OIS 5640 Final Exam
Monte Carlo analysis is used to: A. Get an indication of the risk involved in the project. B. Estimate an activity's length. C. Simulate possible quality issues on the project. D. Prove to management that extra staff is needed.
A. Get an indication of the risk involved in the project.
What is the difference between a standard and a regulation? A. A standard is optional; regulations are not B. A standard is not optional; regulations may be C. A standard is rarely optional; regulations are never optional. D. d. A standard is a guideline; a regulation is a request.
A. A standard is optional; regulations are not
Pareto diagrams help the Project Manager: A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality. B. Focus on stimulating thinking. C. Explore a desired future outcome. D. Determine if a process is out of control
A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.
Design of experiments: A. Identifies which variables will have the most influence on a quality outcome. B. Identifies which variables will have the least influence on a quality outcome. C. Determines what a quality outcome is. D. Determines methods to be used for research and development.
A. Identifies which variables will have the most influence on a quality outcome.
Which of the following can create the MOST misinterpretation of the project scope statement? A. Imprecise language B. Poor pattern, structure and chronological order. C. Small variations in size of work packages or detail of work. D. Too much detail.
A. Imprecise language
When is the stakeholder's ability to influence a project very high? A. In the early stages. B. Half-way through. C. Depends on their role and position. D. Just before final delivery.
A. In the early stages.
Cause-and-effect diagrams are also known as: A. Ishikawa diagrams. B. Pareto diagrams. C. Scatter diagrams. D. Histograms.
A. Ishikawa diagrams.
The process of Manage project team uses which of the following inputs in its execution? A. Issue Log B. Resource Calendars C. Activity Resource Requirements D. Human Resource Management Plan
A. Issue Log
What is the primary benefit of estimating activity resources? A. It identifies the type of resources needed to complete the activity at hand. B. It provides the amount of time an activity will take to complete. C. It determines the cost required to complete Project work. D. It determines the Project's Cost Baseline.
A. It identifies the type of resources needed to complete the activity at hand.
A Schedule management Plan includes which of the following: A. Rules of performance measurement & control thresholds. B. Process to control how change requests will be processed. C. Procedures for project cost reporting. D. A staffing management plan.
A. Rules of performance measurement & control thresholds.
Knowledge areas include: A. Scope, Time, Cost and Procurement. B. Quality, Risk, Communication and Planning. C. Integration, Initiating, Stakeholder and Human Resources. D. Scope, Time, Cost and Closing.
A. Scope, Time, Cost and Procurement.
A Requirements Traceability Matrix traces requirements for which of the following? A. Test strategy & scenarios. B. Production support. C. Product scope. D. The WBS.
A. Test strategy & scenarios.
A project is estimated to cost $ 50,000 with a timeline of 50 days. After 25 days, the Project Manager finds that 50% of the project is complete and Actual costs are $ 50,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI)? A. The CPI is 0.5 B. The CPI is 1.5 C. The CPI is 1 D. The CPI is 2
A. The CPI is 0.5
The executives are debating about whether to implement a PMO for their organization. One of the executives thinks that PMO means 'Project Management Overhead' while others are wondering about the actual value it will bring to the organization. As a senior Project Manager, they bring you in to the meeting on a consultative basis to help them get their hands around what value the PMO brings the organization. All of the following answers are correct except: A. The PMO serves as a disciplinary organization for Project Managers B. The PMO helps the organization align its projects around strategic organizational objectives. C. The PMO provides the organization with project management standards, methods, and procedures. D. The PMO helps to mentor and train project managers within the organization.
A. The PMO serves as a disciplinary organization for Project Managers
You are debating the benefit of Integrated Change Control with a colleague. He says it's minimizing baseline changes. You think it's: A. Allowing stakeholders to understand the current project state. B. Ensuring an optimal information flow. C. Allowing for changes to be considered in an integrated manner while reducing risk. D. Providing overall management of project work.
C. Allowing for changes to be considered in an integrated manner while reducing risk.
The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed is known as: A. Planned Value B. Aggregated Planned Value C. Budget at Completion D. Estimate at Completion
C. Budget at Completion
Your Project management plan results in a project schedule that is too long. If the project network diagram cannot change but you have extra personnel resources, what is the BEST thing to do? A. Fast Track the Project. B. Level the Resources. C. Crash the Project. D. Perform Monte Carlo analysis. E. Take the fun bus to Wendover for the weekend!
C. Crash the Project.
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, reporting relationships, and creating a staffing management plan is known as: A. Develop Project Team B. Manage Project Team C. Plan Human Resource Management D. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management
Which of the following doesn't qualify to be a synonym for inspection? A. Audit. B. Peer Review. C. Process Analysis. D. Walkthrough.
C. Process Analysis.
The output of the Control Communications Process includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Change Requests B. Work Performance Information C. Project Communications D. OPA Updates
C. Project Communications
The process that organizes, manages, and leads the project team for the completion of a project is called: A. Project Integration Management B. Project Scope Management C. Project Human Resource Management D. Project Communications Management
C. Project Human Resource Management
PMI is an abbreviation, which stands for?
C. Project Management Institute.
The critical element in a project's communication system is the: A. Progress report B. Project directive C. Project Manager D. Customer
C. Project Manager
The various inputs used while executing the process of Develop Project Team includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Personal Assessment Tools B. Recognition and awards C. Project Performance Appraisals D. Training
C. Project Performance Appraisals
The Project Scope Management Plan, as a component of the Project Management Plan, includes which of the following? A. Preparation of a detailed project scope statement. B. Creation of the work breakdown structure (WBS). C. Specifications for formal verification and acceptance of completed project deliverables. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
The contract administration function includes: A. Funding management. B. Managing relationships and interfaces. C. Performance control. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
Under what circumstances is a Project ended or terminated? A. The objectives of the Project will not or cannot be met. B. When the need for the Project no longer exists. C. If a client (customer, sponsor or champion) wishes to terminate the Project. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
Which of the following can cause a conflict? A. Insufficient action on the part of the Project Manager. B. Competition for facilities, equipment, material, manpower and other resources. C. Personality conflicts between managers and/ or other personnel. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
Which of the following is an important action that must be taken by top management when implementing Project Management in an organization? A. Completely selling the project management concept to the entire organization. B. Choice of the type of project manager. C. Choice of the type of project organization to be utilized. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
Process Groups: A. Will never be conducted within a single phase. B. Are equivalent to Project life cycle phases. C. Are typically not reused during the Project life cycle. D. d. Are not Project life cycle phases.
D. Are not Project life cycle phases.
The tools and techniques used in the process of Manage Communications include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Information Management System B. Communication Technology C. Communication Models D. Communication Requirements Analysis
D. Communication Requirements Analysis
The inputs used in the process of Plan Communications Management includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Project Management Plan B. Stakeholder Register C. OPA D. Communications Management Plan
D. Communications Management Plan
Which of the following is not a stakeholder? A. Supplier. B. Customer. C. PMO. D. Competitor.
D. Competitor.
The contemporary view of conflict is that: A. Conflict is bad. B. Conflict is caused by trouble makers. C. Conflict should be avoided. D. Conflict is often beneficial.
D. Conflict is often beneficial.
A Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.89 means: A. At this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned. B. When the project is completed, we will have spent 89 percent more than planned. C. The project is progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned. D. The project is getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested.
D. The project is getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested.
To successfully motivate a team in today's high tech - high demand environment, which motivational theories should the PM use to maintain a happy, productive team? A. Expectancy and Theory X B. Theory Y and Maslow's Hierarchy C. Herzberg's Hygiene Factors and Expectancy D. Theory Y, Expectancy and Herzberg's Hygiene Factors
D. Theory Y, Expectancy and Herzberg's Hygiene Factors
Which of the following is true about change requests that result in corrective or preventive actions? A. They result in changes to scope. B. They result in changes to the project plan. C. They significantly increase risk. D. They do not usually affect project baselines.
D. They do not usually affect project baselines.
You have the title of Project Coordinator. What type of organizational structure does your company utilize? A. Projectized B. Balanced Matrix C. Weak Matrix D. Functional
C. Weak Matrix
Management Reserves are: A. Set aside for "unknown unknowns". B. Not included in the schedule baseline. C. Part of the overall project duration requirements. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means: A. Project is on budget and on schedule B. Schedule Variance Index is 1 C. There is no schedule variance D. There is no cost variance
. There is no cost variance
The PV = $250, the AC = $350, and the EV = $200. Calculate the Cost Variance. A. -$150 B. $150 C. -$50 D. $50
A. -$150
Which estimating method tends to be MOST costly for creating a Project cost estimate? A. Bottom-up B. Analogous C. Parametric D. 50/50
A. Bottom-up
All the following happen in the Initiating process with the exception of: A. Choose the project team. B. Determine stakeholders C. Identify processes and standards. D. Create the project charter
A. Choose the project team
The Conflict Management approach that is used for emphasizing upon the areas of agreement rather than areas of differences conceding one's position to the needs of others to maintain harmony and relationships is called: A. Collaborate/Problem Solve B. Compromise/Reconcile You Answered C. Smooth/ Accommodate D. Withdraw/Avoid
A. Collaborate/Problem Solve
There are many reasons for creating a lessons learned document in a project. All of the following represent reasons why you would create a lessons learned document with the exception of: A. Creates an archive to advise future project teams about types of projects and resources they should avoid when initiating similar projects. B. Serves as a historical record for what worked and what did not work in your project so that future project teams can make use of the information. C. Used as a phase-end review tool so the team can implement incremental process improvement activities for the subsequent phases. D. Gives all project stakeholders a chance to input what issue resolution approaches were most effective for them on the project.
A. Creates an archive to advise future project teams about types of projects and resources they should avoid when initiating similar projects.
Your project team is well underway with the construction of the product of the project. Some of the work has progressed and some deliverables have been reviewed by key stakeholders. During a deliverables review, one of the stakeholders found a discrepancy in one of the deliverables that needed to be addressed immediately. The team reviewed the stakeholder's issue and agreed that some action needed to be taken to bring the deliverable back into compliance. The best definition for this activity is called: A. Defect repair B. Corrective action C. Quality control D. Preventive action
A. Defect repair
Which of the following events is MOST likely to interfere with attaining a Project's schedule objective? A. Delays in obtaining required approvals. B. Substantial increases in the cost of purchased materials. C. Contract disputes that generate claims for increased payments. D. Slippage of the planned post-implementation review meeting.
A. Delays in obtaining required approvals.
Which items listed below are included, either directly or by reference to other documents, in the detailed Project Scope statement? A. Deliverable, Project exclusion and Constraints. B. Assumptions, Acceptance criteria and Project Road Map. C. Product Scope Description and Expert Judgement. D. Acceptance criteria, Deliverables and Project Road Map.
A. Deliverable, Project exclusion and Constraints.
Closure includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Determining performance measures. B. Turning over the prouct of the Project. C. Documenting the degree to which each project phase was properly closed after its completion. D. Updating the company's organizational process assets.
A. Determining performance measures.
Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of: A. Develop Project Management Plan process B. Estimate Cost process C. Determine Budget process D. Control Cost process
A. Develop Project Management Plan process
Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually accomplished? A. Earned Value(EV) B. Planned Value (PV) C. Actual Cost (AC) D. Cost Variance (CV)
A. Earned Value(EV)
Activity Resource Requirements is an input to which of the following processes: A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Control Schedule C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Sequence Activities
A. Estimate Activity Durations
Which one of the following is not an example of interpersonal skills? A. Financial management and accounting B. Sales and Marketing. C. Conflict Management D. Health and safety practices
A. Financial management and accounting
The most common type of dependency relationship found in the Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM), which requires completion of the predecessor before a successor can begin, is called:
A. Finish to Finish
Schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of: A. Finish-to-Start B. Start-to-Finish C. Start-to-Start D. Finish-to-Finish
A. Finish-to-Start
The contractual agreement under Fixed Price Contracts ,which influences the Plan Procurement project and is the favored by buyers because the price for goods is set at the outset and doesn't change until scope of work changes, is known as: A. Firm Fixed Price Contracts (FFP). B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contracts (FPIF). C. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts ( FP- EPA). D. None of the above.
A. Firm Fixed Price Contracts (FFP).
You are creating your WBS and find that you keep decomposing tasks into smaller and smaller units. How can you tell when you are done? A. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimate required resources and duration. B. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one hour. C. Keep decomposing work until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in your organization's basic work unit. D. Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to keep the WBS balanced.
A. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimate required resources and duration.
The stakeholder engagement level where the stakeholder is actively engaged in ensuring the project success is known as: A. Leading. B. Supportive. C. Active. D. Neutral.
A. Leading.
The process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance to the communications management plan is called: A. Manage Communications B. Plan Communications Management C. Control Communications D. Both A & C
A. Manage Communications
You are the Project Managers of XYZ consultants. The Project team members are from Finance and HR departments. The team members report to Finance and HR Managers respectively, and you have limited control over them. What type of organizational hierarchy does XYZ consultants follow? A. Matrix organization B. Projectized organization C. Functional organization D. None of these.
A. Matrix organization
Purchasing insurance is BEST considered an example of risk: A. Mitigation. B. Transfer. C. Acceptance. D. Avoidance.
A. Mitigation.
Using the average labor hours per installation from past projects to predict the future is an example of which of the following? A. Parametric estimating. B. Three- point estimating. C. Analogous estimating. D. Monte Carlo analysis.
A. Parametric estimating.
Which of the following are used to identify the vital few sources that are responsible for causing most of a problem's effects? A. Pareto Diagrams. B. Check sheets. C. Scatter Diagrams. D. Control Charts.
A. Pareto Diagrams.
The process under Process Risk Management that prioritizes risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact is called: A. Perform Qualitative Risks Analysis B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Plan Risk Management D. Plan Risk Responses
A. Perform Qualitative Risks Analysis
Earned Value Management is an example of: A. Performance reporting. B. Planning control. C. Ishikawa diagrams. d. Integrating the project components into a whole.
A. Performance reporting.
The process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or standards is called: A. Plan Quality Management. B. Control Quality. C. Perform Quality Assurance. D. Both A & B.
A. Plan Quality Management.
Group Decision-Making Techniques include: A. Plurality. B. Consensus. C. Collaboration. D. Compromise.
A. Plurality.
AON (Activity On Node)refers to: A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM] B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] C. Fragment Network D. Mandatory Dependencies
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
What is the term used for processes that are required to ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management , control monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information? A. Project Communications Management B. Project Scope Management C. Project Procurement Management D. Project Integration Management
A. Project Communications Management
A Project manager for a large residential Builder has a Project that was budgeted for $130,000.00 over a six week period. According to his schedule, the Project should have cost $60,000.00 to date. However, it has cost $90,000.00 to date. The Project is also behind schedule, because the original estimates were not accurate. Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to solve this problem? A. Project Manager. B. Senior Management. C. Project Sponsor. D. Manager of the Project Management Office.
A. Project Manager.
The process that includes the contract management and change control processes required to develop and administer contracts or purchase orders issued by authorized project team members is known as: A. Project Procurement Management. B. Project Time management. C. Project Cost Management. D. Project Risk Management.
A. Project Procurement Management.
Which of the following is not true about project charter? A. Project charter is written by the Project Manager. B. Project charter defines the purpose of the project C. Identify and authorizes the Project Manager. D. Project charter is authorized by Executive Management.
A. Project charter is written by the Project Manager.
Which of the following is likely to be part of an operation? A. Providing electricity to a community. B. Designing an electrical grid for a new community C. Building a new dam as a source for electricity.. D. Informing the public about changes at the electrical company.
A. Providing electricity to a community.
Of the following, which is not part of the Iron Triangle or Triple Constraint? A. Quality B. Time C. Scope D. Cost
A. Quality
To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on: A. Referent power B. Formal authority C. Informal power structure D. Broad span of control
A. Referent power
Which of the following is not included in a project charter? A. Resource Management plan. B. Risks and constraints. C. Business case. D. Budget limits.
A. Resource Management plan.
The measure along the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a stakeholder may have a specific interest. Below that, the organization will accept the risk, and above this measure the organization will not accept the risk. It is known as: A. Risk Threshold B. Risk Appetite C. Risk Tolerance D. None of the above
A. Risk Threshold
The type of hybrid contracts which influences the Plan Procurement project is called: A. Time and Material Contracts (T&M). B. Cost-reimbursable Contracts. C. Fixed Price Contracts. D. Both B & C.
A. Time and Material Contracts (T&M).
The name for the tool used in Perform Quality Assurance to represent decomposition hierarchies such as the WBS (work breakdown structure), RBS (risk breakdown structure), and OBS (organizational breakdown structure) is: A. Tree Diagrams. B. Process decision program charts (PDPC). C. Affinity Diagrams. D. Matrix Diagrams.
A. Tree Diagrams.
The results of the Plan Communications Management Process should be reviewed regularly throughout the project and revised as needed to ensure continued applicability. This statement is: A. True B. False C. Incorrect as the plan cannot change without approval D. Not completely true as it is not possible to review the plan frequently
A. True
Decisions made in developing the procurement management plan can also influence the project schedule and are integrated with Develop Schedule, Estimate Activity Resources, and make-or-buy analysis. This statement is: A. True. B. False. C. Not sure. D. Incomplete Information.
A. True.
Which organization is closest to Functional organization? A. Weak Matrix organization B. Balanced Matrix organization C. Strong Matrix D. Projectized organization
A. Weak Matrix organization
The most successful Project Managers usually: A. Work their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged Project Managers, supplementing that experience with formal education. B. Comes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing very large projects. C. Are the technical experts. D. Have considerable experience as a functional manager before moving into the project management arena.
A. Work their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged Project Managers, supplementing that experience with formal education.
Most of the Project Manager's external communication comprises: A. Written documents. B. Oral communication. C. Tactile contact. D. Informal contact.
A. Written documents.
The Project Manager should be able to fulfill the role of: A. an integrator B. a functional manager C. a line manager D. a sponsor
A. an integrator
When is the risk and uncertainty in a project's life cycle at the highest? A. start B. design C. closing D. implementation
A. start
The process control charts are used: A. to determine whether a process is or is not stable or has predictable performance. B. to detect the problem. C. to reject the problem. D. to determine the acceptability of the work product.
A. to determine whether a process is or is not stable or has predictable performance.
Projects can intersect with operations at various points in the ________________ lifecycle. A. Project B Product C. Project Management D. Process Development
B Product
For the following processes of Project Risk Management: Plan Risk Management Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis Identify Risks Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis Plan Risk Responses Control Risks A. 1-2-3-4-5-6 B. 1-3-2-4-5-6 C. 1-3-4-2-5-6 D. 3-1-2-4-5-6
B. 1-3-2-4-5-6
If a risk has a 20% chance of happening in a given month, and the project is expected to last five months, what is the probability that this risk event will occur during the fourth month of the project? A. Less than 1 percent. B. 20 percent. C. 60 percent. D. 80 percent.
B. 20 percent.
In an analytical process, what could be a sign that indicates the need of some actions or communications directed to manage a stakeholder's engagement level? A. The stakeholder talks less. B. The stakeholder's current engagement level varies from the desired level. C. The stakeholder is remotely located. D. The stakeholder is external.
B. The stakeholder's current engagement level varies from the desired level.
A colleague is confused about the difference between the Project Charter and the scope statement. You tell him that the scope statement: A. Contains high level requirements and risks. B. Addresses project exclusions, constraints and assumptions. C. Includes a list of key stakeholders. D. Contains project approval requirements, versus a charter's acceptance criteria.
B. Addresses project exclusions, constraints and assumptions.
You are in the midst of doing reserve analysis for your project. Your contingency reserves: A. Are typically withheld for management control purposes. B. Are associated with the "known-unknowns" for your project. C. Are associated with the "unknown-unknowns" for your project. D. Are not included in the schedule baseline.
B. Are associated with the "known-unknowns" for your project.
Cost Variance (CV) is which of the following equations? A. CV = EV - PV B. CV = EV - AC C. CV = EV / AC D. A and C
B. CV = EV - AC
In the Monitoring and Controlling process group, one of the primary goals of that group is to monitor and control the project work. What is the second equally important, major goal of the monitoring and control process? A. Quality Control B. Change Control C. Scope control and verification D. Corrective action
B. Change Control
The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as appropriate is called: A. Plan Procurement Management. B. Control Procurements. C. Close Procurements. D. Conduct Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
Identifying and documenting the specific activities that must be performed to produce work packages is called: A. Define Scope. B. Decomposition. C. Define Activities. D. Sequence Activities.
B. Decomposition.
Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate? A. Preliminary B. Definitive C. Order of magnitude D. Conceptual
B. Definitive
The key output of Direct and Manage Project Work Process is which one of the following: A. Creating the WBS B. Deliverables C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Performance reports
B. Deliverables
List the two processes in the initiating process group? A. Develop the Project Management Plan and create the Stakeholder Register. B. Develop the Project Charter and identify stakeholders. C. Develop the Project Charter and the Project Management Plan. D. Develop the Risk Register and the Project Communications Plan.
B. Develop the Project Charter and identify stakeholders.
Scope verification and quality control: A. Are the same. B. Differ, in that scope verification is concerned with deliverables acceptance, and quality control with the correctness of those deliverables. C. Usually happen simultaneously. D. Differ, in that quality control is concerned with deliverables acceptance, and scope validation with the correctness of those deliverables.
B. Differ, in that scope verification is concerned with deliverables acceptance, and quality control with the correctness of those deliverables.
Trend Analysis is BEST described as: A. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time B. Examining project performance over time C. Calculating Earned Value D. Calculating Cost Variance
B. Examining project performance over time
During what part of the Project Management process is MOST of a Project's budget expended? A. Planning B. Executing C. Monitoring and controlling D. Closing
B. Executing
The technique used under the Quantitative Risk Analysis which is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen is known as: A. Sensitivity Analysis B. Expected Monetary value Analysis C. Modeling and Simulation D. Expert Judgment
B. Expected Monetary value Analysis
Which of the following is a chief characteristic of the Delphi technique? A. Extrapolation from historical records from previous Projects. B. Expert opinion C. Analytical hierarchy process D. Bottom-up approach
B. Expert opinion
To successfully manage a project, the Project Manager must play both a manager and leadership role. In a Manager's role ( PMBOK Chapter 9 - Topic 9.4 - Think Manage the Project Team), the Project Manager will do all but which of the following: A. Define Roles and Responsibilities. B. Extend favors to some important team members. C. Provide feedback to team members. D. Resolving interpersonal conflicts. E. Both b and d.
B. Extend favors to some important team members.
A Project Charter aligns the Project with: A. The Project Manager's work priorities. B. The strategy and ongoing work of the organization. C. The Project's scope. D. The Project Management plan.
B. The strategy and ongoing work of the organization.
Standard Deviation is a measure of how: A. Far the estimate is from the highest estimate. B. Far the measurement is from the mean. C. Correct the sample is. D. Much time remains in the Project.
B. Far the measurement is from the mean.
Brainstorming, Nominal group technique, Idea/mind mapping, Affinity diagram and multi-criteria decision analysis are all examples of : A. Group decision making techniques. B. Group Creativity techniques. C. Group Party games. D. A type of group think that is commonly used in Board decision making.
B. Group Creativity techniques
An arrangement that provides a set of standard tools for the Project Manager to capture, store and distribute information to stakeholders about the project's costs, schedule progress, and performance is known as: A. Performance Reporting B. Information Management System C. Expert Judgment D. None of the above
B. Information Management System
See the Table below: Three items have been removed from the PMBOK Section 5.2 Collect Requirements table in the Tools and Techniques column. What are the three missing Tools and Techniques? Collect Requirements Inputs, Tools and Techniques, and Outputs Inputs Tools and Techniques Outputs Scope management plan ??? Requirements documentation Requirements management plan ??? Requirements traceability matrix Stakeholder management plan ??? Project charter Group creativity techniques Stakeholder register Group decision-making techniques Questionnaires and surveys Observations Prototypes Benchmarking Context diagrams Document analysis A. Expert judgement, meetings and Product analysis. B. Interviews, focus groups and Facilitated Workshops. C. Expert judgement, Product analysis and Facilitated workshops. D. Interviews, Expert judgement and Product analysis.
B. Interviews, focus groups and Facilitated Workshops.
To assist in budget control, it is suggested that an estimate be created at the _____ ____ ______ level of the WBS (The blanks above may be 1-3 words in length) A. Highest B. Lowest C. Major work effort D. Third
B. Lowest
The Project Management plan is complete and is ready to be base lined. However, a key stakeholder just discovered a critical omission and requests an adjustment to the PM plan. What should you do next as the Project Manager? A. Implement a formal CR B. Make the adjustment C. Consult the change control board D. Inform the stakeholder that this constitutes scope creep and refuse to make the change.
B. Make the adjustment
A general management technique used to determine whether particular work can best be accomplished by the project team or should be purchased from outside sources is called: A. Market Research. B. Make-or-buy Analysis. C. Expert Judgment. D. None of the above.
B. Make-or-buy Analysis.
The technique used under the Quantitative Risk Analysis that translates the specified detailed uncertainties of the project into their potential impact on project activities is called: A. Expected Monetary value Analysis B. Modeling and Simulation C. Expert Judgment D. Sensitivity Analysis
B. Modeling and Simulation
Which of the following is the BEST Project Management tool to use to determine the longest time the Project will take? A. Work Breakdown Structure. B. Network Diagram. C. Bar Chart. D. Project Charter.
B. Network Diagram.
You are working on identifying Project requirements. You decide to use a technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process. You have chosen: A. Idea/Mind Mapping. B. Nominal Group Technique. C. An Affinity Diagram. D. Multi-criteria Decision Analysis.
B. Nominal Group Technique.
The concept that provides information regarding the way in which people, teams, and organizational units behave is known as: A. Networking B. Organizational Theory C. Expert Judgment D. None of the above
B. Organizational Theory
You are trying to decide whether to build or outsource a solution component for a new product expected to generate $300,000.00 in Sales over its lifecycle. If you build, it will cost $50,000.00. If you outsource, it will cost $45,000.00. You estimate a 5% chance of experiencing customer returns if you build, and 20% if you outsource. Those customer returns would cost you $20,000.00. Absent of other decision criteria, what is your decision? A. Build, because $65,000.00 in estimated costs is less than $70,000.00. B. Outsource, because $49,000.00 in estimated costs is less than $51,000.00. C. Build, because $49,000.00 in estimated costs is less than $51,000.00. D. Outsource, because $65,000.00 in estimated costs is less than $70,000.00.
B. Outsource, because $49,000.00 in estimated costs is less than $51,000.00.
Your Project Sponsor has asked you to shave a week from your Project schedule. There are no additional budget dollars to apply, so you decide to fast-track. This means you will likely: A. Apply overtime. B. Overlap or parallel activities normally done in sequence. C. Accelerate non-critical path activities. D. Reduce scope.
B. Overlap or parallel activities normally done in sequence.
Which of the following processes of Project Communications Management involves developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholder's information needs and requirements, and available organizational assets? A. Manage Communications Management B. Plan Communications Management C. Control Communications Management D. None of the above.
B. Plan Communications Management
During which Process Group is the Project Scope Statement created? A. Initiation. B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitoring and controlling
B. Planning
Which of the following techniques is not used in the process of Plan Human Resource Management? A. Networking B. Pre-assignment C. Organizational theory D. Meetings
B. Pre-assignment
Which of the following is/are required for identifying stakeholders: A. Stakeholder register. B. Procurement documents. C. Project management plan. D. All of the above. E. A and C.
B. Procurement documents.
Identify Stakeholders is a part of: A. Project Communications Management. B. Project Stakeholder Management. C. Project Human Resource Management. D. Project Integration Management.
B. Project Stakeholder Management.
Which of the following knowledge area deals with identifying people, groups or organizations that could impact or be impacted by a project that required building a 3-mile long bridge connecting two island cities of a country? A. Project Communications Management. B. Project Stakeholder Management. C. Project Integration Management. D. Communication Plan.
B. Project Stakeholder Management.
The primary objective of contract negotiation is to: A. Get the most from the other side. B. Protect the relationship. C. Get the highest monetary return. D. Define objectives and stick to them
B. Protect the relationship.
The type of Communication Methods tool that uses very large volume of information, or for very large audience, and requires the recipients to access the communication content at their own discretion is called: A. Interactive Communication B. Pull Communication C. Push Communication D. None of the above
B. Pull Communication
All of the following are examples of the cost of non-conformance EXCEPT: A. Rework. B. Quality training. C. Scrap. D. Warranty costs.
B. Quality training.
Which of the following fit the category of external risks? A. Project delays, budget under-runs, movement of city utilities. B. Regulatory, currency changes, taxation. C. Natural disasters, regulatory, design. D. Inflation, design, social impact. E. Political unrest, budget overruns, size and complexity of the project.
B. Regulatory, currency changes, taxation.
You are a Project Manager in an organization with a strong PMO. One of the newly hired Project Managers told you that he has been a PMP® since 1998. While perusing the PMI website looking for some standards documentation, you happen to do a lookup on this person and find out that they are not in the PMI repository of PMP®s in good standing. What do you do? A. Call law enforcement and report the individual. B. Report the individual to PMI. C. Report the individual to his Senior Manager. D. Report the individual to the PMO.
B. Report the individual to PMI.
A fellow Project Manager has asked why you look so overwhelmed. You tell him that you are working on a very complex Project with many types and numbers of resources. He suggests that you use an RBS to hierarchically categorize your resources. In this context, an RBS is a: A. Risk Breakdown Structure. B. Resource Breakdown Structure. C. Resource Break-Fix. D. Responsibility Breakdown Structure.
B. Resource Breakdown Structure.
The Perform Integrated Change Control process: A. Begins sometime after the Project's inception. B. Accepts changes in both oral and written forms. C. Often employs a Change Control Board to review/evaluate changes. D. Requires only the approval of the Project Manager to move changes forward.
C. Often employs a Change Control Board to review/evaluate changes.
The choice of communication technology is not affected by: A. Project Environment B. Skills of the project team C. Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information D. Ease of use
B. Skills of the project team
In PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method), which of the following relationships is rarely used: A. Finish-to-Start B. Start-to-Finish C. Start-to-Start D. Finish-to-Finish
B. Start-to-Finish
The phase of team building where the team begins to address the project work, technical decisions, and the project management approach is known as: A. Performing B. Storming C. Forming D. Norming
B. Storming
Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project? A. The Project Engineer B. The Project Manager C. The Quality Manager D. The Team Member
B. The Project Manager
What is a Project Charter? A. Any sea captain always uses his charter when navigating from Point A to Point B. B. The document that officially authorizes the Project Team to start the project. C. This is an output from the Planning process group and is a single approved document that guides execution, monitoring and control, and closure of the Project. D. This is a contract between the stakeholders and the Project management Team.
B. The document that officially authorizes the Project Team to start the project.
Determining budget can be best described by which of the following? A. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project. B. The process of accumulating costs of individual activities to establish a cost baseline. C. The process of establishing budgets, standards, and a monitoring system by which the investment cost of the project can be measured and managed. D. The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, reporting, and managing the costs on an on-going basis.
B. The process of accumulating costs of individual activities to establish a cost baseline.
WBS is an abbreviation meaning: A. WBS TV. This is an ABC affiliated television station in Atlanta, GA. B. Work Breakdown Structure. C. Wilde Beast Sanctuary. D. Work Breakout Structure.
B. Work Breakdown Structure.
Raw observations and measurements taken during the performance of project activities are defined by PMI as _____________________? A. Work performance information. B. Work performance data. C. Work performance report. D. Work performance criteria.
B. Work performance data.
On a project the Project Manager should strive for a "Quality Level" that: A. is the highest level possible. B. is as close to the project objectives as possible. C. represents the least cost to the project. D. Exceeds the specified requirements of the project.
B. is as close to the project objectives as possible.
A risk is defined as ____________ event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project______________. A. indefinite, probabilities B. uncertain, objectives C. sure, goals D. definite, uncertainties
B. uncertain, objectives
A Project Manager needs five areas of expertise to be successful. Which one is not one of the five areas of expertise? A. Application area knowledge B. An understanding of the project environment. C. PMP or CAPM certification D. Interpersonal skills
C. PMP or CAPM certification
If a Project has a 60 percent chance of a US $100,000.00 profit and a 40 percent chance of a US $100,000.00 loss, the expected monetary value (EMV) for the Project is: A. $100,000.00 profit. B. $60,000.00 loss. C. $20,000.00 profit. D. $40,000.00 loss.
C. $20,000.00 profit.
Approximately what percentage of the Project Manager's time is spent in some form of communication, such as: conferences, meetings, writing memos, reading and preparing reports, and talking with project team members, upper management, and all other stalk holders? A. 10-20% B. 50-70% C. 75-90% D. 21-45%
C. 75-90%
Of the following, which statement is correct? A. A Project Manager must use every process identified within the PMBOK on every project. B. A project must use every tool and technique as identified within the PMBOK on every project. C. A Project Manager must use the most appropriate processes on every project. D. d. A Project Manager must agree that he will use the most appropriate tools and techniques on every project.
C. A Project Manager must use the most appropriate processes on every project.
A program is which one of the following? A. A very large, complex project. B. A collection of small projects with a common goal. C. A collection of projects with a common cause. D. A collection of subprojects with a common customer.
C. A collection of projects with a common cause.
What is the definition of Earned Value Management? A. The process that establishes the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, managing, expending and controlling project costs. B. The process of aggregating the estimated costs of the individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline. The key benefit of this process is that it determines the cost baseline against which project performance can be monitored and controlled. C. A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress. It is a commonly used method of performance measurement for projects. D. A methodology that combines scope and schedule measurements, but not cost to assess project performance and progress. It is a commonly used method of performance measurement for projects.
C. A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress. It is a commonly used method of performance measurement for projects.
What is a Project? A. Is repetitive in nature, follows an organization's existing procedures and has no beginning or end. B. A Project must always result in something tangible. C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or result. D. Plant workers at General Motors receive their July goal to produce 1200 new Volt automobiles this month, producing something tangible.
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or result.
A risk response strategy used under tool of Strategies for negative Risks or Threats through which the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs is called: A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Accept D. Avoid
C. Accept
You are the project manager of the KHGT Project, which will span four countries around the world. You will need to consider all of the following characteristics of the international and political environment except for which one? A. a. International, national, regional, and local laws B. Customs C. Customers D. Holidays
C. Customers
All of the following actions occur in the Direct and Manage Project Work process EXCEPT which of the following? A. Adapt approved changes into the project's plans. B. Collect and document lessons learned. C. Determine the project life cycle for the project. D. Staff, train, and manage project team members assigned to the project.
C. Determine the project life cycle for the project.
The strategy used under Strategies for Positive Risks or Opportunities that is used to increase the probability and/or the positive impacts of an opportunity is called? A. Share B. Accept C. Enhance D. Exploit
C. Enhance
A Project Manager's main responsibility in a project meant to create a product is: A. Ensuring it is high grade. B. To pack exciting features in the product. C. Ensuring it is high quality. D. Creating a product within allocated cost and schedule.
C. Ensuring it is high quality.
A Stakeholder's belief about or mental picture of the future is a (n): A. Requirement. B. Heuristic. C. Expectation D. Constraint.
C. Expectation
Which of the following must be included in a stakeholder register? A. Stakeholder's family history. B. Stakeholder's hobbies. C. Expectations for the project. D. Communication skills.
C. Expectations for the project.
If a risk event has a 90 percent chance of occurring, and the consequences will be US $ 10,000.00, what does US $9,000.00 represent? A. Risk value B. Present value C. Expected monetary value D. Contingency budget
C. Expected monetary value
A control chart shows seven data points in a row on one side of the mean. What should be done? A. Perform a design of experiments. B. Adjust the chart to reflect the new mean. C. Find an assignable cause. D. Nothing. This is the rule of seven and can be ignored.
C. Find an assignable cause.
Negotiations between two parties are becoming complex, so Party A makes some notes that both parties sign. However, when the work is being done, Party B claims they are not required to provide an item they both agreed to during negotiations, because it was not included in the subsequent contract. In this case, Party B is: A. Incorrect, because both parties must comply with what they agreed on. B. Correct, because there was an offer. C. Generally correct, because both parties are only required to perform what is in the contract. D. Generally incorrect, because all agreements must be upheld.
C. Generally correct, because both parties are only required to perform what is in the contract.
Which of the following is not a process in the Project Integration Management process group? A. Develop project charter B. Close project or phase C. Identify Project Manager D. Monitor and Control Project work
C. Identify Project Manager
Change Requests: A. Include workarounds. B. Can be formal or informal in nature. C. Include preventive actions and defect repairs. D. Often involve planning for workarounds.
C. Include preventive actions and defect repairs.
You provide a Project Cost estimate for the project to the project sponsor. He is unhappy with the estimate, because he thinks the price should be lower. He asks you to cut 15 percent off the project estimate. What should you do? (Please select which answer is the BEST given this scenario) A. Start the project and constantly look for cost savings. B. Tell all the Team Members to cut 15 percent from their estimates. C. Inform the Sponsor of the activities to be cut. D. Add additional resources with low hourly rates.
C. Inform the Sponsor of the activities to be cut.
Communication Management: A. Is important only in projects involving telephone, television, radio, or newspaper production facilities and operations. B. Is not a big problem for people with normal speech, sight and hearing. C. Involves the sender, the message, the medium and the receiver. D. Preparing an agenda.
C. Involves the sender, the message, the medium and the receiver.
Which form of power is the LEAST effective from the Project Manager's viewpoint in terms of influencing functional managers? A. Formal power B. Expert power C. Penalty power D. Referent power
C. Penalty power
Which of the following is the BEST description of the Validate Scope process? A. It provides assurances that the deliverable meets the specifications, is an input to the Project Management Plan and is an output of Control Quality. B. It ensures the deliverable is completed on time, ensures customer acceptance, and shows the deliverable meets specifications. C. It ensures customer acceptance, shows the deliverable meets specifications and provides a chance for difference of opinion to come to light. D. It is an output of Control Quality, occurs before Define Scope, and ensures customer acceptance.
C. It ensures customer acceptance, shows the deliverable meets specifications and provides a chance for difference of opinion to come to light.
What is the duration of a milestone? A. It is shorter than the duration of the longest activity. B. It is shorter than the activity that it represents. C. It has no duration. D. It is the same length as the activity it represents.
C. It has no duration.
You are in the process of identifying project risks. Why should you do this? A. It ensures that risk management is commensurate with the project's importance. B. It enables Project Managers to focus on high-priority risks. C. It provides the Project Team the ability to anticipate events. D. It allows the Project Manager to focus on the right groups of stakeholders.
C. It provides the Project Team the ability to anticipate events.
Which one of the following is the best way to manage stakeholders? A. Ensuring they don't get to meet outside of work. B. Meeting all of them when a milestone is ready. C. Keeping them informed throughout the project. D. Sending them gifts.
C. Keeping them informed throughout the project.
You are talking to the Contractor building your new home, who was very excited to find out that you are a Project manager. You have asked him why there has been no noticeable activity on the site over the last week. He just informed you that a week ago, the foundation slab was poured, and that it must cure for ten days before framing activity can begin. This predecessor-successor relationship attribute is known as: A. Lead. B. Mandatory. C. Lag. D. Fixed.
C. Lag.
Which of the following process would apply if you had to communicate with the project team members to understand their expectations from the outcome of their project? A. Manage Communications. B. Plan Stakeholder Management. C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement. D. Control Stakeholder Engagement.
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
You are in the process of monitoring your Project. This involves: A. Increasing stakeholder support and minimizing resistance. B. Managing communications. C. Measuring and analyzing project performance against the baseline. D. Coordinating the people and resources performing the work.
C. Measuring and analyzing project performance against the baseline.
The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the vehicle or method used to convey the message? A. Communicator B. Message C. Medium D. Recipient
C. Medium
You were in the middle of a two-year Project to deploy new technology to offices across the country. A hurricane caused power outages when the upgrade was almost completed. When power was restored, all of the project reports and historical data were lost with no way of retrieving them. What should have been done to prevent this problem? A. Purchase insurance. B. Plan for a reserve fund. C. Monitor the weather and have a contingency plan. D. Schedule the installation outside of the hurricane season.
C. Monitor the weather and have a contingency plan.
The Portfolio Manager from your division thought it might be helpful to the project teams if she delivered a short presentation on the elements in her portfolio. A number of team members, after receiving the e-mail announcement for the presentation, come to you and ask if this meeting is worth their time. After all isn't a portfolio just a big project? As a Senior Project Manager your best response would be: A. You're right. The meeting probably would be a waste of your time. B. Not really. A portfolio is a group of related projects managed together to achieve synergies between the projects and establish common methods and procedures. C. Not really. A portfolio can be a group of programs, projects, or sub-projects designed to help the organization meet specific business goals. D. Not really. A portfolio is a collection of documents, methods, and procedures that help us manage projects.
C. Not really. A portfolio can be a group of programs, projects, or sub-projects designed to help the organization meet specific business goals.
Which of the following is not a project? A. Running an election campaign for a political candidate. B. Building a bridge over a river. C. Piloting an aircraft for a United Airlines flight. D. Writing a book on Project Management.
C. Piloting an aircraft for a United Airlines flight.
What is the definition of Project Scope Management? A. In Project Management, it is the error of continuing to work on a project or task well past the point where the extra effort is worth the value it adds (if any). B. In a chemical research facility the person responsible for purchasing, maintaining and doing an inventory of the electron microscopes can be said to perform Scope Management. C. Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required and only the work required, to complete the Project successfully. D. The work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions.
C. Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required and only the work required, to complete the Project successfully.
The Project Manager has the most authority in the __________________ type of organization. A. Project expediter B. Matrix C. Projectized organization D. Functional
C. Projectized organization
The inputs used in the process of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis includes all EXCEPT? A. Scope Baseline B. Risk Register C. Quality Management Plan D. Risk Management Plan
C. Quality Management Plan
One key benefit of closing a project or phase is it: A. Identifies causes of poor processes and validates work meets stakeholder requirements. B. Brings objectivity to the customer acceptance process. C. Releases organizational resources to pursue other enterprise work. D. Documents agreements for future reference.
C. Releases organizational resources to pursue other enterprise work.
You are working on a Project that is projected to take 12 months to complete. The first three months of activity are very well defined at this point, but the rest of the work schedule looks very hazy to you. What activity definition technique might you use to your advantage in this situation? A. Joint Application Design. B. Progressive Elaboration. C. Rolling Wave Planning. D. Decomposition.
C. Rolling Wave Planning.
The key objective of stakeholder management is: A. Communication. B. Coordination. C. Satisfaction. D. Relationships.
C. Satisfaction.
The fixed price contract is advantageous to the buyer because it: A. Requires extremely well defined specifications. B. Requires formal procedures for scope changes. C. Seller assumes financial and technical risk. D. Has a known cost.
C. Seller assumes financial and technical risk.
The common tools and techniques used in both Plan Quality Management and Control Quality is: A. Cost-Benefit Analysis. B. Benchmarking. C. Seven Basic Quality Tools. D. Inspection.
C. Seven Basic Quality Tools.
During a meeting with some of the Project Stakeholders, the Project Manager is asked to add work to the project scope. The Project Manager had access to correspondence about the project before the Project Charter was signed and remembers that the Project Sponsor specifically denied funding for the scope mentioned by these stakeholders. The BEST thing for the Project Manager to do is: A. Let the Sponsor know of the Stakeholders' request. B. Evaluate the impact of adding the scope. C. Tell the Stakeholder that the scope cannot be added. D. Add the work if there is time available in the Project schedule.
C. Tell the Stakeholder that the scope cannot be added.
The Project team has been arguing about what should go into the Project Management plan. They've built the same product over a hundred times before and have always been bothered that the project management plan never seemed to get completed. They were determined to get it done right this time. The team has come to you for advice regarding the project management plan. The most appropriate response you can give them is: A. . Use project phase concepts; initiate, plan, execute, monitor & control, and close B. They need training in Project Management C. The 'Project' is really operations. D. Tell them to take direction from the PMO.
C. The 'Project' is really operations.
Who signs the Project Charter? A. An executive from the customer purchasing the services, which is then countersigned by an executive of the company providing the Project Management and services. B. Project Coordinator and the customer's legal representative. C. The Project Manager and the sponsor. D. d. The Project Manager and his Supervisor, usually a Program or Senior Program Manager.
C. The Project Manager and the sponsor.
Where will a Project Manager most likely get Project Management mentoring? A. Project Management International B. American Society For Quality C. The Project management Office D. Subject Matter experts
C. The Project management Office
A Project Manager may use _________ to make sure the team members clearly know what work is included in each of their work packages. A. The Project Scope statement. B. The product scope. C. The WBS Dictionary. D. The schedule.
C. The WBS Dictionary.
All of the following must be present to have a contract EXCEPT: A. A procurement statement of work. B. Acceptance. C. The address of the Seller. D. Buyer's signatures.
C. The address of the Seller.
To manage a Project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces. Which of the following does NOT describe how far to decompose the work? A. Until it has a meaningful conclusion. B. Until it cannot be logically subdivided further. C. Until it can be done by one person. D. Until it can be realistically estimated.
C. Until it can be done by one person.
The difference between a configuration management system and a change control system is? A. The configuration management system is part of the PMIS - the change control system is not. B. The change control system is part of the key PMIS - the configuration management system is not. C. The change control system feeds into the configuration management system and is part of the configuration management system. D. Both the change control system and a configuration management system are organizational process assets.
C. The change control system feeds into the configuration management system and is part of the configuration management system.
Quality is: A. Meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations. B. Adding extras to make the customer happy. C. The degree to which the Project meets requirements. D. Conformance to management's objectives.
C. The degree to which the Project meets requirements.
When considering the selection of projects to be initiated, Project Portfolio Management considers all of the following except for which one? A. Risk/Reward categories B. Lines of business C. The project manager's experience D. General types of Projects.
C. The project manager's experience
What is the correct classification of engagement levels according to the Stakeholders engagement assessment matrix? A. Neutral, Resistant, Unaware, Supportive, Leading. B. Unaware, Neutral, Resistant, Supportive, Leading. C. Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading. D. Leading, Supportive, Neutral, Resistant, Unaware.
C. Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading.
A Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of 0.76 means: A. You are over budget. B. You are ahead of schedule. C. You are progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned. D. You are progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned.
C. You are progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned.
The Project Cost Management Process comprises the following activities: A. Determine Budget B. Plan Cost Management C. Estimate Costs D. Control Costs What is the correct sequence? (You will be answering a, b, c or d from the below listed possible answers of the correct order of the 4 processes listed above. Please ask if there is any confusion.) A. a-b-c-d B. c-a-b-d C. b-c-a-d D. a-c-b-d
C. b-c-a-d
You are managing a Project in a just in time environment. This will require more attention, because the amount of inventory in such an environment is generally: A. 45 percent. B. 10 percent. C. 12 percent. D. 0 percent.
D. 0 percent.
For the following Project Human Resource Management Processes Plan Human Resource Management Develop Project Team Acquire Project Team Manage Project Team The correct sequence is: A. 1-2-3-4 B. 3-2-1-4 C. 2-1-3-4 D. 1-3-2-4
D. 1-3-2-4
You have a team consisting of 8 people; how many channels of communication are there? A. 22 B. 48 C. 16 D. 28
D. 28
The major type(s) of standard warranty used in the business environment is (are): A. Express. B. Implied C. Negotiated. D. A and B. E. A, B, and C.
D. A and B.
A manufacturing Project has a Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of 0.82 and a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.87. What is the BEST explanation for why this occurred? A. The scope was changed. B. A supplier went out of business and a new one needed to be found. C. Additional equipment needed to be purchased. D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete.
D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete.
A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of: A. ADM B. PDM C. A dependency with Lag. D. A dependency with Lead.
D. A dependency with Lead.
What is a deliverable? A. A Deliverable is anything that is shipped to your home or place of business by USPS or overnight delivery services. B. A deliverable is any requirements that contractually must be delivered by the customer or sponsor to the Project Management Team prior to the planning process of the Project beginning. C. Any items that are loaned or borrowed to or from the customer and Project Team during the course of the Project. These items must be returned to the other party prior to Project closure. D. A product, service or result.
D. A product, service or result.
The inputs used in the process of Conduct Procurements includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Seller Proposals. B. Procurement statement of work. C. Source Selection Criteria. D. Agreements.
D. Agreements.
You are in the process of executing the Project's work. You are : A. Formally completing the project. B. Planning responses to risk events. C. Measuring and analyzing Project performance. D. Coordinating people and resources.
D. Coordinating people and resources.
A control chart helps the Project manager: A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality. B. Focus on stimulating thinking. C. Explore a desired future outcome. D. Determine if a process is functioning within set limits.
D. Determine if a process is functioning within set limits.
Which process formally authorizes the project? A. Receive project approval. B. Identify Project Manager. C. Develop preliminary project statement. D. Develop project charter. E. Develop project management plan.
D. Develop project charter.
What is the BEST way to make an accurate forecasting of ETC? A. Manual Forecasting of cost of remaining work. B. BAC - EV C. (BAC - EV)/CPI D. EAC - AC
D. EAC - AC
The project charter accomplishes which of the following? A. Defines how the project is to be executed, monitored, controlled and closed. B. Establishes the Project Manager's ownership, as its sponsor. C. Authorizes the sponsor to run the project. D. Enables partnering of the performing and requesting organizations.
D. Enables partnering of the performing and requesting organizations.
`The team has completed all design work and is ready to start creating a product of the project. There are construction and IT elements in this project, and the project manager has leaned heavily on the subject matter experts in the organization for their technical expertise and know-how. You have determined that some of the work needs to be contracted to an external vendor who has the necessary expertise to deliver what is needed for the project. You are in the process of selecting a vendor. What process group are you in? A. Planning B. Initiating C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Executing
D. Executing
The Planning process group touches all ten of the key knowledge areas in that planning has to occur in each of these areas. Which of the following is not part of the planning process? A. Creating the WBS B. Develop the project management plan C. Estimate activity durations D. Identify stakeholders
D. Identify stakeholders
Which answer provides the BEST list of the 5 process groups outlined by PMI as defined in the PMBOK? A. Project Chartering, Kickoff, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. B. Planning, Kickoff, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. C. Initializing, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
The Project Management Information System (PMIS): A. Is the part of the organizational process assets providing access to tools. B. Does not include automated gathering methods. C. Is a component of the Project Management plan. D. Is the part of the enterprise environmental factors providing access to tools.
D. Is the part of the enterprise environmental factors providing access to tools.
In order to complete a Project successfully, the Team needs to: A. Limit risk identification to key Project subject matter experts. B. Use all of the processes in the PMBOK Guide. C. Share the stakeholder Register with all stakeholders. D. Maintain communication and engagement with stakeholders.
D. Maintain communication and engagement with stakeholders.
Progressive elaboration: A. Has no place in managing a Project, which is specific, unique and non-recurring. B. Is the process of dividing Project scope into smaller, more manageable parts. C. Is synonymous with Agile methodology. D. Means that increasing detail is iterative a more information becomes available.
D. Means that increasing detail is iterative a more information becomes available.
Validate Scope is part of what process group? A. Planning B. Executing C. Closing D. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Monitoring and Controlling
The Processes that provide the project team with insight into the health of the project and identifies any area requiring additional attention are performed in _______________. A. Planning B. Initiating C. Executing D. Monitoring and controlling
D. Monitoring and controlling
Stakeholders engagement assessment matrix is used to map: A. Current engagement level. B. Desired engagement level. C. Assured engagement level. D. Only A and B. E. A, B and C.
D. Only A and B.
The information used for the development of the human resource management plan includes all EXCEPT: A. The project life cycle B. A change management plan C. A configuration management plan D. Organizational Standard Processes
D. Organizational Standard Processes
You have just started a new position as a project manager with your new company. Upon starting your job you are informed by the line manager that all budgetary decisions rest with her and that all key project decisions will be her responsibility as well. Most likely, PMI would say you are functioning as a ______________? A. Resource Coordinator B. Project Manager C. Functional expediter D. Project Coordinator
D. Project Coordinator
Which of the following specifically describes a project or product attribute and how the control quality process will measure it? A. Quality Checklists. B. Process Improvement Plan. C. Quality Management Plan. D. Quality Metrics.
D. Quality Metrics.
You know that controlling scope is critical to your success as a Project Manager. What types of inputs would you want to have available to make you successful at this? A. Verified deliverables. B. Approved change requests. C. Expert judgement D. Requirements traceability matrix.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.
Information in the Stakeholder Register should be: A. Accessible only to the Project manager. B. Accessible to the Project manager and PMO staff. C. Available to all stakeholders and team members. D. Shared with others at the discretion of the Project manager.
D. Shared with others at the discretion of the Project manager.
You are just initiating a project for your organization. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the Initiating process? A. Risk is low but stakeholder influence is high. B. Staffing level is high while chance of success is low. C. Risk is high but the chances of success are also high. D. Stakeholder influence is high while costs are low.
D. Stakeholder influence is high while costs are low.
Expert power is the power that comes from the amount of knowledge a person has obtained in a specific area. This type of power is: A. Critical to a project manager because the PM has to have as much or more knowledge than any of the team members to make sure the project is completed successfully. B. Used by the PM to influence upper management and the critical stakeholders. C. Important if the project manager wants to maintain the respect of the project team. D. Used sparingly if at all by the PM because the PM is not required to be an expert apart from managing the project.
D. Used sparingly if at all by the PM because the PM is not required to be an expert apart from managing the project.
A ___________ is the lowest level of WBS components, where cost and duration can be estimated and managed. A. Major Deliverable. B. Phase of the Project life cycle. C. Sub-component or Minor deliverable. D. Work Package.
D. Work Package.
Methods of transmitting information include: A. Oral and written B. Non-verbal/ visual C. Telepathy D. only A and B E. A, B and C
D. only A and B
From a contract management perspective, the Project Manager must consider the: A. Acquisition process. B. Contract administration. C. Ecological environment. D. Offer, acceptance, and consideration. E. A and B.
E. A and B.
The primary components of the quality management function are: A. Plan Quality Management. B. Quality Assurance. C. quantitative measurement. D. quantitative assessment of the project. E. A and B.
E. A and B.
From an HR perspective, the Project Manager's responsibility in the planning role includes: A. Hiring the team B. Preparing org charts C. Developing Staffing management plan D. Feedback sessions E. Both b and c
E. Both b and c
Which contract type places the most risk on the seller? A. Cost plus percentage fee. B. Cost plus incentive fee. C. Cost plus fixed fee. D. Fixed price plus incentive fee. E. Firm fixed price.
E. Firm fixed price.
Truly effective communication: A. Depends on using multiple channels. B. Depends on selecting the right method for each message and avoiding duplication, since everyone is overloaded with information. C. Cannot depend solely on non-verbal signals which might be misunderstood. D. Can only be achieved by communications professional. E. a, b and c
E. a, b and c
What is a synonym for 'progressive elaboration'? A. Cyclical planning B. Quantitative elaboration PERT estimates Rolling wave planning
Rolling wave planning
