ob lec 2

Kris a 35 weeks pregnant woman has gestational diabetes and uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Her current blood glucose is 290 mg/dL. You administer insulin per physician's order and recheck the blood glucose level per protocol. It is now 135 mg/dL. Which statement by the patient requires you to notify the physician? A. "It burns when I urinate." B. "My back is hurting." C. "I feel tired." D. "I feel the baby kick about 10 times an hour."

A. "It burns when I urinate."

Nurse Tara is teaching a Chrisanta Agas about substance abuse. She explains that a genetic component has been implicated in which of the following commonly abused substances? A. Alcohol B. Barbiturates C. Heroin D. Marijuana

A. Alcohol

A pregnant client ask you what are the common causes of heart disorder in pregnancy. The following are most common cause of cardiovascular disorder during pregnancy, EXCEPT: A. Atrial Septal Defect B. Uncorrected Coarctation of Aorta C. Marfan Syndrome D. Pulmonary Embolism

A. Atrial Septal Defect

A type of placental abnormality where the cord inserted marginally rather than centrally giving the appearance of a tennis racket: A. Battledore Placenta B. Velamentous Insertion of the Cord C. Placenta Circumvallata D. Placenta Succenturiate

A. Battledore Placenta

You are caring for a client who is experiencing infection of the perineum. The following are correct assessment for inspection of the perenium, EXCEPT: A. Chills, anorexia, general malaise B. Usually localized C. May or may not have fever D. 1 or 2 stiches may be sloughed from the suture line or an area of the suture line may be open with purulent drainage present

A. Chills, anorexia, general malaise

The following are causes of precipitate labor, EXCEPT: A. Chorioamnionitis B. Grand multiparity C. Large Pelvis D. Small fetus

A. Chorioamnionitis

The following are management for pregnant woman who is diagnosed with Eclampsia who has seizure, EXCEPT: A. Complete bed rest at their home B. Maintain patent airway C. Position on her side to prevent aspiration D. Raise side rails, remove sharp or pointed objects E. Keep her NPO

A. Complete bed rest at their home

It is a hard band that forms across the uterus at the junction of the upper and lower uterine segments and interferes with fetal descent. A. Contraction Ring B. Post- term Ring C. Hypotonic Ring D. Hypertonic Ring

A. Contraction Ring

The ff. are the treatments and management for pregnant woman with cardiovascular disorders. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Corticosteriod B. Nitroglycerin C. Anticoagulant D. oxygen as necessary E. Iron Supplement F. Antibiotics G. Admitted as early mid-1st trimester H. Rest I. Frequent prenatal visits

A. Corticosteriod B. Nitroglycerin C. Anticoagulant D. oxygen as necessary E. Iron Supplement F. Antibiotics H. Rest I. Frequent prenatal visits

As you do physical examination on Karlie, you saw the her abdomen has ecchymotic blueness around the umbilicus. You know that its" A. Cullen's Sign B. Charcot's Sign C. Kehr's Sign D.vLeopolds Sign

A. Cullen's Sign

The ff. are true regarding contraception in DM, EXCEPT: A. Diabetic women can use Intrauterine device B. Client can use coc type of oral contraceptives C. Norplant or progestin only pills may be used safely by diabetic women D. Diabetic Women cannot use intrauterine device

A. Diabetic women can use Intrauterine device

You are giving a health teaching to a patient who is diagnosed with infection of the Perenium. Which of the following health teaching that you cannot give for home management? A. Drainage of infected site and packing with iodoform gauze on the open lesion B. Sitz, baths, moist, warm compresses, Hubbard tank treatments to hasten drainage and cleanse the area C. Remind woman to change perineal pads frequently to prevent recontamination or vaginal infection D. Advise the woman to wipe from front to back after bowel movement

A. Drainage of infected site and packing with iodoform gauze on the open lesion

A type of fetal distress that occurs early in labor before the head had fully descended due to cephalopelvic disproportion can cause head compression. A. Early Deceleration B. Late deceleration pattern C. Severe variable deceleration pattern D. Variable Deceleration

A. Early Deceleration

A Pregnant woman came to the hospital with BP of 120/180 mm Hg and was having a seizure. Which type of Hypertensive Disorder of Pregnancy does the woman is classified into: A. Eclampsia B. Preeclampsia C. Severe Preeclampsia D. Gestational Hypertension E. HELLP Syndrome

A. Eclampsia

This type of Thrombophlebitis is accompanied by arterial spasm wherein the femoral, saphenous or popliteal veins are involved: A. Femoral Thrombophlebitis B. Pelvic Thrombophlebitis C. Septic Pelvic Thrombophlebitis D. Deep Vein Thrombosis

A. Femoral Thrombophlebitis

A classification of vaginal/perineal laceration wherein the vaginal mucous membrane and skin of the fourchette is lacerated: A. First Degree Laceration B. Second Degree Laceration C. Third Degree Laceration D. Fourth Degree Laceration

A. First Degree Laceration

A patient gave birth to healthy newborn. Upon delivering her placenta you examined a segment of the placenta shows a recent adherent clot on the maternal surface. What grade of placental abruption does the patient had? A. Grade 0 Abruption Placenta B. Grade 1 Abruption Placenta C. Grade 2 Abruption Placenta D. Grade 3 Abruption Placenta

A. Grade 0 Abruption Placenta

A 16 week pregnant client was diagnosed to have threatened miscarriage. You know that this type of miscarriage presents which of the following sign and symptoms? A. Her vaginal bleeding is scant, usually bright red there is slight cramping or backache but there is no cervical dilatation B. The entire products of conception is expelled there is bleeding, cramping, and expulsion of conceptus C. Bleeding, cramping, and part of the conceptus is expelled but the rest are retained and her cervix is dilated D. The fetus dues but is not expelled and the client experiences decreasing signs of pregnancy

A. Her vaginal bleeding is scant, usually bright red there is slight cramping or backache but there is no cervical dilatation

A 24-week client using a drug recreationally she use it by "snorting". What drug does the client is using? A. Heroin B. Marijuana C. Phencyclidine D. inhalants

A. Heroin

A pregnant client is taking Furosemide for the treatment of her edema and she asked you what are the side effects of Potassium-wasting diuretics. The following are side effects of potassium-wasting diuretics, EXCEPT: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Bradycardia D. Xanthopsia

A. Hyperkalemia

The number of contractions is low or infrequent, common in active phase of labor and it is not increasing beyond 2 or 3 in a 10-minute period. A. Hypotonic Contraction B. Hypertonic Contraction C. Isotonic Contraction D. Prolonged Descent

A. Hypotonic Contraction

A 37-week pregnant woman gave birth to a newborn and us experience Heroin withdrawal symptoms. The ff. are heroin withdrawal symptoms. EXCEPT: A. Intracranial Hemorrhage B. Restlessness C. Shivering D. Insomnia

A. Intracranial Hemorrhage

A pregnant woman is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of placenta previa. Which of the following statement would best describe the patient's diagnosis? A. It is the low implantation of the placenta in the uterus as the cervix softens and begins to efface and dilate, placental sinuses are opened causing progressive hemorrhages B. It is the premature separation of the normally implanted placenta after the 20th week of pregnancy, typically with severe hemorrhage C. It separates only at the edges causing vaginal bleeding and a little pain D. The placenta separates first at the center, blood pools under the placenta and is hidden from view.

A. It is the low implantation of the placenta in the uterus as the cervix softens and begins to efface and dilate, placental sinuses are opened causing progressive hemorrhages

The following are conditions that affect prognosis for complete recovery from Puerperal Sepsis, EXCEPT: A. Local vaginal infection at the time of birth B. Virulence of the invading microorganism C. The woman's general health D. Portal of entry E. Degree of uterine involution at the time of microorganism invasion

A. Local vaginal infection at the time of birth

A type of fetal malposition that occurs in 1/10 of all labors and during internal rotation the head must rotate through 135 degrees instead of 90 degrees. A. Occipitoposterior Position B. Occiput Transverse Position C. Breech Presentation D. Face Presentation E. Brow Presentation

A. Occipitoposterior Position

You are caring for a client who is diagnosed with infection of the perineum, EXCEPT: A. Oxytocic agent to encourage contraction B. Drainage of infected site and packing with iodoform gauze on the open lesion C. Tropical or systematic antibiotic even before culture results are available D. Advise the woman to wipe from front to back after bowel movement

A. Oxytocic agent to encourage contraction

FF. are fetal complications when the mother has a Diabetes Mellitus, Except: A. Pallor B. Hydramnios C. Macrosomia D. Fetal Hypoxia

A. Pallor

Kirsten is 18 weeks pregnant and was referred by her OB-GYNE to have her check-up to a Cardiologist due to her recurring chest pain. The following are part of the Criteria for establishing diagnosis for heart disease. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Persistent murmurs B. Permanent cardiomegaly C. Severe dysrhythmias D. Severe dyspnea E. Chest pains on exertion

A. Persistent murmurs B. Permanent cardiomegaly C. Severe dysrhythmias D. Severe dyspnea

Woman with artificial valve prosthesis should be watched out for? Select all that apply: A. Petechiae B. Premature Separation of Placenta C. Subclinical Bleeding D. Hemolysis E. Hypercoagulability

A. Petechiae B. Premature Separation of Placenta C. Subclinical Bleeding D. Hemolysis

signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia. SATA A. Polyuria B. Polydipsia C. Polyphagia D. obesity

A. Polyuria B. Polydipsia C. Polyphagia

This occur during the 1st 10 days postpartum, some women have feelings of sadness as a response to the anticlimactic feeling after birth and is related to hormonal shifts: A. Postpartal Blues B. Postpartal Depression C. Postpartal Psychosis D. Postpartal Mood Swing

A. Postpartal Blues

You are explaining to a patient regarding possible fetal complications with Cephalopelvic Disproportion. The following are fetal complications of Cephalopelvic Disportion, EXCEPT: A. Postpartum hemorrhage B. Hypoxia C. Fractures to the clavicle D. Injury to neck and head

A. Postpartum hemorrhage

A woman with hydatidiform mole develops HELLP syndrome. During labor, which prescription would the nurse question? A. Prepare her epidural anesthesia B. Assess her blood pressure every 15 minutes C. Assess the urine output every hour D. Urge her to lie on her left side during labor

A. Prepare her epidural anesthesia

A pregnant client was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Premature Rupture of Membrane as an initial diagnosis. All of the following true regarding the management of PROM, EXCEPT: A. Preterm babies should delay the delivery for them to fully mature. B. Administer corticosteroid to hasten lung maturity C. Prophylactic administration of Broad-spectrum antibiotics D. Amnioinfusion to reduce pressure on the fetus or cord to allow a safer transfer

A. Preterm babies should delay the delivery for them to fully mature.

A patient came to the hospital for check up and she told you she try to self-abort with a knitting needle. Which of the ff. complications of miscarriage is the patient experiencing? A. Septic Abortion B. Isoimmunization C. Infection D. Hemorrhage

A. Septic Abortion

This type of fetal malpresentation occurs in women with pendulous abdomens, uterine fibroid tumors, contraction of the pelvic brim, congenital anomalies of the uterus, hydramnios, fetus with hydrocephalus or anything that prevents engagement, prematurity, multiple gestation or short umbilical cord. A. Shoulder Presentation B. Compound Presentation C. Brow Presentation D. Face Presentation

A. Shoulder Presentation

The ff. are the risk of developing DVT: Select all that apply: A. Spontaneous Miscarriage B. Fetal Death C. Hypertension D. Maternal dysrhythmias E. Antiphospholipid antibodies

A. Spontaneous Miscarriage B. Fetal Death C. Hypertension E. Antiphospholipid antibodies

This is the term used more often than infertility because most couples have the potential to conceive but are less able to do so without additional help: A. Subfertility B. Infertility C. Fertility D. Sterility

A. Subfertility

A pregnant client with a history of premature cervical dilation undergone cervical cerclage. Which outcomes indicates that this procedure has been successful? A. The client delivers a full-term fetus at 39 weeks gestation B. The client membranes spontaneously rupture at week 30 of gestation C. The client experiences minimal vaginal bleeding throughout the pregnancy D. The client has reduced shortness of breath and abdominal pain

A. The client delivers a full-term fetus at 39 weeks gestation

A type of Assisted Reproductive Technique wherein instillation of sperm into the female reproductive tract to aid conception: A. Therapeutic Insemination B. In Vitro Fertilization C. Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) D. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFE. Surrogate Embryo TransferT) E. Surrogate Embryo Transfer

A. Therapeutic Insemination

The following are causes of postpartum hemorrhage, EXCEPT: A. Uterine Atony B. Trauma C. Retained Placental Fragments D. Chorioamnionitis

A. Uterine Atony

A collection of blood in the subcutaneous layer of the tissue of the perineum. A. Uterine Rupture B. Vaginal, Cervical and Perineal Lacerations C. Retained Placental Fragments D. Perineal Hematoma

A. Uterine Rupture

You are having your duty in the out-patient department and you are providing an educational class for pregnant women about gestational diabetes. You discuss the role of insulin in the body. Select all the CORRECT statements about the role and function of insulin: A. "Insulin is a type of cell that provides glucose to the body from the blood." B. "Insulin is a hormone secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas." C. "Insulin influences cells by causing them to uptake glucose from the blood." D. "Insulin is a protein that helps carry glucose into the cell for energy."

B. "Insulin is a hormone secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas." C. "Insulin influences cells by causing them to uptake glucose from the blood."

Tara Jing, a 25-year-old pregnant female is diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 28 weeks gestation. You're educating Tara Jing about her condition. Which statement by the patient demonstrates they understood your teaching about gestational diabetes? A. "Once I deliver the baby, it will go away, and I will not need any further testing." B. "It is important I try to get my fasting blood glucose around 70-95 mg/dL and <140 mg/dL 1 hour after meals." C. "There are no risks or complications related to gestational diabetes other than hyperglycemia." D. "I'm at risk for delivering a baby that is too small for its gestational age due to this condition."

B. "It is important I try to get my fasting blood glucose around 70-95 mg/dL and <140 mg/dL 1 hour after meals."

Pregnancy is requires an additional 700-1200 mg of iron. How much mg of this will be transferred to the fetus? A. 100-400 mg B. 200-300 mg C. 500-700 mg D. 700-1200 mg

B. 200-300 mg

Glaiza, a 36 weeks pregnant woman and has gestational diabetes. As a part of her prenatal check-up, her doctor requested to check her blood glucose level. Which of the following lab results is below normal? A. Blood glucose 55 mg/dL B. Blood glucose 82 mg/dL C. Blood glucose 148 mg/dL D. Blood glucose 325 mg/dL

B. Blood glucose 82 mg/dL

A patient with gestational diabetes and is currently 34 weeks pregnant came to the hospital for her prenatal check-up. Which assessment findings below should you immediately report to the physician? Select all that apply: A. Blood glucose 129 mg/dL B. Blood pressure 190/102 C. Proteinuria D. Linea nigra

B. Blood pressure 190/102 C. Proteinuria

Which medication is commonly used in treatment programs for heroin abusers to produce a non-euphoric state and to replace heroin use? A. Diazepam B. Carbamazepine C. Clonidine D. Methadone

B. Carbamazepine

A pregnant client is asking you what are the types of hydatidiform mole. Which type of hydatidiform mole that all trophoblastic villi swell and became cystic that embryo dies and may early lead to choriocarcinoma? A. Incomplete Hydatidiform Mole B. Complete Hydatidiform Mole C. Partial Hydatidiform Mole D. Partial Complete Mole

B. Complete Hydatidiform Mole

It is a type of fetal malpresentation wherein more than 1 part of the fetus presents; most commonly hand or arm prolapsing with the head that there is high risk of cord compression and prolapse. A. Shoulder Presentation B. Compound Presentation C. Brow Presentation D. Face Presentation

B. Compound Presentation

The ff. are criteria for establishing diagnosis of heart disease, EXCEPT: A. Persistent heart murmurs B. Cyanosis C .Permanent cardiomegaly D. Severe Dysrhythmias E. Severe Dyspnea

B. Cyanosis

You are caring for a patient is suffering from mastitis. The following are management for Mastitis, EXCEPT: A. Promote comfort: well-fitting support bra worn 24 hours a day B. Early ambulation following birth C. Good handwashing techniques before handling breasts D. Continue breast feeding

B. Early ambulation following birth

A type of Mastitis that is usually acquired S. aureus, Methicillin-resistant S. Aureus (MRSA) or Candidiasis while in the hospital: A. Mastitis B. Epidemic Mastitis C. Breast Abscess D. Mastitis and Breast Abscess

B. Epidemic Mastitis

Althea, a 18 weeks pregnant client with a Aortic Dilatation was advised to decrease the workload of the heart. The following conditions increases the workload of the heart. A. Infection B. Eupnea C. Weight Loss D. Vasodilation

B. Eupnea

Diabetes Mellitus is developed during pregnancy and will not resolve even after delivery A. True B. False

B. False

A newborn has a condition that results from alcohol exposure during the mother's pregnancy that causes brain damage and growth problems. Which of the following condition does the newborn has? A. Substance Abuse B. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome C. Drug Abuse D. HIV/AIDS

B. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

Cilia a student nurse asked you what is the difference between folic acid and folate. Which of the ff. are the correct definition of folic acid and folate? A. Folic Acid is the common form of Vitamin B9 present in many whole foods, including leafy greens, beans, eggs, citrus fruit, avocados and beef liver while Folate is a synthesized version of Vitamin B9 that is added to processed foods and the common version used in supplements. B. Folate is the common form of Vitamin B9 present in many whole foods, including leafy greens, beans, eggs, citrus fruit, avocados and beef liver while Folic Acid is a synthesized version of Vitamin B9 that is added to processed foods and the common version used in supplements. C. Folate is the common form of vitamin B9 present in many synthesized version of vitamin B9 that is added to processed foods and the common version used in supplements while Folic acid is the common form of vitamin B9 present in many whole foods, including leafy greens, beans, eggs, citrus fruit, avocados, and beef liver. D. Folate and Folic Acid is both present in many whole foods, including leafy greens, beans, eggs, citrus fruit, avocados and beef liver.

B. Folate is the common form of Vitamin B9 present in many whole foods, including leafy greens, beans, eggs, citrus fruit, avocados and beef liver while Folic Acid is a synthesized version of Vitamin B9 that is added to processed foods and the common version used in supplements.

A patient came to the out patient department to have her check up but was referred to the delivery room due to the dark red vaginal bleeding with sharp stabbing pain on her abdomen and she did not felt any fetal movement since yesterday and was diagnosed with abruption placenta. What grade of placental abruption does the patient had? A. Grade 0 Abruption Placenta B. Grade 1 Abruption Placenta C. Grade 2 Abruption Placenta D. Grade 3 Abruption Placenta

B. Grade 1 Abruption Placenta

A patient was diagnosed with abruption placenta with minimal separation. With the knowledge you have regarding abruption placenta, what grade of placenta abruption does the patient had? A. Grade 0 Abruption Placenta B. Grade 1 Abruption Placenta C. Grade 2 Abruption Placenta D. Grade 3 Abruption Placenta

B. Grade 1 Abruption Placenta

You are caring for a woman that came to the delivery room whose labor pain is out of proportion to the quality of her contractions. A. Hypotonic Contraction B. Hypertonic Contraction C. Isotonic Contraction D. Prolonged Descent

B. Hypertonic Contraction

Jenny, a mother with gestational diabetes gave birth to a baby at 37 weeks gestation. As the nurse you know at birth that the newborn is at risk for? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Respiratory distress D. Jaundice E. Hyperthermia

B. Hypoglycemia C. Respiratory distress

A type of Assisted Reproductive Technique is done by one or more oocytes are removed from the ovary by laproscopy and fertilized by exposure to sperm under laboratory conditions outside a woman's body: B. In Vitro Fertilization C. Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) D. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFE. Surrogate Embryo TransferT) E. Surrogate Embryo Transfer

B. In Vitro Fertilization

It is the narrowing of the anteroposterior diameter of the pelvis to <11 cm, or the transverse diameter to 12 cm or less that is usually caused by rickets in early life or inherited pelvic size. A. Outlet Contraction B. Inlet Contraction C. Cervical Contraction D. Vaginal Contraction

B. Inlet Contraction

A pregnant woman is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of abruption of placenta. Which of the ff. statement would best describe the patient's diagnosis? A. It is the low implantation of the placenta in the uterus as the cervix softens and begins to efface and dilate, placental sinuses are opened causing progressive hemorrhages B. It is the premature separation of the normally implanted placenta after the 20th week of pregnancy, typically with severe hemorrhage C. It separates only at the edges causing vaginal bleeding and a little pain D. The placenta separates first at the center, blood pools under the placenta and is hidden from view.

B. It is the premature separation of the normally implanted placenta after the 20th week of pregnancy, typically with severe hemorrhage

A type of fetal distress that occurs when the fetal heart rate slows down following the peak of a contraction and slowly returns to baseline rate during the resting phase. A. Early Deceleration B. Late deceleration pattern C. Severe variable deceleration pattern D. Variable Deceleration

B. Late deceleration pattern

A 36 week pregnant woman had an ultrasound and was diagnosed with a type of placenta Previa that the implantation in the lower rather than in the upper portion of the uterus. With this diagnosis it means that the patient has: A. Placenta previa B. Low-lying placenta C. Marginal Implantation D. Total Placenta Previa

B. Low-lying placenta

A 12-week pregnant is smoking "weed". You know that this type of substance that they smoked causes tachycardia and a sense of well-being and is used to counteract nausea in early pregnancy.. A. Heroin B. Marijuana C. Phencyclidine D. inhalants

B. Marijuana

A pregnant client with a history of premature cervical dilatation will undergo cervical cerclage with McDonald's cerclage procedure. She asked you what is McDonald's Cerclage. You answered: A. McDonald's Cerclage is performed by purse-string sutures that placed in the cervix by the vaginal route under regional anesthesia. Sutures strengthen the cervix and prevents it from dilating B. McDonald's Cerclage is a temporary type of cervical cerclage that are placed horizontally and vertically across the cervix and pulled tight to reduce the cervical canal to a few millimeters in diameter C. McDonald's Cerclage is a permanent type of cervical cerclage that they place a sterile tape is threaded in a purse-string manner under the submucous layer of the cervix and sutured in place to achieve a closed cervix D. McDonald's cerclage refers to a variety of procedure that use sutures or synthetic tape to reinforce the cervix during pregnancy in women with a history of a short cervix

B. McDonald's Cerclage is a temporary type of cervical cerclage that are placed horizontally and vertically across the cervix and pulled tight to reduce the cervical canal to a few millimeters in diameter

A type of fetal malposition that is due to ineffective contractions or a flattened bony pelvis, vaginal delivery is possible with oxytocin administration and application of forceps for delivery A. Occipitoposterior Position B. Occiput Transverse Position C. Breech Presentation D. Face Presentation E. Brow Presentation

B. Occiput Transverse Position

This type of Thrombophlebitis that usually follows a mild endometritis wherein ovarian, uterine or hypogastric veins are involved: A. Femoral Thrombophlebitis B. Pelvic Thrombophlebitis C. Septic Pelvic Thrombophlebitis D. Deep Vein Thrombosis

B. Pelvic Thrombophlebitis

This occurs in 20% of women & is more serious than baby blues and the symptoms may be present for longer than 1 year: A. Postpartal Blues B. Postpartal Depression C. Postpartal Psychosis D. Postpartal Mood Swinges, family

B. Postpartal Depression

The following are contributing factors for Uterine Inversion/Rupture, EXCEPT: A. Perineal Varicosities B. Prolonged Labor C. Abnormal presentation D. Multiple gestation E. Unwise use of oxytocin

B. Prolonged Labor

A type of dysfunctional labor in the first stage of labor that is usually associated with fetal malposition or Cephalopelvic Disproportion and prolonged cervical dilation. A. Prolonged Latent Phase B. Protracted Active Phase C. Prolonged Deceleration Phase D. Secondary Arrest of Dilatation

B. Protracted Active Phase

The following are nursing consideration with Cord Prolapse, EXCEPT: A. If cord is exposed to air, cover with saline-moistened sterile compress to prevent drying. B. Replace the cord back into the vagina to avoid kinking and knotting obstructing blood flow C. Administer O2 at 10 LPM by face mask to the mother to increase oxygenation of fetus D. ReducE pressure on the cord by placing the pregnant client in Knee-chest or Trendelenburg position

B. Replace the cord back into the vagina to avoid kinking and knotting obstructing blood flow

A classification of vaginal/perineal laceration wherein the entire perineum is lacerated up to rectal sphincter: A. First Degree Laceration B. Second Degree Laceration C. Third Degree Laceration D. Fourth Degree Laceration

B. Second Degree Laceration

A patient asked you regarding HIV/AIDS on what is Seroconversion. You know that seroconversion is: A. Seroconversion is the productions of antibodies versus HIV that happens in 5 weeks to a year. B. Seroconversion is the productions of antibodies versus HIV that happens in 6 weeks to a year. C. Seroconversion is the productions of antibodies versus HIV that happens in 7 weeks to a year. D. Seroconversion is the productions of antibodies versus HIV that happens in 54 weeks to a year.

B. Seroconversion is the productions of antibodies versus HIV that happens in 6 weeks to a year.

A 28 year old pregnant client has uncorrected coarctation of aorta and she told the doctor that when she do ordinary physical activity it causes excessive fatigue, palpitations, and dyspnea or anginal pain. Which of the following class of heart disease does the client has? A. Compromised B. Slightly Compromised C. Markedly Compromised D. Severely Compromised E. Uncompromised

B. Slightly Compromised

A 19 week pregnant client was diagnosed with complete miscarriage. Which of the ff. is the best definition of the patient's diagnosis? A. Her vaginal bleeding is scant, usually bright red there is slight cramping or backache but there is no cervical dilatation B. The entire products of conception is expelled there is bleeding, cramping, and expulsion of conceptus C. Bleeding, cramping, and part of the conceptus is expelled but the rest are retained and her cervix is dilated D. The fetus dues but is not expelled and the client experiences decreasing signs of pregnancy

B. The entire products of conception is expelled there is bleeding, cramping, and expulsion of conceptus

Risk Factors of Diabetes Mellitus SATA A. Macrosomia B. Tumor C. obesity D. Stress E. Family History F. Hypocalcemia

B. Tumor C. obesity D. Stress E. Family History

A pregnant client was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of premature Rupture of membrane as an initial diagnosis. All of the following is true regarding PROM, EXCEPT: A. Sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina with continued minimal leakage B. Turns nitrazine paper to red C. Positive test for ferning D.Increased WBC count and C-reactive protein

B. Turns nitrazine paper to red

Lack of uterine muscle tone or relaxation of the uterus; hemostasis is due to contraction of the muscles occluding the open vessels: A. Uterine Rupture B. Uterine Atony C. Retained Placental Fragments D. Placental Accreta

B. Uterine Atony

A type of placental abnormality wherein the cord, instead of entering the placenta directly, separates into small vessels that reach the placenta by spreading cross a fold of amnion: A. Battledore Placenta B. Velamentous Insertion of the Cord C. Placenta Circumvallata D. Placenta Succenturiate

B. Velamentous Insertion of the Cord

A 16th week pregnant client had undergone dilatation and curettage related to her vaginal bleeding and was diagnose to have spontaneous miscarriage . She asked you what are the possible causes of her condition. The ff. are the causes of her condition, EXCEPT: A. Abnormal fetal formation B. Immunologic factors; Rh/ABo Incompatibility C. Abruption of Placenta D. Incompetent cervix

C. Abruption of Placenta

A 18 week pregnant client was diagnosed with incomplete miscarriage. Which of the ff. is the best definition of the patient's diagnosis? A. Her vaginal bleeding is scant, usually bright red there is slight cramping or backache but there is no cervical dilatation B. The entire products of conception is expelled there is bleeding, cramping, and expulsion of conceptus C. Bleeding, cramping, and part of the conceptus is expelled but the rest are retained and her cervix is dilated D. The fetus dues but is not expelled and the client experiences decreasing signs of pregnancy

C. Bleeding, cramping, and part of the conceptus is expelled but the rest are retained and her cervix is dilated

It is a type of fetal malpresentation which is the rarest type, occurs in multipara or woman with relaxed abdominal muscles that often leads to obstructed labor because the head becomes jammed in the brim of the pelvis. A. Shoulder Presentation B. Compound Presentation C. Brow Presentation D. Face Presentation

C. Brow Presentation

You are administering Magnesium Sulfate for patient who is diagnosed with Eclampsia. Which of the following should be on the bedside? A. Tongue blade B. Oxygen tank C. Calcium Gluconate D. Suction machine

C. Calcium Gluconate

A pregnant patient was diagnosed when she was a child with atrial septal defect and now pregnant, she went to the hospital due to extreme fatigue, dyspneic, and palpitations every time she takes the stairs or walk a couple of meters. According to the classifications of heart disease which class the patient belongs to? A. Class 1 B. Class 2 C. Class 3 D. Class 4

C. Class 3

You are giving health teachings regarding fetal presentation. The following are types of breech presentation, EXCEPT: A. Complete Breech B. Frank Breech C. Compound D. Footling Breech

C. Compound

It is an endocrine disorder in which pancreas cannot produce adequate insulin to regulate body glucose level. A. Acromegaly. B. Adrenal Insufficiency & Addison's Disease. C. Diabetes Mellitus D. Cushing's Syndrome.

C. Diabetes Mellitus

A 28 pregnant woman came to the Outpatient Department for her prenatal check-up and was requested to do Ultrasound of her heart. Which of the following diagnostic test is called Ultrasound of the Heart? A. Electrocardiogram B. Electrocardiography C. Echocardiogram D. Electroencephalogram

C. Echocardiogram

A type of Assisted Reproductive Technique in which ova are obtained as in In Vitro Fertilization then both ova and sperm are instilled within a matter of hours, using a laparoscopic technique, into the open end of a fallopian tube: A. Therapeutic Insemination B. In Vitro Fertilization C. Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) D. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFE. Surrogate Embryo TransferT) E. Surrogate Embryo Transfer

C. Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT)

A patient came to the out patient department to have her check up but was referred to the delivery room due to dark red vaginal bleeding, FHT of 116 bpm and upon palpitation her uterus hard, tense and painful when palpated. She was diagnosed with abruption placenta. What grade of grade abruption does the patient had? A. Grade 0 Abruption Placenta B. Grade 1 Abruption Placenta C. Grade 2 Abruption Placenta D. Grade 3 Abruption Placenta

C. Grade 2 Abruption Placenta

A patient came to the hospital with fever, abdominal pain and foul-smelling discharge. Which of the following complications of miscarriage is the patient experiencing? A. Septic Abortion B. Isoimmunization C. Infection D. Hemorrhage

C. Infection

You interviewed a pregnant client using a marijuana to manage her nausea. You know the effect of marijuana use in pregnant women and with the fetus. EXCEPT: A. Loss of short-term memory B. Reduced milk production C. Intracranial Hemorrhage D. Incidence respiratory infection

C. Intracranial Hemorrhage

You were conducting a physical examination to a pregnant woman. Upon examining the skin of the patient you saw red to purplish skin patches and was told that she is taking Zidovudine. You know that the patient is having. A. Angiosarcoma B. Fibroblastic Sarcoma C. Kaposi's Sarcoma D. Leiomyosarcoma

C. Kaposi's Sarcoma

Karlie is experiencing sharp shoulder pain. Which of the ff. conditions is experiencing? A. Cullen's Sign B. Charcot's Sign C. Kehr's Sign D. Leopold's Sign

C. Kehr's Sign

The following are assessment findings for Cord Prolapse, EXCEPT: A. The cord may be felt as the presenting part of an initial vaginal examination during labor B. Ultrasound evidence of prolapse of umbilical cord C. Late deceleration pattern becomes apparent D. The cord may be visible at the vulva

C. Late deceleration pattern becomes apparent

A pregnant client asked you what are the effect of phencyclidine. You answered the ff. EXCEPT: A. Increases cardiac output B. Gives sense of euphoria C. Loss-short term memory D. Causes hallucinations

C. Loss-short term memory

A 37 week pregnant woman had an ultrasound and was diagnosed with a type a placenta previa where the placental edge approaches that of the cervical os, With this diagnosis it means that the patient has: A. Placenta previa B. Low-lying placenta C. Marginal Implantation D. Total Placenta Previa

C. Marginal Implantation

A 28 year old pregnant client has marfan syndrome and she told the doctor that during less than ordinary activity, woman experiences excessive fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea or anginal pain. Which of the following class of heart disease does the client has? A. Compromised B. Slightly Compromised C. Markedly compromised D. Severely compromised E. Uncompromised

C. Markedly compromised

Which type of Hydatidiform Mole that some of the villi form normally and rarely leads to choriocarcinoma? A. Incomplete Hydatidiform Mole B. Complete Hydatidiform Mole C. Partial Hydatidiform Mole D. Partial Complete Mole

C. Partial Hydatidiform Mole

A 27-week pregnant client is using "animal tranquilizer". You know as a nurse that frequent use or a street drug that increases cardiac output, gives sense of euphoria and causes hallucinations. Which of the ff. drug us the pregnant woman is using? A. Heroin B. Marijuana C. Phencyclidine D. inhalants

C. Phencyclidine

A type of placental abnormality wherein the placenta is cup-shaped with raised margins with the whitish opaque choroin covering the periphery: A. Battledore Placenta B. Velamentous Insertion of the Cord C. Placenta Circumvallata D. Placenta Succenturiate

C. Placenta Circumvallata

A pregnant woman was admitted with a lung infection that can affect people with weakened immune systems, such those infected HIV, the virus that causes AIDS. Which of the ff. condition pertains to the woman's condition? A. Hospital Acquired Pneumonia B. Community Acquired Pneumonia C. Pneumocystis Carini Pneumonia D. Fungal Pneumonia

C. Pneumocystis Carini Pneumonia

This can occur when there is possible activation of previous mental illness, hormonal changes, family history of bipolar disorder: A. Postpartal Blue B. Postpartal Depression C. Postpartal Psychosis D. Postpartal Mood Swing

C. Postpartal Psychosis

A pregnant client came to the hospital with a complaint of sudden pop and burst of fluid. Upon assessment she is diagnosed with Premature Rupture of Membranes. Which of the following is true regarding PROM? A. Loss of amniotic fluid before 40 weeks AOG B. Not associated with infections of membranes (Chorioamnionitis) C. Preterm labor follows rupture of membranes and ends the pregnancy D. Not associated with vaginal infection (Neisseria Gonorrhea, Group B streptococcus and chlamydia

C. Preterm labor follows rupture of membranes and ends the pregnancy

Most often results from abnormal fetal head position that the deceleration phase is prolonged beyond 3hrs in nullipara or 1hr in multigravida. A. Prolonged Latent Phase B. Protracted Active Phase C. Prolonged Deceleration Phase D. Secondary Arrest of Dilation

C. Prolonged Deceleration Phase

Portion of placenta are left still attached to the uterus that keeps it from contracting fully and uterine bleeding occurs: A. Uterine Rupture B. Uterine Atony C. Retained Placental Fragments D. Placenta Accreta

C. Retained Placental Fragments

This type of Thrombophlebitis develops in conjunction with infections of the reproductive tract that predisposes the woman to develop pulmonary embolism: A. Femoral Thrombophlebitis B. Pelvic Thrombophlebitis C. Septic Pelvic Thrombophlebitis D. Deep Vein Thrombosis

C. Septic Pelvic Thrombophlebitis

A type of fetal distress that the fetal heart rate is repeatedly decelerating less 90bpm for over 60 sec before returning to baseline that can lead to Fetal Hypoxia if it is not properly managed. A. Early Deceleration B. Late deceleration pattern C. Severe variable deceleration pattern D. Variable Deceleration

C. Severe variable deceleration pattern

A pregnant client with a history of premature cervical dilatation will undergo cervical cerclage with Shirodkar procedure. She asked you what is Shirodkar Procedure. You answered: A. Shirodkar Procedure is performed by purse-string sutures that placed in the cervix by the vaginal route under regional anesthesia. Sutures strengthen the cervix and prevents it from dilating B. Shirodkar Procedure is a temporary type of cervical cerclage that are placed horizontally and vertically across the cervix and pulled tight to reduce the cervical canal to a few millimeters in diameter C. Shirodkar Procedure is a permanent type of cervical cerclage that they place a sterile tape is threaded in a purse-string manner under the submucous layer of the cervix and sutured in place to achieve a closed cervix D. Shirodkar Procedure refers to a variety of procedure that use sutures or synthetic tape to reinforce the cervix during pregnancy in women with a history of a short cervix

C. Shirodkar Procedure is a permanent type of cervical cerclage that they place a sterile tape is threaded in a purse-string manner under the submucous layer of the cervix and sutured in place to achieve a closed cervix

This is done to test if the sperm can penetrate the ovum: A. Fertility Testing B. Semen Analysis C. Sperm Penetration Assay and Antisperm Antibody Testing D. Ovulation Monitoring E. Ovulation Determination by Test Strip F. Ferrell Testing Kit

C. Sperm Penetration Assay and Antisperm Antibody Testing

A woman has been diagnosed as having Premature Rupture of Membranes, Which of the following condition is the most typical for PROM? A. Increased perspiration B. Weight loss C. Susceptibility to infection D. Blood pressure elevation

C. Susceptibility to infection

An 18-week pregnant client ask you what is Rh incompatibility. Which of the ff. correct regarding RH incompatibility? EXCEPT A. RH (D) factor is a protein antigen present on the surface of some people's RBC (Rh+) B. Antibodies vs Rh antigen are not naturally occurring but are produced when Rh + blood enters the bloodstream of an Rh- person C. The mother has inborn antibodies vs blood type A and B in her bloodstream D. The Rh + gene is a dominant and therefore if either the mother or the father or both parents are Rh+, the baby will be Rh+

C. The mother has inborn antibodies vs blood type A and B in her bloodstream

A classification of vaginal/perineal laceration wherein the entire perineum, rectal sphincter and some of the mucous membrane of the rectum is lacerated: A. First Degree Laceration B. Second Degree Laceration C. Third Degree Laceration D. Fourth Degree Laceration

C. Third Degree Laceration

A woman gave birth in a birthing facility and was brought to the hospital with a globular mass on her vaginal orifice. You know that this condition is which of the following? A. Uterine Atony B. Uteroplacental Apoplexy C. Uterine Inversion D. Myoma Uteri

C. Uterine Inversion

The following are predisposing factors of Uterine Atony, EXCEPT: A. dysfunctional labor B. retained Placental Fragments C. anesthesia D. forceps delivery

C. anesthesia

A 29 weeks weeks pregnant came to the emergency room department due to severe dyspnea, hemoptysis, nocturnal tachycardia and angina. What makes the client prompt actions means? A. requires no intervention. B. requires referral to her doctor. C. requires immediate intervention. D. requires rest and oxygen therapy

C. requires immediate intervention.

A woman of 16 weeks gestation telephones the nurse because she has passed some "berry-like" blood clots and now has continued dark brown vaginal bleeding. Which action should the nurse instruct the patient to do? A. "Maintain bedrest, and count the number of perineal pads used." B. "Come to the health care facility if uterine contractions begin." C. "Continue normal activity, but take the pulse ever hour." D. "Come to the health care facility with any vaginal material passed."

D. "Come to the health care facility with any vaginal material passed."

You are caring for a patient who is diagnosed with Endometriosis and you are asked by your instructor which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Endometriosis? A. The lochia is usually dark brown and foul-smelling, increased in amount B. Analgesics can be taken for afterpains and abdominal discomfort C. Antipyretics can be taken for fever D. 1 or 2 stiches may be sloughed from the suture line or an area of the suture line may be open with purulent drainage present

D. 1 or 2 stiches may be sloughed from the suture line or an area of the suture line may be open with purulent drainage present

Your instructor ask you which of the following is incorrect regarding the assessment for Endometriosis: A. Chills, anorexia, general malaise B. The uterus is not well-contracted, painful to touch with strong afterpains C. Lochia is usually dark brown and foul-smelling, increased in amount D. 1 or 2 stiches may be sloughed from the suture line or an area of the suture line may be open with purulent drainage present

D. 1 or 2 stiches may be sloughed from the suture line or an area of the suture line may be open with purulent drainage present

A 36-year-old female is currently 18 weeks pregnant. You're collecting the patient's health history. She has the following health history: gravida 5, para 4, BMI 28, hypertension, depression, and family history of Type 2 diabetes. Select below all the risk factors in this scenario that increases this patient's risk for developing gestational diabetes? 1. 34-years-old 2. 18 weeks pregnant 3. Gravida 5, para 4 4.BMI 28 5.Hypertension 6. Depression 7. Family history of Type 2 diabetes A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 1,2,3 and 5 C, 1,2,3 and 6 D. 1,3,4 and 6

D. 1,3,4 and 6

Michelle, a 32-year-old female is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. As the nurse you know that what test below is used to diagnose a patient with this condition? A. 1 hour glucose tolerance test B. 24 hour urine collection C. Hemoglobin A1C D. 3 hour glucose tolerance test

D. 3 hour glucose tolerance test

4 patients came to the outpatient department with Iron Deficiency anemia, EXCEPT: A. Multiple pregnancies because of the increased fetal demand B. A woman with secondary hemolytic illness C. Poor gastric absorption due to gastric bypass for morbid obesity D. A woman at 36 years of age

D. A woman at 36 years of age

A pregnant client was diagnosed with hydatidiform mole. She asked you what does that means. You answer which of the ff? A. Gestational trophoblastic disease is abnormal proliferation and then degeneration of the trophoblastic villi B. The cells degenerate, they become filled with fluid and appear as clear fluid-filled, grape sized vesicles C. The embryo fails to develop beyond primitive start D. All of the above

D. All of the Above

It is a condition of too few RBCs or lowered ability of the RBCs A. Molar Pregnancy B. Ectopic Pregnancy C. Hyperemesis Gravidarum D. Anemia

D. Anemia

A 26-week pregnant client with ABo incompatibility. She asked you what her diagnosis means. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ABo incompatibility? A. The mother has inborn antibodies vs. blood type A and B in her bloodstream B. Uncommon during pregnancy since antibodies is the large IgM type and cannot cross placenta barrier C. During the delivery when placenta separates from the decidua, the barrier is broken allowing the maternal blood to enter the fetal bloodstream D. Antibodies vs. Rh antigen are not naturally occurring but are produced when RH+ enters the bloodstream of an Rh- person.

D. Antibodies vs. Rh antigen are not naturally occurring but are produced when RH+ enters the bloodstream of an Rh- person.

The ff. are the management for premature cervical dilatation. Except: A. Ultrasound is done to confirm that the fetus is healthy. B. At weeks 12 to 14, purse-string sutures are placed in the cervix by the vaginal route under regional anesthesia C. Sutures are then removed at weeks 37 to 38 so that the fetus can be born vaginally D. Chest X-ray is done to detect early lung metastasis

D. Chest X-ray is done to detect early lung metastasis

The following conditions are classified as Local Infection, EXCEPT: A. Lesions of perineum B. Lesions of vulva C. Endometritis D. Chorioamnionititis

D. Chorioamnionititis

Edema of the leg and ankle wherein there is decreased circulation and edema gives a white or drained appearance that is formerly called MILK LEG: A. Femoral Thrombophlebitis B. Pelvic Thrombophlebitis Septic Pelvic C. Thrombophlebitis D. Deep Vein Thrombosis

D. Deep Vein Thrombosis

Reme a pregnant client asked you what are the risk factors for having AIDS/HIV/ The ff. are the risk factors, EXCEPT: A. Multiple sexual partners of the individual B. Bisexual Partner C. IV drug use by the individual/partner D. Deep, open-mouth kissing without mouth sores

D. Deep, open-mouth kissing without mouth sores

Kyra a client who gave birth to a female newborn and was diagnosed as having ABo incompatibility. Which of the ff. is incorrect for the lab findings of a newborn with ABo incompatibility? A. Blood smear result is microspherocytosis B. <95 microcytic for a newborn C. Direct coombs test is often weakly + D. Direct coombs test is often weakly -

D. Direct coombs test is often weakly -

It is a type of fetal malpresentation wherein the fetal head is presenting at a different angle than expected: A. Shoulder Presentation B. Compound Presentation C. Brow Presentation D. Face Presentation

D. Face Presentation

Karlie is diagnosed with ectopic pregnancy. Your instructor ask you which of the ff. is the common site of ectopic pregnancy? A. ovary B. Cervix C. Peritoneal cavity D. Fallopian Tube

D. Fallopian Tube

Which of the following statement is true regarding Cephalopelvic Disproportion: A. A loop of the umbilical cords slips down in front of the presenting fetal part B. Narrowing of the anteroposterior diameter of the pelvis <11 cm C. Narrowing of the transverse diameter of the outlet <11 cm D. Fetal head is too large to pass through the bony pelvis

D. Fetal head is too large to pass through the bony pelvis

The following are common causes of dysfunctional labor, EXCEPT: A. Inappropriate use of analgesia B.Poor fetal position C. Extension rather than flexion of the fetal head D. Flexion rather than extension of the fetal head

D. Flexion rather than extension of the fetal head

A pregnant woman came to the hospital with BP of 140/90 mm Hg, urinalysis show no proteinuria and no edema. Which type of Hypertensive Disorder of Pregnancy does the woman is classified into: A. Eclampsia B. Preeclampsia C. Severe Preeclampsia D. Gestational Hypertension E. HELLP Syndrome

D. Gestational Hypertension

The ff. are true regarding HIV/AIDS, EXCEPT: A. HIV infection and AIDS can be caused by placental transfer or direct contact with maternal blood during birth. B. HIV is a slowly replicating retrovirus and has at least two main factors, HIV 1 and HIV 2; followed by variety of the further subtypes C. The virus acts by attacking the lymphoreticular system, in particular CD4 bearing helper T lymphocytes D. HIV/AIDS is spread through saliva

D. HIV/AIDS is spread through saliva

The following are common infective agents that causes puerperal sepsis, EXCEPT: A. Group B streptococci B. Aerobic gram (-) bacilli like E. coli C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Helicobacter Pylori

D. Helicobacter Pylori

A pregnant patient came to the hospital and told you that she is dizzy, pale in appearance and she is having "heavy bleeding" and soaked 10 maternal pads in a period of 4 hours per day. Which of the complication of miscarriage is the patient experiencing? A. Septic Abortion B. Isoimmunization C. Infection D. Hemorrhage

D. Hemorrhage

An 18-weel pregnant client was caught sniffing cooking spray a the female comfort room. You know using this type of drugs may lead to cardiac and respiratory irregularities and ma limit fetal oxygen supply. Which of the following does the pregnant client is using? A. Heroin B. Marijuana C. Phencyclidine D. Inhalants

D. Inhalants

A pregnant client is experiencing chest pain and was diagnosed with Chronic Hypertensive Vascular Disorder; her doctor ordered a medication called Nitroglycerin. The following are correct statement regarding Nitroglycerin, EXCEPT: A. Nitroglycerin works by relaxing the smooth muscle and blood vessels in the body. B. A vasodilator drug used for the treatment of chest pain and high blood pressure. C. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be chewed, crushed, or swallowed. D. It is taken within 5 mins up to 3 tablets and if the chest pain is not relieved after 15 minutes the patient will take a rest.

D. It is taken within 5 mins up to 3 tablets and if the chest pain is not relieved after 15 minutes the patient will take a rest.

The following are associated with vaginal infection that can cause Premature Rupture of Membranes in pregnant women, EXCEPT: A. Neisseria Gonorrhea B. Group B streptococcus C. Chlamydia Trachomatis D. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

D. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

You are caring for pregnant patient who is diagnosed with Eclampsia and had a doctor's order to give Magnesium Sulfate. Before giving the medication, Which of the following is a sign that your patient is having Magnesium Sulfate Toxicity? A. Blood pressure of 210/100 B. Urine output is > 100 ml in 4 hours C. Respiratory rate of 21 breaths/min D. Patellar reflexes are absent

D. Patellar reflexes are absent

Failure of the uterus to return to its normal prepregnant size and shape after pregnancy: A. Uterine Rupture B. Uterine Atony C. Uterine Subinvolution D. Placenta Accreta

D. Placenta Accreta

A type of placental abnormality where the placenta has 1 or more accessory lobes connected to the main placenta that the small lobes may be retained in the uterus leading to hemorrhage and therefore must be removed: A. Battledore Placenta B. Velamentous Insertion of the Cord C. Placenta Circumvallata D. Placenta Succenturiate

D. Placenta Succenturiate

Erina will be having case presentation regarding the complications of anemia in pregnancy. The ff. are part of complications of anemia in pregnancy, EXCEPT: A. Premature labor B. Intrauterine Growth retardation C. Dangerous Anemia from normal blood loss during labor, requiring transfusion D. Poor diet and poor nutrition

D. Poor diet and poor nutrition

Belle was confined to the hospital due to hyperemesis gravidarum. The ff. are part of the management for this condition, EXCEPT: A. 24 hour hospitalization B. If no vomiting after the first 24 hrs, sips of clear fluid gradually advanced to a soft, then normal diet C. If vomiting returns, TPN or enteral nutrition may be prescribed D. Provide oxygen therapy

D. Provide oxygen therapy

A pregnant woman asked you what are the effects of narcotic use with the fetus. You answered the following except: A. Small for gestational age B. Increased incidence fetal distress C. Meconium aspiration D. Restlessness

D. Restlessness

A 16 week pregnant client was diagnosed to have threatened miscarriage. The ff. are management of threatened miscarriage. EXCEPT: A. Assess fetal viability via ultrasound and fetal heart tone B. Complete bed rest for 24 to 48 hours C. Coitus is restricted for 2 weeks after bleeding D. Save any tissue fragments passed

D. Save any tissue fragments passed

A pregnant client was admitted at 2:00 pm with a cervical dilation of 5cm and was ordered by the Obstetrician to monitor her progress of labor after 4 hours you checked her cervical dilation is still the same. What type of dysfunctional labor in first trimester does the client is experiencing? A. Prolonged Latent Phase B. Protracted Active Phase C. Prolonged Deceleration Phase D. Secondary Arrest of Dilation

D. Secondary Arrest of Dilation

A patient who is 17 weeks pregnant is passing pieces of body tissue along with blood clots and dark red blood from the vagina. What should the nurse direct the patient to do this time? A. Begin immediate bedrest B. Count the number of perineal pads that are saturated with blood C. Continue with the normal daily activity and monitor pulse rate every hour D. Seek immediate medical attention and bring the expressed vaginal material

D. Seek immediate medical attention and bring the expressed vaginal material

This is the inability to conceive because of a known condition such as the absence of a uterus: A. Subfertility B. Infertility C. Fertility D. Sterility

D. Sterility

Nurse Christine is teaching a pregnant adolescent women health class about the dangers of inhalant abuse; the nurse warns about the possibility of: A. Contracting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS B. Recurrent flashback events C. Psychological dependence after initial use D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression

D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression

The following are findings for Mastitis, EXCEPT: A. Warm reddened painful areas on the breasts B. Enlarge or tender axillary lymph nodes C. Flu-like symptoms & generalized fever D. Tenderness in a portion of vein

D. Tenderness in a portion of vein

Berta a pregnant patient was diagnosed with Iron Deficiency Anemia. She asked you what are the other types of Anemia that can be seen in pregnancy. Which of the ff. are Anemias of Pregnancy, EXCEPT: A. Vitamin B12 Anemia B. Anemia due to blood loss C. Folate Deficiency D. Thalassemia

D. Thalassemia

A 20 week pregnant client was diagnosed with missed miscarriage. Which of the ff. is the best definition of the patient's diagnosis? A. Her vaginal bleeding is scant, usually bright red there is slight cramping or backache but there is no cervical dilatation B. The entire products of conception is expelled there is bleeding, cramping, and expulsion of conceptus C. Bleeding, cramping, and part of the conceptus is expelled but the rest are retained and her cervix is dilated D. The fetus dues but is not expelled and the client experiences decreasing signs of pregnancy

D. The fetus dues but is not expelled and the client experiences decreasing signs of pregnancy

A pregnant woman is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of uteroplacental apoplexy. Which of the ff. statement would best describe the patient's diagnosis? A. It is the low implantation of the placenta in the uterus as the cervix softens and begins to efface and dilate, placental sinuses are opened causing progressive hemorrhages B. It is the premature separation of the normally implanted placenta after the 20th week of pregnancy, typically with severe hemorrhage C. It separates only at the edges causing vaginal bleeding and a little pain D. The placenta separates first at the center, blood pools under the placenta and is hidden from view.

D. The placenta separates first at the center, blood pools under the placenta and is hidden from view.

A 38 week pregnant woman had an ultrasound and was diagnosed with a type of placenta previa that totally obstruct the cervical os. With this diagnosis it means that the patient has: A. Placenta previa B. Low-lying placenta C. Marginal Implantation D. Total Placenta Previa

D. Total Placenta Previa

The ff. are true regarding premature dilatation, EXCEPT: A. The cervix that dilates prematurely and cannot hold a fetus until term B. It is one cause of habitual abortion C. The dilatation is usually painless D. Uterine contractions begins and after a short labor, the fetus us stillbirth

D. Uterine contractions begins and after a short labor, the fetus us stillbirth

A patient was diagnosed with habitual abortion due to Rh incompatibility and had a fetal complication of Erythroblastosis fetalis. She asked you what will be the complication if she will get pregnant again. The ff. are complications of Rh incompatibility, EXCEPT: A. Anemia B. Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly C. Hyperbilirubinemia D. Wilms Tumor E. Hydrops fetalis

D. Wilms Tumor

A type of Assisted Reproductive Technique wherein oocyte retrieval by transvaginal, ultrasound-guided aspiration, followed by culture and insemination of oocyte in the laboratory: A. Therapeutic Insemination B. In Vitro Fertilization C. Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) D. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFE. Surrogate Embryo TransferT) E. Surrogate Embryo Transfer

D. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFE. Surrogate Embryo TransferT)

A pregnant woman is using cocaine. You know as a nurse that once she will give birth, her child will experience cocaine withdrawal symptoms. The ff. are withdrawal symptoms of cocaine, except: A. Tremulousness B. Irritability C. Muscle Rigidity D. Restlessness E. Intracranial Hemorrhage

D. restlesness

A client is currently diagnosed with Gestational Diabetes at 30 weeks ask you when do most pregnant women develop gestational diabetes? A. usually during the 1-3 month of pregnancy B. usually during the 2-3 month of pregnancy C. usually during the 1-2 trimester of pregnancy D. usually during the 2-3 trimester of pregnancy

D. usually during the 2-3 trimester of pregnancy

Belle is diagnosed with Hyperemesis Gravidarum, which of the ff is true regarding this condition? A. Extreme nausea and vomiting that is prolonged past week 12 of pregnancy or is so severe B. Nausea and vomiting is so severe that nutrition cannot maintained a d weight loss is severe C. Urine may be (+) for ketones due to breakdown of protein and fat for cell growth D. Intrauterine growth restriction or preterm labor E. All of the choices are true

E. All of the choices are true

All but one is not associated with premature labor. A. Dehydration B. Urinary tract Infection C. Periodontal disease D. Chorioamnionitis E. Cephalopelvic Disproportion

E. Cephalopelvic Disproportion

The following are conditions that increases the risk for Post-partal infection, EXCEPT: A. Rupture of membranes greater than 24 hours before birth B. Retained placental fragments C. Postpartal hemorrhage-weakens the womans general condition D. Prolonged & difficult of labor, particularly instrument births (forceps, etc.) E. Degree of uterine involution at the time of microorganisms invasion

E. Degree of uterine involution at the time of microorganisms invasion

Cilia a student nurse who take care of Berta asked you what are the factors that puts the patient at risk of developing anemia in pregnancy. All but one are risk factors of anemia, EXCEPT: A. Poor nutrition B. Excess Alcohol consumptions C. Illnesses that reduces absorption of nutrients D. Use of anticonvulsant E. Elevated hematocrit due to hemoconcentration

E. Elevated hematocrit due to hemoconcentration

Kyra's child was ordered to have exchange transfusion, she asked you what are the possible complications of the procedure. The ff. are complications of ExTx, except: A. Hypothermia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Hyperkalemia E. Hypernatremia

E. Hypernatremia

You are caring for a pregnant patient who was rushed to the delivery room due to Cord Prolapse. The following are predisposing factors for this diagnosis, EXCEPT: A. Premature rupture of membranes B. Intrauterine tumors preventing the presenting part form engagement C. A small fetus D. CPD preventing firm engagement E. Oligohydramnios

E. Oligohydramnios

This tests the upsurge of Luteinizing Hormone by dipping a test strip into midmorning urine the comparing the color change: A. Fertility Testing B. Semen Analysis C. Sperm Penetration Assay and Antisperm Antibody Testing D. Ovulation Monitoring E. Ovulation Determination by Test Strip F. Ferrell Testing Kit

E. Ovulation Determination by Test Strip

You are caring for a client who is suspected to have an endometriosis. The following are correct assessment for Endometriosis, EXCEPT: A. Chills, anorexia, general malaise B. The uter is not well-contracted, painful to the touch with strong after pains C. Lochia is usually dark brown and foul smelling, increased in amount D. Fever usually on the 3rd or 4th postpartal birth E. Retained placental fragments

E. Retained placental fragments

A type of Assisted Reproductive Technique wherein at the time of ovulation, donors ovum is removed by transvaginal with ultrasound guided procedure and the oocyte is fertilized in the laboratory and placed in the recipient woman's uterus: A. Therapeutic Insemination B. In Vitro Fertilization C. Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) D. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFE. Surrogate Embryo TransferT) E. Surrogate Embryo Transfer

E. Surrogate Embryo Transfer

A 26 year old pregnant client has a history of heart disease and she told the doctor that ordinary physical activity causes no discomfort and has no symptoms of cardiac insufficiency and no anginal pain. Which of the following class of heart disease does the client has? A. Compromised B. Slightly Compromised C. Markedly compromised D. Severely compromised E. Uncompromised

E. Uncompromised

This test contains both tests for FSH the 3rd day of the menstrual cycle and a sperm motility test for the male: A. Fertility Testing B. Semen Analysis C. Sperm Penetration Assay and Antisperm Antibody Testing D. Ovulation Monitoring E. Ovulation Determination by Test Strip F. Ferrell Testing Kit

F. Ferrell Testing Kit