OB/GYNE Final Review
Which of these congenital anomalies is NOT associated with VACTERL? a) Holoprosencephaly b) Cleft lip c) Polydactyly d) Anal atresia e) Spina bifida
A.
Which skeletal anomaly is associated with in-utero fractures? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta type II B. Thanatophoric dysplasia C. Achondrogenesis D. Arthrogryposis
A.
Which skeletal anomaly is associated with in-utero fractures? a. Osteogenesis imperfecta type II b. Thanatophoric dysplasia c. Achondrogenisis d. Arthrogryposis
A.
During pregnancy the normal cervical length should not measure less than: a) 1.5 cm b) 2.5 cm c) 3.5 cm d) 4.5 cm e) 5.5cm
B.
The most common neural tube defect is a. Spina bifida aperta b. Anencephaly c. Encephalocele d. Scoliosis e. Spina bifida occulta
B.
The outer membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as the: a. Placenta b. Chorion c. Amnion d. Yolk sac
B.
The pelvic ligament that provides support to the ovary and extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the uterus is the: a) Cardinal ligament b) Ovarian ligament c) Broad ligament d) Suspensory ligament of the ovary
B.
The placenta is considered too thick when it measures: a. 4 mm b. 4 cm c. 8 mm d. 3.5 cm
B.
The recipient twin in twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome exhibits: A. Oligohydramnios B. Hydrops C. IUGR D. Anemia
B.
The renal cystic disease that results in the development of cysts late in adulthood is: a. Multicystic dysplastic renal disease b. Autosomal dominant polycystic disease c. Autosomal recessive polycystic disease d. Obstructive cystic dysplasia
B.
The sonographic finding of a fluid-filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with: a) Hydrocephalus b) Hydranencephaly c) Holoprosencephaly d) Schizencephaly
B.
The term "chocolate cyst" refers to a(n): A. Corpus luteum B. Endometrioma C. Teratoma D. Corpus hemorrhagicum
B.
The term "chocolate cyst" refers to a(n): A. Corpus luteum B. Endometrioma C. Teratoma D. Corpus hemorrhagium
B.
A normal cervical length in a nulliparous woman measures: A. 0.5-1.0 cm B. 1.0-2.0 cm C. 2.0-3.0 cm D. 3.0-4.0 cm E. 4.0-5.0 cm
C.
A patient who has never had a menstrual period is said to have: A. Menopause B. Precocious puberty C. Primary amenorrhea D. Secondary amenorrhea
C.
A succenturiate lobe of the placenta refers to as: a. Bilobed placental lobe b. Circumvallate placental lobe c. Accessory lobe d. Circummarginate placental lobe
C.
All of the following are associated with a thin placenta except: a. Preeclampsia b. Intrauterine growth restriction c. Fetal hydrops d. Long-standing diabetes
C.
The "keyhole" sign would be seen in all of the following situations except: a. Urethral atresia b. Prune belly syndrome c. Autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease d. Posterior urethral valves
C.
Which statement is TRUE for an infinatile uterus? a) The corpus and fundus are the most prominent portions of the uterus b) The size and shape remain constant throughout life c) The cervix occupies most of the length of the uterine body until puberty d) Pubertal changes cause the uterus to atrophy and the ovaries to enlarge e) Transvaginal sonography is the best technique for visualization
C.
While scanning an obstetrical patient, the first image that you have taken is a midline sagittal view of the LUS. If the cord is positioned near the cervical os, this is also called a. Partial previa b. Complete previa c. Vasa previa d. Cord presentation e. A and C
C.
hCG is elevated in all of the following conditions except a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Normal intrauterine pregnancy c. Pseudocyesis d. Hydatidaform mole
C.
hCG is secreted by: A. Dividing cells of blastomere B. Amnion C. Trophoblast / chorion D. Embryo
C.
A blood test used to screen for ovarian cancer is: A. BhCG B. Estrodial level C. CEA D. CA-125
D.
The birth defect in which the sex of the fetus cannot be determined defines: a. Renal agenesis b. Ovarian dysgenesis c. Clitorimegaly d. Ambiguous genitalia
D.
The broad ligaments are best demonstrated sonographically a. In a transverse plane b. With overdistention of the urinary bladder c. With transvaginal sonogrpahy d. In the presence of ascites
D.
The choroid plexus cyst could be associated with an increased risk of: a) Trisomy 13 b) Trisomy 4 c) Arnold- Chiari II malformation d) Trisomy 18
D.
The cisterna magna should not exceed ____ cm in AP dimension a. 2 b. 10 c. 5 d. 1
D.
The cisterna magna should not exceed _______ cm in AP dimension. a. 2 b. 10 c. 5 d. 1
D.
The double bleb sign refers to the sonographic presentation of: a) The amnion and the adjacent yolk sac b) A heterotopic pregnancy c) A bicornuate uterus d) The amnion and chorion e) Two uterine gestational sacs
D.
The effects of maternal infection on the fetus do not include: A. IUGR B. Cardiac anomalies C. Cranial anomalies D. Macrosomia
D.
The fetal contribution to the placenta is the: a. Chorionic vera b. Decidua vera c. Decidua basalis d. Chorion frondosum
D.
The placenta develops from the: A. Chorion B. Decidua C. Amnion D. A and B E. B and C
D.
What is Talipes? A. Polyactyly B. Rocker Bottom foot C. Cleft lip D. Clubfoot E. None of the above
D.
A 12-year-old patient presents with primary amenorrhea and pelvic pressure. The most likely cause of her symptom is: a) Pregnancy b) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease c) Cystic Teratoma d) Leiomyoma e) Hematocolpos
E.
A mature follicle ready for ovulation is referred to as the: A. Corpus luteum B. Corpus albicans C. Preantral follicle D. Theca-lutein cyst E. Graafian follicle
E.
A 21 year old primigravida is referred for a sonographic examination for elevated MS-AFP. The sonographer notes an echogenic mass lateral to the umbilical cord insertion. The mass is not contained within a membrane. This finding is most likely: A. Gastroschisis B. Omphalocele C. Limb-body wall complex D. Meconium peritonitis
A.
A cystic mass between the fetal anterior wall and the fetal bladder most likely represents a. Urachal cyst b. Ovarian cyst c. Sacrococcygeal teratoma d. Normal intestine
A.
A fibroid is sonographically indistinguishable from a. Leiomyosarcoma b. Nabothian cyst c. Adenomyosis d. Endometrial carcinoma
A.
All of the following are associated with a decreased serum hCG except: a. Partial mole b. incorrect dates c. embryonic demise d. Missed abortion
A.
All of the following are associated with lower than expected levels of serum hCg except: a. hydatidaform mole b. incorrect dates c. embryonic demise d. missed abortion
A.
All of the following are functions of the placenta EXCEPT a. Produces alpha-fetoprotein b. Secretes estrogen and progesterone c. Provides for diffusion of fetal wastes d. Serves as a source of nutrients e. Provides for an exchange of gasses
A.
All of the following are sonographic features of holoprosencephaly except: a) Cystic hygroma b) Proboscis c) Fused thalamus d) Monoventricle
A.
All of the following may be seen sonographically in maternal diabetes except: a. Prematurely mature placenta b. Macrosomia c. Placentomegaly d. Cardiac anomalies
A.
Amnioncity and chorionicity are most easily determined sonographically: a. in the first trimester b. in the second trimester c. in the third trimester d. by amniocentesis
A.
Encephaloceles are usually found in the a. Occipital region b. Frontal region c. Parietal regions d. A and B e. All of the above
A.
Fertilization occurs at which site normally? a. Ampulla of fallopian tube b. Endometrial cavity c. Uterine cornua d. Isthmus of fallopian tube
A.
Fertilization occurs at which site normally? a. Ampulla of fallopian tubes b. Endometrial cavity c. Uterine cornu d. Isthmus of fallopian tube
A.
Fertilization occurs at which site normally? a. Ampulla of the fallopian tube b. Endometrial cavity c. Uterine cornu d. Isthmus of the fallopian tube
A.
Fetal blood passes from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta via the: A. Ductus arteriosus B. Ductus venosus C. Foramen ovale D. Hypogastric arteries
A.
Fetal blood passes from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta via the: a. ductus arteriosus b. ductus venosus c. foramen ovale d. hypogastric arteries
A.
Holoprosencephaly is most often associated with which of the following? a. Trisomy 13 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 21 d. Triploidy e. Down's syndrome
A.
If a 24-year old female shows a multilayered endometrium measuring 8 mm, she is probably: A. Mid cycle B. Bleeding C. Menstruating D. Menopausal E. Pregnant
A.
Mothers with pregestational diabetes, as opposed to gestational diabetes, have an increased risk of a fetus with: a. Neural tube defects b. Proteinuria c. TORCH d. DES
A.
One can rule out placenta accreta by observing a. Retroplacental space b. Cord insertion c. Placental texture d. A and B e. B and C
A.
Painless vaginal bleeding is the hallmark of: A. Placenta previa B. Incompetent cervix C. Placenta accrete D. Abruptio placenta
A.
Precocious puberty is best defined as: a) Pubertal development before the age of 8 b) Pubertal development before the age of 13 c) Excessive hair growth in girls in areas where hair growth is normally negligible d) Changes within the female that are caused by increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein
A.
Serial sonograms are requested for a patient on Perganol. On day 27 of the cycle, multiple large septated cysts are seen bilaterraly. The ovarian finding most likely represents a. Theca lutein cysts b. Corpus luteal cysts c. Bilateral TOAs d. Ectopic pregnancy
A.
Sonographic findings suspicious for ectopic pregnancy include all of the following except: a. Sac eccentric to endometrial cavity b. Free fluid in posterior cul-de-sac c. Sac within endometrial cavity d. Adnexal ring
A.
Sonographic visualization of the tibia and fibula in the same scanning plane as the metatarsals of the foot is associated with _____. A. Clubfoot B. Amniotic band syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Caudal regression syndrome
A.
The abdominal circumference measurement should be taken at the level of: a. Stomach and portal sinus of the umbilical vein b. Kidneys c. Umbilical cord insertion d. Stomach and ductus venosum
A.
The abdominal circumference measurement should be taken at the level of: a. Stomach and portal sinus of umbilical vein b. Kidneys c. Umbilical cord insertion d. Stomach and ductus venosum
A.
The anechoic midline brain structure located between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles is the: a) Cavum Septum Pellucidum b) Cavum vergae c) Corpus callosum d) Fourth ventricle
A.
The congenital narrowing of the aortic arch is: A. Coarctation of the aorta B. Tetrology of Fallot C. Ebstein anomaly D. Aortic stenosis E. Ductal arch
A.
The dominant hormone in the luteal phase of the ovary is: a. progesterone b. estrogen c. FSH d. hCG
A.
The dominant hormone in the luteal phase of the ovary is: a. progesterone b. estrogen c. FSH d. hCg
A.
The existence of a fetus with a hydatidiform mole is a. Partial mole b. Gestational trophoblastic disease c. Triploidy d. Choriocarcinoma
A.
The following condition is an indication for immediate delivery, for without it there is the risk of intrauterine demise: a) Placental abruption b) Uterine infection c) Incompetent cervix d) Vasa previa e) Implantation bleed
A.
The following is an indication for immediate delivery, for without it there is the risk of intrauterine demise: a) Placental abruption b) Uterine infection c) Incompetent cervix d) Vasa previa e) Implantation bleed
A.
The foramen ovale permits blood to pass from the _____ to the _____. a. Right atrium; left atrium b. Left atrium; right atrium c. Pulmonary artery; aortic arch d. Right atrium; IVC
A.
The foramen ovale permits blood to pass from the _______ to the ________. a. Right atrium; left atrium b. Left atrium; right atrium c. Pulmonary artery; aortic arch d. Right atrium; IVC
A.
The hormone responsible for proliferation of the endometrium is: A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. FSH D. LH
A.
The left ovarian vein drains into the ______, and the right ovarian vein drains into the ______. A. Left renal vein; IVC B. IVC; IVC C. Right renal vein; left renal vein D. IVC; right renal vein
A.
The menstrual cycle is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Adrenal glands B. Hypothalamus C. Pituitary D. Ovaries E. A and B
A.
The most accurate sonographic method of establishing gestational age is: A. Crown-rump length measurement B. Single dimension gestational sac measurement C. Patient menstrual history D. Biparietal diameter
A.
The most accurate sonographic method of establishing gestational age is: a. crown-rump length measurement b. single dimension gestational C. patient menstrual history D. biparietal diameter
A.
The most accurate sonographic method of establishing gestational age is: a. crown-rump length measurement b. single dimension gestational sac measurement c. patient menstrual history d. biparietal diameter
A.
The most common pelvic mass encountered during pregnancy is: A. Corpus luteal cyst B. Leiomyoma C. Bicornuate uterus D. Endometrioma
A.
The most common pelvic mass encountered during pregnancy is: A. Corpus luteal cyst B. Leiomyoma C. Bicornuate uterus D. Endometrioma
A.
The most common tumor of the female pelvis is a. Myoma b. Teratoma c. Cystadenoma d. Cervical carcinoma
A.
The most common tumor of the female pelvis is: A. Myoma B. Teratoma C. Cystadenoma D. Cervical carcinoma
A.
The most common tumor of the female pelvis is: a. Myoma b. Teratoma c. Cystadenoma d. Cervical carcinoma
A.
The muscles most frequently mistaken for enlarged ovaries are the: A. Piriformis B. Obturator internus C. Iliposoas D. Levator Ani E. Coccygeus
A.
The optimal period to examine fetal cardiac anatomy is a. 18-24 weeks b. 12-33 weeks c. 14-18 weeks d. 24 weeks to term
A.
The outer serosal layer of the uterus is the : A. Perimetrium B. Endometrium C. Parametrium D. Myometrium
A.
The outer serosal layer of the uterus is the: A. Perimetrium B. Endometrium C. Parametrium D. Myometrium
A.
The placenta releases _____ to maintain the corpus luteum. a. Human chorionic gonadotropin b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Luteinizing hormone d. Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
A.
The ratio of BPD to OFD determines the: a. CI b. HC c. AC d. EFW
A.
The ration of BPD to OFD determines the: a. CI b. HC c. AC d. EFW
A.
The trophoblasts of the blastocyst become the _________. a. chorion b. amnion c. yolk sac d. allantois
A.
The trophoblasts of the blastocyst become the __________. a. chorion b. amnion c. yolk sac d. allantois
A.
The trophoblasts of the blastocysts become the A. Chorion B. Amnion C. Yolk sac D. allantosis
A.
Twins that have the threat of being conjoined are: a. Monochorionic monoamniotic b. Monochorionic diamniotic c. Dizygotic d. Dichorionic diamniotic
A.
What is lithopedion? a) Calcified fetus b) Absent fetal tone c) Bone fusion d) Calcium deficiency e) Fetal gallstone
A.
When the placental edge extends into the lower uterine segment but ends more than 2 cm away from the internal os, it is referred to as: a. Low-lying previa b. Marginal previa c. Partial previa d. Total previa
A.
Which AFI is indicative of oligohydramnios? a. 4.3cm b. 9.2cm c. 16.5cm d. 25.6cm
A.
Which CI is indicative of dolichocephaly? a. 67% b. 78% c. 80% d. 89%
A.
Which of the following is NOT associated with oligohydramnios? A. Unilateral ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction B. Posterior urethral valve (PUV) obstruction C. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) D. Potter type I E. Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)
A.
Which of the following is not routinely imaged at the proper level for BPD measurement? a. cerebellum b. cavum septum pellucidum c. falx cerebri d. thalamus
A.
Which of the following is not routinely imaged at the proper level for BPD measurement? a. Cerebellum b. Cavum septum pellucidum c. Falx cerebri d. Thalamus
A.
Which of the following is not routinely imaged at the proper level for BPD measurement? a. Cerebellum b. Cavum septum pellucidum c. Falx cerebri d. Thalamus
A.
With normal growth during the first trimester, the size of the gestational sac should increase daily by: a) 1 mm b) 2 mm c) 5 mm d) 10 mm e) 1 cm
A.
Your patient has a suspicious adnexal neoplasm. To assist ruling out metastasis, you scan the: a) Lymph nodes b) Breasts c) Liver d) Spleen e) Kidneys
A.
A fetus that weighs 4600 grams at term is said to be: a) Small for gestational age (SGA) b) Macrosomic c) Post-term d) Growth-restricted e) Diabetic
B.
All of the following are indications for prenatal genetic testing EXCEPT: a) Prior pregnancy with congential anomaly b) Maternal age greater than 30 c) Maternal diabetes d) Family history of congentital anomalies e) Prenatal exposure to teratogens
B.
All of the following would be associated with a lower-than-normal human chorionic gonadotropin level except: a) Ectopic pregnancy b) Molar pregnancy c) Blighted ovum d) Spontaneous abortion
B.
All of these Doppler ultrasound findings in the uterine arteries are associate with a growth-restricted pregnancy EXCEPT: a) Reversal of end-diastolic flow b) Increase of end-diastolic flow on serial surveillance c) Decrease of end-diastolic flow on serial surveillance d) No end-diastolic flow e) C and D
B.
Fetal blood passes from the umbilical vein to the portal vein to the inferior vena cava via the a. Foramen ovale b. Ductus venosus c. Hypogastric arteries d. Ductus arteriosus
B.
Fetal bradycardia is less than _____ beats per minute. a. 120 b. 100 c. 160 d. 200
B.
Fetal bradychardia is less than ______ beats per minute a. 120 b. 100 c. 160 d. 200
B.
Fetal skin thickening, called anasarca, is considered when the skin thickness reaches or exceeds ____ cm. A. 0.1 B. 0.5 C. 1.0 D. 5.0
B.
Fluid noted posterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the: a) Space of Retzius b) Pouch of Douglas c) Anterior cul-de-sac d) Adnexa
B.
Normal embryoinic midgut herniation occurs at approximately: a) 6 menstrual weeks b) 8 menstrual weeks c) 10 menstrual weeks d) 12 menstrual weeks e) 14 menstrual weeks
B.
Normally, the anatomic structure closest to the spine in a four chamber view of the fetal heart is the a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle e. Apex
B.
Oligohydraminos is associated with all of the following except: a. IUGR b. Preterm labor c. Fetal demise d. Bilateral renal agenesis
B.
Placental tissue covering the internal cervical os is known as: A. Low-lying placenta B. Placenta previa C. Placenta increta D. Abruptio placenta
B.
Sonographic detection of overlapping cranial bones, associated with fetal demise, is called ___ sign. A. Robert's B. Spaulding's C. Meckel's D. Potter's
B.
TORCH infections do not include: a. Toxoplasmosis b. Hepatitis c. Cytomegalovirus d. Rubella
B.
The "double bubble" sign is associated with: A. Bivascular cord B. Duodenal atresia C. Conjoined twins D. Ectopic pregnancy
B.
The "double bubble" sign is associated with: A. Bivascular cord B. Duodenal atresia C. Conjoined twins D. Ectopic pregnancy
B.
The "quad screen" derives a statistical risk of Trisomies 21 and 18 by using all of the following maternal serum values except: A. Alpha feto protein B. PAPP-A C. Estriol D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B.
The discriminatory zone at which a gestational sac should be seen using transvaginal sonography in the presence of an intrauterine pregnancy is when the serum HCG level reaches ___ mlu/ml 3IRP. A. 500-1000 B. 1000-2000 C. 2000-4000 D. 4000-8000
B.
The endometrium appears thickest during the _____ portion of the menstrual cycle. A. Proliferative B. Secretory C. Luteal D. Follicular
B.
The endometrium appears thickest during the ________ portion of the menstrual cycle. a. proliferative b. secretory c. luteal d. follicular
B.
The heart should occupy approximately ____ of the fetal thorax. A. ¼ B. 1/3 C. ½ D. 2/3
B.
The hormone primarily responsible for ovulation is _________. a. FSH b. LH c. progesterone d. estrogen
B.
The hormone primarily responsible for ovulation is: a. FSH b. LH c. Progesterone d. Estrogen
B.
The hormone primarily responsible for ovulation is: A. FSH B. LH C. Progesterone D. Estrogen
B.
The inner cell mass of the blastocyst develops into all of the following except: a. embryonic disk b. chorion c. amnion d. yolk sac
B.
The inner cell mass of the blastocyst develops into all of the following except: a. Embryonic disk b. Chorion c. Amnion d. Yolk sac
B.
The longest bone in the forearm is the: a. Radius b. Ulna c. Tibia d. Fibula e. Humerus
B.
The most common fetal thoracic abnormality is ____. A. Diaphragmatic hernia B. Pleural effusion C. Pulmonary sequestration D. Cystic adenomatoid malformation
B.
The most common location for an encephalocele is a. Asymmetric b. Occipital c. Lateral d. Frontal
B.
Twins that result from the fertilization of two separate ova are called: a. Diamniotic b. Dizygotic c. Monozygotic d. Monochorionic
B.
Umbilical cords can vary in length. A cord that appears to be abnormally thickened in an otherwise normal-appearing pregnancy is most likely the cause of a. Resistance of blood flow to the fetus b. Excessive Wharton's jelly c. Macrosomia d. Vascular duplication of the cord e. Cord edema
B.
Where is the yolk sac located? a. Between the amnion and embryo b. Between the amnion and chorion c. Within the amniotic cavity d. In the subchorionic region
B.
Where is the yolk sac located? a. Between the amnion and the embryo b. Between the amnion and the chorion c. Within the amniotic cavity d. In the subchorionic region
B.
Which best describes the location of the choroid plexus? a. Within the posterior portion of the fetal brain just inferior to the cerebellum b. Within the atria of the lateral ventricles bilaterally c. Between the thalami bilaterally d. In the most inferior portion of the fetal brain adjacent to the lateral ventricles e. At the level of the falx and periventricular vasculature
B.
Which of the following is not associated with holoprosencephaly? a. Failed development of the fetal forebrain b. Failure of the cranial vault to form correctly c. Proboscis d. Cyclopia e. Fused thalami
B.
Which of the following ovarian tumors is associated with GI primary malignancy? a. Dysgerminoma b. Krukenberg tumor c. Brenner tumor d. Struma ovarii
B.
Which of these statements about twins is NOT true? a) Monozygotic twins can be dichrionic b) Monozygotic twins share the same amniotic sac c) Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome is specific to monozygotic gestations d) 100% of dizygotic twins are dichorionic e) Chorionicity is realated to placentation
B.
Chronic maternal hypertension causes which of the following placental changes? A. Immature B. Enlarged C. Prematurely mature D. Accessory lobe
C.
Cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except: a. Omphalocele b. Spina bifida c. Encephalocele d. Imperforate anus
C.
Days 6-13 in the ovary are which ovarian phase? a. proliferative b. secretory c. follicular d. luteal
C.
Days 6-13 in the ovary are which ovarian phase? a. Proliferative b. Secretory c. Follicular d. Luteal
C.
Failure for the forebrain to divide results in ____________. a. Dandy-Walker malformation b. Hydrocephalus c. Holoprosencephaly d. Hydranencephaly
C.
Failure of the forebrain to divide results in: a. dandy-walker malformation b. hydrocephalus c. holoprosencephaly d. hydranencephaly
C.
Fetal lung maturity can be detected via amniocentesis by presence of a. Alpha feto protein b. Lecithin-sphingomyelin c. Phosphatidyl-glycerol d. Acetylcholinesterase
C.
In a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, which section of the fallopian tube is potentially the most life-threatening? a) Ligamentous b) Ampulla c) Interstitial d) Fimbrial e) Isthmic
C.
Measurement of the yolk sac is performed: A. Outer-to-outer B. Outer-to-inner C. Inner-to-inner D. In three planes
C.
The S/D ratio in the umbilical artery should not exceed _____ in the 3rd trimester. A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1
C.
The anechoic structure visualized sonographically in the posterior portion of the embryonic cranium transvaginal between 8-11 wks is a. Hydrocephalus b. Cisterna magna c. Rhombencephalon d. Dandy-Walker malformation
C.
The benign overgrowth of endometrial tissue in to the myometrium is called: a) Endometrial hypertophy b) Choriocarcinoma c) Adenomyomyosis d) Asherman syndrome e) Endometritis
C.
The fetal bladder should fill and empty again approximately every a. 5-10 minutes b. 10-15 minutes c. 30-45 minutes d. 60-75 minutes e. Variable
C.
The first action a sonographer should take when placing the transducer on the maternal abdomen is to determine: A. Number of fetuses B. Fetal lie C. Presence of fetal cardiac activity D. Presence of fetal anomalies
C.
The inferior portion of the cervix closest to the vagina is the: a) Cornu b) Internal os c) External os d) Inferior fornix
C.
The inner membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as the: a. Placenta b. Chorion c. Amnion d. Yolk sac
C.
The lateral ventricular artial width is considered abnormal if it exceeds _________. a. 5 mm b. 1 mm c. 10 mm d. 10 cm
C.
The maternal contribution to the placenta is the: a. Chorionic vera b. Decidua vera c. Decidua basalis d. Chorion frondosum
C.
The measurement of the endometrium during the proliferative phase ranges from: a) 6 to 10 mm b) 8 to 12 mm c) 4 to 8 mm d) 1 to 2 mm
C.
The most common congenital heart defect is: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Hypoplastic left heart
C.
The most common congenital heart defect is: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Hypoplastic left heart
C.
The most dependent recess in the body is the a. Anterior cul-de-sac b. Morison's pouch c. Pouch of Douglas d. Posterior vaginal fornix
C.
The normally herniated midgut usually returns to the fetal abdomen by ___ weeks. a. 8 b. 9 c. 12 d. 16
C.
The normally herniated midgut usually returns to the fetal abdomen by ____ weeks. A. 8 B. 9 C. 12 D. 16
C.
The nuchal fold should not exceed ______ mm in a normal pregnancy, when measured prior to 20 weeks a. 3 b. 10 c. 6 d. 2
C.
The nuchal fold should not exceed _________ mm in a normal pregnancy, when measured prior to 21 weeks. a. 3 b. 10 c. 6 d. 2
C.
The proportions of the uterine body and fundus to the uterine cervix in the adult are: a. 1/2 body/fundus; 1/2 cervix b. 1/3 body/fundus; 2/3 cervix c. 2/3 body/fundus; 1/3 cervix d. 3/4 body/fundus; 1/4 cervix
C.
The term double bubble denotes: A. Fetal stomach next to the heart B. Urachal cyst next to the bladder C. Dilated duodenum next to the fetal stomach D. Choledochal cyst next to the stomach E. Bilateral hydronephrosis
C.
The vessels normally found in the umbilical cord are a. Two arteries and two veins b. Two veins and one artery c. Two arteries and one vein d. One vein and one artery
C.
The vessels normally found in the umbilical cord are: A. Two arteries and two veins B. Two veins and one artery C. Two arteries and one vein D. One vein and one artery
C.
What condition is associated with bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, and fusion of the lower extremities? a) Sacrococcygeal teratoma b) Caudal displacement syndrome c) Sirenomelia d) Osteogenesis imperfecta
C.
What structure lies within the extraembryonic coelom? a) Gestational sac b) Embryo c) Yolk sac d) Amnion
C.
When a sonographer discovers a bicornuate uterus, which area should also be evaluated? a. lymph node b. liver c. kidneys d. fallopian tubes
C.
When a sonographer discovers a bicornuate uterus, which area should also be evaluated? A. Lymph nodes B. Liver C. Kidneys D. Fallopian tubes
C.
Which best describes the optimal instance to take the femur length measurement? a) When the epiphyseal plates are clearly identified and the shaft is parallel to the sound beam b) When the diaphysis of the femur is parallel to the sound beam c) When the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the sound beam d) When the femoral shaft is parallel to the sound beam
C.
Which of the following are not associated with Dandy-Walker malformation? a. Hydrocephalus b. Posterior fossa cyst c. Arises from the cerebellum d. Agenesis of the corpus callosum e. Enlarged 4th ventricle
C.
Which of the following is defined as pain during intercourse? a) Dysuria b) Dysmenorrhea c) Dyspareunia d) Hirsutism
C.
Which of the following ovarian masses does not secrete hormones? a. Corpus luteum b. Arrhenoblastoma c. Theca lutein cyst d. Thecoma
C.
Which of the following sonographic measurements is least accurate for determining gestational age a. FL b. CRL c. AC d. BPD
C.
Which of the following sonographic measurements is least accurate for determining gestational age? a. FL b. CRL c. BPD d. HC
C.
A placenta measuring 7 cm in greatest AP dimension may be associated with all of the following except a. Hydrops b. Infection c. Triploidy d. Hypertension e. Diabetes mellitus
D.
A placenta previa can be ruled out if the placental edge is at least this distance from the internal cervical os a. 0.5 cm b. 1 cm c. 1.5 cm d. 2 cm e. 3cm
D.
All of the following are observed during a biophysical profile except: a) Fetal tone b) Thoracic movement c) Fetal breathing d) Fetal circulation
D.
All of the following may be visualized at the correct level of the head circumference except: a) Third ventricle b) Thalamus c) Cavum septum pellucidum d) Falx cerebelli
D.
An 80 year old patient presents for sonographic evaluation for vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most important to obtain? A. Bilateral ovarian measurements B. Transverse uterine diameter C. Doppler evaluation of radial arteries D. Endometrial thickness measurements
D.
An abnormal value for nuchal fold thickness is greater than: A. 2-3 mm B. 3-4 mm C. 4-5 mm D. 5-6 mm E. 6-7 mm
D.
An abnormal value for nuchal fold thickness is greater than: a) 2-3 mm b) 3-4 mm c) 4-5 mm d) 5-6 mm e) 6-7 mm
D.
An anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Hemangioma b. Vasa previa c. Chorioangioma d. Allantoic cyst
D.
Asymmetic intrauterine growth restriction is not associated with: A. Malnutrition B. Uteroplacental insufficiency C. Drug abuse D. Maternal infection
D.
Cleft lip and cleft palate may exist with: a) Amniotic band syndrome b) Holoprosencephaly c) Trisomy 13 d) All of the above
D.
Clinodactyly refers to: A. Fusion of the digits B. Absence of digits C. Widely spaced digits D. Permanent curvature of a digit E. Increased number of digits
D.
Days 6-13 in the uterus are considered the ____ phase. A. Follicular B. Luteal C. Secretory D. Proliferative
D.
Fetal cells can be retrieved for karyotyping by all of the following methods except: A. Amniocentesis B. CVS C. Umbilical blood sampling D. FISH
D.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the: A. Fetal liver B. Yolk sac C. Fetal kidneys D. Placenta E. Maternal ovaries
D.
In a fetal heart, the communication between the right and left atria is termed a. Ventricular septal defect b. Atrial septal defect c. Atrial orifice d. Foramen ovale e. Atrial meatus
D.
In ruling out hydrocephalus, where would one first begin to see enlargement? a. Cisterna magna b. Third ventricle c. Anterior horns of the lateral ventricles d. Lateral ventricular atria e. Posterior fossa
D.
In the body of a normal fetus the heart is positioned at an angle a. 35 degrees to the right of midline b. 35 degrees to the left of midline c. 45 degrees to the right of midline d. 45 degrees to the left of midline e. 55 degrees to the left of midline
D.
Leiomyomas that project from a stalk are termed: a) Submucosal b) Intramural c) Subserosal d) Pedunculated
D.
Pathologic features of Trisomy 18 include all of the following except: A. Single umbilical artery B. Clenched fists with overlapping fingers C. Large choroid plexus cysts D. Thickened nuchal folds
D.
Pools of maternal blood noted within the placental substance are referred to as: a. Accessory lobes b. Decidual casts c. Chorioangiomas d. Maternal lakes
D.
Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall is placenta ______. A. Previa B. Accrete C. Precreta D. Abruption
D.
The "lying down" adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except: a. Unilateral renal agenesis b. Bilateral renal agenesis c. Potter syndrome d. Megacystis
D.
The BPD measurement is most accurate a. Throughout pregnancy b. After 34 weeks LMP c. In the first trimester d. From 12 to 33 weeks LMP
D.
The BPD measurement is most accurate: A. Throughout pregnancy B. After 34 weeks LMP C. In the first trimester D. From 12 to 33 weeks LMP
D.
The anterior cul-de-sac is also referred to as the: a) Pouch of Douglas b) Space of Retzius c) Rectouterine pouch d) Vesicouterine pouch
D.
The hormone(s) responsible for gallstone formation during pregnancy is/are: a) Testosterone b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) B and C e) A and B
D.
The lateral ventricular atrial width is considered abnormal if it exceeds _________. a. 5mm b. 1mm c. 10cm d. 10mm
D.
The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the: a. Nephroblastoma b. Pheochromocytoma c. Hepatoblastoma d. Neuroblastoma
D.
The most dangerous location for an ectopic pregnancy is: A. Abdominal B. Ampullary C. Ovarian D. Cornual
D.
The most dangerous location for an ectopic pregnancy is: A. Abdominal B. Ampullary C. Ovarian D. Cornual
D.
The ovarian cyst associated with distinctly elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin is the: a) Corpus luteum cyst b) Paraovarian cyst c) Dermoid cyst d) Theca lutein cyst
D.
The tricuspid valve inserts ____ to the mitral valve. a. Posterior b. Anterior c. Superior d. Inferior
D.
The yolk sac visualized sonographically is the a. Allantois b. Primary yolk sac c. Tertiary yolk sac d. Secondary yolk sac
D.
The yolk sac visually sonographically is the _________. a. allantois b. primary yolk sac c. tertiary yolk sac d. secondary yolk sac
D.
Treatment for the pre-eclamptic patient includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Fetal biophysical profiles B. Bed rest C. Hospitalization D. Diuretics E. Contraction stress tests
D.
What anatomic region should be assessed in order to perform a Doppler examination on the uterine artery? A. Medial to the cervix B. Superior to the uterine fundus C. Adjacent to the cornua D. Lateral to the cervix E. Anterior to the body of the uterus
D.
When do fetal kidneys begin to develop? a) End of 7th menstrual week b) Beginning of 7th menstrual week c) End of 6th menstrual week d) Beginning of 6th menstrual week e) Beginning of 5th menstrual week
D.
When the conditions proboscis and absence of the nasal bridge are seen together, you would first suspect a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Triploidy d. Cyclopia e. Schizencephaly
D.
Which is NOT a part of the fallopian tube? A. Interstitial area B. Ampulla C. Infundibulum D. Piriformis E. Isthmus
D.
Which of the following anomalies is associated specifically with maternal diabetes mellitus? A. Turner syndrome B. Osteogenesis Imperfecta C. Potter sequence D. Caudal regression syndrome E. Thanatophoric dwarfism
D.
Which of the following is least likely to be a sonographic finding in a fetus with Trisomy 21? a. Increased nuchal fold b. Endocardial cushion defect c. Shortened femurs d. Clenched hands
D.
Which of the following is least likely to be a sonographic finding in a fetus with Trisomy 21? a. Increased nuchal fold b. Endocardial cushion defect c. Shortened femurs d. Clinched hands
D.
Which of the following is not a sign of pre-eclampsia? A. Elevated blood pressure B. Proteinuria C. Edema D. Abnormal glucose tolerance test
D.
Which of the following is not routinely visualized at the proper level for measurement of the abdominal circumference? a. aorta b. spine c. stomach d. umbilical cord insertion e. portal sinus of the umbilical vein
D.
Which of the following is not routinely visualized at the proper level for measurement of the abdominal circumference? a. Aorta b. Spine c. Stomach d. Umbilical cord insertion e. Portal sinus of the umbilical vein
D.
Which of the following is true about hydranencephaly? a. Poor prognosis b. Complete destruction of the cerebrum c. Bilateral clefts in the cerebrum d. A and B e. A and C
D.
Which stage of endometriosis involves the ovaries? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
D.
A congenital diaphragmatic hernia can be associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A. Abnormal shift of the fetal heart B. Neural tube defects C. Compression of the fetal lungs D. Failure of the diaphragm to form properly E. Pulmonary hyperplasia
E.
Biophysical profile assessment with ultrasound does not include: A. Fetal breathing B. Fetal tone C. Amniotic fluid assessment D. Gross body movement E. Umbilical cord Doppler
E.
The floor of the pelvis is formed by the: A. Coccygeal muscles B. Piriformis muscles C. Obturator internus muscles D. Iliopsoas muscles E. Levator Ani muscles
E.
When the urinary bladder is empty, the uterus is normally: A. Anteverted B. Retroverted C. Retroflexed D. Inverted E. Anteflexed
E.
Which of the following terms describes a patient who has never been pregnant? A. Multigravida B. Nullipara C. Multipara D. Primigravida E. Nulligravida
E.