? i. a. Daily home nursing visits to administer the prescribed oral medication ii. b. Continuous inpatient hospitalization for medication therapy iii. c. Administration of depot antipsychotic medication d. Subcutaneous medication administration
C
a. Lithium (Eskalith) is the drug of choice for which of the following disorders? i. a. Psychotic episodes ii. b. Obsessive compulsive disorders (OCDs) iii. c. Bipolar disorders d. Depressive disorders
C
a. The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) for smoking cessation. Which statement by the patient would indicate the need for further teaching? i. a. "My dose will increase after 3 days." ii. b. "I should swallow this medication whole." iii. c. "If I have the urge to smoke, I will take more medication." iv. d. "I do not need to taper my dose when the drug is discontinued."
C
a. To what does potency of an antipsychotic medication refer? i. a. Severity of adverse effects associated with the drug ii. b. Length of time that it takes to reach a therapeutic blood level of the drug iii. c. Milligram doses used for the medication iv. d. Effectiveness of the drug in alleviating psychotic behavior
C
a. What is the action of MAOIs on neurotransmitters? i. a. Blocking their reuptake ii. b. Increasing their production iii. c. Blocking their destruction d. Increasing their reuptake
C
a. What is the major advantage of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) over other types of antidepressant therapy? i. a. They are less expensive than the other classes of antidepressants. ii. b. They cure major depressive illnesses. iii. c. They do not cause the anticholinergic and cardiovascular adverse effects. d. Therapeutic relief is immediate
C
a. What is the most common cause of nonadherence to antipsychotic pharmacologic treatment? i. a. Expense ii. b. Increased symptoms of chemical dependency iii. c. Extrapyramidal effects d. Inability of the patient to understand the need to take medications
C
o A patient presents at the physician's office with reports of frequent nosebleeds and delayed clotting. The physician diagnoses this patient with a vitamin deficiency. To treat this type of deficiency, the nurse will encourage the patient to consume foods high in vitamin § a. C. § b. D. § c. K. § d. A.
C
o A patient taking rasagiline is assessed by the nurse to have a lasting significant increase in blood pressure. When reviewing the patient's current list of medications, the nurse decides to hold the next dose of § a. dextromethorphan. § b. levodopa. § c. ciprofloxacin. d. Valium.
C
o A patient who is 8 weeks' postpartum would like to begin a moderate intensity exercise program to lose the remaining 20 lb she gained during her pregnancy. Which exercise regimen will the nurse recommend to accomplish this goal best? § a. Walking 2 miles daily in 1 hour, four times weekly § b. Jogging 4 miles in 20 minutes, three times weekly § c. Walking 4 miles in 1 hour daily § d. Jogging 2 miles in 20 minutes, twice weekly
C
o What is the mechanism of action of memantine (Namenda)? § a. Increases production of dopamine § b. Decreases production of serotonin § c. Blocks N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors in the central nervous system (CNS) § d. Enhances reuptake of central neurotransmitters
C
o What is the pharmacologic action of entacapone, a potent catechol O methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor? § a. Slows the deterioration of dopaminergic nerve cells § b. Inhibits the relative excess of dopaminergic activity § c. Reduces the destruction of dopamine in peripheral tissues § d. Enhances the cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease
C
o What will the nurse caution a patient about when providing information about the prescribed azaspirone antidepressant? § a. Risk for addiction § b. Adverse effect of nausea § c. Risk of injury when using machinery § d. Additive effects of central nervous system (CNS) depression with alcohol
C
o Which cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease are reduced with anticholinergic drugs? § a. Cognitive impairments § b. Rigidity § c. Tremors and drooling d. Postural abnormalities
C
o Which is a macronutrient that is a separate factor necessary for complete nutrition and wellness? § a. A phytochemical § b. A trace mineral § c. Fiber d. A vitamin
C
o A nurse working the night shift suspects that a colleague is abusing alcohol. Which action by the nurse is most important? § a. "Good faith" reporting is unfaithful to a colleague. § b. Reporting will result in loss of the colleague's license. § c. It is not of concern, and the nurse won't be penalized for refusing to get involved. § d. State guidelines may mandate to report substance abuse.
D
o The nurse is assisting with the development of care plan for a patient withdrawing from cocaine. What would be the first nursing diagnosis priority for this patient? § a. Altered nutrition; less than body requirements § b. Risk for altered peripheral tissue perfusion § c. Risk for fluid volume deficit § d. High risk for self-directed violence
D
o The nurse is teaching a patient with Parkinson's disease about levodopa. Which statement by the nurse is accurate regarding drug administration? § a. "Take this medication in between meals." § b. "Take this medication at bedtime to prevent dizziness." § c. "Take this medication when your tremors get worse." § d. "Take this medication with food or antacids to reduce GI upset."
D
o What effect will occur if a patient being treated with naltrexone (ReVia) for substance abuse ingests opioids or alcohol? § a. Increased euphoria § b. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea § c. Deep sedation d. An absence of the "high" associated with drugs
D
o Which is true regarding psychological drug dependence? § a. It is easier to treat than physiological dependence. § b. It is not considered a true addiction. § c. It is easily controlled by influencing the patient's perceptions. § d. It requires medical intervention to treat.
D
o Which laboratory test result would the nurse observe when a patient has hepatotoxicity? § a. Decreased bilirubin § b. Increased albumin § c. Decreased alkaline phosphatase § d. Increased alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
D
o Which patient assessment will the nurse expect to observe when a patient has ingested alcohol while on disulfiram (Antabuse)? § a. Unconsciousness § b. Hypertension § c. GI bleeding d. Severe vomiting
D
Kwashiorkor—
protein deficiency
Colchicines
provide relief from acute attacks of gout.
