OB Success

75. A nurse, who is providing nutrition counseling to a new gravid client, advises the woman that a serving of meat is approximately equal in size to which of the following items? 1. Deck of cards. 2. VCR tape. 3. CD case. 4. Video camera.

1 This is an accurate statement. A serv- ing of meat is approximately equal to a deck of cards.

77. Which of the following choices can the nurse teach a prenatal client is equivalent to one 2-oz meat serving? 1. 4 tbsp peanut butter. 2. 2 eggs. 3. 1 cup cooked lima beans. 4. 2 ounces mixed nuts.

2 2 eggs 1 meat serving.

33. A woman has decided to hire a doula to work with her during labor and delivery. Which of the following actions would be appropriate for the doula to perform? 1. Give the mother a back rub. 2. Assess the fetal heart rate. 3. Check the blood pressure. 4. Regulate the intravenous.

1 An appropriate action by the doula is giving the woman a back massage.

42. Which finding would the nurse view as normal when evaluating the laboratory reports of a 34-week gestation client? 1. Anemia. 2. Thrombocytopenia. 3. Polycythemia. 4. Hyperbilirubinemia.

1 Anemia is an expected finding

13. A client is in the 10th week of her pregnancy. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? 1. Backache. 2. Dyspnea. 3. Fatigue. 4. Diarrhea.

3 Most women complain of fatigue during the first trimester.

82. A nurse is discussing diet with a pregnant woman. Which of the following foods should the nurse advise the client to avoid consuming during her pregnancy? 1. Bologna. 2. Cantaloupe. 3. Asparagus. 4. Popcorn.

1 Bologna should not be consumed during pregnancy unless it is thor- oughly cooked.

13. On examination, it is noted that a full-term primipara in active labor is right occipi- toanterior (ROA), 7 cm dilated, and 3 station. Which of the following should the nurse report to the physician? 1. Descent is progressing well. 2. Fetal head is not yet engaged. 3. Vaginal delivery is imminent. 4. External rotation is complete.

1 Descent is progressing well. The pre- senting part is 3 centimeters below the ischial spines.

37. A 38-week gestation client, Bishop score 1, is advised by her nurse midwife to take evening primrose daily. The office nurse advises the client to report which of the following side effects that has been attributed to the oil? 1. Skin rash. 2. Pedal edema. 3. Blurred vision. 4. Tinnitus.

1 Evening primrose has been shown to cause skin rash in some women.

105. The nurse is reading an article that states that the maternal mortality rate in the United States in the year 2000 was 17. Which of the following statements would be an accurate interpretation of the statement? 1. There were 17 maternal deaths in the United States in 2000 per 100,000 live births. 2. There were 17 maternal deaths in the United States in 2000 per 100,000 women of childbearing age. 3. There were 17 maternal deaths in the United States in 2000 per 100,000 pregnancies. 4. There were 17 maternal deaths in the United States in 2000 per 100,000 women in the country.

1

15. When assessing the psychological adjustment of an 8-week gravida, which of the following would the nurse expect to see signs of? 1. Ambivalence. 2. Depression. 3. Anxiety. 4. Ecstasy.

1

10. A client enters the prenatal clinic. She states that she believes she is pregnant. Which of the following hormone elevations will indicate a high probability that the client is pregnant? 1. Chorionic gonadotropin. 2. Oxytocin. 3. Prolactin. 4. Luteinizing hormone.

1 1. High levels of the hormone chorionic gonadotropin in the bloodstream and urine of the woman is a probable sign of pregnancy.

32. A woman states that she frequently awakens with "painful leg cramps" during the night. Which of the following assessments should the nurse make? 1. Dietary evaluation. 2. Goodell's sign. 3. Hegar's sign. 4. Posture evaluation.

1 A dietary evaluation is indicated since painful leg cramps can be caused by consuming too little calcium or too much phosphorus.

5. Because nausea and vomiting are such common complaints of pregnant women, the nurse provides anticipatory guidance to a 6-week gestation client by telling her to do which of the following? 1. Avoid eating greasy foods. 2. Drink orange juice before rising. 3. Drink 2 glasses of water with each meal. 4. Eat 3 large meals plus a bedtime snack.

1 Greasy foods should be avoided. Saltine crackers should be eaten before rising. Drinking orange juice is not rec- ommended. It is recommended that liquids and solids be eaten separately. It is recommended that mothers eat small frequent meals throughout the day.

90. A woman asks the nurse about the function of amniotic fluid. Which of the follow- ing statements by the woman indicates that additional teaching is needed? 1. The fluid provides fetal nutrition. 2. The fluid cushions the fetus from injury. 3. The fluid enables the fetus to grow. 4. The fluid provides a stable thermal environment.

1 The umbilical cord, not the amniotic fluid, delivers nutrition to the devel- oping fetus.

55. During a preconception counseling session, the nurse encourages a couple to pre- pare a birth plan. Which of the following is the most important goal for this action? 1. Promote communication between the couple and health care professionals. 2. Enable the couple to learn about the types of medicine used in labor. 3. Provide the couple with a list of items that they should put in a bag for labor. 4. Give the high-risk couple a sense of control over having to have a cesarean.

1 Birth plans help to facilitate commu- nication between couples and their health care providers.

57. During a prenatal visit, a gravid client is complaining of ptyalism. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate? 1. Encourage the woman to brush her teeth carefully. 2. Advise the woman to have her blood pressure checked regularly. 3. Encourage the woman to wear supportive hosiery. 4. Advise the woman to avoid eating rare meat.

1 Clients who experience ptyalism have an excess of saliva. They should be advised to be vigilant in the care for their teeth and gums. Ptyalism is of- ten accompanied by gingivitis and nausea and vomiting.

1. A client enters the labor and delivery suite stating that she thinks she is in labor. Which of the following information about the woman should the nurse note from the woman's prenatal record before proceeding with the physical assessment? Select all that apply. 1. Weight gain. 2. Ethnicity and religion. 3. Age. 4. Type of insurance. 5. Gravidity and parity.

1, 2, 3, and 5 are correct.

6. When during the latent phase of labor should the nurse assess the fetal heart pattern of a low-risk woman, G1 P0000? Select all that apply. 1. After vaginal exams. 2. Before administration of analgesics. 3. Periodically at the end of a contraction. 4. Every ten minutes. 5. Before ambulating.

1, 2, 3, and 5 are correct.

4. A woman has just arrived at the labor and delivery suite. In order to report the client's status to her primary health care practitioner, which of the following assess- ments should the nurse perform? Select all that apply. 1. Fetal heart rate. 2. Contraction pattern. 3. Contraction stress test. 4. Vital signs. 5. Biophysical profile.

1, 2, and 4 are correct.

9. A nurse is caring for a laboring woman who is in transition. Which of the following signs/symptoms would indicate that the woman is progressing into the second stage of labor? Select all that apply. 1. Bulging perineum. 2. Increased bloody show. 3. Spontaneous rupture of the membranes. 4. Uncontrollable urge to push. 5. Inability to breathe through contractions.

1, 2, and 4 are correct. As the fetal head descends through a fully dilated cervix, the perineum begins to bulge, the bloody show increases, and the laboring woman usually feels a strong urge to push.

61. A woman is planning to become pregnant. Which of the following actions should she be counseled to take before stopping birth control? Select all that apply. 1. Take a daily multivitamin. 2. See a medical doctor. 3. Drink beer instead of vodka. 4. Stop all over-the-counter medications. 5. Stop smoking cigarettes.

1, 2, and 5 are correct. 1. It is very important that women, be- fore attempting to become pregnant, begin taking daily multivitamin tablets. 2. Women who wish to become preg- nant should first see a medical doctor for a complete check-up 3. Women who wish to become pregnant should refrain from drinking any alcohol. 4. Women who wish to become pregnant should ask an obstetrician/gynecologist which over-the-counter medications should be avoided. Some—for example, acetaminophen—are safe to take, while others are not. 5. Women who wish to become preg- nant should be counseled to stop smoking.

78. A client, G2P1001, 5 cm dilated and 40% effaced, has just received an epidural. Which of the following actions is important for the nurse to make at this time? 1. Assess the woman's temperature. 2. Place a wedge under the woman's side. 3. Place a blanket roll under the woman's feet. 4. Assess the woman's pedal pulses.

2 A wedge should be placed under one side of the woman.

53. The nurse wishes to assess the variability of the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions must precede this assessment? 1. Place the client in the lateral recumbent position. 2. Insert an internal fetal monitor electrode. 3. Administer oxygen to the mother via face mask. 4. Ask the mother to indicate when she feels fetal movement.

2 Before the variability can be accu- rately assessed, an internal fetal heart electrode must be applied.

59. The nurse is assessing an internal fetal heart monitor tracing of an unmedicated, full-term gravida who is in transition. Which of the following heart rate patterns would the nurse interpret as normal? 1. Variable baseline of 140 with V-shaped decelerations to 120 unrelated to contractions. 2. Variable baseline of 140 with decelerations to 100 that mirror each of the contractions. 3. Flat baseline of 140 with decelerations to 120 that return to baseline after the end of the contractions. 4. Flat baseline of 140 with no obvious decelerations or accelerations.

2 Decelerations that mirror contrac- tions are early decelerations. These are related to head compression and are expected during transition and second stage labor.

22. In addition to breathing with contractions, which of the following actions can help a woman in labor to work with the pain of the first stage of labor? 1. Lying in the lithotomy position. 2. Performing effleurage. 3. Practicing Kegel exercises. 4. Pushing with each contraction.

2 Effleurage is a light massage that can soothe the mother during labor.

33. Which of the following exercises should be taught to a pregnant woman who com- plains of backaches? 1. Kegeling. 2. Pelvic tilting. 3. Leg lifting. 4. Crunching.

2 The pelvic tilt is an exercise that can reduce backache pain.

19. A client, who is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced, is breathing at a rate of 30 breaths per minute during contractions. Immediately after a contraction, she complains of tingling in her fingers with some lightheadedness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take at this time? 1. Assess the blood pressure. 2. Have the woman breathe into a bag. 3. Turn the woman onto her side. 4. Check the fetal heart rate.

2 This client is showing signs of hyperventilation. The symptoms will likely subside if she rebreathes her exhalations.

68. A woman is in the transition phase of labor. Which of the following comments should the nurse expect to hear? 1. "I am so excited to be in labor." 2. "I can't stand this pain any longer!" 3. "I need ice chips because I'm so hot." 4. "I have to push the baby out right now!"

2 This comment is consistent with a woman in the transition phase of stage 1.

67. A client is in the third stage of labor. Which of the following assessments should the nurse make/observe for? 1. Fetal heart assessment after each contraction. 2. Uterus rising in the abdomen and feeling globular. 3. Rapid cervical dilation to ten centimeters. 4. Maternal complaints of intense rectal pressure.

2 This is a sign of placental separation.

44. A third-trimester client is being seen for routine prenatal care. Which of the fol- lowing assessments will the nurse perform during the visit? Select all that apply. 1. Blood glucose. 2. Blood pressure. 3. Fetal heart rate. 4. Urine protein. 5. Pelvic ultrasound.

2, 3, and 4 are correct.

12. When performing Leopold's maneuvers, the nurse notes that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior position. Where should the nurse place a fetoscope best to hear the fetal heart beat? 1. Left upper quadrant. 2. Right upper quadrant. 3. Left lower quadrant. 4. Right lower quadrant.

3 The fetoscope should be placed in the left lower quadrant for a fetus positioned in the LOA position as described in the question

64. A pregnant woman informs the nurse that her last normal menstrual period was on September 20, 2006. Using Nagele's rule, the nurse calculates the client's estimated date of delivery as: 1. May 30, 2007. 2. June 20, 2007. 3. June 27, 2007. 4. July 3, 2007.

3 The estimated date of delivery is June 27, 2007.

62. A primigravida is pushing with contractions. The nurse notes that the woman's per- ineum is beginning to bulge and that there is an increase in bloody show. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate at this time? 1. Report the findings to the woman's health care practitioner. 2. Immediately assess the woman's pulse and blood pressure. 3. Provide encouragement during each contraction. 4. Place the client on her side with oxygen via face mask.

3

9. A client asks the nurse what was meant when the physician told her she had a posi- tive Chadwick's sign. Which of the following information about the finding would be appropriate for the nurse to convey at this time? 1. "It is a purplish stretch mark on your abdomen." 2. "It means that you are having heart palpitations." 3. "It is a bluish coloration of your cervix and vagina." 4. "It means the doctor heard abnormal sounds when you breathed in."

3 A positive Chadwick's sign means that the client's cervix and vagina are a bluish color. It is a probable sign of pregnancy.

58. A woman is in active labor and is being monitored electronically. She has just re- ceived Stadol 2 mg IM for pain. Which of the following fetal heart responses would the nurse expect to see on the internal monitor tracing? 1. Variable decelerations. 2. Late decelerations. 3. Decreased variability. 4. Transient accelerations.

3 Analgesics are CNS depressants. The variability of the fetal heart rate, therefore, will be decreased.

101. Which of the following developmental features would the nurse expect to be absent in a 41-week gestation fetus? 1. Fingernails. 2. Eye lashes. 3. Lanugo. 4. Milia.

3 Because this baby is postterm, lanugo would likely not be present.

52. During delivery, the nurse notes that the baby's head has just been delivered. The nurse concludes that the baby has just gone through which of the following cardinal moves of labor? 1. Flexion. 2. Internal rotation. 3. Extension. 4. External rotation.

3 During extension, the baby's head is birthed.

36. A nurse midwife has advised a 39-week gestation gravid to take evening primrose oil 2500 mg daily as a complementary therapy. This suggestion was made because evening primrose has been shown to perform which of the following actions? 1. Relieve back strain. 2. Improve development of colostrum. 3. Ripen the cervix. 4. Reduce the incidence of hemorrhoids.

3 Evening primrose converts to a prostaglandin substance in the body.

36. A woman, 40 weeks' gestation, calls the labor unit to see whether or not she should go to hospital to be evaluated. Which of the following statements by the woman in- dicates that she is probably in labor and should proceed to the hospital? 1. "The contractions are 5 to 20 minutes apart." 2. "I saw a pink discharge on the toilet tissue when I went to the bathroom." 3. "I have had cramping for the past 3 or 4 hours." 4. "The contractions are about a minute long and I am unable to talk through them."

4

40. A nurse determines that a client is carrying a fetus in the vertical lie. The nurse's judgment should be questioned if the fetal presenting part is which of the following? 1. Sacrum. 2. Occiput. 3. Mentum. 4. Scapula.

4 A fetus in a scapular presentation is in a horizontal lie.

2. A woman who states that she "thinks" she is in labor enters the labor suite. Which of the following assessments will provide the nurse with the most valuable informa- tion regarding the client's labor status? 1. Leopold's maneuvers. 2. Fundal contractility. 3. Fetal heart assessment. 4. Vaginal examination.

4 A vaginal examination will provide the nurse with the best information about the status of labor.

73. A client informs the nurse that she is "very constipated." Which of the following foods would be best for the nurse to recommend to the client? 1. Bananas. 2. Rice. 3. Yogurt. 4. Celery.

4 Celery is an excellent food to reverse constipation.

68. The partner of a gravida accompanies her to her prenatal appointment. The nurse notes that the father of the baby has gained weight since she last saw him. Which of the following comments is most appropriate for the nurse to make to the father? 1. "I see that you are gaining weight right along with your partner." 2. "You and your partner will be able to go on a diet together after the baby is born." 3. "I can see that you are a bad influence on your partner's eating habits." 4. "I am so glad to see that you are taking so much interest in your partner's pregnancy."

4 This is an appropriate comment to make at this time.

65. During the third stage, the following physiological changes occur. Please place the changes in chronological order. 1. Hematoma forms behind the placenta. 2. Membranes separate from the uterine wall. 3. The uterus contracts firmly. 4. The uterine surface area dramatically decreases.

The order of change during the third stage of labor is: 3, 4, 1, 2

41. Which of the following choices includes the correct order of the cardinal moves of labor? 1. Internal rotation, extension, external rotation. 2. External rotation, descent, extension. 3. Extension, flexion, internal rotation. 4. External rotation, internal rotation, expulsion.

1 Internal rotation, extension, external rotation is the correct sequence of the cardinal moves of labor.

82. A nurse is caring for women from four different countries. Which of the women is most likely to request that her head be kept covered throughout her hospitalization? 1. Arabic woman. 2. Chinese woman. 3. Russian woman. 4. Greek woman.

1 Muslim women, who are often from Arabic countries, are expected to keep their heads covered at all times.

72. A nurse concludes that a woman is in the latent phase of labor. Which of the fol- lowing signs/symptoms would lead a nurse to that conclusion? 1. The woman talks and laughs during contractions. 2. The woman complains about severe back labor. 3. The woman performs effleurage during a contraction. 4. The woman asks to go to the bathroom to defecate.

1 Talking and laughing are characteris- tic behaviors of the latent phase.

89. The nurse is performing a vaginal examination on a client in labor. The client is found to be 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and station 2. Which of the following has the nurse palpated? 1. Thin cervix. 2. Bulging fetal membranes. 3. Head at the pelvic outlet. 4. Closed cervix.

1 The cervix is thin.

69. A client in labor is talkative and happy. How many centimeters dilated would a maternity nurse suspect that the client is at this time? 1. 2cm. 2. 4cm. 3. 8cm. 4. 10 cm.

1 The nurse would expect the woman to be 2 cm dilated.

8. The labor and delivery nurse performs Leopold's maneuvers. A soft round mass is felt in the fundal region. A flat object is noted on the left and small objects are noted on the right of the uterus. A hard round mass is noted above the symphysis. Which of the following positions is consistent with these findings? 1. Left occipital anterior (LOA) 2. Left sacral posterior (LSP) 3. Right mentum anterior (RMA) 4. Right sacral posterior (RSP)

1 The nurse's findings upon performing Leopold's maneuvers indicate that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior po- sition (LOA)—that is, the fetal back is felt on the mother's left side, the small parts are felt on her right side, the buttocks are felt in the fundal re- gion, and the head is felt above her symphysis.

43. A midwife advises a mother that her obstetric conjugate is of average size. How should the nurse interpret that information for the mother? 1. The anterior to posterior diameter of the pelvis will accommodate a fetus with an average-sized head. 2. The fetal head is flexed so that it is of average diameter. 3. The mother's cervix is of average dilation for the start of labor. 4. The distance between the mother's physiological retraction ring and the fetal head is of average dimensions.

1 The obstetric conjugate is the short- est anterior to posterior diameter of the pelvis. When it is of average size, it will accommodate an average-sized fetal head.

28. While evaluating the fetal heart monitor tracing on a client in labor, the nurse notes that there are fetal heart decelerations present. Which of the following assess- ments must the nurse make at this time? 1. The relationship between the decelerations and the labor contractions. 2. The maternal blood pressure. 3. The gestational age of the fetus. 4. The placement of the fetal heart electrode in relation to the fetal position.

1 The relationship between the deceler- ations and the contractions will deter- mine the type of deceleration pattern.

27. While caring for a client in the transition phase of labor, the nurse notes that the fetal monitor tracing shows average short-term and long-term variability with a baseline of 142 beats per minute (bpm). What should the nurse do? 1. Provide caring labor support. 2. Administer oxygen via face mask. 3. Change the client's position. 4. Speed up the client's intravenous.

1 The tracing is showing a normal fetal heart tracing. No intervention is needed.

75. A nurse is assisting an anesthesiologist who is inserting an epidural catheter. Which of the following positions should the nurse assist the woman into? 1. Fetal position. 2. Lithotomy position. 3. Trendelenburg position. 4. Lateral recumbent position.

1 The woman should be helped into the fetal position.

25. The nurse auscultates a fetal heart rate of 152 on a client in early labor. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Inform the mother that the rate is normal. 2. Reassess in 5 minutes to verify the results. 3. Immediately report the rate to the health care practitioner. 4. Place the client on her left side and apply oxygen by face mask.

1 This is the correct response. A fetal heart rate of 152 is normal.

76. Which of the following actions would the nurse expect to perform immediately be- fore a woman is to have regional anesthesia? Select all that apply. 1. Assess fetal heart rate. 2. Infuse 1000 cc of Ringer's lactate. 3. Place woman in Trendelenburg position. 4. Monitor blood pressure every 5 minutes for 15 minutes. 5. Have woman empty her bladder.

1, 2, and 5 are correct.

84. Which of the following nonpharmacological interventions recommended by nurse midwives may help a client at full term to go into labor? Select all that apply. 1. Engage in sexual intercourse. 2. Ingest evening primrose oil. 3. Perform yoga exercises. 4. Eat raw spinach. 5. Massage the breast and nipples.

1, 2, and 5 are correct.

2. The nurse is assessing the laboratory report of a 40-week gestation client. Which of the following values would the nurse expect to find elevated above prepregnancy levels? 1. Glucose. 2. Fibrinogen. 3. Hematocrit. 4. Bilirubin.

2 Glucose levels should be within normal limits. Fibrinogen levels will be elevated slightly in a 40-week pregnant woman because coagulation factors like fib- rinogen increase to help prevent ex- cessive blood loss during delivery. Hematocrit levels are usually slightly lower. Bilirubin levels should be within normal limits.

77. Immediately following administration of an epidural anesthesia, the nurse must monitor the mother for which of the following? 1. Paresthesias in her feet and legs. 2. Drop in blood pressure. 3. Increase in central venous pressure. 4. Fetal heart accelerations.

2 Hypotension is a very common side effect of regional anesthesia.

85. It is discovered that a pregnant woman practices pica. Which of the following com- plications is most often associated with this behavior? 1. Hypothyroidism. 2. Iron deficiency anemia. 3. Hypercalcemia. 4. Overexposure to zinc.

2 Iron deficiency anemia is often seen in clients who engage in pica

8. A 10-week gravid client is being seen in the prenatal clinic. For the nurse caring for this patient, providing anticipatory guidance for which of the following should be a priority? 1. Pain management during labor. 2. Methods to relieve backaches. 3. Breastfeeding positions. 4. Characteristics of the newborn.

2 It is appropriate for the nurse to pro- vide anticipatory guidance regarding methods to relieve back pain.

54. A couple is preparing to interview obstetric primary care providers in order to deter- mine who they will go to for care during their pregnancy and delivery. In order to make the best choice, which of the following actions should the couple perform first? 1. Take a tour of hospital delivery areas. 2. Develop a preliminary birth plan. 3. Make appointments with three or four obstetric care providers. 4. Search the internet for the malpractice histories of the providers.

2 It is best that a couple first develop a birth plan.

81. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to perform when caring for a Chinese-speaking woman in active labor? 1. Apply heat to the woman's back. 2. Inquire regarding the woman's pain level. 3. Make sure that the woman's head is covered. 4. Accept the woman's loud verbalizations.

2 It is important to inquire about the pain level of all women in labor, but especially those from the Asian culture.

47. The nurse is interviewing a 38-week gestation Muslim woman. Which of the fol- lowing questions would be inappropriate for the nurse to ask? 1. "Do you plan to breastfeed your baby?" 2. "What do you plan to name the baby?" 3. "Which pediatrician do you plan to use?" 4. "How do you feel about having an episiotomy?"

2 It is inappropriate to ask the Muslim client about the name for the baby.

34. The nurse is assessing a client who states, "I think I'm in labor." Which of the fol- lowing findings would positively confirm the client's belief? 1. She is contracting q 5 min 60 sec. 2. Her cervix has dilated from 2 to 4 cm. 3. Her membranes have ruptured. 4. The fetal head is engaged.

2 Once the cervix begins to dilate, a client is in true labor.

73. A G1P0, 8 cm dilated, is to receive pain medication. The health care practitioner has decided to order an opiate analgesic with an analgesic-potentiating medication. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to be ordered as the analgesic-potentiating medication? 1. Seconal (secobarbital). 2. Phenergan (promethazine). 3. Benadryl (diphenhydramine). 4. Tylenol (acetaminophen).

2 Phenergan is often used as an anal- gesic potentiator.

7. The nurse is assessing the fetal station during a vaginal examination. Which of the following structures should the nurse palpate? 1. Sacral promontory. 2. Ischial spines. 3. Cervix. 4. Symphysis pubis.

2 Station is assessed by palpating the ischial spines.

10. During a vaginal examination, the nurse palpates fetal buttocks that are facing the left posterior and are 1 cm above the ischial spines. Which of the following is consistent with this assessment? 1. LOA 1 station. 2. LSP 1 station. 3. LMP 1 station. 4. LSA 1 station.

2 The LSP position is the correct answer. The fetal buttocks (S or sacrum) are facing toward the mother's left posterior (LP) and but- tocks at 1 station are 1 cm above the ischial spines.

70. A nurse is assessing the vital signs of a client in labor at the peak of a contraction. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to see? 1. Decreased pulse rate. 2. Hypertension. 3. Hyperthermia 4. Decreased respiratory rate.

2 The blood pressure rises dramatically.

79. The practitioner is performing a fetal scalp stimulation test. Which of the following fetal responses would the nurse expect to see? 1. Spontaneous fetal movement. 2. Fetal heart acceleration. 3. Increase in fetal heart variability. 4. Resolution of late decelerations.

2 The fetal heart should accelerate in response to scalp stimulation.

48. An ultrasound report states, "The fetal head has entered the pelvic inlet." What does the nurse interpret this statement to mean? 1. The fetus has become engaged. 2. The fetal head has entered the true pelvis. 3. The fetal lie is horizontal. 4. The fetus is in an extended attitude.

2 The inlet's boundaries are: the sacral promontory and the upper margins of the ilia, ischia, and the symphysis pubis. This is the entry into the true pelvis.

37. A low-risk 38-week-gestation woman calls the labor unit and says, "I have to come to the hospital right now. I just saw pink streaks on the toilet tissue when I went to the bathroom. I'm bleeding." Which of the following responses should the nurse make first? 1. "Does it burn when you void?" 2. "You sound frightened." 3. "That is just the mucus plug." 4. "How much blood is there?"

2 The nurse is using reflection to ac- knowledge the client's concerns.

24. A gravid client, G3 P2002, was examined 5 minutes ago. Her cervix was 8 cm dilated and 90% effaced. She now states that she needs to move her bowels. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first? 1. Offer the client the bedpan. 2. Evaluate the progress of labor. 3. Notify the physician. 4. Encourage the patient to push.

2 The nurse should first assess the progress of labor to see if the client has moved into the second stage of labor.

64. A pregnant woman is discussing positioning and the use of leg stirrups for delivery with a labor nurse. In which of the following instances should the nurse provide further information to the client? 1. When the client states, "I am glad that deliveries can take place in a variety of places, including a Jacuzzi bathtub." 2. When the client says, "I heard that for doctors to deliver babies safely, it is essential to have the mother's legs up in stirrups." 3. When the client says, "During difficult deliveries it is sometimes necessary to put a woman's legs up in stirrups." 4. When the client states, "I heard that midwives often deliver their patients either in the side-lying or squatting position."

2 The nurse should provide additional information to this client. Many deliv- eries are performed safely without stirrups.

71. A woman, G1 P0000, 40 weeks' gestation, entered the labor suite stating that she is in labor. Upon examination it is noted that the woman is 2 cm dilated, 30% effaced, contracting every 12 min 30 sec. Fetal heart rate is in the 140s with good vari- ability and spontaneous accelerations. What should the nurse conclude when re- porting the findings to the primary health care practitioner? 1. The woman is high risk and should be placed on tocolytics. 2. The woman is in early labor and could be sent home. 3. The woman is high risk and could be induced. 4. The woman is in active labor and should be admitted to the unit.

2 The woman is in early labor. There is no need for her to be hospitalized at this time.

3. A client in labor, G2 P1001, was admitted 1 hour ago at 2 cm dilated and 50% effaced. She was talkative and excited at that time. During the past 10 minutes she has become serious, closing her eyes and breathing rapidly with each contraction. Which of the following is an accurate nursing assessment of the situation? 1. The client had poor childbirth education prior to labor. 2. The client is exhibiting an expected behavior for labor. 3. The client is becoming hypoxic and hypercapnic. 4. The client needs her alpha-fetoprotein levels checked.

2 The woman is showing expected signs of the active phase of labor.

60. A woman is in the second stage of labor with a strong urge to push. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate at this time? 1. Assess the fetal heart rate between contractions every 60 minutes. 2. Encourage the woman to grunt during contractions. 3. Assess the pulse and respirations of the mother every 5 minutes. 4. Position the woman on her back with her knees on her chest.

2 The woman should be encouraged to grunt during contractions.

23. A client is in the second stage of labor. She falls asleep immediately after a contrac- tion. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform as a result? 1. Awaken the woman and remind her to push. 2. Cover the woman's perineum with a sheet. 3. Assess the woman's blood pressure and pulse. 4. Administer oxygen to the woman via face mask.

2 The woman's privacy should be main- tained while she is resting

66. A woman had a baby by normal spontaneous delivery 10 minutes ago. The nurse notes that a gush of blood was just expelled from the vagina and the umbilical cord lengthened. What should the nurse conclude? 1. The woman has an internal laceration. 2. The woman is about to deliver the placenta. 3. The woman has an atonic uterus. 4. The woman is ready to expel the cord bloods.

2 These are signs of placental delivery.

6. A client enters the prenatal clinic. She states that she missed her period yesterday and used a home pregnancy test this morning. She states that the results were nega- tive, but "I still think I am pregnant." Which of the following statements would be appropriate for the nurse to make at this time? 1. "Your period is probably just irregular." 2. "We could do a blood test to check." 3. "Home pregnancy test results are very accurate." 4. "My recommendation would be to repeat the test in one week."

2 This response is correct. Serum preg- nancy tests are more sensitive than urine tests are.

71. A client states that she is a strong believer in vitamin supplements to maintain her health. The nurse advises the woman that it is recommended to refrain from con- suming excess quantities of which of the following vitamins during pregnancy? 1. Vitamin C. 2. Vitamin D. 3. Vitamin B2 (niacin). 4. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin).

2 Vitamin D supplementation can be harmful during pregnancy.

46. A 36-week gestation gravid lies flat on her back. Which of the following maternal signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to observe? 1. Hypertension. 2. Dizziness. 3. Rales. 4. Chloasma.

2 Dizziness is an expected finding.

86. A woman confides in the nurse that she practices pica. Which of the following alternatives could the nurse suggest to the woman? 1. Replace laundry starch with salt. 2. Replace ice with frozen fruit juice. 3. Replace soap with cream cheese. 4. Replace soil with uncooked pie crust.

2 This is an excellent suggestion. Fruit juice, although high in sugar, does contain vitamins.

35. The childbirth education nurse is evaluating the learning of four women, 38 to 40 weeks' gestation, regarding when they should go to the hospital. The nurse determines that the client who makes which of the following statements needs additional teaching? 1. The client who says, "If I feel a pain in my back and lower abdomen every 5 minutes." 2. The client who says, "When I feel a gush of clear fluid from my vagina." 3. The client who says, "When I go to the bathroom and see the mucus plug on the toilet tissue." 4. The client who says, "If I ever notice a greenish discharge from my vagina."

3 Expelling the mucus plug is not suffi- cient reason to go to the hospital to be assessed.

24. The following four changes occur during pregnancy. Which of them usually in- creases the father's interest and involvement in the pregnancy? 1. Learning the results of the pregnancy test. 2. Attending childbirth education classes. 3. Hearing the fetal heartbeat. 4. Meeting the obstetrician or midwife.

3 Hearing the fetal heart beat often increases fathers' interests in their partners' pregnancies.

30. An obstetrician is performing an amniotomy on a gravid woman in transition. Which of the following assessments must the nurse make immediately following the procedure? 1. Maternal blood pressure. 2. Maternal pulse. 3. Fetal heart rate. 4. Fetal fibronectin level.

3 It is essential to assess the fetal heart rate immediately after an amniotomy.

83. The nurse is caring for an Orthodox Jewish woman in labor. It would be appropri- ate for the nurse to include which of the following in the plan of care? 1. Encourage the father to hold his partner's hand during labor. 2. Ask the woman if she would like to speak with her priest. 3. Provide the woman with a long-sleeved hospital gown. 4. Place an order for the woman's postpartum vegetarian diet.

3 Observant Jewish women are ex- pected to have their elbows covered at all times. A long-sleeved gown, there- fore, should be provided for them.

74. On vaginal examination, it is noted that a woman with a well-functioning epidural is in the second stage of labor. The station is 2 and the baseline fetal heart rate is 130 with no decelerations. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate at this time? 1. Coach the woman to hold her breath while pushing 3 to 4 times with each contraction. 2. Administer oxygen via face mask at 8 to 10 liters per minute. 3. Delay pushing until the baby descends further and the mother has a strong urge to push. 4. Place the woman on her side and assess her oxygen saturation.

3 Once the woman has a strong urge to push, then she should be encouraged to push against an open glottis in or- der to birth the baby.

17. The childbirth educator is teaching a class of pregnant couples the breathing tech- nique that is most appropriate during the second stage of labor. Which of the fol- lowing techniques did the nurse teach the women to do? 1. Alternately pant and blow. 2. Take rhythmic, shallow breaths. 3. Push down with an open glottis. 4. Do slow chest breathing.

3 Open glottal pushing is used during stage 2 of labor.

63. Which of the following skin changes should the nurse highlight for a pregnant woman's health care practitioner? 1. Linea nigra. 2. Melasma. 3. Petechiae. 4. Spider nevi.

3 Petechiae are pinpoint red or purple spots on the skin. They are seen in hemorrhagic conditions.

31. A nurse has just performed a vaginal examination on a client in labor. The nurse palpates the baby's buttocks as facing the mother's right side. Where should the nurse place the external fetal monitor electrode? 1. Left upper quadrant (LUQ). 2. Left lower quadrant (LLQ). 3. Right upper quadrant (RUQ). 4. Right lower quadrant (RLQ).

3 Since the baby's back is facing the mother's right side and the sacrum is presenting, the fetal monitor should be placed in her RUQ.

63. A multipara, LOA, station 3, who has had no pain medication during her labor, is now in stage 2. She states that her pain is 6 on a 10-point scale and that she wants an epidural. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? 1. "Epidurals do not work well when the pain level is above level 5." 2. "I will contact the doctor to get an order for an epidural right away." 3. "The baby is going to be born very soon. It is really too late for an epidural." 4. "I will check the fetal heart rate. You can have an epidural if it is over 120."

3 Since this woman is a multipara, the position is LOA and the station is 3, this is an accurate statement.

16. Which of the following responses is the primary rationale for providing general information as well as breathing and relaxation exercises in childbirth education classes? 1. Mothers who are doing breathing exercises during labor will refrain from yelling. 2. Breathing and relaxation exercises are less exhausting than crying and moaning. 3. Knowledge learned at childbirth education classes helps to break the fear- tension-pain cycle. 4. Childbirth education classes help to promote positive maternal-newborn bonding.

3 Some of the techniques learned at childbirth education classes are meant to break the fear-tension-pain cycle.

85. The nurse is providing acupressure to provide pain relief to a woman in labor. Where is the best location for the acupressure to be applied? 1. On the malleolus of the wrist. 2. Above the patella of the knee. 3. On the medial aspect of the lower leg. 4. Below the medial epicondyle of the elbow.

3 The medial surface of the lower leg has been shown to lessen the pain of labor.

93 An ultrasound of a fetus' heart shows that normal fetal circulation is occurring. Which of the following statements should the nurse interpret as correct in relation to the fetal circulation? 1. The foramen ovale is a hole between the ventricles. 2. The umbilical vein contains oxygen-poor blood. 3. The right atrium contains both oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood. 4. The ductus venosus lies between the aorta and pulmonary artery.

3 The right atrium does contain both oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood.

38. A gravid client at term called the labor suite at 7:00 p.m. questioning whether she was in labor. The nurse determined that the client was likely in labor after the client stated: 1. "At 5:00 p.m., the contractions were about 5 minutes apart. Now they're about 7 minutes apart." 2. "I took a walk at 5:00 p.m., and now I talk through my contractions easier than I could then." 3. "I took a shower about a half hour ago. The contractions seem to hurt more since I finished." 4. "I had some tightening in my belly late this afternoon, and I still feel it after waking up from my 2-hour nap."

3 This response indicates that the labor contractions are increasing in intensity.

18. A nurse is teaching childbirth education classes to a group of pregnant teens. Which of the following strategies would promote learning by the young women? 1. Avoiding the discussion of uncomfortable procedures like vaginal exams and blood tests. 2. Focusing the discussion on baby care rather than labor and delivery. 3. Utilizing visual aids like movies and posters during the classes. 4. Having the classes at a location other than high school to reduce their embarrassment.

3 Using visual aids can help to foster learning in teens as well as adults.

11. The nurse enters a laboring client's room. The client is complaining of intense back pain with each contraction. The nurse concludes that the fetus is likely in which of the following positions? 1. Mentum anterior. 2. Sacrum posterior. 3. Occiput posterior. 4. Scapula anterior.

3 When a fetus is in the occiput poste- rior position, mothers frequently complain of severe back pain.

29. A client is complaining of severe back labor. Which of the following nursing inter- ventions would be most effective? 1. Assist mother with childbirth breathing. 2. Encourage mother to have an epidural. 3. Provide direct sacral pressure. 4. Use a hydrotherapy tub.

3 When direct sacral pressure is applied, the nurse is providing a counteraction to the pressure being exerted by the fetal head.

5. While performing Leopold's maneuvers on a woman in labor, the nurse palpates a hard round mass in the fundal area, a flat surface on the left side, small objects on the right side, and a soft round mass just above the symphysis. Which of the fol- lowing is a reasonable conclusion by the nurse? 1. The fetal position is transverse. 2. The fetal presentation is vertex. 3. The fetal lie is vertical. 4. The fetal attitude is flexed.

3 With the findings of a hard round mass in the fundal area and soft round mass above the symphysis, the nurse can conclude that the fetal lie is vertical.

15. The nurse is caring for a nulliparous client who attended Lamaze childbirth educa- tion classes. Which of the following techniques should the nurse include in her plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Hypnotic suggestion. 2. Rhythmic chanting. 3. Muscle relaxation. 4. Pelvic rocking. 5. Abdominal massage.

3, 4, and 5 are correct.

32. Upon examination, a nurse notes that a woman is 10 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and 3 station. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform during the next contraction? 1. Encourage the woman to push. 2. Provide firm fundal pressure. 3. Move the client into a squat. 4. Assess for signs of rectal pressure.

4 Assessing for rectal pressure is appropriate at this time.

61. A nurse is coaching a woman who is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following should the nurse encourage the woman to do? 1. Hold her breath for twenty seconds during every contraction. 2. Blow out forcefully during every contraction. 3. Push between contractions until the fetal head is visible. 4. Take a slow cleansing breath before bearing down.

4 By taking a slow, cleansing breath before pushing, the woman is waiting until the contraction builds to its peak. Her pushes will be more effec- tive at this point in the contraction.

28. A client is 15 weeks pregnant. She calls the obstetric office to request a medication for a headache. The nurse answers the telephone. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? 1. "Because the organ systems in the baby are developing right now, it is risky to take medicine." 2. "You can take any of the over-the-counter medications because they are all safe in pregnancy." 3. "The physician will prescribe a category "X" medication for you." 4. "You can take acetaminophen because it is a category "B" medicine."

4 Category "B" medications have been shown to be safe to take throughout pregnancy.

18. The nurse takes the history of a client, G2 P1001, at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following statements would indicate that the client should be referred to a genetic counselor? 1. "My first child has cerebral palsy." 2. "My first child has hypertension." 3. "My first child has asthma." 4. "My first child has cystic fibrosis."

4 Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal reces- sive genetic disease so the client with a history of cystic fibrosis should be referred to a genetic counselor.

26. The nurse documents in a laboring woman's chart that the fetal heart is being "assessed via intermittent auscultation." To be consistent with this statement, the nurse, using a Doppler electrode, should assess the fetal heart at which of the fol- lowing times? 1. After every contraction. 2. For 10 minutes every half hour. 3. Periodically during the peak of contractions. 4. For 1 minute immediately after contractions.

4 Intermittent auscultation should be performed for 1 full minute after con- tractions end.

86. To decrease the possibility of a perineal laceration during delivery, the nurse performs which of the following interventions prior to the delivery? 1. Assists the woman into a squatting position. 2. Advises the woman to push only when she feels the urge. 3. Encourages the woman to push slowly and steadily. 4. Massages the perineum with mineral oil.

4 Massaging of the perineum with min- eral oil does help to reduce perineal tearing.

55. After analyzing an internal fetal monitor tracing, the nurse concludes that there is moderate short-term variability. Which of the following interpretations should the nurse make in relation to this finding? 1. The fetus is becoming hypoxic. 2. The fetus is becoming alkalotic. 3. The fetus is in the middle of a sleep cycle. 4. The fetus has a healthy nervous system.

4 Moderate variability is indicative of fetal health.

20. A nurse is teaching a class of pregnant couples the most therapeutic breathing tech- nique for the latent phase of labor. Which of the following techniques did the nurse teach? 1. Alternately panting and blowing. 2. Rapid, deep breathing. 3. Grunting and pushing with contractions. 4. Slow chest breathing.

4 Most women find slow chest breath- ing effective during the latent phase.

42. The nurse sees the fetal head through the vaginal introitus when a woman pushes. The nurse, interpreting this finding, tells the client, "You are pushing very well." In addition, the nurse could also state which of the following? 1. "The baby's head is engaged." 2. "The baby is floating." 3. "The baby is at the ischial spines." 4. "The baby is almost crowning."

4 The baby's head is almost crowning.

14. One hour ago, a multipara was examined with the following results: 8 cm, 50% effaced, and 1 station. She is now pushing with contractions and the fetal head is seen at the vaginal introitus. The nurse concludes that the client is now 1 9 cm dilated, 70% effaced, and 2 station. 2 9 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and 3 station 3. 10 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and 4 station. 4 10 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and 5 station.

4 The cervix is fully dilated and fully ef- faced and the baby is low enough to be seen through the vaginal introitus.

39. A nurse describes a client's contraction pattern as: frequency every 3 min and dura- tion 60 sec. Which of the following responses corresponds to this description? 1. Contractions lasting 60 seconds followed by a 1-minute rest period. 2. Contractions lasting 120 seconds followed by a 2-minute rest period. 3. Contractions lasting 2 minutes followed by a 60-second rest period. 4. Contractions lasting 1 minute followed by a 120-second rest period.

4 The frequency and duration of this contraction pattern is every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds.

80. The nurse is interpreting the results of a fetal blood sampling test. Which of the following reports would the nurse expect to see? 1. Oxygen saturation of 99%. 2. Hgb of 11 gm/dL. 3. Serum glucose of 140 mg/dL. 4. pH of 7.30.

4 This fetal pH value is within normal limits.

90. It is 4 p.m. A client, G1P0000, 3 cm dilated, asks the nurse when the dinner tray will be served. The nurse replies 1. "Laboring clients are never allowed to eat." 2. "Believe me, you will not want to eat by the time it is the dinner hour. Most women throw up, you know." 3. "The dinner tray should arrive in an hour or two." 4. "A heavy meal is discouraged. I can get clear fluids for you whenever you would like them, though."

4 This is the best response.

21. A woman, G2 P0101, 5 cm dilated and 30% effaced, is doing first-level Lamaze breathing with contractions. The nurse detects that the woman's shoulder and face muscles are beginning to tense during the contractions. Which of the following in- terventions should the nurse perform first? 1. Encourage the woman to have an epidural. 2. Encourage the woman to accept intravenous analgesia. 3. Assist the woman in changing position. 4. Urge the woman to perform the next level breathing.

4 This woman is in the active phase of labor. The first phase breathing is probably no longer effective. Encouraging her to shift to the next level of breathing is appropriate at this time.

72. A vegan is being counseled regarding vitamin intake. It is essential that this woman supplement which of the following B vitamins? 1. B1 (thiamine). 2. B2 (niacin). 3. B6 (pyridoxine). 4. B12 (cobalamin).

4 Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) should be supplemented.

47. A woman, who is in active labor, is told by her obstetrician, "Your baby is in the flexed attitude." When she asks the nurse what that means, what should the nurse say? 1. The baby is in the breech position. 2. The baby is in the horizontal lie. 3. The baby's presenting part is engaged. 4. The baby's chin is resting on its chest.

4 When the baby's chin is on his or her chest, the baby is in the flexed attitude.

87. A mother is experiencing nausea and vomiting every afternoon. The ingestion of which of the following spices has been shown to be a safe complementary therapy for this complaint? 1. Ginger. 2. Sage. 3. Cloves. 4. Nutmeg.

1 Ginger has been shown to be a safe antiemetic agent for pregnant women

17. .Whichof the findings would enable the nurse to tell the client that she is positively pregnant? 1. Fetal heart rate via Doppler. 2. Positive pregnancy test. 3. Positive Chadwick's sign. 4. Montgomery gland enlargements.

1 Hearing a fetal heart rate is a positive sign of pregnancy.

65. A father experiencing couvade syndrome is likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms/behaviors? 1. Heartburn. 2. Promiscuity. 3. Hypertension. 4. Indifference.

1 Heartburn is a common symptom

98. A gravida's fundal height is noted to be at the xiphoid process. The nurse is aware that which of the following fetal changes is likely to be occurring at the same time in the pregnancy? 1. Surfactant is formed in the fetal lungs. 2. Eyes begin to open and close. 3. Respiratory movements begin. 4. The spinal column is completely formed.

1 Surfactant is usually formed in the fetal lungs by the 36th week.

20. Which of the following findings in an 8-week gestation client, G2 P1001, should the nurse highlight for the nurse midwife? 1. Body mass index of 17. 2. Blood pressure of 100/60. 3. Hematocrit of 36%. 4. Hemoglobin of 13.2.

1 The BMI of 17 is of concern. This client is entering her pregnancy un- derweight.

35. Which of the following vital sign changes should the nurse highlight for a pregnant woman's obstetrician? 1. Prepregnancy blood pressure (BP) 100/60 and third trimester BP 140/90. 2. Prepregnancy respiratory rate (RR) 16 rpm and third trimester RR 22 rpm. 3. Prepregnancy heart rate (HR) 76 bpm and third trimester HR 88 bpm. 4. Prepregnancy temperature (T) 98.6oF and third trimester T 99.2oF.

1 The blood pressure should not ele- vate during pregnancy. This change should be reported to the health care practitioner.

7. A gravida, G1 P0000, is having her first prenatal physical examination. Which of the following assessments should the nurse inform the client that she will have that day? 1. Pap smear. 2. Mammogram. 3. Glucose challenge test. 4. Biophysical profile.

1 The client will have a Pap smear done.

19. The nurse has taken a health history on four primigravid clients at their first prena- tal visits. It is high priority that which of the clients receives nutrition counseling? 1. The woman diagnosed with phenylketonuria. 2. The woman who has Graves' disease. 3. The woman with Cushing's syndrome. 4. The woman diagnosed with myasthenia gravis.

1 The client with phenylketonuria (PKU) must receive counseling from a registered dietitian.

56. The nurse is assisting a couple to develop decisions for their birth plan. Which of the following decisions should be considered nonnegotiable by the parents? 1. Whether or not the father will be present during labor. 2. Whether or not the woman will have an episiotomy. 3. Whether or not the woman will be able to have an epidural. 4. Whether or not the father will be able to take pictures of the delivery.

1 The presence of the father at delivery should be nonnegotiable.

50. The nurse asks a woman about how the woman's husband is dealing with the preg- nancy. The nurse concludes that counseling is needed when the woman makes which of the following statements? 1. "My husband is ready for the pregnancy to end so that we can have sex again." 2. "My husband has gained quite a bit of weight during this pregnancy." 3. "My husband seems more worried about our finances now than before the pregnancy." 4. "My husband plays his favorite music for my belly so the baby will learn to like it."

1 The woman implies that she and her husband are not having sex. There is no need to refrain from sexual inter- course during a normal pregnancy— so the woman and her husband need further counseling.

58. A gravid woman who recently emigrated from mainland China is being seen at her first prenatal visit. She was never vaccinated in her home country. An injection to prevent which of the following communicable diseases should be administered to the woman during her pregnancy? 1. Influenza. 2. Mumps. 3. Rubella. 4. Varicella.

1 The woman should receive the in- fluenza injection. The nasal spray, however, should not be administered to a pregnant woman.

59. A gravid woman and her husband inform the nurse that they have just moved into a three-story home that was built in the 1930s. Which of the following is critical for the nurse to advise the woman in order to protect the unborn child? 1. Stay out of any rooms that are being renovated. 2. Drink water only from the hot water tap. 3. Refrain from entering the basement. 4. Climb the stairs only once per day.

1 The woman should stay out of rooms that are being renovated.

94. The nurse is teaching a couple about fetal development. Which statement by the nurse is correct about the morula stage of development? 1. "The fertilized egg has yet to implant into the uterus." 2. "The lung fields are finally completely formed." 3. "The sex of the fetus can be clearly identified." 4. "The eye lids are unfused and begin to open and close."

1 This is a true statement. In the morula stage, about 2 to 4 days after fertilization, the fertilized egg has not yet implanted in the uterus.

3. When analyzing the need for health teaching of a prenatal multigravida, the nurse should ask which of the following questions? 1. "What are the ages of your children?" 2. "What is your marital status?" 3. "Do you ever drink alcohol?" 4. "Do you have any allergies?"

1 This question is important to ask in order to determine a prenatal client's health teaching needs.

91. Why is it essential that women of childbearing age be counseled to plan their pregnancies? 1. Much of the organogenesis occurs before the missed menstrual period. 2. Insurance companies must preapprove many prenatal care expenditures. 3. It is recommended that women be pregnant no more than 3 times during their lifetime. 4. The cardiovascular system is stressed when pregnancies are less than 2 years apart.

1 This statement is true. Organogenesis begins prior to the missed menstrual period.

69. The nurse is caring for a pregnant client who is a vegan. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest the client consume as substitutes for restricted foods? 1. Tofu, legumes, broccoli. 2. Corn, yams, green beans. 3. Potatoes, parsnips, turnips. 4. Cheese, yogurt, fish.

1 Tofu, legumes, and broccoli are excel- lent substitutes for the restricted foods.

74. A pregnant client is lactose intolerant. Which of the following alternative calcium- rich foods could this woman consume? 1. Turnip greens. 2. Green beans. 3. Cantaloupe. 4. Nectarines.

1 Turnip greens are calcium-rich.

66. A nurse is advising a pregnant woman about the danger signs of pregnancy. The nurse should teach the mother that she should notify the physician immedi- ately if she experiences which of the following signs/symptoms? Select all that apply. 1. Convulsions. 2. Double vision. 3. Epigastric pain. 4. Persistent vomiting. 5. Polyuria.

1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

1. An antenatal client is informing the nurse of her prenatal signs and symptoms. Which of the following findings would the nurse determine are presumptive signs of pregnancy? Select all that apply. 1. Amenorrhea. 2. Breast tenderness. 3. Quickening. 4. Frequent urination. 5. Uterine growth.

1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct. 1. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. 2. Breast tenderness is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. 3. Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. 4. Frequent urination is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. 5. Uterine growth is a probable sign of pregnancy.

45. A nurse is working in the prenatal clinic. Which of the following findings seen in third-trimester pregnant women would the nurse consider to be within normal limits? Select all that apply. 1. Leg cramps. 2. Varicose veins. 3. Hemorrhoids. 4. Fainting spells. 5. Lordosis.

1, 2, 3, and 5 are correct. 1. Leg cramps are normal, although the client's diet should be assessed. 2. Varicose veins are normal, although client teaching may be needed. 3. Hemorrhoids are normal, although client teaching may be needed. 4. Fainting spells are not normal, although the client may feel faint when rising quickly from a lying position. 5. Lordosis, or change in the curvature of the spine, is normal, although pa- tient teaching may be needed.

53. A woman, 26-weeks' gestation, calls the triage nurse stating, "I'm really scared. I tried not to but I had an orgasm when we were making love. I just know that I will go into preterm labor now." Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? 1. "Lie down and drink a quart of water. If you feel any back pressure at all call me back right away." 2. "Although oxytocin was responsible for your orgasm, it is very unlikely that it will stimulate preterm labor." 3. "I will inform the doctor for you. What I want you to do is to come to the hos- pital right now to be checked." 4. "The best thing for you to do right now is to take a warm shower, and then do a fetal kick count assessment."

2

97. A woman who is seen in the prenatal clinic is found to be 8 weeks pregnant. She confides to the nurse that she is afraid her baby may be "permanently damaged be- cause I had at least 5 beers the night I had sex." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate? 1. "I would let the doctor know that if I were you." 2. "It is unlikely that the baby was affected." 3. "Abortions during the first trimester are very safe." 4. "An ultrasound will tell you if the baby was affected."

2

84. The nurse is caring for a prenatal client who states she is prone to developing ane- mia. Which of the following foods should the nurse advise the gravida is the best source of iron? 1. Raisins. 2. Hamburger. 3. Broccoli. 4. Molasses.

2 Hamburger contains the most iron

96. A mother has just experienced quickening. Which of the following developmental changes would the nurse expect to occur at the same time in the woman's pregnancy? 1. Fetal heart begins to beat. 2. Lanugo covers the fetal body. 3. Kidneys secrete urine. 4. Fingernails begin to form.

2 Lanugo does cover the fetal body at approximately 20 weeks' gestation.

80. A Chinese immigrant is being seen in the prenatal clinic. When providing nutrition counseling, which of the following factors should the nurse keep in mind? 1. Many Chinese eat very little protein. 2. Many Chinese believe pregnant women should eat cold foods. 3. Many Chinese are prone to anemia. 4. Many Chinese believe strawberries can cause birth defects.

2 Many Chinese women do believe in the "hot and cold" theory of life

31. An 18-week gestation client telephones the obstetrician's office stating, "I'm really scared. I think I have breast cancer. My breasts are filled with tumors." The nurse should base the response on which of the following? 1. Breast cancer is often triggered by pregnancy. 2. Nodular breast tissue is normal during pregnancy. 3. The woman is exhibiting signs of a psychotic break. 4. Anxiety attacks are especially common in the second trimester.

2 Nodular breast tissue is normal in pregnancy.

88. A woman tells the nurse that she would like suggestions for alternate vitamin C sources because she isn't very fond of citrus fruits. Which of the following sugges- tions is appropriate? 1. Barley and brown rice. 2. Strawberries and potatoes. 3. Buckwheat and lentils. 4. Wheat flour and figs.

2 Strawberries and potatoes are excellent sources of vitamin C, as are zucchini, blueberries, kiwi, green beans, green peas, and the like.

34. A woman in her third trimester advises the nurse that she wishes to breastfeed her baby, "but I don't think my nipples are right." Upon examination, the nurse notes that the client has inverted nipples. Which of the following actions should the nurse take at this time? 1. Advise the client that it is unlikely that she will be able to breastfeed. 2. Refer the client to a lactation consultant for advice. 3. Call the labor room and notify them that a client with inverted nipples will be admitted. 4. Teach the woman exercises in order to evert her nipples.

2 The client should be referred to a lac- tation consultant.

23. The nurse working in an outpatient obstetric office assesses four primigravid clients. Which of the client findings would the nurse highlight for the physician? 1. 17 weeks' gestation; denies feeling fetal movement. 2. 24 weeks' gestation; fundal height at the umbilicus. 3. 27 weeks' gestation; complains of excess salivation. 4. 34 weeks' gestation; complains of hemorrhoidal pain.

2 The fundal height at 24 weeks should be 4 cm above the umbilicus. The fundal height at the level of the umbilicus is expected at 20 weeks' gestation.

39. A 36-week gestation gravid client is complaining of dyspnea when lying flat. Which of the following is the likely clinical reason for this complaint? 1. Maternal hypertension. 2. Fundal height. 3. Hydramnios. 4. Congestive heart failure.

2 The fundal height is the likely cause of the woman's dyspnea.

11. A 16-year-old, G1 P0000, is being seen at her 10-week gestation visit. She tells the nurse that she felt the baby move that morning. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? 1. "That is very exciting. The baby must be very healthy." 2. "Would you please describe what you felt for me?" 3. "That is impossible. The baby is not big enough yet." 4. "Would you please let me see if I can feel the baby?"

2 The nurse should query the young woman about what she felt.

51. The blood of a pregnant client was initially assessed at 10 weeks' gestation and re- assessed at 38 weeks' gestation. Which of the following results would the nurse ex- pect to see? 1. Rise in hematocrit from 34% to 38%. 2. Rise in white blood cells from 5,000 cells/mm3 to 15,000 cells/mm3. 3. Rise in potassium from 3.9 mEq/ L to 5.2 mEq/ L. 4. Rise in sodium from 137 mEq/ L to 150 mEq/ L.

2 The nurse would expect to see an elevated white blood cell count.

21. A woman, 6 weeks pregnant, is having a vaginal examination. Which of the follow- ing would the practitioner expect to find? 1. Thin cervical muscle. 2. An enlarged ovary. 3. Thick cervical mucus. 4. Pale pink vaginal wall.

2 The practitioner would expect to palpate an enlarged ovary.

76. The nurse is evaluating the 24-hour dairy intake of four gravid clients. Which of the following clients consumed the highest number of dairy servings during 1 day? The client who consumed: 1. 4 oz whole milk, 2 oz hard cheese, 1 cup of pudding made with milk and 2 oz cream cheese. 2. 1 cup yogurt, 8 oz chocolate milk, 1 cup cottage cheese, and 11⁄2 oz hard cheese. 3. 1⁄2 cup cottage cheese, 8 oz whole milk, 1 cup of buttermilk, and 1⁄2 oz hard cheese. 4. 1⁄2 cup frozen yogurt, 8 oz skim milk, 4 oz cream cheese, and 11⁄2 cup of cottage cheese.

2 This client consumed 32 ⁄3 servings: 1 cup yogurt 1 serving, 8 oz choco- late milk 1 serving; 1 cup cottage cheese 2⁄3 serving; and 11⁄2 oz hard cheese 1 serving.

102. A woman delivers a fetal demise that has lanugo covering the entire body, nails that are present on the fingers and toes, but eyes that are still fused. Prior to the death, the mother stated that she had felt quickening. Based on this information, the nurse knows that the baby is about how many weeks' gestation? 1. 15 weeks. 2. 22 weeks. 3. 29 weeks. 4. 36 weeks.

2 This fetus is about 22 weeks' gesta- tion. Nails start to develop in the first trimester, and lanugo starts to de- velop at about 20 weeks, but eyes re- main fused until about 29 weeks.

41. A client, in her third trimester, is concerned that she will not know the difference between labor contractions and normal aches and pains of pregnancy. How should the nurse respond? 1. "Don't worry. You'll know the difference when the contractions start." 2. "The contractions may feel just like a backache, but they will come and go." 3. "Contractions are a lot worse than your pregnancy aches and pains." 4. "I understand. You don't want to come to the hospital before you are in labor."

2 This is a true statement.

95. A woman is carrying dizygotic twins. She asks the nurse about the babies. Which of the following explanations is accurate? 1. During a period of rapid growth, the fertilized egg divided completely. 2. When the woman ovulated, she expelled two mature ova. 3. The babies share one placenta and a common chorion. 4. The babies will definitely be the same sex and have the same blood type.

2 This is a true statement. Dizygotic twins result from two mature ova that are fertilized.

25. The nurse midwife tells a client that the baby is growing and that ballottement was evident during the vaginal examination. How should the nurse explain what the nurse midwife means by ballottement? 1. The nurse midwife saw that the mucus plug was intact. 2. The nurse midwife felt the baby rebound after being pushed. 3. The nurse midwife palpated the fetal parts through the uterine wall. 4. The nurse midwife assessed that the baby is head down.

2 This is the definition of ballottement.

78. A nurse is discussing the serving sizes in the grain food group with a new prenatal client. Which of the following foods equals 1 serving size from the grain group? Select all that apply. 1. 1 bagel. 2. 1 slice of bread. 3. 1 cup cooked pasta. 4. 1 tortilla. 5. 1 cup dry cereal.

2, 4, and 5 are correct.

16. A client makes the following statement after finding out that her pregnancy test is positive, "This is not a good time. I am in college and the baby will be due during final exams!" Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appro- priate at this time? 1. "I'm absolutely positive that everything will turn out all right." 2. "I suggest that you e-mail your professors to set up an alternate plan." 3. "It sounds like you're feeling a little overwhelmed right now." 4. "You and the baby's father will find a way to get through the pregnancy."

3

27. The glucose challenge screening test is performed at or after 24 weeks' gestation to assess for the maternal physiological response to which of the following pregnancy hormones? 1. Estrogen. 2. Progesterone. 3. Human placental lactogen. 4. Human chorionic gonadotropin.

3 Human placental lactogen (hPL) is an insulin antagonist.

12. A 20-year-old client states that the at-home pregnancy test that she took this morn- ing was positive. Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate at this time? 1. "Congratulations, you and your family must be so happy." 2. "Have you told the baby's father yet?" 3. "How do you feel about the results?" 4. "Please tell me when your last menstrual period was."

3 It is important for the nurse to ask the young woman how she feels about being pregnant. She may decide not to continue with the pregnancy.

70. When assessing the fruit intake of a pregnant client, the nurse notes that the client usually eats 1 piece of fruit per day and drinks 7 to 8 servings of fruit juice per day. Which of the following is the most important communication for the nurse to make? 1. "You are effectively meeting your daily fruit requirements." 2. "Fruit juices are excellent sources of folic acid." 3. "It would be even better if you were to consume more whole fruits and less fruit juice." 4. "Your fruit intake far exceeds the recommended daily fruit intake."

3 It is recommended that pregnant clients eat whole fruits rather than consume large quantities of fruit juice. This is the most important statement for the nurse to make.

89. A nurse is providing diet counseling to a new prenatal client. Which of the following dairy products should the client be advised to avoid eating during the pregnancy? 1. Vanilla yogurt. 2. Parmesan cheese. 3. Gorgonzola cheese. 4. Chocolate milk.

3 The intake of gorgonzola cheese should be discouraged during preg- nancy.

60. After nutrition counseling, a woman, G3 P1101, proclaims that she certainly can't eat any strawberries during her pregnancy. Which of the following is the likely reason for this statement? 1. The woman is allergic to strawberries. 2. Strawberries have been shown to cause birth defects. 3. The woman believes in old wives' tales. 4. The premature baby died because the woman ate strawberries.

3 The woman believes in old wives' tales.

67. A woman provides the nurse with the following obstetrical history: Delivered a son, now 7 years old, at 28 weeks' gestation; delivered a daughter, now 5 years old, at 39 weeks' gestation; had a miscarriage 3 years ago, and had a first-trimester abortion 2 years ago. She is currently pregnant. Which of the following portrays an accurate picture of this woman's gravidity and parity? 1. G4 P2121. 2. G4 P1212. 3. G5 P1122. 4. G5 P2211.

3 This accurately reflects this woman's gravidity and parity—G5P1122.

49. A 34-week gestation woman calls the obstetric office stating, "Since last night I have had three nosebleeds." Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? 1. "You should see the doctor to make sure you are not becoming severely anemic." 2. "Do you have a temperature?" 3. "One of the hormones of pregnancy makes the nasal passages prone to bleeds." 4. "Do you use any inhaled drugs?"

3 This is an accurate statement. Hor- monal changes in pregnancy make the nasal passages prone to bleeds.

62. The nurse discusses sexual intimacy with a pregnant couple. Which of the follow- ing should be included in the teaching plan? 1. Vaginal intercourse should cease by the beginning of the third trimester. 2. Breast fondling should be discouraged because of the potential for preterm labor. 3. The couple may find it necessary to experiment with alternate positions. 4. Vaginal lubricant should be used sparingly throughout the pregnancy.

3 With increasing size of the uterine body, the couple may need counseling regarding alternate options for sexual intimacy.

48. A woman is 36-weeks' gestation. Which of the following tests will be done during her prenatal visit? 1. Glucose challenge test. 2. Amniotic fluid volume assessment. 3. Vaginal and rectal cultures. 4. Karyotype analysis.

3 Vaginal and rectal cultures are done at approximately 36 weeks' gestation.

100. A client is having an ultrasound assessment done at her prenatal appointment at 8 weeks' gestation. She asks the nurse, "Can you tell what sex my baby is yet?" Which of the following responses would be appropriate for the nurse to make at this time? 1. "The technician did tell me the sex, but I will have to let the doctor tell you what it is." 2. "The organs are completely formed and present, but the baby is too small for any to be seen." 3. "The technician says that the baby has a penis. It looks like you are having a boy." 4. "I am sorry. It will not be possible to see which sex the baby is for another month or so."

4

4. A woman whose prenatal weight was 105 lb weighs 109 lb at her 12-week visit. Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate at this time? 1. "We expect you to gain 1 lb per week, so your weight is a little low at this time." 2. "Most women gain no weight during the first trimester, so I would suggest you eat fewer desserts for the next few weeks." 3. "You entered the pregnancy well underweight, so we should check your diet to make sure you are getting the nutrients you need." 4. "Your weight gain is exactly what we would expect it to be at this time."

4 1. Weight gain of 1 lb per week is expected during the second and third trimesters only. 2. A weight gain of 3 to 5 lb is expected during the entire first trimester. 3. Since the client's height is not stated, there is no way to know whether or not the client is underweight. 4. The weight gain is within normal for the first trimester.

79. A woman asks the nurse about consuming herbal supplements during pregnancy. Which of the following responses is appropriate? 1. Herbals are natural substances, so they are safely ingested during pregnancy. 2. It is safe to take licorice and cat's claw, but no other herbs are safe. 3. A federal commission has established the safety of herbals during pregnancy. 4. The woman should discuss everything she eats with a health care practitioner.

4 Every woman should advise her health care practitioner of what she is con- suming, including food, medicines, herbals, and all other substances.

38. A 37-week gravid client states that she noticed a "white liquid" leaking from her breasts during a recent shower. Which of the following nursing responses is appro- priate at this time? 1. Advise the woman that she may have a galactocele. 2. Encourage the woman to pump her breasts to stimulate an adequate milk supply. 3. Assess the liquid because a breast discharge is diagnostic of a mammary infection. 4. Reassure the mother that this is normal in the third trimester.

4 It is normal for colostrum to be expressed late in pregnancy

26. A multigravid client is 22 weeks pregnant. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? 1. Nausea. 2. Dyspnea. 3. Urinary frequency. 4. Leg cramping.

4 Leg cramping is often a complaint of clients in the second trimester.

81. A nurse has identified the following nursing diagnosis for a prenatal client: Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to poor folic acid intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest the client consume? 1. Potatoes and grapes. 2. Cranberries and squash. 3. Apples and corn. 4. Oranges and spinach.

4 Oranges and spinach are excellent folic acid sources

40. The nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a woman in her second trimester regarding signs/symptoms that she might experience in the coming weeks. Which of the following comments by the client indicates that further teaching is needed? 1. "During the third trimester I may experience frequent urination." 2. "During the third trimester I may experience heartburn." 3. "During the third trimester I may experience back pain." 4. "During the third trimester I may experience persistent headache."

4 Persistent headache should not be seen in pregnant women.

103. A client asks the nurse, "Could you explain how the baby's blood and my blood sep- arate at delivery?" Which of the following responses is appropriate for the nurse to make? 1. "When the placenta is born, the circulatory systems separate." 2. "When the doctor clamps the cord, the blood stops mixing." 3. "The separation happens after the baby takes the first breath. The baby's oxygen no longer has to come from you." 4. "The blood actually never mixes. Your blood supply and the baby's blood supply are completely separate."

4 The blood supplies are completely separate.

43. The nurse asks a 31-week gestation client to lie on the examining table during a prenatal examination. In which of the following positions should the client be placed? 1. Orthopneic. 2. Lateral-recumbent. 3. Sims'. 4. Semi-Fowler's.

4 The client should be placed in a semi- Fowler's position.

22. A pregnant woman must have a glucose challenge test (GCT). Which of the fol- lowing should be included in the preprocedure teaching? 1. Fast for 12 hours before the test. 2. Bring a urine specimen to the laboratory on the day of the test. 3. Be prepared to have 4 blood specimens taken on the day of the test. 4. The test should take one hour to complete.

4 The test does take about 1 hour to complete.

52. A client is 35 weeks' gestation. Which of the following findings would the nurse ex- pect to see? 1. Nausea and vomiting. 2. Maternal ambivalence. 3. Fundal height 10 cm above the umbilicus. 4. Use of three pillows for sleep comfort.

4 The use of three pillows for sleep comfort is often seen in clients who are 35 weeks' gestation.

30. A client who was seen in the prenatal clinic at 20 weeks' gestation weighed 128 lb at that time. Approximately how many pounds would the nurse expect the client to weigh at her next visit at 24 weeks' gestation? 1. 129 lb. 2. 130 lb. 3. 131 lb. 4. 132 lb.

4 The woman would be expected to weigh about 132 lb. At this stage of pregnancy, the woman is expected to gain about 1 lb a week.

83. A 12-week gestation client tells the nurse that she and her husband eat sushi at least once per week. She states, "I know that fish is good for me, so I make sure we eat it regularly." Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? 1. "You are correct. Fish is very healthy for you." 2. "You can eat fish, but sushi is too salty to eat during pregnancy." 3. "Sushi is raw. Raw fish is especially high in mercury." 4. "It is recommended that fish be cooked to destroy harmful bacteria."

4 This is correct. It is recommended that during pregnancy the client eat only well-cooked fish.

99. Below are four important landmarks of fetal development. Please place them in chronological order: 1. Four-chambered heart is formed. 2. Vernix caseosa is present. 3. Blastocyst development is complete. 4. Testes have descended into the scrotal sac.

The correct order is 3, 1, 2, 4.