OB 4 exam
To promote wellness and prevent illness throughout the life span, it is important for the nurse to be cognizant of immunization recommendations for women older than 18 years. Match each immunization with the correct schedule. a. Tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis (Tdap) b. Measles, mumps, rubella c. Herpes Zoster d. Hepatitis B e. Influenza f. Human papillomavirus (HPV) 39. Three injections for girls between the ages 9 to 26. 40. Primary series of three injections. 41. Annually. 42. Once and then a booster every 10 years. 43. One dose after age 65. 44. Once if born after 1956.
HPV - Three injections for girls between the ages 9 to 26. Hep B - Primary series of three injections. Flu - annually Tdap - Once and then a booster every 10years Herpes Zoster - One dose after age 65 MMR - Once if born after 1956
Which symptom described by a patient is characteristic of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? a. "I feel irritable and moody a week before my period is supposed to start." b. "I have lower abdominal pain beginning the third day of my menstrual period." c. "I have nausea and headaches after my period starts, and they last 2 to 3 days." d. "I have abdominal bloating and breast pain after a couple days of my period."
a. "I feel irritable and moody a week before my period is supposed to start."
When the nurse is alone with a battered patient, the patient seems extremely anxious and says, "It was all my fault. The house was so messy when he got home and I know he hates that." The best response by the nurse is: a. "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?" b. "What else do you do that makes him angry enough to hurt you?" c. "He will never find out what we talk about. Don't worry. We're here to help you." d. "You have to remember that he is frustrated and angry so he takes it out on you."
a. "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?"
A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome receives artificial surfactant. How would the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents? a. "Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." b. "The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation." c. "Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea." d. "Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection."
a. "Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."
Which statement would indicate that the client requires additional instruction about breast self-examination? a. "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period." b. "I should check my breasts at the same time each month, like after my period." c. "I should also feel in my armpit area while performing my breast examination." d. "I should check each breast in a set way, such as in a circular motion."
a. "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period."
During a prenatal examination, the woman reports having two cats at home. The nurse informs her that she should not be cleaning the litter box while she is pregnant. When the woman asks why, the nurse's best response would be: a. "Your cats could be carrying toxoplasmosis. This is a zoonotic parasite that can infect you and have severe effects on your unborn child." b. "You and your baby can be exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) in your cats' feces." c. "It's just gross. You should make your husband clean the litter boxes." d. "Cat feces are known to carry Escherichia coli, which can cause a severe infection in both you and your baby."
a. "Your cats could be carrying toxoplasmosis. This is a zoonotic parasite that can infect you and have severe effects on your unborn child."
Because of the effect of cyclic ovarian changes on the breast, the best time for breast self-examination (BSE) is: a. 5 to 7 days after menses ceases. b. Day 1 of the endometrial cycle. c. Midmenstrual cycle. d. Any time during a shower or bath.
a. 5 to 7 days after menses ceases.
A pregnant woman presents in labor at term, having had no prenatal care. After birth her infant is noted to be small for gestational age with small eyes and a thin upper lip. The infant also is microcephalic. On the basis of her infant's physical findings, this woman should be questioned about her use of which substance during pregnancy? a. Alcohol b. Cocaine c. Heroin d. Marijuana
a. Alcohol
The abuse of which of the following substances during pregnancy is the leading cause of cognitive impairment in the United States? a. Alcohol b. Tobacco c. Marijuana d. Heroin
a. Alcohol
Many common drugs of abuse cause significant physiologic and behavioral problems in infants who are breastfed by mothers currently using (Select all that apply): a. Amphetamine. b. Heroin. c. Nicotine. d. PCP. e. Morphine.
a. Amphetamine. b. Heroin. c. Nicotine. d. PCP.
Immediately after the forceps-assisted birth of an infant, the nurse should: a. Assess the infant for signs of trauma. b. Give the infant prophylactic antibiotics. c. Apply a cold pack to the infant's scalp. d. Measure the circumference of the infant's head.
a. Assess the infant for signs of trauma.
On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman, the nurse documents the following findings: profuse, thin, grayish white vaginal discharge with a "fishy" odor; complaint of pruritus. On the basis of these findings, the nurse suspects that this woman has: a. Bacterial vaginosis (BV). b. Candidiasis. c. Trichomoniasis. d. Gonorrhea.
a. Bacterial vaginosis (BV).
In evaluating the effectiveness of oxytocin induction, the nurse would expect: a. Contractions lasting 40 to 90 seconds, 2 to 3 minutes apart. b. The intensity of contractions to be at least 110 to 130 mm Hg. c. Labor to progress at least 2 cm/hr dilation. d. At least 30 mU/min of oxytocin will be needed to achieve cervical dilation.
a. Contractions lasting 40 to 90 seconds, 2 to 3 minutes apart.
The uterus is a muscular, pear-shaped organ that is responsible for: a. Cyclic menstruation. b. Sex hormone production. c. Fertilization. d. Sexual arousal.
a. Cyclic menstruation.
Fibrocystic changes in the breast most often appear in women in their 20s and 30s. The etiology is unknown, but it may be an imbalance of estrogen and progesterone. The nurse who cares for this client should be aware that treatment modalities are conservative. One proven modality that may provide relief is: a. Diuretic administration. b. Including caffeine daily in the diet. c. Increased vitamin C supplementation. d. Application of cold packs to the breast as necessary.
a. Diuretic administration.
A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is called: a. Ductal ectasia. b. Intraductal papilloma. c. Chronic cystic disease. d. Fibroadenoma.
a. Ductal ectasia.
A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to: a. Endometriosis. b. PMS. c. Primary dysmenorrhea. d. Secondary dysmenorrhea.
a. Endometriosis.
An infant with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) is not responding to conventional treatment. Which highly technical method of treatment may be necessary for an infant who does not respond to conventional treatment? a. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation b. Respiratory support with a ventilator c. Insertion of a laryngoscope and suctioning of the trachea d. Insertion of an endotracheal tube
a. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
The exact cause of breast cancer remains undetermined. Researchers have found that there are many common risk factors that increase a woman's chance of developing a malignancy. It is essential for the nurse who provides care to women of any age to be aware of which of the following risk factors (Select all that apply)? a. Family history b. Late menarche c. Early menopause d. Race e. Nulliparity or first pregnancy after age 30
a. Family history d. Race e. Nulliparity or first pregnancy after age 30
Examples of sexual risk behaviors associated with exposure to a sexually transmitted infection (STI) include (Select all that apply): a. Fellatio. b. Unprotected anal intercourse. c. Multiple sex partners. d. Dry kissing. e. Abstinence.
a. Fellatio. b. Unprotected anal intercourse. c. Multiple sex partners.
A woman has a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheese-like discharge, with patches on her labia and in her vagina. She complains of intense pruritus. The nurse practitioner would order which preparation for treatment? a. Fluconazole b. Tetracycline c. Clindamycin d. Acyclovir
a. Fluconazole
The most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection is: a. Good handwashing. b. Isolation of infected infants. c. Separate gown technique. d. Standard Precautions.
a. Good handwashing.
Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes? a. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 b. Human papillomavirus (HPV) c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
a. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2
In the assessment of a preterm infant, the nurse notices continued respiratory distress even though oxygen and ventilation have been provided. The nurse should suspect: a. Hypovolemia and/or shock. b. A nonneutral thermal environment. c. Central nervous system injury. d. Pending renal failure.
a. Hypovolemia and/or shock.
With regard to injuries to the infant's plexus during labor and birth, nurses should be aware that: a. If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, they should recover completely in 3 to 6 months. b. Erb palsy is damage to the lower plexus. c. Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to pick up the child from under the axillae. d. Breastfeeding is not recommended for infants with facial nerve paralysis until the condition resolves.
a. If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, they should recover completely in 3 to 6 months.
Which infant would be more likely to have Rh incompatibility? a. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor b. Infant who is Rh negative and whose mother is Rh negative c. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and heterozygous for the Rh factor d. Infant who is Rh positive and whose mother is Rh positive
a. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor
With regard to the process of augmentation of labor, the nurse should be aware that it: a. Is part of the active management of labor that is instituted when the labor process is unsatisfactory. b. Relies on more invasive methods when oxytocin and amniotomy have failed. c. Is a modern management term to cover up the negative connotations of forceps-assisted birth. d. Uses vacuum cups.
a. Is part of the active management of labor that is instituted when the labor process is unsatisfactory.
As relates to dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB), the nurse should be aware that: a. It is most commonly caused by anovulation. b. It most often occurs in middle age. c. The diagnosis of DUB should be the first considered for abnormal menstrual bleeding. d. The most effective medical treatment is steroids.
a. It is most commonly caused by anovulation.
Many pregnant teens wait until the second or third trimester to seek prenatal care. The nurse should understand that the reasons behind this delay include: a. Lack of realization that they are pregnant. b. Uncertainty as to where to go for care. c. Continuing to deny the pregnancy. d. A desire to gain control over their situation. e. Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible.
a. Lack of realization that they are pregnant. b. Uncertainty as to where to go for care. c. Continuing to deny the pregnancy. e. Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible.
An infant at 26 weeks of gestation arrives intubated from the delivery room. The nurse weighs the infant, places him under the radiant warmer, and attaches him to the ventilator at the prescribed settings. A pulse oximeter and cardiorespiratory monitor are placed. The pulse oximeter is recording oxygen saturations of 80%. The prescribed saturations are 92%. The nurse's most appropriate action would be to: a. Listen to breath sounds and ensure the patency of the endotracheal tube, increase oxygen, and notify a physician. b. Continue to observe and make no changes until the saturations are 75%. c. Continue with the admission process to ensure that a thorough assessment is completed. d. Notify the parents that their infant is not doing well.
a. Listen to breath sounds and ensure the patency of the endotracheal tube, increase oxygen, and notify a physician.
A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick, meconium-stained fluid was noted. The nurse caring for the infant after birth should anticipate: a. Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin. b. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome. c. Golden yellow- to green stained-skin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat. d. Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance.
a. Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin.
A careful review of the literature on the various recreational and illicit drugs reveals that: a. More longer-term studies are needed to assess the lasting effects on infants when mothers have taken or are taking illegal drugs. b. Heroin and methadone cross the placenta; marijuana, cocaine, and phencyclidine (PCP) do not. c. Mothers should discontinue heroin use (detox) any time they can during pregnancy. d. Methadone withdrawal for infants is less severe and shorter than heroin withdrawal.
a. More longer-term studies are needed to assess the lasting effects on infants when mothers have taken or are taking illegal drugs.
A patient has been prescribed adjuvant tamoxifen therapy. What common side effect might she experience? a. Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding b. Vomiting, weight loss, and hair loss c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea d. Hot flashes, weight gain, and headaches
a. Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding
Which patient status is an acceptable indication for serial oxytocin induction of labor? a. Past 42 weeks' gestation b. Multiple fetuses c. Polyhydramnios d. History of long labors
a. Past 42 weeks' gestation
A pregnant woman's amniotic membranes rupture. Prolapsed umbilical cord is suspected. What intervention would be the top priority? a. Placing the woman in the knee-chest position b. Covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked in saline c. Preparing the woman for a cesarean birth d. Starting oxygen by face mask
a. Placing the woman in the knee-chest position
Risk factors associated with necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) include (Select all that apply): a. Polycythemia. b. Anemia. c. Congenital heart disease. d. Bronchopulmonary dysphasia. e. Retinopathy.
a. Polycythemia. b. Anemia. c. Congenital heart disease.
Infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infants because they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. Because they are more stable than early-preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these babies are at increased risk for (Select all that apply): a. Problems with thermoregulation b. Cardiac distress c. Hyperbilirubinemia d. Sepsis e. Hyperglycemia
a. Problems with thermoregulation c. Hyperbilirubinemia d. Sepsis
There is little consensus on the management of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). However, nurses can advise women on several self-help modalities that often improve symptoms. The nurse knows that health teaching has been effective when the client reports that she has adopted a number of lifestyle changes, including (Select all that apply): a. Regular exercise. b. Improved nutrition. c. A daily glass of wine. d. Smoking cessation. e. Oil of evening primrose.
a. Regular exercise. b. Improved nutrition. d. Smoking cessation. e. Oil of evening primrose.
Despite warnings, prenatal exposure to alcohol continues to exceed by far exposure to illicit drugs. A diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is made when there are visible markers in each of three categories. Which is category is not associated with a diagnosis of FAS? a. Respiratory conditions b. Impaired growth c. CNS abnormality d. Craniofacial dysmorphologies
a. Respiratory conditions
Induction of labor is considered an acceptable obstetric procedure if it is in the best interest to deliver the fetus. The charge nurse on the labor and delivery unit is often asked to schedule patients for this procedure and therefore must be cognizant of the specific conditions appropriate for labor induction. These include (Select all that apply): a. Rupture of membranes at or near term. b. Convenience of the woman or her physician. c. Chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac). d. Post-term pregnancy. e. Fetal death.
a. Rupture of membranes at or near term. c. Chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac). d. Post-term pregnancy. e. Fetal death.
A woman in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation receives two 12-mg doses of betamethasone intramuscularly. The purpose of this pharmacologic treatment is to: a. Stimulate fetal surfactant production. b. Reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with ritodrine administration. c. Suppress uterine contractions. d. Maintain adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy.
a. Stimulate fetal surfactant production.
An essential component of counseling women regarding safe sex practices includes discussion regarding avoiding the exchange of body fluids. The physical barrier promoted for the prevention of sexually transmitted infections and human immunodeficiency virus is the condom. Nurses can help motivate clients to use condoms by initiating a discussion related to a number of aspects of condom use. The most important of these is: a. Strategies to enhance condom use. b. Choice of colors and special features. c. Leaving the decision up to the male partner. d. Places to carry condoms safely.
a. Strategies to enhance condom use.
What important, immediate postoperative care practice should the nurse remember when caring for a woman who has had a mastectomy? a. The blood pressure (BP) cuff should not be applied to the affected arm. b. Venipuncture for blood work should be performed on the affected arm. c. The affected arm should be used for intravenous (IV) therapy. d. The affected arm should be held down close to the woman's side.
a. The blood pressure (BP) cuff should not be applied to the affected arm.
The transition phase during which ovarian function and hormone production decline is called: a. The climacteric. b. Menarche. c. Menopause. d. Puberty.
a. The climacteric.
Before the physician performs an external version, the nurse should expect an order for a: a. Tocolytic drug. b. Contraction stress test (CST). c. Local anesthetic. d. Foley catheter.
a. Tocolytic drug.
The female reproductive organ(s) responsible for cyclic menstruation is/are the: a. Uterus. b. Ovaries. c. Vaginal vestibule. d. Urethra.
a. Uterus.
Individual irregularities in the ovarian (menstrual) cycle are most often caused by: a. Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase. b. An intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism. c. A functioning corpus luteum. d. A prolonged ischemic phase.
a. Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase.
A common effect of both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant woman is: a. Vasoconstriction b. Increased appetite c. Changes in insulin metabolism d. Increased metabolism
a. Vasoconstriction
The exact cause of preterm labor is unknown and believed to be multifactorial. Infection is thought to be a major factor in many preterm labors. Select the type of infection that has not been linked to preterm births. a. Viral b. Periodontal c. Cervical d. Urinary tract
a. Viral
In planning for an expected cesarean birth for a woman who has given birth by cesarean previously and who has a fetus in the transverse presentation, which information would the nurse include? a. "Because this is a repeat procedure, you are at the lowest risk for complications." b. "Even though this is your second cesarean birth, you may wish to review the preoperative and postoperative procedures." c. "Because this is your second cesarean birth, you will recover faster." d. "You will not need preoperative teaching because this is your second cesarean birth."
b. "Even though this is your second cesarean birth, you may wish to review the preoperative and postoperative procedures."
A 25-year-old single woman comes to the gynecologist's office for a follow-up visit related to her abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The test revealed that the patient has human papillomavirus (HPV). The client asks, "What is that? Can you get rid of it?" Your best response is: a. "It's just a little lump on your cervix. We can freeze it off." b. "HPV stands for 'human papillomavirus.' It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that may lead to cervical cancer." c. "HPV is a type of early human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). You will die from this." d. "You probably caught this from your current boyfriend. He should get tested for this."
b. "HPV stands for 'human papillomavirus.' It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that may lead to cervical cancer."
Which statement by the patient indicates that she understands breast self-examination? a. "I will examine both breasts in two different positions." b. "I will perform breast self-examination 1 week after my menstrual period starts." c. "I will examine the outer upper area of the breast only." d. "I will use the palm of the hand to perform the examination."
b. "I will perform breast self-examination 1 week after my menstrual period starts."
A pregnant woman at 29 weeks of gestation has been diagnosed with preterm labor. Her labor is being controlled with tocolytic medications. She asks when she would be able to go home. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. "After the baby is born." b. "When we can stabilize your preterm labor and arrange home health visits." c. "Whenever the doctor says that it is okay." d. "It depends on what kind of insurance coverage you have."
b. "When we can stabilize your preterm labor and arrange home health visits."
The nurse is caring for a client whose labor is being augmented with oxytocin. He or she recognizes that the oxytocin should be discontinued immediately if there is evidence of: a. Uterine contractions occurring every 8 to 10 minutes. b. A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 180 with absence of variability. c. The client's needing to void. d. Rupture of the client's amniotic membranes.
b. A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 180 with absence of variability.
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa. The signs of NEC are nonspecific. Some generalized signs include: a. Hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis. b. Abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools. c. Hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color. d. Scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output.
b. Abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools.
The nurse providing care for a woman with preterm labor who is receiving terbutaline would include which intervention to identify side effects of the drug? a. Assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) b. Assessing for chest discomfort and palpitations c. Assessing for bradycardia d. Assessing for hypoglycemia
b. Assessing for chest discomfort and palpitations
Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include: a. Oral antiviral therapy. b. Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. c. Antibiotic regimen continued until symptoms subside. d. Frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing.
b. Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position.
The body part that both protects the pelvic structures and accommodates the growing fetus during pregnancy is the: a. Perineum. b. Bony pelvis. c. Vaginal vestibule. d. Fourchette.
b. Bony pelvis.
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an acute inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa that can progress to perforation of the bowel. Approximately 2% to 5% of premature infants succumb to this fatal disease. Care is supportive; however, known interventions may decrease the risk of NEC. To develop an optimal plan of care for this infant, the nurse must understand which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of NEC: a. Early enteral feedings b. Breastfeeding c. Exchange transfusion d. Prophylactic probiotics
b. Breastfeeding
During her gynecologic checkup, a 17-year-old girl states that recently she has been experiencing cramping and pain during her menstrual periods. The nurse would document this complaint as: a. Amenorrhea. b. Dysmenorrhea. c. Dyspareunia. d. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
b. Dysmenorrhea.
During a health history interview, a woman states that she thinks that she has "bumps" on her labia. She also states that she is not sure how to check herself. The correct response would be to: a. Reassure the woman that the examination will not reveal any problems. b. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination to the woman and reassure her that she should become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination. c. Reassure the woman that "bumps" can be treated. d. Reassure her that most women have "bumps" on their labia.
b. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination to the woman and reassure her that she should become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination.
A newborn was admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit after being delivered at 29 weeks of gestation to a 28-year-old multiparous, married, Caucasian woman whose pregnancy was uncomplicated until premature rupture of membranes and preterm birth. The newborn's parents arrive for their first visit after the birth. The parents walk toward the bedside but remain approximately 5 feet away from the bed. The nurse's most appropriate action would be to: a. Wait quietly at the newborn's bedside until the parents come closer. b. Go to the parents, introduce himself or herself, and gently encourage the parents to come meet their infant; explain the equipment first, and then focus on the newborn. c. Leave the parents at the bedside while they are visiting so they can have some privacy. d. Tell the parents only about the newborn's physical condition, and caution them to avoid touching their baby.
b. Go to the parents, introduce himself or herself, and gently encourage the parents to come meet their infant; explain the equipment first, and then focus on the newborn.
To detect human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), most laboratory tests focus on the: a. virus. b. HIV antibodies. c. CD4 counts. d. CD8 counts.
b. HIV antibodies.
The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is: a. Hepatic disease. b. Hemolytic disorders in the newborn. c. Postmaturity. d. Congenital heart defect.
b. Hemolytic disorders in the newborn.
Which of the following statements about the various forms of hepatitis is accurate? a. A vaccine exists for hepatitis C but not for hepatitis B. b. Hepatitis A is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water. c. Hepatitis B is less contagious than human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). d. The incidence of hepatitis C is decreasing.
b. Hepatitis A is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water.
During which phase of the cycle of violence does the batterer become contrite and remorseful? a. Battering phase b. Honeymoon phase c. Tension-building phase d. Increased drug-taking phase
b. Honeymoon phase
The viral sexually transmitted infection (STI) that affects most people in the United States today is: a. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). b. Human papillomavirus (HPV). c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV).
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV).
With regard to small for gestational age (SGA) infants and intrauterine growth restrictions (IUGR), nurses should be aware that: a. In the first trimester diseases or abnormalities result in asymmetric IUGR. b. Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development. c. In asymmetric IUGR weight is slightly more than SGA, whereas length and head circumference are somewhat less than SGA. d. Symmetric IUGR occurs in the later stages of pregnancy.
b. Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development.
While caring for the patient who requires an induction of labor, the nurse should be cognizant that: a. Ripening the cervix usually results in a decreased success rate for induction. b. Labor sometimes can be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents. c. Oxytocin is less expensive than prostaglandins and more effective but creates greater health risks. d. Amniotomy can be used to make the cervix more favorable for labor.
b. Labor sometimes can be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents.
A 62-year-old woman has not been to the clinic for an annual examination for 5 years. The recent death of her husband reminded her that she should come for a visit. Her family doctor has retired, and she is going to see the women's health nurse practitioner for her visit. To facilitate a positive health care experience, the nurse should: a. Remind the woman that she is long overdue for her examination and that she should come in annually. b. Listen carefully and allow extra time for this woman's health history interview. c. Reassure the woman that a nurse practitioner is just as good as her old doctor. d. Encourage the woman to talk about the death of her husband and her fears about her own death.
b. Listen carefully and allow extra time for this woman's health history interview.
A maternal indication for the use of vacuum extraction is: a. A wide pelvic outlet. b. Maternal exhaustion. c. A history of rapid deliveries. d. Failure to progress past 0 station.
b. Maternal exhaustion.
To provide optimal care of infants born to mothers who are substance abusers, nurses should be aware that: a. Infants born to addicted mothers are also addicted. b. Mothers who abuse one substance likely will use or abuse another, thus compounding the infant's difficulties. c. The NICU Network Neurobehavioral Scale (NNNS) is designed to assess the damage the mother has done to herself. d. No laboratory procedures are available that can identify the intrauterine drug exposure of the infant.
b. Mothers who abuse one substance likely will use or abuse another, thus compounding the infant's difficulties.
Physiologically, sexual response can be characterized by: a. Coitus, masturbation, and fantasy. b. Myotonia and vasocongestion. c. Erection and orgasm. d. Excitement, plateau, and orgasm.
b. Myotonia and vasocongestion.
To care adequately for infants at risk for neonatal bacterial infection, nurses should be aware that: a. Congenital infection progresses more slowly than does nosocomial infection. b. Nosocomial infection can be prevented by effective handwashing; early-onset infections cannot. c. Infections occur with about the same frequency in boy and girl infants, although female mortality is higher. d. The clinical sign of a rapid, high fever makes infection easier to diagnose.
b. Nosocomial infection can be prevented by effective handwashing; early-onset infections cannot.
Nurses should know some basic definitions concerning preterm birth, preterm labor, and low birth weight. For instance: a. The terms preterm birth and low birth weight can be used interchangeably. b. Preterm labor is defined as cervical changes and uterine contractions occurring between 20 and 37 weeks of pregnancy. c. Low birth weight is anything below 3.7 pounds. d. In the United States early in this century, preterm birth accounted for 18% to 20% of all births.
b. Preterm labor is defined as cervical changes and uterine contractions occurring between 20 and 37 weeks of pregnancy.
The goal of treatment of the infant with phenylketonuria (PKU) is to: a. Cure mental retardation. b. Prevent central nervous system (CNS) damage, which leads to mental retardation. c. Prevent gastrointestinal symptoms. d. Cure the urinary tract infection.
b. Prevent central nervous system (CNS) damage, which leads to mental retardation.
Certain fatty acids classified as hormones that are found in many body tissues and that have roles in many reproductive functions are known as: a. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). b. Prostaglandins (PGs). c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). d. Luteinizing hormone (LH).
b. Prostaglandins (PGs).
In caring for the preterm infant, what complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level? a. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) b. Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) c. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) d. Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
b. Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination, the nurse collects data about the client's recent menstrual cycles. The nurse should collect additional information with which statement? a. The woman says her menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days. b. She describes her flow as very heavy. c. She reports that she has had a small amount of spotting midway between her periods for the past 2 months. d. She says the length of her menstrual cycle varies from 26 to 29 days.
b. She describes her flow as very heavy.
Unique muscle fibers make the uterine myometrium ideally suited for: a. Menstruation. b. The birth process. c. Ovulation. d. Fertilization.
b. The birth process.
A woman who is 6 months pregnant has sought medical attention, saying she fell down the stairs. What scenario would cause an emergency department nurse to suspect that the woman has been a victim of intimate partner violence (IPV)? a. The woman and her partner are having an argument that is loud and hostile. b. The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing. c. Examination reveals a fractured arm and fresh bruises. d. She avoids making eye contact and is hesitant to answer questions.
b. The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing.
The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that HPV be treated with client-applied: a. Miconazole ointment. b. Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel. c. Penicillin given intramuscularly for two doses. d. Metronidazole by mouth.
b. Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel.
The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions. What clinical cues would alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation (Select all that apply)? a. Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency b. Uterine contractions lasting >90 seconds and occurring <2 minutes in frequency c. Uterine tone <20 mm Hg d. Uterine tone >20 mm Hg e. Increased uterine activity accompanied by a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern
b. Uterine contractions lasting >90 seconds and occurring <2 minutes in frequency d. Uterine tone >20 mm Hg e. Increased uterine activity accompanied by a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern
With regard to dysfunctional labor, nurses should be aware that: a. Women who are underweight are more at risk. b. Women experiencing precipitous labor are about the only "dysfunctionals" not to be exhausted. c. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction is more common than hypotonic dysfunction. d. Abnormal labor patterns are most common in older women.
b. Women experiencing precipitous labor are about the only "dysfunctionals" not to be exhausted.
Complications and risks associated with cesarean births include (Select all that apply): a. Placental abruption. b. Wound dehiscence. c. Hemorrhage. d. Urinary tract infections. e. Fetal injuries.
b. Wound dehiscence. c. Hemorrhage. d. Urinary tract infections. e. Fetal injuries.
A primigravida has just delivered a healthy infant girl. The nurse is about to administer erythromycin ointment in the infant's eyes when the mother asks, "What is that medicine for?" The nurse responds: a. "It is an eye ointment to help your baby see you better." b. "It is to protect your baby from contracting herpes from your vaginal tract." c. "Erythromycin is given prophylactically to prevent a gonorrheal infection." d. "This medicine will protect your baby's eyes from drying out over the next few days."
c. "Erythromycin is given prophylactically to prevent a gonorrheal infection."
As a girl progresses through development, she may be at risk for a number of age-related conditions. While preparing a 21-year-old client for her first adult physical examination and Papanicolaou (Pap) test, the nurse is aware of excessiveness shyness. The young woman states that she will not remove her bra because, "There is something wrong with my breasts; one is way bigger." What is the best response by the nurse in this situation? a. "Please reschedule your appointment until you are more prepared." b. "It is okay; the provider will not do a breast examination." c. "I will explain normal growth and breast development to you." d. "That is unfortunate; this must be very stressful for you."
c. "I will explain normal growth and breast development to you."
A 20-year-old patient calls the clinic to report that she has found a lump in her breast. The nurse's best response is: a. "Don't worry about it. I'm sure it's nothing." b. "Wear a tight bra, and it should shrink." c. "Many women have benign lumps and bumps in their breasts. However, to make sure that it's benign, you should come in for an examination by your physician." d. "Check it again in 1 month and call me back if it's still there."
c. "Many women have benign lumps and bumps in their breasts. However, to make sure that it's benign, you should come in for an examination by your physician."
The nurse guides a woman to the examination room and asks her to remove her clothes and put on an examination gown with the front open. The woman states, "I have special undergarments that I do not remove for religious reasons." The most appropriate response from the nurse would be: a. "You can't have an examination without removing all your clothes." b. "I'll ask the doctor to modify the examination." c. "Tell me about your undergarments. I'll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can have your examination comfortably." d. "What? I've never heard of such a thing! That sounds different and strange."
c. "Tell me about your undergarments. I'll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can have your examination comfortably."
An infant is being discharged from the neonatal intensive care unit after 70 days of hospitalization. The infant was born at 30 weeks of gestation with several conditions associated with prematurity, including respiratory distress syndrome, mild bronchopulmonary dysplasia, and retinopathy of prematurity requiring surgical treatment. During discharge teaching the infant's mother asks the nurse whether her baby will meet developmental milestones on time, as did her son who was born at term. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "Your baby will develop exactly like your first child did." b. "Your baby does not appear to have any problems at the present time." c. "Your baby will need to be corrected for prematurity. Your baby is currently 40 weeks of postconceptional age and can be expected to be doing what a 40-week-old infant would be doing." d. "Your baby will need to be followed very closely."
c. "Your baby will need to be corrected for prematurity. Your baby is currently 40 weeks of postconceptional age and can be expected to be doing what a 40-week-old infant would be doing."
To provide safe care for the woman, the nurse understands that which condition is a contraindication for an amniotomy? a. Dilation less than 3 cm b. Cephalic presentation c. -2 station d. Right occiput posterior position
c. -2 station
The nurse should know that once human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enters the body, seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within: a. 6 to 10 days. b. 2 to 4 weeks. c. 6 to 8 weeks. d. 6 months.
c. 6 to 8 weeks.
Which patient is most at risk for fibroadenoma of the breast? a. A 38-year-old woman b. A 50-year-old woman c. A 16-year-old girl d. A 27-year-old woman
c. A 16-year-old girl
The microscopic examination of scrapings from the cervix, endocervix, or other mucous membranes to detect premalignant or malignant cells is called: a. Bimanual palpation. b. Rectovaginal palpation. c. A Papanicolaou (Pap) test. d. A four As procedure.
c. A Papanicolaou (Pap) test.
In caring for the mother who has abused (or is abusing) alcohol and for her infant, nurses should be aware that: a. The pattern of growth restriction of the fetus begun in prenatal life is halted after birth, and normal growth takes over. b. Two thirds of newborns with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) are boys. c. Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders not sufficient to meet FAS criteria (learning disabilities, speech and language problems) are often not detected until the child goes to school. d. Both the distinctive facial features of the FAS infant and the diminished mental capacities tend toward normal over time.
c. Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders not sufficient to meet FAS criteria (learning disabilities, speech and language problems) are often not detected until the child goes to school.
A woman is having her first child. She has been in labor for 15 hours. Two hours ago her vaginal examination revealed the cervix to be dilated to 5 cm and 100% effaced, and the presenting part was at station 0. Five minutes ago her vaginal examination indicated that there had been no change. What abnormal labor pattern is associated with this description? a. Prolonged latent phase b. Protracted active phase c. Arrest of active phase d. Protracted descent
c. Arrest of active phase
A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and she has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to: a. Inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled. b. Reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination. c. Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection. d. Ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.
c. Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection.
The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is: a. Penicillin G. b. Tetracycline. c. Ceftriaxone. d. Acyclovir.
c. Ceftriaxone.
When evaluating a patient for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the nurse should be aware that the most common bacterial STI is: a. Gonorrhea. b. Syphilis. c. Chlamydia. d. Candidiasis.
c. Chlamydia.
Near the end of the first week of life, an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-colored, maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus. The newborn is showing signs of: a. Gonorrhea. b. Herpes simplex virus infection. c. Congenital syphilis. d. Human immunodeficiency virus.
c. Congenital syphilis.
The least common cause of long, difficult, or abnormal labor (dystocia) is: a. Midplane contracture of the pelvis. b. Compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication. c. Disproportion of the pelvis. d. Low-lying placenta.
c. Disproportion of the pelvis.
Which diagnostic test is used to confirm a suspected diagnosis of breast cancer? a. Mammogram b. Ultrasound c. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) d. CA 15.3
c. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA)
The nurse practicing in the perinatal setting should promote kangaroo care regardless of an infant's gestational age. This intervention: a. Is adopted from classical British nursing traditions. b. Helps infants with motor and central nervous system impairment. c. Helps infants to interact directly with their parents and enhances their temperature regulation. d. Gets infants ready for breastfeeding.
c. Helps infants to interact directly with their parents and enhances their temperature regulation.
A woman who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy primarily because: a. Personal risk behaviors influence fertility b. She has used contraceptives for an extended time c. Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process d. Prepregnancy medical attention is lacking
c. Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process
An infant was born 2 hours ago at 37 weeks of gestation and weighing 4.1 kg. The infant appears chubby with a flushed complexion and is very tremulous. The tremors are most likely the result of: a. Birth injury. b. Hypocalcemia. c. Hypoglycemia. d. Seizures.
c. Hypoglycemia.
As related to central nervous system injuries that could occur to the infant during labor and birth, nurses should be aware that: a. Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) as a result of birth trauma is more likely to occur in the preterm, low-birth-weight infant. b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (the most common form of ICH) occurs in term infants as a result of hypoxia. c. In many infants signs of hemorrhage in a full-term infant are absent and are diagnosed only through laboratory tests. d. Spinal cord injuries almost always result from forceps-assisted deliveries.
c. In many infants signs of hemorrhage in a full-term infant are absent and are diagnosed only through laboratory tests.
A woman has a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonpalpable, immobile, and nontender. This is most likely: a. Fibroadenoma. b. Lipoma. c. Intraductal papilloma. d. Mammary duct ectasia.
c. Intraductal papilloma.
The nurse providing care to a woman in labor should understand that cesarean birth: a. Is declining in frequency in the twenty-first century in the United States. b. Is more likely to be performed for poor women in public hospitals who do not receive the nurse counseling as do wealthier clients. c. Is performed primarily for the benefit of the fetus. d. Can be either elected or refused by women as their absolute legal right.
c. Is performed primarily for the benefit of the fetus.
With regard to endometriosis, nurses should be aware that: a. It is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial tissue inside the uterus. b. It is found more often in African-American women than in white or Asian women. c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause. d. It is unlikely to affect sexual intercourse or fertility.
c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause.
As relates to the use of tocolytic therapy to suppress uterine activity, nurses should be aware that: a. The drugs can be given efficaciously up to the designated beginning of term at 37 weeks. b. There are no important maternal (as opposed to fetal) contraindications. c. Its most important function is to afford the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids. d. If the client develops pulmonary edema while receiving tocolytics, intravenous (IV) fluids should be given.
c. Its most important function is to afford the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids.
When assessing a patient for amenorrhea, the nurse should be aware that this is unlikely to be caused by: a. Anatomic abnormalities. b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus. c. Lack of exercise. d. Hysterectomy.
c. Lack of exercise.
The nurse providing education regarding breast care should explain to the woman that fibrocystic changes in breasts are: a. A disease of the milk ducts and glands in the breasts. b. A premalignant disorder characterized by lumps found in the breast tissue. c. Lumpiness with pain and tenderness found in varying degrees in the breast tissue of healthy women during menstrual cycles. d. Lumpiness accompanied by tenderness after menses.
c. Lumpiness with pain and tenderness found in varying degrees in the breast tissue of healthy women during menstrual cycles.
A 36-year-old woman has been given a diagnosis of uterine fibroids. When planning care for this patient, the nurse should know that: a. Fibroids are malignant tumors of the uterus that require radiation or chemotherapy. b. Fibroids increase in size during the perimenopausal period. c. Menorrhagia is a common finding. d. The woman is unlikely to become pregnant as long as the fibroids are in her uterus.
c. Menorrhagia is a common finding.
Prostaglandins are produced in most organs of the body, including the uterus. Other source(s) of prostaglandins is/are: a. Ovaries. b. Breast milk. c. Menstrual blood. d. The vagina.
c. Menstrual blood.
The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion is: a. Measuring urinary output. b. Increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes. c. Monitoring uterine response. d. Evaluating cervical dilation.
c. Monitoring uterine response.
As a result of large body surface in relation to weight, the preterm infant is at high risk for heat loss and cold stress. By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection, conduction, radiation, and evaporation), the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability. While evaluating the plan that has been implemented, the nurse knows that the infant is experiencing cold stress when he or she exhibits: a. Decreased respiratory rate. b. Bradycardia followed by an increased heart rate. c. Mottled skin with acrocyanosis. d. Increased physical activity.
c. Mottled skin with acrocyanosis.
Providing care for the neonate born to a mother who abuses substances can present a challenge for the health care team. Nursing care for this infant requires a multisystem approach. The first step in the provision of this care is: a. Pharmacologic treatment. b. Reduction of environmental stimuli. c. Neonatal abstinence syndrome scoring. d. Adequate nutrition and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance.
c. Neonatal abstinence syndrome scoring.
Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a client with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is: a. Acetaminophen. b. Oral contraceptives (OCPs). c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). d. Aspirin.
c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
As related to the eventual discharge of the high risk newborn or transfer to a different facility, nurses and families should be aware that: a. Infants will stay in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) until they are ready to go home. b. Once discharged to home, the high risk infant should be treated like any healthy term newborn. c. Parents of high risk infants need special support and detailed contact information. d. If a high risk infant and mother need transfer to a specialized regional center, it is better to wait until after birth and the infant is stabilized.
c. Parents of high risk infants need special support and detailed contact information.
When evaluating a patient whose primary complaint is amenorrhea, the nurse must be aware that lack of menstruation is most often the result of: a. Stress. b. Excessive exercise. c. Pregnancy. d. Eating disorders.
c. Pregnancy.
Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD) is accurate? a. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a milder form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) and more common in younger women. b. Secondary dysmenorrhea is more intense and medically significant than primary dysmenorrhea. c. Premenstrual syndrome is a complex, poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms. d. The causes of PMS have been well established.
c. Premenstrual syndrome is a complex, poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms.
For clinical purposes, preterm and post-term infants are defined as: a. Preterm before 34 weeks if appropriate for gestational age (AGA) and before 37 weeks if small for gestational age (SGA). b. Post-term after 40 weeks if large for gestational age (LGA) and beyond 42 weeks if AGA. c. Preterm before 37 weeks, and post-term beyond 42 weeks, no matter the size for gestational age at birth. d. Preterm, SGA before 38 to 40 weeks, and post-term, LGA beyond 40 to 42 weeks.
c. Preterm before 37 weeks, and post-term beyond 42 weeks, no matter the size for gestational age at birth.
In planning for home care of a woman with preterm labor, which concern must the nurse address? a. Nursing assessments will be different from those done in the hospital setting. b. Restricted activity and medications will be necessary to prevent recurrence of preterm labor. c. Prolonged bed rest may cause negative physiologic effects. d. Home health care providers will be necessary.
c. Prolonged bed rest may cause negative physiologic effects.
Infants of mothers with diabetes (IDMs) are at higher risk for developing: a. Anemia. b. Hyponatremia. c. Respiratory distress syndrome. d. Sepsis.
c. Respiratory distress syndrome.
Prepidil (prostaglandin gel) has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to: a. Enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta. b. Increase amniotic fluid volume. c. Ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction. d. Stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture.
c. Ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction.
A fully matured endometrium that has reached the thickness of heavy, soft velvet describes the _____ phase of the endometrial cycle. a. Menstrual b. Proliferative c. Secretory d. Ischemic
c. Secretory
A pregnant woman who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit. This behavior places her at a greater risk for: a. Depression of the central nervous system b. Hypotension and vasodilation c. Sexually transmitted diseases d. Postmature birth
c. Sexually transmitted diseases
A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and says that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor? a. She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction. b. She is experiencing a normal latent stage. c. She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction. d. She is experiencing pelvic dystocia.
c. She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings. What intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating, gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus, vomiting, and respiratory compromise? a. Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes b. Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes c. Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes d. Cold, medium bolus feedings over 20 minutes
c. Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes
A plan of care for an infant experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal should include: a. Administering chloral hydrate for sedation. b. Feeding every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest. c. Swaddling the infant snugly and holding the baby tightly. d. Playing soft music during feeding.
c. Swaddling the infant snugly and holding the baby tightly.
Menstruation is periodic uterine bleeding: a. That occurs every 28 days. b. In which the entire uterine lining is shed. c. That is regulated by ovarian hormones. d. That leads to fertilization.
c. That is regulated by ovarian hormones.
A patient at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. The nurse will counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake because: a. A daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism. b. She will be at risk for abusing other substances as well. c. The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth. d. The fetus is at risk for multiple organ anomalies.
c. The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth.
Which statement regarding female sexual response is inaccurate? a. Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. b. Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels. c. The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. d. Facial grimaces and spasms of hands and feet are often part of arousal.
c. The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle.
Surgical, medical, or mechanical methods may be used for labor induction. Which technique is considered a mechanical method of induction? a. Amniotomy b. Intravenous Pitocin c. Transcervical catheter d. Vaginal insertion of prostaglandins
c. Transcervical catheter
After a mastectomy a woman should be instructed to perform all of the following except: a. Emptying surgical drains twice a day and as needed. b. Avoiding lifting more than 4.5 kg (10 lb) or reaching above her head until given permission by her surgeon. c. Wearing clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side. d. Reporting immediately if inflammation develops at the incision site or in the affected arm.
c. Wearing clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side.
A healthy 60-year-old African-American woman regularly receives her health care at the clinic in her neighborhood. She is due for a mammogram. At her previous clinic visit, her physician, concerned about the 3-week wait at the neighborhood clinic, made an appointment for her to have a mammogram at a teaching hospital across town. She did not keep her appointment and returned to the clinic today to have the nurse check her blood pressure. What would be the most appropriate statement for the nurse to make to this patient? a. "Do you have transportation to the teaching hospital so that you can get your mammogram?" b. "I'm concerned that you missed your appointment; let me make another one for you." c. "It's very dangerous to skip your mammograms; your breasts need to be checked." d. "Would you like me to make an appointment for you to have your mammogram here?"
d. "Would you like me to make an appointment for you to have your mammogram here?"
On day 3 of life, a newborn continues to require 100% oxygen by nasal cannula. The parents ask whether they can hold their infant during his next gavage feeding. Given that this newborn is physiologically stable, what response would the nurse give? a. "Parents are not allowed to hold infants who depend on oxygen." b. "You may hold only your baby's hand during the feeding." c. "Feedings cause more physiologic stress, so the baby must be closely monitored. Therefore, I don't think you should hold the baby." d. "You may hold your baby during the feeding."
d. "You may hold your baby during the feeding."
The nurse practicing in a labor setting knows that the woman most at risk for uterine rupture is: a. A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births. b. A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for delivery of a 10-pound infant. c. A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and two cesarean births. d. A gravida 4 who has had all cesarean births.
d. A gravida 4 who has had all cesarean births.
A nurse practitioner performs a clinical breast examination on a woman diagnosed with fibroadenoma. The nurse knows that fibroadenoma is characterized by: a. Inflammation of the milk ducts and glands behind the nipples. b. Thick, sticky discharge from the nipple of the affected breast. c. Lumpiness in both breasts that develops 1 week before menstruation. d. A single lump in one breast that can be expected to shrink as the woman ages.
d. A single lump in one breast that can be expected to shrink as the woman ages.
The priority nursing intervention after an amniotomy should be to: a. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid. b. Change the patient's gown. c. Estimate the amount of amniotic fluid. d. Assess the fetal heart rate.
d. Assess the fetal heart rate.
Premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration are: a. Suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea. b. Experiencing severe swings in blood pressure. c. Trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment. d. Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants.
d. Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants.
Nafarelin is currently used as a treatment for mild-to-severe endometriosis. The nurse should tell a woman taking this medication that the drug: a. Stimulates the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), thereby stimulating ovarian activity. b. Should be sprayed into one nostril every other day. c. Should be injected into subcutaneous tissue BID. d. Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness.
d. Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness.
The nurse providing care in a women's health care setting must be aware regarding which sexually transmitted infection that can be successfully treated and cured? a. Herpes b. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) c. Venereal warts d. Chlamydia
d. Chlamydia
As a powerful central nervous system stimulant, which of these substances can lead to miscarriage, preterm labor, placental separation (abruption), and stillbirth? a. Heroin b. Alcohol c. PCP d. Cocaine
d. Cocaine
The nurse must watch for what common complications in a patient who has undergone a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap? a. Axillary edema and tissue necrosis b. Delayed wound healing and muscle contractions c. Delayed wound healing and axillary edema d. Delayed wound healing and hematoma
d. Delayed wound healing and hematoma
While completing a newborn assessment, the nurse should be aware that the most common birth injury is: a. To the soft tissues. b. Caused by forceps gripping the head on delivery. c. Fracture of the humerus and femur. d. Fracture of the clavicle.
d. Fracture of the clavicle.
When assessing the preterm infant the nurse understands that compared with the term infant, the preterm infant has: a. Few blood vessels visible through the skin. b. More subcutaneous fat. c. Well-developed flexor muscles. d. Greater surface area in proportion to weight.
d. Greater surface area in proportion to weight.
What bacterial infection is definitely decreasing because of effective drug treatment? a. Escherichia coli infection b. Tuberculosis c. Candidiasis d. Group B streptococcal infection
d. Group B streptococcal infection
As part of their participation in the gynecologic portion of the physical examination, nurses should: a. Take a firm approach that encourages the client to facilitate the examination by following the physician's instructions exactly. b. Explain the procedure as it unfolds and continue to question the client to get information in a timely manner. c. Take the opportunity to explain that the trendy vulvar self-examination is only for women at risk for cancer. d. Help the woman relax through proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination.
d. Help the woman relax through proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination.
The stimulated release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone is part of the: a. Menstrual cycle. b. Endometrial cycle. c. Ovarian cycle. d. Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle.
d. Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle.
The most dangerous effect on the fetus of a mother who smokes cigarettes while pregnant is: a. Genetic changes and anomalies b. Extensive central nervous system damage c. Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled d. Intrauterine growth restriction
d. Intrauterine growth restriction
Nurses should be aware that the induction of labor: a. Can be achieved by external and internal version techniques. b. Is also known as a trial of labor (TOL). c. Is almost always done for medical reasons. d. Is rated for viability by a Bishop score.
d. Is rated for viability by a Bishop score.
One of the alterations in cyclic bleeding that occurs between periods is called: a. Oligomenorrhea. b. Menorrhagia. c. Leiomyoma. d. Metrorrhagia.
d. Metrorrhagia.
A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization the infant is weighed, and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 pounds, 6 ounces). The nurse's most appropriate action is to: a. Leave the infant in the room with the mother. b. Take the infant immediately to the nursery. c. Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age. d. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia.
d. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia.
For a woman at 42 weeks of gestation, which finding would require further assessment by the nurse? a. Fetal heart rate of 116 beats/min b. Cervix dilated 2 cm and 50% effaced c. Score of 8 on the biophysical profile d. One fetal movement noted in 1 hour of assessment by the mother
d. One fetal movement noted in 1 hour of assessment by the mother
The two primary functions of the ovary are: a. Normal female development and sex hormone release. b. Ovulation and internal pelvic support. c. Sexual response and ovulation. d. Ovulation and hormone production.
d. Ovulation and hormone production.
With regard to dysmenorrhea, nurses should be aware that: a. It is more common in older women. b. It is more common in leaner women who exercise strenuously. c. Symptoms can begin at any point in the ovulatory cycle. d. Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen.
d. Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen.
Which assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation? a. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid b. Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus c. Preterm labor and birth d. Post-term gestation
d. Post-term gestation
The hormone responsible for maturation of mammary gland tissue is: a. Estrogen. b. Testosterone. c. Prolactin. d. Progesterone.
d. Progesterone.
The long-term treatment plan for an adolescent with an eating disorder focuses on: a. Managing the effects of malnutrition. b. Establishing sufficient caloric intake. c. Improving family dynamics. d. Restructuring perception of body image.
d. Restructuring perception of body image.
Because of the premature infant's decreased immune functioning, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in a plan of care for a premature infant? a. Delayed growth and development b. Ineffective thermoregulation c. Ineffective infant feeding pattern d. Risk for infection
d. Risk for infection
The two primary areas of risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are: a. Sexual orientation and socioeconomic status. b. Age and educational level. c. Large number of sexual partners and race. d. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors.
d. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors.
The standard of care for obstetrics dictates that an internal version may be used to manipulate the: a. Fetus from a breech to a cephalic presentation before labor begins. b. Fetus from a transverse lie to a longitudinal lie before cesarean birth. c. Second twin from an oblique lie to a transverse lie before labor begins. d. Second twin from a transverse lie to a breech presentation during vaginal birth.
d. Second twin from a transverse lie to a breech presentation during vaginal birth.
A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats/min with limited variability. At birth the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. On the basis of the maternal history, the cause of this newborn's distress is most likely to be: a. Hypoglycemia. b. Phrenic nerve injury. c. Respiratory distress syndrome. d. Sepsis.
d. Sepsis.
In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor, what finding would alert the nurse to possible side effects? a. Urine output of 160 mL in 4 hours b. Deep tendon reflexes 2+ and no clonus c. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min d. Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL
d. Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL
A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. What finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring? a. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. b. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 12 to 15 minutes. c. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions. d. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.
d. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.
With regard to the care management of preterm labor, nurses should be aware that: a. Because all women must be considered at risk for preterm labor and prediction is so hit-and-miss, teaching pregnant women the symptoms probably causes more harm through false alarms. b. Braxton Hicks contractions often signal the onset of preterm labor. c. Because preterm labor is likely to be the start of an extended labor, a woman with symptoms can wait several hours before contacting the primary caregiver. d. The diagnosis of preterm labor is based on gestational age, uterine activity, and progressive cervical change.
d. The diagnosis of preterm labor is based on gestational age, uterine activity, and progressive cervical change.
The nurse who is teaching a group of women about breast cancer would tell the women that: a. Risk factors identify more than 50% of women who will develop breast cancer. b. Nearly 90% of lumps found by women are malignant. c. One in 10 women in the United States will develop breast cancer in her lifetime. d. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown.
d. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown.
With regard to hemolytic diseases of the newborn, nurses should be aware that: a. Rh incompatibility matters only when an Rh-negative child is born to an Rh-positive mother. b. ABO incompatibility is more likely than Rh incompatibility to precipitate significant anemia. c. Exchange transfusions frequently are required in the treatment of hemolytic disorders. d. The indirect Coombs' test is performed on the mother before birth; the direct Coombs' test is performed on the cord blood after birth.
d. The indirect Coombs' test is performed on the mother before birth; the direct Coombs' test is performed on the cord blood after birth.
When providing an infant with a gavage feeding, which of the following should be documented each time? a. The infant's abdominal circumference after the feeding b. The infant's heart rate and respirations c. The infant's suck and swallow coordination d. The infant's response to the feeding
d. The infant's response to the feeding
HIV may be perinatally transmitted: a. Only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation. b. From the use of unsterile instruments. c. Only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid. d. Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother.
d. Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be perinatally transmitted: a. Only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation. b. By a needlestick injury at birth from unsterile instruments. c. Only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid. d. Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother.
d. Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother.
When a nurse is counseling a woman for primary dysmenorrhea, which nonpharmacologic intervention might be recommended? a. Increasing the intake of red meat and simple carbohydrates b. Reducing the intake of diuretic foods such as peaches and asparagus c. Temporarily substituting physical activity for a sedentary lifestyle d. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping
d. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping
The recommended treatment for the prevention of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission to the fetus during pregnancy is: a. Acyclovir. b. Ofloxacin. c. Podophyllin. d. Zidovudine.
d. Zidovudine.
