OB Past Quizzes

Q3 14. Sedatives can be used for pain management at any time prior to the infant's birth TRUE OR FALSE

False

Q2 16. Monozygotic / Monochorionic twins are at higher risk for complications than dizygotic / dichorionic twins TRUE OR FALSE

True

Q3 16. General anesthesia may be used for an emergency C-Section TRUE OR FALSE

True

Q5 20. A mother first begins to adjust to her new role during pregnancy. TRUE OR FALSE

True

Q3 13. ALARMER Matching 1st A L 2nd A R M - Maneuver of Woods E - Episiotomy R - Rubin Maneuver

A - Ask for Help L - Hyperflex mother's thighs against abdomen A - Suprapubic pressure R - Place woman on hands and knees M - Rotate the posterior shoulder in a screw like maneuver E - Perineal incision to increase outlet R - Insert hand into vagina to release anterior shoulder / arm

Q5 16. The nurse is assisting a newborn's PCP with the performance of a circumcision. Which intervention is used to manage the neonate's pain? A. A sucrose-dipped pacifier is offered during the nerve block. B. The foreskin is numbed with ice before the nerve block C. The neonate is breastfed first to promote a sense of calmness D. A velcro tourniquet is loosely wrapped around the penis

A. A sucrose-dipped pacifier is offered during the nerve block.

Q2 4. The nursing staff in an L&D unit has noticed an increase in the number of patient experiencing placental abruption. The nurses begin to review demographics for the patients involved. Which risk factors will the nurse expect? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Abdominal trauma B. Methamphetamine use C. Cigarette smoking D. Hypertensive disorders E. Uterine fibroids

A. Abdominal trauma B. Methamphetamine use C. Cigarette smoking D. Hypertensive disorders E. Uterine fibroids

Q6 17. A 29 week infant is admitted to the NICU with a maternal history of complete placenta previa with bleeding prior to delivery. What does the medical team need to assess for in this baby? Select all that apply. A. Anemia B. Hypotension/shock C. Respiratory distress D. Fluid overload

A. Anemia B. Hypotension/shock C. Respiratory distress

Q5 10. The lactation nurse takes a phone call from a mother who is breastfeeding her 2 m/o infant. The mother reports an area of redness and warmth on the breast and a painful burning sensation when breastfeeding. Which statement by the nurse is correct is mastitis is suspected? A. Continuing to breastfeed will help clear up the condition B. The baby gave you an infection and needs to be on antibiotics C. Pump your milk and throw it away until the infection is gone. D. If your nipples are cracked you need to stop breastfeeding

A. Continuing to breastfeed will help clear up the condition

Q5 19. The nurse is concerned about the number of infants in the community who die from SIDS even with teaching about "back to sleep". On which additional preventive measures will the nurse focus? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Infants needs to be dressed to prevent overheating during sleep B. Mothers need to be informed that breastfeeding reduces the risk for SIDS C. Parents should not smoke or allow smoking around their baby D. Parents need to avoid products that claim to reduce the risk for SIDS E. During pregnancy, women should not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illegal drugs.

A. Infants needs to be dressed to prevent overheating during sleep B. Mothers need to be informed that breastfeeding reduces the risk for SIDS C. Parents should not smoke or allow smoking around their baby D. Parents need to avoid products that claim to reduce the risk for SIDS E. During pregnancy, women should not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illegal drugs.

Q3 4. A patient is being prepared for an unplanned cesarean section. Which pre-procedure information is most important for the nurse to report before the administration of regional anesthesia? A. Laboratory value indicating a low platelet count B. Inability of the patient to sit on a bedside and flex forward C. Hypovolemia corrected with IV fluid administration D. Hx. of patient experiencing headaches after a spinal

A. Laboratory value indicating a low platelet count

Q2 5. The nurse is assessing a patient at 26 weeks gestation. The patient has chronic hypertension and exhibited hypertension and proteinuria prior to 20 weeks gestation. Previous BP readings haave been in the range of 130 to 140 / 88 to 90 mmHg. Due to superimposed preeclampsia, for which additional manifestations will the nurse immediately contact the HCP. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Lack of response to verbal and tactile stimulation B. Subjective report of severe headache and photophobia C. Laboratory report that shows an elevation of liver enzymes D. Current BP reading of 162 / 102 mmHg E. Evident pulmonary edema noted with auscultation.

A. Lack of response to verbal and tactile stimulation B. Subjective report of severe headache and photophobia D. Current BP reading of 162 / 102 mmHg E. Evident pulmonary edema noted with auscultation.

Q2 14. The OB nurse is managing her patients while covering for another nurse who is on break. Which patient is the lowest priority? A. A patient with a previous cesarean section. B. A patient with a category 1 fetal heart tracing C. A patient with decreased fetal actvitiy D. A patient with an epidural in place

B. A patient with a category 1 fetal heart tracing

Q1 10. A patient at 34 weeks gestation is undergoing an ultrasound. The nurse notes that the amniotic fluid is estimated at between 500 and 600 mL. Which deduction does the nurse make from this finding? A. Oligohydramnios is present B. The fetus is likely to have a cardiac defect C. Fluid is normal for gestational age D. Polyhydramnios had formed

A. Oligohydramnios is present

Q3 5. The nurse is providing care in PACU for a patient who just delivered a neonate via C-section. The patient reports tightness in her chest. Assessment findings include tachypnea, hypotension, and decreasing oxygen saturation levels. Which complication does the nurse report to the HCP? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Postpartum hemorrhage C. Developing endometritis D. Surgical site infection

A. Pulmonary embolism

Q2 6. A patient at 35 weeks gestation arrives at the prenatal clinic in physical distress. Assessment reveal hypotension, thread pulse, shallow respirations, pallor, cold and clammy skin, and anxiety. The nurse does not find evidence of vaginal bleeding but suspects placental abruption. For which reasons does the nurse call for emergency transport to the hospital? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. The patient states a sudden onset of severe symptoms B. The patient and fetus are at risk from hypovolemic shock C. The patient reports a recent bout of nausea and vomiting D. The absence of blood can indicate a concealed hemorrhage E. The patient has all the symptoms of hypovolemia

A. The patient states a sudden onset of severe symptoms B. The patient and fetus are at risk from hypovolemic shock D. The absence of blood can indicate a concealed hemorrhage E. The patient has all the symptoms of hypovolemia

Q3 1. The nurse is providing care for a prenatal patient who is told she will require a cesarean delivery b/c of cephalopelvic disproportion. Which explanation of the condition will the nurse provide to the patient? A. The size and/or shape of either the fetal head or patient pelvis is an issue B. The patient has a preexisting medical condition that supports cesarean delivery C. The placenta is implanted in an unfavorable position in the uterus D. The patient had a surgery with an incision through the myometrium of the uterus

A. The size and/or shape of either the fetal head or patient pelvis is an issue

Q5 18. A mother who is breastfeeding expresses concern about whether her infant is getting enough milk. Which concrete indicator does the nurse provide to the mother? A. There are at least 8 wet diapers and several stools per day. B. The newborn spontaneously releases the grip on the breast C. The mother is physically and emotionally comfortable during feedings D. The newborn suckles and the mother can see swallowing.

A. There are at least 8 wet diapers and several stools per day.

Q2 19. The nurse is conducting a staff education session about preeclampsia and eclampsia complications. Which statements by the nurse are accurate about HELLP syndrome? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. This syndrome destroys RBC B. This syndrome decreases a patient's BUN C. This syndrome impacts the amount of platelets D. This syndrome decreases a patient's WBC count E. This syndrome increases liver enzymes

A. This syndrome destroys RBC C. This syndrome impacts the amount of platelets E. This syndrome increases liver enzymes

Q1 9. The L&D nursing staff is conducting research to determine the benefits of childbirth education. Which finding does EBP support? A. Women who participated in CBE and/or had a birth plan had higher odds of a vaginal delivery. B. Women with a previous caesarean delivery are more likely to have a vaginal delivery after CBE C. Women of color, younger in age, and who are multipara respond best to CBE and/or a birth plan D. Women who are considered to be at high risk had fewer complications if CBE or a birth plan was used.

A. Women who participated in CBE and/or had a birth plan had higher odds of a vaginal delivery.

Q6 13. Which of the following is an important first step in the resuscitation of infants with life-threatening cardiorespiratory or central nervous disease? A. None of the above choices B. Airway control C. Defibrillation D. Fluid management

B. Airway control

Q1 3. The nurse is teaching a class about embryonic and fetal development to couples in the early stage of pregnancy. For which reason does the nurse emphasize the first 8 weeks of gestation? A. Factors that can interrupt the pregnancy are no longer a concern. B. All organ systems are developing during this period C. Pregnancies often abort before or at this time of development D. Lack of size and movement prevents confirmation of pregnancy.

B. All organ systems are developing during this period

Q5 1. The nurse is providing postpartum care to a patient 24hrs after vaginal delivery. Which action does the nurse perform prior to assessing the patient's uterus? A. Assess the passage of lochia B. Ask the patient to void C. Administer a dose of oxytocin D. Place the patient on their left side

B. Ask the patient to void

Q5 14. The nurse is assessing a newborn's reflexes. Which response will cause the nurse the most concern? A. Strong babinski reflex B. Asymmetric moro reflex C. A fencing position when the head is turned D. Absent rooting reflex

B. Asymmetric moro reflex

Q5 11. The nurse is aware of concern about the increasing numbers of severe maternal morbidity (SMM). It is believed to be related to changes in the overall health of the population of women giving birth. Which reasons does the nurse identify as causes of SMM? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Inability to pay for healthcare B. Cesarean deliveries C. Preexisting chronic medical conditions D. Pre-pregnancy obesity E. Increase in maternal age

B. Cesarean deliveries C. Preexisting chronic medical conditions D. Pre-pregnancy obesity E. Increase in maternal age

Q2 12. A nurse preceptor is explaining to a new nurse about the tocodynamometer. The new nurse is looking at the EFM paper and sees that, of the 2 tracked HR, the one on the bottom is in the 80s; she is concerned that the fetal heart rate is bradycardic. Which of the following should the nurse do first? A. Give the mother oxygen to increase the fetal HR B. Check to make sure that the maternal radial pulse is being recorded correctly C. Immediately call the provider into the room D. Adjust the monitor on the maternal abdomen.

B. Check to make sure that the maternal radial pulse is being recorded correctly

Q2 20. A patient just learns that her unborn fetus has a life-threatening condition and is not expected to survive long-term. Which intervention would NOT be recommended? A. Facilitate referrals related to the fetal condition B. Encourage the patient's partner to be emotionally strong C. Provide time for the patient to talk about her feelings D. Ascertain if the patient and her partner have previous crisis skills

B. Encourage the patient's partner to be emotionally strong

Q5 12. The nurse is preparing a postpartum patient for discharge. For which reasons does the nurse instruct the patient to call the PCP? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Mild headaches B. Foul-smelling lochia C. Not sleeping well D. Frequent, painful urination E. Hot, red, painful breasts

B. Foul-smelling lochia D. Frequent, painful urination E. Hot, red, painful breasts

Q1 7. A patient is confirmed to be pregnant. OB hx. includes 2 sets of twins born at 30 and 32 weeks gestation respectively, a singleton birth born at 39 weeks gestation, and 2 pregnancies lost in the first trimester. In which way will the nurse define the patient's OB hx? A. G4, T3, P2, A2, L3 B. G6, T1, P4, A2, L5 C. G6, T4, P0, A4, L3 D. G5, T1, P2, A2, L5

B. G6, T1, P4, A2, L5

Q2 18. The nurse is providing care to a postpartum patient after an emergency C-section delivery due to eclampsia. The patient received spinal anesthesia prior to delivery. Magnesium sulfate is infusing at 2 g/hr in 100mL of IV Fluid. Which assessment finding will cause the nurse to administer calcium gluconate to the patient via IV push? A. Urinary output remains at 30mL/hr B. Serum magnesium level is 10 mg/dL C. Respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min D. Patella reflexes are absent, rated as zero

B. Serum magnesium level is 10 mg/dL

Q6 16. A 38 week neonate is admitted to a hospital's NICU. The neonate's vital signs are: temperature = 36.0C, HR = 120 bpm, RR = 40/min. The infant is pink with slight Acrocyanosis. The priority focus for the neonate is: A. Potential for infection B. Thermoregulation C. Altered nutrition D. Altered elimination pattern

B. Thermoregulation

Q2 9. VEAL CHOP Match V - Variable decelerations E - Early Decelerations A - Accelerations L - Late decelerations

C - Cord compression H - Head compression O - Okay oxygenated P - Placental insufficiency

Q1 8. A patient who is pregnant shares details of being in a physically and psychologically abusive relationship with her baby's father. Which statement by the nurse is indicative of AWHONN's standing regarding intimate partner violence? A. "I will call a women's shelter to make arrangements for you to move in immediately." B. "Your partner needs to come to the office so that we can confront his behavior." C. "Let's explore ways to protect you and stop the abuse you have been enduring." D. "If you are all alone, you need to make arrangements for someone to stay with you."

C. "Let's explore ways to protect you and stop the abuse you have been enduring."

Q1 12. The nurse is providing care for a 45 y/o woman who has just learned she is in the second trimester of pregnancy. The patient thought she was experiencing manifestations of menopause until she recognized fetal movement. Which diagnostic test does the nurse expect to be prescribed for this patient? A. CVS B. Ultrasonography C. Amniocentesis D. Daily fetal movement count

C. Amniocentesis

Q6 5. The NICU nurse encourages the mother of a preterm infant to bring breast milk to the unit for enteral feedings for her baby. What is the MOST important reason that she makes this suggestion? A. The neonate will gain weight faster B. The mother will feel more involved with the baby C. Breast milk helps prevent necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) D. The baby will be more likely to breastfeed later

C. Breast milk helps prevent necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)

Q1 5. A patient expresses a desire to become pregnant with a second child. The nurse notes that the patient's first child was born with a serious neural tube defects and died of complications at 18 months of age. Which recommendation does the nurse make this client? A. Folic acid 0.4 mg/day orally started when pregnant and continued throughout B. Folic acid 4 mg/day orally started when pregnant and continued throughout. C. Folic acid 4 mg/day orally 1 month before conception and continued throughout the first trimester D. Folic acid 0.6 mg/day orally 1 month before conception and throughout pregnancy.

C. Folic acid 4 mg/day orally 1 month before conception and continued throughout the first trimester

Q3 12. McRoberts Maneuver is used to disengaged the fetal shoulder when should dystocia is noted. What is McRoberts maneuver? A. Turning the woman on her left side B. Using suprapubic pressure to release the shoulder C. Hyper-flexing the women's legs with thighs against abdomen. D. Placing the woman on hands and knees.

C. Hyper-flexing the women's legs with thighs against abdomen.

Q6 14. Failure to treat hypothermia can put the newborn at risk for hypoglycemia due to: A. Dehydration B. Disrupted heart rate C. Increase in glucose consumption D. Decrease in glucose consumption

C. Increase in glucose consumption

Q3 2. The nurse is assisting with the preparation of a patient admitted for a planned cesarean birth. The patient has signed the consent form and discussed the elected regional anesthesia with the nurse anesthetist. Which if the most important action for the nurse related to anesthesia? A. Start an IV line and administer an IV fluid as ordered B. Administer preoperative medications per orders C. Obtain a baseline fetal heart rate monitor strip D. Verify the patient has been NPO for 6 - 8 hrs.

C. Obtain a baseline fetal heart rate monitor strip

Q3 3. The nurse is monitoring a patient who has been in prolonged labor. Which assessment finding will result in the nurse notifying the HCP about the development of an emergent situation requiring a cesarean delivery? A. Increased maternal temperature related to infection B. Maternal exhaustion from prolonged uterine activity C. Recognition of a Category II FHR pattern D. Maternal BP indicative of hypotension.

C. Recognition of a Category II FHR pattern

Q2 15. Which tocolytic agent is not recommended for a woman with poorly controlled DM? A. Magnesium sulfate B. Indomethacin C. Terbutaline D. Procardia

C. Terbutaline

Q3 8. A patient who is at 39 weeks gestation is scheduled for amniotomy. The nurse is aware that which criteria must be met before the procedure? A. Ultrasound indicates the umbilical cord is away from the cervix B. Prior amniotic fluid leakage must be validated before the procedure C. The fetal head is currently engaged in the maternal pelvis D. The nurse must have certification to perform the procedure.

C. The fetal head is currently engaged in the maternal pelvis

Q1 1. The nurse is discussing genetically linked diseases with a couple planning a pregnancy. The female states, "I am concerned because there is a history of sickle-cell disease in my family." Which information from the nurse is correct? A. The couple should not become pregnant B. Any offspring will have the disease C. The male partner needs genetic testing D. Only male children will have the disease

C. The male partner needs genetic testing

Q1 14. The nurse is assisting a patient who is pregnant to prepare for an MRI scheduled to assess fetal brain development. Which situation causes the nurse to notifiy the radiology department personnel? A. The patient had breakfast prior to arriving for the test B. The patient reports having an iodine allergy C. The patient has a permanent body piercing D. The patient expresses concern about pain

C. The patient has a permanent body piercing

Q2 17. Who is at risk for gestational diabetes? A. Woman with BMI of 39 B. Woman with hx. of infant born with macrosomia C. Woman with family hx. of diabetes D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Q6 1. The nurse in the NICU is assessing a neonate delivered at 32 weeks gestation on admission after delivery. Which pathophysiological manifestation is of the greatest concern to the nurse? A. Presence of cardiac murmur B. Weak reflexes C. Hemoglobin level of 15 D. Apnea lasting 20 seconds or longer

D. Apnea lasting 20 seconds or longer

Q1 2. A patient who has just received confirmation that she is pregnant is distressed because she has a seizure disorder that she manages with carbamazepine. Which is the nurse's greatest concern? A. The fetus will experience loss of vision and hearing B. Carbamazepine may be discontinued C. The pregnancy is likely to end with fetal demise D. Carbamazepine is teratogenic and causes neural and facial defects

D. Carbamazepine is teratogenic and causes neural and facial defects

Q5 8. The nurse continues to monitor a patient after a vaginal delivery with an estimated blood loss of 1000 mL. Which assessment finding does the nurse recognize as requiring Stage 3 hemorrhage protocol? A. Manifestations of severe pain B. Patient requests water for extreme thirst C. Increased patient restlessness D. Development of abnormal vital signs

D. Development of abnormal vital signs

Q1 15. The patient is in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy is scheduled for a Doppler flow study b/c the HCP is concerned about an assessment finding during a routine prenatal visit. Which finding of concern does the nurse suspect? A. Fetal movement count is less than 8 per hour. B. Patient shows no wt. gain in 2 weeks C. Patient exhibits mild lower extremity edema D. Fetal growth is below expectations for gestational age

D. Fetal growth is below expectations for gestational age

Q5 2. The nurse is assessing a term neonate delivered to a mother with a hx. of drug and alcohol abuse. Which finding does the nurse relate to the mother's hx? A. The neonate's pulse rate increases with crying B. Chest circumference is less than the head circumference. C. When crying, the neonate exhibits an absence of tear production D. Head circumference is below the 10th percentile for gestational age.

D. Head circumference is below the 10th percentile for gestational age.

Q3 7. The nurse is providing care for a patient in the second phase of labor. After more than 4 hours of pushing, the nurse suspects fetal dystocia. Which is the greatest risk related to the nurse's suspected complication? A. Greater risk for maternal lacerations B. Increased consideration for a cesarean delivery C. Fetal injury confirmed by the presence of bruising D. Neonatal asphyxia related to prolonged labor.

D. Neonatal asphyxia related to prolonged labor.

Q1 17. A patient who is at 30 weeks gestation is involved in a car crash. The nurse recognizes that which initial testing will be used to assess fetal well-being? A. Contraction stress test B. Ultrasonography C. Fetal movement counting D. Non-stress testing

D. Non-stress testing

Q5 13. The nurse is assessing a patient who is 36 hours postpartum following a cesarean delivery. Which findings cause the nurse to conclude that a wound infection is developing? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Temperature increase from 99.8 to 100.5 B. Serosanguinous drainage from the suture line C. Incisional tenderness with palpation D. Notably warm skin around the incision E. Increased margins of incisional redness

D. Notably warm skin around the incision E. Increased margins of incisional redness

Q2 2.The nurse educator is preparing a presentation on preterm labor (PTL) and birth (PTB). Which information does the nurse recognize as being inaccurate? A. PTBs result in increased numbers of neonatal and infant deaths and long-term neurological impairment. B. PTB is the leading cause of neonatal mortality and for antenatal hospitalization. C. Average costs for premature/low birthweight infants are more than 10x as high than other newborns. D. PTL is defined as regular uterine contractions resulting in cervical changes before 40 weeks gestation

D. PTL is defined as regular uterine contractions resulting in cervical changes before 40 weeks gestation

Q2 7. The nursing preceptor asks the nursing student how to best determine the intensity of contractions before placing the patient on an electronic fetal monitoring strip. How would the nurse assess this? A. Monitor the patient's vocalizations and facial expressions B. Time the amount of time in between the ending of one contractions and the beginning of another. C. Palpate the maternal abdomen right after a contraction eases. D. Palpate the maternal abdomen during a contraction

D. Palpate the maternal abdomen during a contraction

Q2 13. While providing care for a patient, the nurse notices an erratic FHR recording. What action should the nurse take next? A. Remove some of the ultrasound gel from the transducer B. Help the patient move around to help obtain the signal C. Check the mother's cervical progress to see if she is in the second stage of labor D. Place the transducer in a different position

D. Place the transducer in a different position

Q3 9. The nurse is assisting the PCP with a vacuum-assisted delivery b/c of a prolonged second stage of labor. The nurse will inform the PCP when which guideline of the procedure is met? A. Extension of the episiotomy is performed B. Signs of fetal compromise have resolved C. Patient is under full anesthesia status D. The "Three-pull rule" has been achieved.

D. The "Three-pull rule" has been achieved.

Q5 6. The nurse is providing postpartum care for an adolescent mother and her family. Which factor is MOST important for the nurse to consider when planning teaching about neonatal care? A. The grandparents decided they want to be involved. B. The parents needs to discuss their expectations of each other. C. The mother is determined the father of the baby should be involved. D. The information must be presented on an age-appropriate level

D. The information must be presented on an age-appropriate level

Q3 15. A woman who has had a previous cesarean delivery is not a candidate for vaginal delivery TRUE OR FALSE

False

Q6 18. Narcan is the treatment of choice for infants with Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome. True or False.

False

Q6 20. A newborn infant weighs 3 kg. He is taking 30 ml of soy formula every 3 hrs. due to family history of milk allergy. According to the nutrition guidelines for infants, he is taking in enough fluid. True or False.

False

Q6 7. A patient who is at 41 weeks gestation is concerned when the primary care provider decides to induce labor. Which reason does the nurse explain as the most important need for this procedure? A. Ability to deliver vaginally b. Risk for placental dysfunction C. Risk for meconium aspiration D. Increasing size of the neonate

b. Risk for placental dysfunction

Q6 11. A major sign of Rh or ABO incompatibility in the neonate is which complication or test result? A. Jaundice after the first 24 hours of life B. Negative Coombs test C. Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life D. Bleeding from the nose and ear

C. Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life

Q3 10. A patient who is pregnant expresses a desire to attempt a vaginal delivery after a cesarean birth 2 years before. The PCP initiates trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) and vaginal birth after cesarean (CVAC) screening. The nurse is aware that which patient information will likely disqualify the patient for CVAC? A. Cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities B. First labor needed to be induced C. Patient asks multiple questions D. A low transverse uterine scar

A. Cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities

Q6 6. The nurse is providing care for a premature neonate born at 28 weeks' gestation who is experiencing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the neonate's respiratory condition is deteriorating? A. Breath sounds are slightly decreased bilaterally B. PaO2 is 48 and PaCO2 is 55 mmHg on 90% oxygen C. Heart rate is 162 beats/minute D. Respiratory rate is 58 breaths/minute

B. PaO2 is 48 and PaCO2 is 55 mmHg on 90% oxygen

Q2 3. When performing a physical assessment on a patient during the initial prenatal visit, the nurse notes spongy gums prone to bleeding during the oral exam. Which comment by the nurse is appropriate? A. Oral bleeding can contribute to anemia B. Periodontal disease is a risk factor for preterm labor. C. Dental problems can interfere with nutrition. D. You need dental care because pregnancy causes dental problems.

B. Periodontal disease is a risk factor for preterm labor.

Q2 10. The patient is a 26 y/o G1P0 at 38 weeks, 2 days gestation. She is at her provider's office for a visit and complains to the nurse of wrist pain, fatigue, increased vaginal discharge and "feeling heavy". Which complaint could be a sign of impending labor? A. Fatigue B. Increased vaginal discharge C. Heavy feeling D. Wrist pain

B. Increased vaginal discharge

Q6 3. A nurse is providing care for a premature infant in the NICU who has developed BPD and has a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). Which specific intervention does the nurse expect for this neonate? A. Obtain glucose levels B. Maintain fluid restriction C. Monitoring hemoglobin/hematocrit levels D. Administer enteral feedings as ordered

B. Maintain fluid restriction

Q5 7. The nurse works in a L&D facility with new protocols for estimating postpartum blood loss. Which method for estimating blood loss is implemented in the DELIVERY ROOM? A. Place a basin at the foot of the delivery table to catch any blood B. Collect blood in calibrated, under-buttocks drapes for vaginal birth C. Rely on the primary HCP's estimate of blood loss D. Ask the patient how many peripads she considered to be "soaked"

B. Collect blood in calibrated, under-buttocks drapes for vaginal birth

Q1 6. A patient who is pregnant does not remember the date of her LMP. In which manner does the nurse expect the EDD to be determined for this patient? A. Asking when previous babies were born B. Having an ultrasound examination C. Obtaining a hx. of gestational length D. Using the gestational wheel

B. Having an ultrasound examination

Q2 1. The nurse is interviewing a new patient who is in the first trimester of her second pregnancy. The patient shares that her first child was born at 36 weeks gestation. Which information does the patient share that places the patient at risk for a second premature birth? A. The first labor was induced due to unresponsive management of hypertension B. The premature labor and birth was unexpected and followed a normal pregnancy. C. Labor was induced when the fetus moved from a posterior to an anterior position D. The HCP induced labor at the patient's request to avoid holiday interruptions.

B. The premature labor and birth was unexpected and followed a normal pregnancy.

Q6 10. Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the medication in which muscle site? A. Biceps B. Vastus lateralis C. Deltoid D. Triceps

B. Vastus lateralis

Q1 18. A patient is scheduled for a contraction stress test at 36 weeks gestation. The nurse is aware that a successful testing is dependent upon which factor? A. Whether Braxton-Hicks contractions are occurring B. Whether uterine contractions can be stimulated C. If the fetus is in an awake cycle and active D. If the mother is not overly tired or anxious

B. Whether uterine contractions can be stimulated

Q6 4. A mother of a premature infant in the NICU asks the nurse when her baby will begin getting feedings. The nurse is aware that multiple conditions are desired. Which condition is MOST essential? A. Infant maintains a quiet alert state B. Infant demonstrates hunger cues C. Infant exhibits cardiorespiratory regulation D. Infant demonstrates proper feeding cues

C. Infant exhibits cardiorespiratory regulation

Q1 16. An Eastern European Jewish couple has 2 children who died from Tay-Sachs disease. The couple is currently pregnant and have asked for genetic confirmation about the fetus with the intention of early termination if the fetus tests positively. For which reason does the nurse expect CVS to be prescribed? A. This is the only testing that is disease specific B. Risks to the mother and fetus are less than other tests C. The test is performed as early as 10 weeks gestation D. A positive result allows termination during the test.

C. The test is performed as early as 10 weeks gestation

Q1 13. A patient is in her first trimester for her second pregnancy. The patient's first child was born with Trisomy 21. The patient is requesting testing to determine whether the current fetus has the same condition. Which initial testing does the nurse expect the HCP to prescribe? A. Amniocentesis B. CVS C. MRI D. Fetal ultrasound

D. Fetal ultrasound

Q6 19. Rhogam should be given to women at 28 weeks gestation or after any pregnancy interruption to avoid anti-D antibodies. True or False.

True

Q6 8. A nurse is monitoring a preterm newborn infant for respiratory distress syndrome. Which assessment signs ig noted in the newborn infant would alert the nurse to the possibility of this syndrome? A. Tachypnea and retractions B. Acrocyanosis and grunting C. Hypotension and bradycardia D. The presence of a barrel chest with grunting

A. Tachypnea and retractions

Q1 4. A patient at 13 weeks gestation asks the nurse how her baby is nourished during pregnancy. What information does the nurse use to explain the process to the mother? A. The placenta is a special organ developed to create nutrients and oxygen. B. Glucose, amino acids, and oxygen pass through the placenta from mother to baby. C. Fetal waste products and CO2 pass through the placenta to the mother D. The mother's blood and fetus's blood mix for an exchange of nutrients.

B. Glucose, amino acids, and oxygen pass through the placenta from mother to baby.

Q5 17. A patient in the first stage of is discussing the options for feeding her infant, and asks the nurse, :Which is the most important reason I should consider breastfeeding my baby?" Which is the MOST significant reason the nurse presents? A. Vitamins and minerals are transferred to human milk from the mother B. Human milk contains multiple antibodies, enzymes and immune factors C. Human milk proteins are easier to digest than protein in prepared formula D. The amount of cholesterol in human milk is essential for the baby

B. Human milk contains multiple antibodies, enzymes and immune factors

Q5 9. The nurse is closely monitoring a patient who is postpartum and at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to contact the PCP immediately? A. The uterine fundus is boggy B. Peripad weighs 100 grams within 15 mins C. The uterus is displaced D. Small clots are express with massage

B. Peripad weighs 100 grams within 15 mins

Q6 2. The labor and delivery nurse is present for delivery of a premature infant. Which action by the nurse is most important? A. Maintain fluid and electrolyte imbalance B. Check hematocrit and hemoglobin C. Thermoregulation/provide a neutral thermal environment D. Review pregnancy history for risk factors

C. Thermoregulation/provide a neutral thermal environment

Q2 11. Betamethasone is given to a mother at 26 weeks gestation who presents in preterm labor. What is the reason antenatal steroids are given? A. To provide neuroprotection for the fetus and decrease cerebral palsy B. To stop labor contractions C. To accelerate fetal lung maturity D. To decrease labor pain

C. To accelerate fetal lung maturity

Q5 3. The nurse is collecting the urine of a postpartum patient who is passing large clots. For which reason does the nurse examine the large collected clots? A. To validate the presence of clotting B. To obtain an accurate description C. To determine the presence of placental tissue D. To document the number of clots

C. To determine the presence of placental tissue

Q3 11. Which of the following is a method of induction? A. All of the above B. Oxytocin C. Cervical ripening D. Sweeping the membranes

A. All of the above

Q6 15. An insulin dependent diabetic woman delivered a 10 lb. male infant. When the baby is brought to the nursery, the priority of care is to: A. Check the baby's serum glucose level and feed the baby within 1 hour B. Call the laboratory to collect a newborn screening test C. Clean the umbilical cord with Betadine to prevent infection D. Give the baby a bath

A. Check the baby's serum glucose level and feed the baby within 1 hour

Q2 8. The nurse is caring for a 31 y/o female patient who is pregnant at 37 weeks and 5 days gestation. The patient is having contractions every 3 minutes and was found to have a platypelloid pelvis upon examination. The fetus has an estimated fetal weight of 7 lbs and is in the LOA position. The patient is laboring on the birth ball, and her mother-in-law is helping her labor. The nurse is concerned about the five P's and their effect on the patient's labor. Which P is the nurse most likely concerned about based on the patient's hx? A. Passage B. Position C. Passenger D. Psyche

A. Passage

Q6 12. When attempting to interact with a neonate experiencing drug withdrawal, which behavior would indicate that the neonate is willing to interact? A. Quiet alert state B. Hiccups C. Gaze aversion D. Yawning

A. Quiet alert state

Q5 4. The nurse is preparing a postpartum patient for discharge. Which patient teaching is MOST important for the nurse to provide? A. S/S of secondary hemorrhage B. S/S of a boggy uterus C. S/S of uterine infection D. S/S of postpartum depression

A. S/S of secondary hemorrhage

Q3 6. The nurse is teaching a prenatal class. For which reason does the nurse emphasize the importance of managing maternal fear during labor? A. Fear during labor causes postpartum depression B. Dystocia is associated with extreme fear C. Fear promotes feelings of exhaustion D. Mothers cannot enjoy the actual birth

B. Dystocia is associated with extreme fear

Q5 5. The nurse in a postpartum unit frequently teaches patients regarding breast care. Which teaching is most helpful to the breastfeeding patient? A. Wear a supportive bra 24 hrs/day B. Empty the breasts regularly by feeding infant when showing signs of hunger, or manually or with a breast pump. C. Run warm water over the breasts while in the shower D. Take analgesics for breast pain management

B. Empty the breasts regularly by feeding infant when showing signs of hunger, or manually or with a breast pump.

Q1 19. A patient is scheduled for a transvaginal ultrasound testing. Which preparation by the nurse is appropriate? A. Ascertain whether the patient has a latex or banana allergy B. Request that the patient's partner leave the room C. Explain that pain at 4 or less on a scale of 0 to 10 is expected D. Place the patient on her side with pillow beneath her head.

A. Ascertain whether the patient has a latex or banana allergy

Q5 15. The nurse is providing care for a neonate during the 4th stage of labor. Which action does the nurse take FIRST during this stage? A. Obtain neonatal blood glucose levels B. Dry the neonate immediately C. Complete neonatal assessment within 1 hour D. Perform APGAR scoring until scores are 7

B. Dry the neonate immediately

Q6 9. A nurse is preparing for the admission of a 43-week gestation newborn with Apgar scores of 1 and 4. In planning for the admission of this infant, the nurse's highest priority should be to: A. Turn on the apnea and cardiorespiratory monitors B. Connect the resuscitation bag to the oxygen outlet C. Set the radiant warmer control temperature at 36.5C (97.6F) D. Set up the intravenous line with 5% dextrose in water

B. Connect the resuscitation bag to the oxygen outlet