Oncology Questions
The nurse explains to a patient undergoing brachytherapy of the cervix that she a. must undergo simulation to locate the treatment area. b. requires the use of radioactive precautions during nursing care. c. may experience desquamation of the skin on the abdomen and upper legs. d. requires shielding of the ovaries during treatment to prevent ovarian damage.
B
Which factors would place a patient at higher risk for prostate cancer (select all that apply)? a. Older than 65 years b. Asian or Native American c. Long-term use of an indwelling urethral catheter d. Father diagnosed and treated for early stage prostate cancer e. Previous history of undescended testicle and testicular cancer
A, D
Nausea and vomiting is an expected side effect of chemotherapeutic drug use. Which of the following drugs should be administered to a patient on chemotherapy to prevent nausea and vomiting? a. Metoclopramide (Metozol) b. Succiner (Chemet) c. Anastrazole (Arimidex) d. Busulfan (Myleran)
A
The nurse is preparing Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Safe handling of this drug should be implemented to protect the nurse from injury. Which action by the nurse should be done? a. The nurse should wear nitrile gloves b. Air bubble should be expelled on wet cotton c. The label on the hanging IV bottle should read "ANTINEOPLASTIC CHEMOTHERAPY." d. The chemotherapy vials should be vented after mixing
A
A nurse is explaining tumor lysis syndrome to a new nurse orienting to the floor. Which of the following statements best describes this condition? A. Tumor lysis syndrome is the most common oncologic emergency and requires an immediate consult to a hepatologist. B. Tumor lysis syndrome occurs when the intracellular contents are released into circulation and cause kidney damage. C. Tumor lysis syndrome causes kidney damage due to hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypercalcemia and should be monitored closely. D. Tumor lysis syndrome is the most common type of emergency and should be managed by decreasing the patient's fluid intake.
B
In staging and grading neoplasms the TNM system is used. TNM stands for: a. Time, neoplasm, node growth b. Tumor, node, metastasis c. Tumor, neoplasm, node of growth d. Time, node, metastasis
B
The nurse receives an order for a patient with lung cancer to receive influenza vaccine and pneumococcal vaccines. The nurse will a. call the health care provider to question the order. b. administer both vaccines at the same time in different arms. c. administer the flu shot and tell the patient to come back 1 week later to receive the pneumococcal vaccine. d. administer the pneumococcal vaccine and suggest FluMist (nasal vaccine) instead of the influenza injection
B
To prevent fever and shivering during an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan), the nurse should premedicate the patient with a. aspirin. b. acetaminophen. c. sodium bicarbonate. d. meperidine (Demerol).
B
A patient with multiple myeloma becomes confused and lethargic. The nurse would expect that these clinical manifestations may be explained by diagnostic results that indicate a. hyperkalemia. b. hyperuricemia. c. hypercalcemia. d. CNS myeloma.
C
Nurse Janet is assigned on the oncology unit in the hospital. Which of the following orders should the nurse question if a patient is undergoing radiation therapy? a. Analgesics before meals b. Saline mouth rinses every 2 hours c. Aspirin every 4 hours d. Bland diet
C
The nurse is aware that a major difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is that a. Hodgkin's lymphoma occurs only in young adults. b. Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable. c. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can manifest in multiple organs. d. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is treated only with radiation therapy
C
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Which of the following values would require an intervention by the nurse ? A. Temp 100 degrees F B. Hgb 8.0 C. ANC 950 D. Platelet 12,000
C
A modi ed radical mastectomy has been scheduled for your patient with breast cancer. Postoperatively, to restore arm function on the affected side, you would a. apply heating pads or blankets to increase circulation. b. place daily ice packs to minimize the risk of lymphedema. c. teach passive exercises with the affected arm in a dependent position. d. emphasize regular exercises for the affected shoulder to increase range of motion.
D
A patient on chemotherapy for 10 weeks started at a weight of 121 lb. She now weighs 118 lb and has no sense of taste. Which nursing intervention would be a priority? a. Advise the patient to eat foods that are fatty, fried, or high in calories. b. Discuss with the physician the need for parenteral or enteral feedings. c. Advise the patient to drink a nutritional supplement beverage at least three times a day. d. Advise the patient to experiment with spices and seasonings to enhance the flavor of food.
D
A surgical procedure to treat breast cancer that involves removal of the entire breast, pectoralis major muscle, and the axillary nodes is: a. Simple mastectomy b. Modified radical mastectomy c. Halstead surgery d. Radical mastectomy
D
Because myelodysplastic syndrome arises from the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell in the bone marrow, laboratory results the nurse would expect to find include a(n) a. excess of T cells. b. excess of platelets. c. deficiency of granulocytes. d. deficiency of all cellular blood components.
D
Complications of transfusions that can be decreased by the use of leukocyte depletion or reduction of RBC transfusion are a. chills and hemolysis. b. leukostasis and neutrophilia. c. fluid overload and pulmonary edema. d. transmission of cytomegalovirus and fever.
D
The most effective method of administering a chemotherapy agent that is a vesicant is to a. give it orally. b. give it intraarterially. c. use an Ommaya reservoir. d. use a central venous access device
D
The nurse is providing education to a patient that is beginning radiation therapy for colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements by the patient regarding radiation toxicity should the nurse question? A. "I may notice difficult and painful swallowing about two weeks after therapy. I will make sure to stay hydrated and contact the doctor if I notice that I am coughing more while eating." B. "I may notice a chance in the way food tastes because taste buds are very sensitive after radiation. I will make sure to clean my mouth before eating and also drink tea or ginger ale to clear my taste buds." C. "I may develop sores in my mouth 2-3 weeks after my combination chemo and radiation therapy. I will need to use a soft toothbrush and rinse my mouth after meals with normal saline." D. "I may notice that my skin will develop a rash from the radiation. I will be sure to apply a thick cream to my skin before treatments to protect myself from radiation burns and promote healing."
D
The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasms is the a. rate of cell proliferation. b. site of malignant tumor. c. requirements for cell nutrients. d. characteristic of tissue invasiveness.
D
A 70-year-old male patient has multiple myeloma. His wife calls to report that he sleeps most of the day, is confused when awake, and complains of nausea and constipation. Which complication of cancer is this most likely caused by? a. Hypercalcemia b. Tumor lysis syndrome c. Spinal cord compression d. Superior vena cava syndrome
A
Previous administrations of chemotherapy agents to a cancer patient have resulted in diarrhea. Which dietary modification should the nurse recommend? A. A bland, low-fiber diet B. A high-protein, high-calorie diet C. A diet high in fresh fruits and vegetables D. A diet emphasizing whole and organic foods
A. A bland, low-fiber diet Patients experiencing diarrhea secondary to chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy often benefit from a diet low in seasonings and roughage before the treatment. Foods should be easy to digest and low in fat. Fresh fruits and vegetables are high in fiber and should be minimized during treatment. Whole and organic foods do not prevent diarrhea.
The laboratory reports that the cells from the patient's tumor biopsy are Grade II. What should the nurse know about this histologic grading? A. Cells are abnormal and moderately differentiated. B. Cells are very abnormal and poorly differentiated. C. Cells are immature, primitive, and undifferentiated. D. Cells differ slightly from normal cells and are well-differentiated.
A. Cells are abnormal and moderately differentiated. Grade II cells are more abnormal than Grade I and moderately differentiated. Grade I cells differ slightly from normal cells and are well-differentiated. Grade III cells are very abnormal and poorly differentiated. Grade IV cells are immature, primitive, and undifferentiated; the cell origin is difficult to determine.
The home health nurse cares for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment? a. "I have frequent muscle aches and pains." b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." c. "I experience chills after I inject the interferon." d. "I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours."
ANS: B Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of biologic therapies. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use acetaminophen every 4 hours.
A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the patient the prescribed PRN opioid. b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Teach the patient how to use relaxation to reduce pain.
ANS: B Spinal cord compression, an oncologic emergency, can occur with invasion of tumor into the epidural space. The nurse will need to assess the patient further for symptoms such as decreased leg sensation and strength and then notify the health care provider. Administration of opioids or use of relaxation may be appropriate but only after the nurse has assessed for possible spinal cord compression.
The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. c. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter. d. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.
ANS: B Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication generally should be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapeutic drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices (CVADs) are preferred.
The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 35-year-old patient who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation b. 42-year-old patient who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer c. 24-year-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck d. 56-year-old patient who developed a new pericardial friction rub after chest radiation
ANS: C Because neck bleeding may indicate possible carotid artery rupture in a patient who is receiving radiation to the neck, this patient should be seen first. The diagnoses and clinical manifestations for the other patients are not immediately life threatening.
The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 32% b. Pain with deep inspiration c. Serum sodium 126 mEq/L d. Decreased breath sounds on left side
ANS: C Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (and the resulting hyponatremia) is an oncologic metabolic emergency and will require rapid treatment in order to prevent complications such as seizures and coma. The other findings also require intervention, but are common in patients with lung cancer and not immediately life threatening.
A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate? a. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. b. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy. c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. Give the patient two ounces of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments.
ANS: C Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help prevent nausea. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea. The acidity of citrus fruits may be further irritating to the stomach.
A patient with a large stomach tumor that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure? a. Pain will be relieved by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. b. Relief of pressure in the stomach will promote better nutrition. c. Tumor growth will be controlled by the removal of malignant tissue. d. Tumor size will decrease and this will improve the effects of other therapy.
ANS: D A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs.
A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, "My husband rarely visits. He just doesn't care." The husband indicates to the nurse that he never knows what to say to help his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care? a. Compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle b. Impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes c. Risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members
ANS: D The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest a change in lifestyle or its role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities.
A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. Remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. Use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. Gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.
ANS: D The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended.
Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration? a. Teach the patient to rest the brain by avoiding new activities. b. Teach that "chemo-brain" is a short-term effect of chemotherapy. c. Report patient symptoms immediately to the health care provider. d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.
ANS: D Use of tools to enhance memory and concentration such as a daily planner and adequate rest are helpful for patients who develop "chemo-brain" while receiving chemotherapy. Patients should be encouraged to exercise the brain through new activities. Chemo-brain may be short- or long-term. There is no urgent need to report common chemotherapy side effects to the provider.
A 68-year-old female patient is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. The nurse identifies which priority as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care? a. Monitoring temperature b. Ambulating 3 times daily c. Monitoring the platelet count d. Monitoring for pathological fractures
C
A patient on chemotherapy and radiation for head and neck cancer has a WBC count of 1.9 × 103/μL, hemoglobin of 10.8 g/ dL, and a platelet count of 99 × 103/μL. Based on the CBC results, what is the most serious clinical finding? a. Cough, rhinitis, and sore throat b. Fatigue, nausea, and skin redness at site of radiation c. Temperature of 101.9° F, fatigue, and shortness of breath d. Skin redness at site of radiation, headache, and constipation
C
Preoperatively, to meet the psychologic needs of a woman scheduled for a modified radical mastectomy, you would a. discuss the limitations of breast reconstruction. b. include her significant other in all conversations. c. promote an environment for expression of feelings. d. explain the importance of regular follow-up screening.
C
The nurse counsels the patient receiving radiation therapy or chemotherapy that a. effective birth control methods should be used for the rest of the patient's life. b. if nausea and vomiting occur during treatment, the treatment plan will be modified. c. after successful treatment, a return to the person's previous functional level can be expected. d. the cycle of fatigue-depression-fatigue that may occur during treatment can be reduced by restricting activity
C
You are a community health nurse planning a program on breast cancer screening guidelines for women in the neighborhood. To best promote the participants' learning and adherence, you would include (select all that apply) a. a short audiotape on the BSE procedure. b. a packet of articles from the medical literature. c. written guidelines for mammography and CBE. d. a discussion of the value of early breast cancer detection. e. community resources where they can obtain an ultrasound and MRI
C, D
The patient with breast cancer is having teletherapy radiation treatments after her surgery. What should the nurse teach the patient about the care of her skin? A. Use Dial soap to feel clean and fresh. B. Scented lotion can be used on the area. C. Avoid heat and cold to the treatment area. D. Wear the new bra to comfort and support the area.
C. Avoid heat and cold to the treatment area. Avoiding heat and cold in the treatment area will protect it. Only mild soap and unscented, nonmedicated lotions may be used to prevent skin damage. The patient will want to avoid wearing tight-fitting clothing such as a bra over the treatment field and will want to expose the area to air as often as possible.
Which cellular dysfunction in the process of cancer development allows defective cell proliferation? A. Proto-oncogenes B. Cell differentiation C. Dynamic equilibrium D. Activation of oncogenes
C. Dynamic equilibrium Dynamic equilibrium is the regulation of proliferation that usually only occurs to equal cell degeneration or death or when the body has a physiologic need for more cells. Cell differentiation is the orderly process that progresses a cell from a state of immaturity to a state of differentiated maturity. Mutations that alter the expression of proto-oncogenes can activate them to function as oncogenes, which are tumor-inducing genes and alter their differentiation.
The nurse is caring for a 59-year-old woman who had surgery 1 day ago for removal of a suspected malignant abdominal mass. The patient is awaiting the pathology report. She is tearful and says that she is scared to die. The most effective nursing intervention at this point is to use this opportunity to a. motivate change in an unhealthy lifestyle. b. teach her about the seven warning signs of cancer. c. instruct her about healthy stress relief and coping practices. d. allow her to communicate about the meaning of this experience.
D
Trends in the incidence and death rates of cancer include the fact that a. lung cancer is the most common type of cancer in men. b. a higher percentage of women than men have lung cancer. c. breast cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in women. d. African Americans have a higher death rate from cancer than whites.
D
A patient has recently been diagnosed with early stages of breast cancer. What is most appropriate for the nurse to focus on? a. Maintaining the patient's hope b. Preparing a will and advance directives c. Discussing replacement child care for the patient's children d. Discussing the patient's past experiences with her grandmother's cancer
A
A patient scheduled for a prostatectomy for prostate cancer expresses the fear that he will have erectile dysfunction. In responding to this patient, the nurse should keep in mind that a. erectile dysfunction can occur even with a nerve-sparing procedure. b. retrograde ejaculation affects sexual function more frequently than erectile dysfunction. c. the most common complication of this surgery is postoperative bowel incontinence. d. preoperative sexual function is the most important factor in determining postoperative erectile dysfunction.
A
The nurse assesses a 76-year-old man with chronic myeloid leukemia receiving nilotinib (Tasigna). It is most important for the nurse to ask which question? A. "Have you had a fever?" B. "Have you lost any weight?" C. "Has diarrhea been a problem?" D. "Have you noticed any hair loss?"
A. "Have you had a fever?" An adverse effect of nilotinib is neutropenia. Infection is common in neutropenic patients and is the primary cause of death in cancer patients. Patients should report a temperature of 100.4o F or higher. Other adverse effects of nilotinib are thrombocytopenia, bleeding, nausea, fatigue, elevated lipase level, fever, rash, pruritus, diarrhea, and pneumonia.
The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit of 30% b. Platelets of 95,000/µL c. Hemoglobin of 10 g/L d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2700/µL
ANS: D The low WBC count places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that WBC growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. Although the other laboratory data indicate decreased levels, they do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy.
A 68-year-old patient is diagnosed with breast cancer. The tumor is 8 cm with axillary and neck lymph node involvement. The client is in what stage of breast cancer? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV
C
The goals of cancer treatment are based on the principle that a. surgery is the single most effective treatment for cancer. b. initial treatment is always directed toward cure of the cancer. c. a combination of treatment modalities is effective for controlling many cancers. d. although cancer cure is rare, quality of life can be increased with treatment modalities.
C
The patient has osteosarcoma of the right leg. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that the patient's vital signs are normal, but the patient says he still has pain in his leg and it is getting worse. What assessment question should the nurse ask the patient to determine treatment measures for this patient's pain? A. "Where is the pain?" B. "Is the pain getting worse?" C. "What does the pain feel like?" D. "Do you use medications to relieve the pain?"
C. "What does the pain feel like?" The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) told the nurse the location of the patient's pain and the worsening of pain (pattern). Asking about the quality of the pain will help in planning further treatment. The nurse should already know if the patient is using medication to relieve the pain or can check the patient's medication administration record to see if analgesics have been administered. The intensity of pain using a pain scale should also be assessed.
A 33-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with stage II cervical cancer. What should the nurse understand about the patient's cancer? A. It is in situ. B. It has metastasized. C. It has spread locally. D. It has spread extensively.
C. It has spread locally. Stage II cancer is associated with limited local spread. Stage 0 denotes cancer in situ; stage I denotes tumor limited to the tissue of origin with localized tumor growth. Stage III denotes extensive local and regional spread. Stage IV denotes metastasis.
A 72-year-old female patient diagnosed with multiple myeloma asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response based on which description of this disorder? a. Altered RBC production b. Altered function in the lymph nodes c. Malignant exacerbation in the number of lymphocytes d. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells in the bones
D
A characteristic of the stage of progression in the development of cancer is a. oncogenic viral transformation of target cells. b. a reversible steady growth facilitated by carcinogens. c. a period of latency before clinical detection of cancer. d. proliferation of cancer cells in spite of host control mechanisms.
D
A male client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect to note specifically in the client? a. Fatigue b. Weakness c. Weight gain d. Enlarged lymph nodes
D
The patient is being treated with brachytherapy for cervical cancer. What factors must the nurse be aware of to protect herself when caring for this patient? A. The medications the patient is taking B. The nutritional supplements that will help the patient C. How much time is needed to provide the patient's care D. The time the nurse spends at what distance from the patient
D. The time the nurse spends at what distance from the patient The principles of ALARA (as low as reasonably achievable) and time, distance, and shielding are essential to maintain the nurse's safety when the patient is a source of internal radiation. The patient's medications, nutritional supplements, and time needed to complete care will not protect the nurse caring for a patient with brachytherapy for cervical cancer.
The most common type of leukemia in older adults is a. acute myelocytic leukemia. b. acute lymphocytic leukemia. c. chronic myelocytic leukemia. d. chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
D
The primary protective role of the immune system related to malignant cells is a. surveillance for cells with tumor-associated antigens. b. binding with free antigen released by malignant cells. c. production of blocking factors that immobilize cancer cells. d. responding to a new set of antigenic determinants on cancer cells.
A
When discussing risk factors for breast cancer with a group of women, you emphasize that the greatest known risk factor for breast cancer is a. being a woman over age 60. b. experiencing menstruation for 30 years or more. c. using hormone therapy for 5 years for menopausal symptoms. d. having a paternal grandmother with postmenopausal breast cancer.
A
A patient with breast cancer has a lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection that is positive for cancer. You explain that, of the other tests done to determine the risk for cancer recurrence or spread, the results that support the more favorable prognosis are (select all that apply) a. well-differentiated tumor. b. estrogen receptor-positive tumor. c. overexpression of HER-2 cell marker. d. involvement of two to four axillary nodes. e. aneuploidy status from cell proliferation studies.
A, B
What features of cancer cells distinguish them from normal cells (select all that apply)? a. Cells lack contact inhibition. b. Cells return to a previous undifferentiated state. c. Oncogenes maintain normal cell expression. d. Proliferation occurs when there is a need for more cells. e. New proteins characteristic of embryonic stage emerge on cell membrane.
A, B, E
A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective? a. "I can buy some aloe vera gel to use on the area." b. "I will expose the treatment area to a sun lamp daily." c. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching in the treatment area." d. "I will scrub the area with warm water to remove the scales."
ANS: A Aloe vera gel and cream may be used on the radiated skin area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury.
A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." b. "The cancer cells look almost like normal cells." c. "Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer." d. "It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer."
ANS: A Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the purpose of this therapy to the patient? a. IL-2 enhances the immunologic response to tumor cells. b. IL-2 stimulates malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis. c. IL-2 prevents the bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy. d. IL-2 protects normal cells from the harmful effects of chemotherapy.
ANS: A IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient's own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression.
The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Temperature 100.2° F (37.9° C) c. Shivering and complaint of chills d. Generalized muscle aches and pains
ANS: A Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications
The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching? a. The patient swims a mile 3 days a week. b. The patient snacks frequently during the day. c. The patient showers everyday with a mild soap. d. The patient has a history of dental caries with amalgam fillings.
ANS: A The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation.
When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The UAP adds baking soda to the patient's saline oral rinses. c. The UAP puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient's toothbrush. d. The UAP has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.
ANS: A Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient.
The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine 2 or 3 times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening
ANS: A, C, D, E The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and/or teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy.
A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work done.
ANS: A, C, E Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 | eTable 16-16 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention? a. The UAP flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. b. The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. c. The UAP places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. d. The UAP gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash to use for oral care.
ANS: B Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine/feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated.
A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates several times a day in the room. b. The patient's visitors bring in some fresh peaches from home. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.
ANS: B Fresh, thinned-skin fruits are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help prevent skin breakdown and infection.
A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to maintain the patient's self-esteem? a. Tell the patient to limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. b. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins. c. Teach the patient to gently wash hair with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once the chemotherapy is complete.
ANS: B The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicle and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem.
The nurse should include which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fresh fruit salad b. Roasted chicken c. Whole wheat toast d. Cream of potato soup
ANS: B To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided.
A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Minimize activity until the treatment is completed. b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. c. Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. d. Arrange for delivery of a hospital bed to the patient's home.
ANS: B Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Having a hospital bed does not necessarily address the fatigue. The better option is to stay as active as possible while combating fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Minimizing activity may lead to weakness and other complications of immobility.
The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Lime sherbet b. Blueberry yogurt c. Cream cheese bagel d. Fresh strawberries and bananas
ANS: B Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Lime sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. Cream cheese is low in protein.
During a routine health examination, a 40-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. b. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood. c. Obtain more information from the patient about the family history. d. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient
ANS: C The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning.
The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "The biopsy will remove the cancer in my prostate gland." b. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." c. "The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate." d. "The biopsy will indicate whether the cancer has spread to other organs."
ANS: C A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant, and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. A biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life.
A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective? a. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale). b. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness. c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. d. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.
ANS: C For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics also may be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route, and usually the oral route is preferred.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with stage I cancer of the colon. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" b. "Do you have any concerns about body image changes?" c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" d. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?"
ANS: C Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time
External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation? a. Test all stools for the presence of blood. b. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet. c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. d. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.
ANS: C Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Careful cleaning of this area will help decrease the risk for skin breakdown and infection. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.
The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes 2 packs/day. To reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer, which action by the nurse is best? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Discuss the risks associated with cigarettes during every patient encounter. d. Teach the patient about the use of annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening.
ANS: C Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. A tumor must be at least 0.5 cm large before it is detectable by current screening methods and may already have metastasized by that time. Oncofetal antigens such as CEA may be used to monitor therapy or detect tumor reoccurrence, but are not helpful in screening for cancer. The seven warning signs of cancer are actually associated with fairly advanced disease
After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has a platelet count of 82,000/µL after chemotherapy b. Patient who has xerostomia after receiving head and neck radiation c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C) d. Patient who is worried about getting the prescribed long-acting opioid on time
ANS: C Temperature elevation is an emergency in neutropenic patients because of the risk for rapid progression to severe infections and sepsis. The other patients also require assessments or interventions, but do not need to be assessed as urgently. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not have spontaneous bleeding until the platelets are 20,000/µL. Xerostomia does not require immediate intervention. Although breakthrough pain needs to be addressed rapidly, the patient does not appear to have breakthrough pain.
A patient who is scheduled for a right breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." b. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." d. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells."
ANS: C The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur.
During a routine health examination, a 40-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. b. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood. c. Obtain more information from the patient about the family history. d. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient.
ANS: C The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning.
During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia the patient is restless and is looking away, never making eye contact. After teaching about the complications associated with chemotherapy, the patient asks the nurse to repeat all of the information. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy b. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system c. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to anxiety about new leukemia diagnosis d. Deficient knowledge: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment
ANS: C The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient's history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors.
A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Add strained baby meats to foods such as casseroles. b. Teach the patient about foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add extra spice to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.
ANS: C The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding baby meats to foods will increase calorie and protein levels, but does not address the issue of taste. The patient's poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition
The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in therapy with the health care provider? a. Poor oral intake b. Frequent loose stools c. Complaints of nausea and vomiting d. Increase in carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
ANS: D An increase in CEA indicates that the chemotherapy is not effective for the patient's cancer and may need to be modified. The other patient findings are common adverse effects of chemotherapy. The nurse may need to address these, but they would not necessarily indicate a need for a change in therapy.
A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply the ordered anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.
ANS: D Because the etiology of the patient's poor nutrition is the painful oral ulcers, the best intervention is to apply anesthetic gel to the lesions before the patient eats. The other actions might be helpful for other patients with impaired nutrition, but would not be as helpful for this patient.
The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches b. Complaints of nausea and anorexia c. Oral temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) d. Crackles heard at the lower scapular border
ANS: D Capillary leak syndrome and acute pulmonary edema are possible toxic effects of interleukin-2. The patient may need oxygen and the nurse should rapidly notify the health care provider. The other findings are common side effects of interleukin-2.
An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hour in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient needs to void every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has audible crackles to the midline posterior chest.
ANS: D Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer and/or are receiving chemotherapy
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea b. Alopecia c. Mucositis d. Hematuria
ANS: D The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy.
A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patient's teaching plan? a. Transplant of the donated cells is painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone. b. Donor bone marrow cells are transplanted through an incision into the sternum or hip bone. c. The transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection. d. Hospitalization will be required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant procedure is performed.
ANS: D The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line, so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room or incision required.
The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "The cancer will be cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." c. "Cancer is never considered cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation." d. "I will need to have follow-up examinations for many years after I have treatment before I can be considered cured."
ANS: D The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer. Some cancers are considered cured after a shorter time span or after surgery, but stage III breast cancer will require additional therapies and ongoing follow-up.
What can the nurse do to facilitate cancer prevention for the patient in the promotion stage of cancer development? A. Teach the patient to exercise daily. B. Teach the patient promoting factors to avoid. C. Tell the patient to have the cancer surgically removed now. D. Teach the patient which vitamins will improve the immune system.
B. Teach the patient promoting factors to avoid. The promotion stage of cancer is characterized by the reversible proliferation of the altered cells. Changing the lifestyle to avoid promoting factors (dietary fat, obesity, cigarette smoking, and alcohol consumption) can reduce the chance of cancer development. Daily exercise and vitamins alone will not prevent cancer. Surgery at this stage may not be possible without a critical mass of cells, and this advice would not be the nurse's role.
A patient with stage I colorectal cancer is scheduled for surgery. Patient teaching for this patient would include an explanation that a. chemotherapy will begin after the patient recovers from the surgery. b. both chemotherapy and radiation can be used as palliative treatments. c. follow-up colonoscopies will be needed to ensure that the cancer does not recur. d. a wound, ostomy, and continence nurse will visit the patient to identify an abdominal site for the ostomy.
C
Skin reactions are common in radiation therapy. Nursing responsibilities in promoting skin integrity include all of the following except: a. Avoiding ointments, lotions, and powders to the area b. Using soft cotton clothing c. Washing the area with a mild astringent and water; patting it dry, not rubbing it d. Avoiding direct sunshine or cold
C
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving an initial dose of chemotherapy to treat a rapidly growing metastatic colon cancer. The nurse is aware that this patient is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) and will monitor the patient closely for which abnormality associated with this oncologic emergency? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypouricemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypophosphatemia
C. Hypocalcemia TLS is a metabolic complication characterized by rapid release of intracellular components in response to chemotherapy. This can rapidly lead to acute renal injury. The hallmark signs of TLS are hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, and hypocalcemia.
Multiple drugs are often used in combinations to treat leukemia and lymphoma because a. there are fewer toxic and side effects. b. the chance that one drug will be effective is increased. c. the drugs are more effective without causing side effects. d. the drugs work by different mechanisms to maximize killing of malignant cells.
D
The nurse is unable to flush a central venous access device and suspects occlusion. The best nursing intervention would be to a. apply warm moist compresses to the insertion site. b. attempt to force 10 mL of normal saline into the device. c. place the patient on the left side with head-down position. d. instruct the patient to change positions, raise arm, and cough.
D
Which item would be most beneficial when providing oral care to a patient with metastatic cancer who is at risk for oral tissue injury secondary to chemotherapy? A. Firm-bristle toothbrush B. Hydrogen peroxide rinse C. Alcohol-based mouthwash D. 1 tsp salt in 1 L water mouth rinse
D. 1 tsp salt in 1 L water mouth rinse A salt-water mouth rinse will not cause further irritation to oral tissue that is fragile because of mucositis, which is a side effect of chemotherapy. A soft-bristle toothbrush will be used. One teaspoon of sodium bicarbonate may be added to the salt-water solution to decrease odor, alleviate pain, and dissolve mucin. Hydrogen peroxide and alcohol-based mouthwash are not used because they would damage the oral tissue.
The patient and his family are upset that the patient is going through procedures to diagnose cancer. What nursing actions should the nurse use first to facilitate their coping with this situation (select all that apply)? A. Maintain hope. B. Exhibit a caring attitude. C. Plan realistic long-term goals. D. Give them antianxiety medications. E. Be available to listen to fears and concerns. F. Teach them about all the types of cancer that could be diagnosed.
A. Maintain hope. B. Exhibit a caring attitude. E. Be available to listen to fears and concerns. Maintaining hope, exhibiting a caring attitude, and being available to actively listen to fears and concerns would be the first nursing interventions to use as well as assessing factors affecting coping during the diagnostic period. Providing relief from distressing symptoms for the patient and teaching them about the diagnostic procedures would also be important. Realistic long-term goals and teaching about the type of cancer cannot be done until the cancer is diagnosed. Giving the family antianxiety medications would not be appropriate.
A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?" b. "I'm sure you have friends that will take the children when you can't care for them." c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well and not worrying about your children." d. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is still time to plan for your children."
ANS: A This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's friends will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans.
The nurse is teaching a wellness class to a group of women at their workplace. The nurse knows that which woman is at highest risk for developing cancer? A. A woman who obtains regular cancer screenings and consumes a high-fiber diet B. A woman who has a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 and smoked cigarettes for 20 years C. A woman who exercises five times every week and does not consume alcoholic beverages D. A woman who limits fat consumption and has regular mammography and Pap screenings
B. A woman who has a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 and smoked cigarettes for 20 years Cancer prevention and early detection are associated with the following behaviors: limited alcohol use; regular physical activity; maintaining a normal body weight; obtaining regular cancer screenings; avoiding cigarette smoking and other tobacco use; using sunscreen with SPF 15 or higher; and practicing healthy dietary habits (e.g., reduced fat and increased fruits and vegetables).
The female patient is having whole brain radiation for brain metastasis. She is concerned about how she will look when she loses her hair. What is the best response by the nurse to this patient? A. "When your hair grows back it will be patchy." B. "Don't use your curling iron and that will slow down the loss." C. "You can get a wig now to match your hair so you will not look different." D. "You should contact "Look Good, Feel Better" to figure out what to do about this."
C. "You can get a wig now to match your hair so you will not look different." Hair loss with radiation is usually permanent. The best response by the nurse is to suggest getting a wig before she loses her hair so she will not look or feel so different. When hair grows back after chemotherapy, it is frequently a different color or texture. Avoiding use of electric hair dryers, curlers, and curling irons may slow the hair loss but will not answer the patient's concern. The American Cancer Society's "Look Good, Feel Better" program will be helpful, but this response is avoiding the patient's immediate concern.
The patient was told that he would have intraperitoneal chemotherapy. He asks the nurse when the IV will be started for the chemotherapy. What should the nurse teach the patient about this type of chemotherapy delivery? A. It is delivered via an Ommaya reservoir and extension catheter. B. It is instilled in the bladder via a urinary catheter and retained for 1 to 3 hours. C. A Silastic catheter will be percutaneously placed into the peritoneal cavity for chemotherapy administration. D. The arteries supplying the tumor are accessed with surgical placement of a catheter connected to an infusion pump.
C. A Silastic catheter will be percutaneously placed into the peritoneal cavity for chemotherapy administration. Intraperitoneal chemotherapy is delivered to the peritoneal cavity via a temporary percutaneously inserted Silastic catheter and drained from this catheter after the dwell time in the peritoneum. The Ommaya reservoir is used for intraventricular chemotherapy. Intravesical bladder chemotherapy is delivered via a urinary catheter. Intraarterial chemotherapy is delivered via a surgically placed catheter that delivers chemotherapy via an external or internal infusion pump.
The patient is told that the adenoma tumor is not encapsulated but has normally differentiated cells and that surgery will be needed. The patient asks the nurse what this means. What should the nurse tell the patient? A. It will recur. B. It has metastasized. C. It is probably benign. D. It is probably malignant.
C. It is probably benign. Benign tumors usually are encapsulated and have normally differentiated cells. They do not metastasize and rarely recur as malignant tumors do.
A 64-year-old male patient who is receiving radiation to the head and neck as treatment for an invasive malignant tumor complains of mouth sores and pain. Which intervention should the nurse add to this patient's plan of care? A. Weigh the patient every month to monitor for weight loss. B. Cleanse the mouth every 2 to 4 hours with hydrogen peroxide. C. Provide high-protein and high-calorie, soft foods every 2 hours. D. Apply palifermin (Kepivance) liberally to the affected oral mucosa.
C. Provide high-protein and high-calorie, soft foods every 2 hours. A patient with stomatitis should have soft, nonirritating foods offered frequently. The diet should be high in protein and high in calories. Saline or water should be used to cleanse the mouth (not hydrogen peroxide). Palifermin is administered intravenously as a growth factor to stimulate cells on the surface layer of the mouth to grow. Patients should be weighed at least twice each week to monitor for weight loss.
The nurse is caring for an 18-year-old female patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is scheduled to receive hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a correct understanding of the procedure? A. "After the transplant I will feel better and can go home in 5 to 7 days." B. "I understand the transplant procedure has no dangerous side effects." C. "My brother will be a 100% match for the cells used during the transplant." D. "Before the transplant I will have chemotherapy and possibly full body radiation."
D. "Before the transplant I will have chemotherapy and possibly full body radiation." Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) requires eradication of diseased or cancer cells. This is accomplished by administering higher-than-usual dosages of chemotherapy with or without radiation therapy. A relative such as a brother would not be a perfect match with human leukocyte antigens; only identical twins are an exact match. HSCT is an intensive procedure with adverse effects and possible death. HSCT recipients can expect a 2- to 4-week hospitalization after the transplant.
The nurse is caring for a patient suffering from anorexia secondary to chemotherapy. Which strategy would be most appropriate for the nurse to use to increase the patient's nutritional intake? A. Increase intake of liquids at mealtime to stimulate the appetite. B. Serve three large meals per day plus snacks between each meal. C. Avoid the use of liquid protein supplements to encourage eating at mealtime. D. Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods.
D. Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods. The nurse can increase the nutritional density of foods by adding items high in protein and/or calories (such as peanut butter, skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or brown sugar) to foods the patient will eat. Increasing fluid intake at mealtime fills the stomach with fluid and decreases the desire to eat. Small frequent meals are best tolerated. Supplements can be helpful.
A patient has been diagnosed with Burkitt's lymphoma. In the initiation stage of cancer, the cells genetic structure is mutated. Exposure to what may have functioned as a carcinogen for this patient? A. Bacteria B. Sun exposure C. Most chemicals D. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Epstein-Barr virus Burkitt's lymphoma consistently shows evidence of the presence of Epstein-Barr virus in vitro. Bacteria do not initiate cancer. Sun exposure causes cell alterations leading to melanoma and squamous and basal cell skin carcinoma. Long-term exposure to certain chemicals (e.g., ethylene oxide, chloroform, benzene) is known to initiate cancer.
Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient experiencing myelosuppression secondary to chemotherapy for cancer treatment? A. Acute pain B. Hypothermia C. Powerlessness D. Risk for infection
D. Risk for infection Myelosuppression is accompanied by a high risk of infection and sepsis. Hypothermia, powerlessness, and acute pain are also possible nursing diagnoses for patients undergoing chemotherapy, but the threat of infection is paramount.
A 70-year-old man who has end-stage lung cancer is admitted to the hospital with confusion and oliguria for 2 days. Which finding would the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? A. Weight gain of 2 lb B. Urine specific gravity of 1.015 C. Blood urea nitrogen of 20 mg/dL D. Serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L
D. Serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L Lung cancer cells are able to manufacture and release antidiuretic hormone (ADH) with resultant water retention and hyponatremia. Hyponatremia (serum sodium levels less than 135 mEq/L) may lead to central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, seizures, coma, and death. A weight gain may be due to fluid retention. The urine specific gravity and blood urea nitrogen are normal.
