Order Entry and Processing Part F

What relationship code would be used to identify the cardholder's spouse covered under a prescription drug plan? a. 01 b. 02 c. 03 d. 04

02 * 01 refers to cardholder; 03 and 04 refers to cardholder's dependents based on chronological order (oldest to youngest)

1500 mL TPN solution is given IV at 75 mL/hr using an administration set with a drop factor of 20 gtt/mL. If the infusion starts at 0900 hours, when will it end? a. 0500 hr on the next day b. 1500 hr that same day c. 0000 hr on the next day d. 1300 hr on that same day

0500 hr on the next day

What period of time is a prescription for a noncontrolled medication with prn refills valid? a. 1 year from the date the prescription was written b. 1 year from the date the prescription was filled c. 1 year from the date the prescription was picked up by the patient d. 6 months from the date the prescription was written

1 year from the date the prescription was written

You are asked to prepare 50 mL of 1:100 rifampin suspension, and you have in stock 1:20 rifampin suspension. How many milliliters of the 1:20 suspension will you need? a. 10 mL b. 5 mL c. 15 mL d. 20 mL

10 mL

How many milliliters of a 2.5% (w/v) chlorpromazine hydrochloride injection and how many milliliters of a 0.9% (w/v) sodium chloride injection should be used to prepare 500 mL of a 1.25% (w/v) chlorpromazine hydrochloride injection? a. 2.5%=109 mL; 0.9%=391 mL b. 2.5%=110 mL; 0.9%=391 mL c. 2.5%=109 mL; 0.9%=390 mL d. 2.5%=109 mL; 0.9%=392 mL

2.5%= 109 mL 0.9%=391 mL

How much 10% dextrose solution and 20% dextrose solution should be mixed to prepare 1 L of a 12.5% dextrose solution? a. 20%=250 mL; 10%=725 mL b. 20%=300 mL; 10%=750 mL c. 20%=250 mL; 10%=775 mL d. 20% 250 mL; 10%=750 mL

20%= 250 mL 10%=750 mL

Prepare 300 mL of 7.5% dextrose using SWFI and D20W. How much of each is needed? a. 20%=112.5 mL; SWFI= 187.25 mL b. 20%=112.0 mL; SWFI=187.5 mL c. 20%=112.5 mL; SWFI= 187.5 mL d. 20%=112.60 mL; SWFI=187.5 mL

20%=112.5 mL SWFI= 187.5 mL

An initial heparin dose of not less than 150 units/ kg of body weight has been recommended for open heart surgery. How many milliliters of an injection containing 5000 heparin units per milliliter should be administered to a 280 lb-patient? a. 3.80 mL b. 3.82 mL c. 3.81 mL d. 3.83 mL

3.82 mL

A pharmacy stocks amoxicillin 250 mg capsules; how many capsules should be dispensed to a patient for the following prescription order? Amoxicillin 500 mg 10 days' supply 500 mg PO TID a. 30 capsules b. 40 capsules c. 60 capsules d. 80 capsules

30 capsules

The pharmacy receives a prescription for ED Tarboosch for Warfarin 5 mg #45 1 1/2 tablets PO qd for blood clotting How many days will this prescription last? a. 15 days b. 30 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

30 days

How many milliliters of a 3% (w/v) solution will be necessary to make 6 oz of a 1:200 solution? a. 40 mL b. 30 mL c. 50 mL d. 20 mL

30 mL

What volume of medication can a unit dose packaged as a plastic cup contain? a. 30 mL b. 45 mL c. 60 mL d. 90 mL

30 mL

From the following formula, calculate the quantities to make 120 mL of benzyl benzoate lotion: Benzyl benzoate: 125 mL Triethanolamine: 2.5 mL Oleic acid: 10 mL Purified water, to make 500 mL a. 30 mL of Benzyl benzoate; 0.5 mL of Triethanolamine; 2.4 mL of Oleic acid b. 60 mL of Benzyl benzoate; 0.6 mL of Triethanolamine; 2.4 mL of Oleic acid c. 30 mL of Benzyl benzoate; 0.6 mL of Triethanolamine; 2.5 mL of Oleic acid d. 30 mL of Benzyl benzoate; 0.6 mL of Triethanolamine; 2.4 mL of Oleic acid

30 mL of Benzyl benzoate 0.6 mL of Triethanolamine 2.4 mL of Oleic acid

If 1500 mL of an IV solution contains 0.1 g of a drug, at what flow rate in milliliters per minute should the solution be administered to provide 1 mg/min of the drug? a. 5 mL/min b. 3 mL/min c. 1 mL/min d. 4 mL/min

5 mL/min

Each 5 ml of a pediatric cough syrup is to contain the following amounts of medications. Calculate the amount of each ingredient to prepare a gallon of the syrup. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide: 7.5 mg Guaifenesin: 100 mg Flavored syrup to make 5.0 mL a. 5760 mg (5.76 g) of dextromethorphan hydrobromide; 76,850 mg (76.85 g) of guaifenesin b. 5780 mg (5.80 g) of dextromethorphan hydrobromide; 76,800 mg (76.8 g) of guaifenesin c. 5760 mg (5.76 g) of dextromethorphan hydrobromide; 76,800 mg (76.8 g) of guaifenesin d. 5740 mg (5.74 g) of dextromethorphan hydrobromide; 76,800 mg (76.8 g) of guaifenesin

5760 mg (5.76 g) of dextromethorphan hydrobromide 76,800 mg (76.8 g) of guaifenesin

You receive an order for 125 mL of 4% acetic acid solution and you have in stock 75% acetic acid solution. How many milliliters of the 75% solution will you need? a. 6.55 mL b. 6.70 mL c. 6.65 mL d. 6.67 mL

6.67 mL

What is the total volume that will be delivered if a patient receives normal saline solution at 25 mL/hr for 24 hr? a. 400 mL b. 600 mL c. 200 mL d. 800 mL

600 mL

How many milliliters of water should be added to 500 mL of a 1:2000 (w/v) solution to make a 1:5000 (w/v) solution? a. 750 mL b. 700 mL c. 650 mL d. 800 mL

750 mL

The following is for a formula for psoriasis ointment (International Journal of Pharmaceutical Compounding 2/305, 1998). Calculate, in grams, the quantity of each ingredient needed to make 1 lb of ointment Coal tar: 2.0 g Precipitated sulfur: 3.0 g Salicylic acid: 1.0 g Lidex ointment: 24.0 g Aqua base: 70.0 g a. 9.08 g of Coal tar; 13.64 g of precipitated sulfur; 4.54 g of salicylic acid; 109.96 g of Lidex ointment; 317.8 g of Aqua base b. 9.06 g of Coal tar; 13.62 g of precipitated sulfr; 4.56 g of salicylic acid; 108.96 g of Lidex ointment; 318.8 g of Aqua base c. 9.07 g of Coal tar; 13.62 g of precipitated sulfur; 4.54 g of salicylic acid; 107.96 g of Lidex ointment; 317.6 g of Aqua base d. 9.08 g of Coal tar; 13.62 g of precipitated sulfur; 4.54 g of salicylic acid; 108.96 g of Lidex ointment; 317.8 g of Aqua base

9.08 g of Coal tar 13.62 g of precipitated sulfur 4.54 g of salicylic acid 108.96 g of Lidex ointment 317.8 g of Aqua base

The prescription is written with "prn" refills. What is the maximum number of refills permitted by law? Spirinolactone 50 mg#30 1 tab PO QD for hypertension a. 0 b. 1 c. 6 d. 12

12 *A "prn" refill allows a patient to receive refills for one year's time form the time the prescription was written

How many grams of a 2.5% hydrocortisone cream should be mixed with 240 g of a 0.25% hydrocortisone cream to make a 1% cream? a. 120 g b. 125 g c. 123 g d. 122 g

120 g

An IV piggyback of lincomycin containing 1 g of drug in 100 mL is to be infused over 1 1/2 hours. The IV set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute will the patient receive? a. 16 gtt/min b. 18 gtt/min c. 17 gtt/min d. 19 gtt/min

17 gtt/min

What will be the rate in gtt/min if a patient receives 1 L of an IV fluid over an 8-hr period if the drop factor = 15 gtt/mL? a. 30 gtt/min b. 33 gtt/min c. 31 gtt/min d. 32 gtt/min

32 gtt/min

A prescription is written for a gallon of PEG 3350; what volume must be entered in the computer system? a. 480 mL b. 960 mL c. 3840 mL d. 7680 mL

3840 mL

If a pharmacist adds 3 g of hydrocortisone to 120 g of a 5% hydrocortisone cream, what is the final percentage strength of hydrocortisone in the product? a. 4.88% b. 4.50% c. 4.76% d. 4.90%

4.88%

How many milliliters of IV fluid will a patient receive if infused at the rate of 120 mL/hr over 3 1/2 hr? a. 410 mL b. 430 mL c. 440 mL d. 420 mL

420 mL

From the following formula for iodine topical solution, USP, calculate the number of grams of iodine needed to prepare 12 dozen 15 mL containers of the solution. Iodine: 20 g Sodium iodine: 24 g Purified water ad: 1000 mL a. 43.2 g of iodine; 51.84 g of sodium iodine b. 43.2 g of iodine; 51.88 g o sodium iodine c. 43.4 g of iodine; 51.84 g of sodium iodine d. 43.2 g of iodine; 51.86 g of sodium iodine

43.2 g of iodine 51.84 g of sodium iodine

What is the maximum number of refills permitted on a Schedule IV prescription? a. 0 b. 1 c. 5 d. 6

5 *Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act(s)

Which of the following is true regarding EZ-open prescription bottle lids? a. all prescriptions require that one is placed on it; however, a patient may request that it not be used b. A prescriber or a patient may request that one is placed on the container c. They must be provided to any individual who does not have children living in his or her home d. They must be provided to all senior citizens

A prescriber or a patient may request that one is placed on the container

What is the subscription on a prescription? a. Any special instructions or directions to the pharmacist b. Directions to be typed on the prescription label c. Name, strength, and quantity of medication d. The Rx symbol

Any special instructions or directions to the pharmacist

What is the meaning of the prefix hypo-? a. Above b. Across c. Below d. Fast

Below *Hyper= Fast *Trans=Across *Tachy=Fast

What term is used to describe the date assigned to a unit-dose package? a. Beyond-use date b. Expiration date c. Packaged date d. Unit date

Beyond-use date

Which of the following pieces of information is required on a patient's prescription? a. DAW codes b. Directions for use c. Patient's bed number d. Two patient identifiers

Directions for use

An individual's patient profile indicates that they are diagnosed with COPD; what condition does the patient have? a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease b. Congested obstructive pulmonary disease c. Constipation d. Crohn disease

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Which pharmacy setting utilizes Baker Cells as an automatic dispensing system? a. Community pharmacy b. Hospital pharmacy c. Long-term care pharmacy d. Managed care pharmacy

Community pharmacy

What DAW code is assigned if no product is selected? a. DAW 0 b. DAW 1 c. DAW 2 d. DAW 3

DAW 0 *DAW 1 is used when substitution is not allowed by provider; DAW 2 used is when substitution is allowed; DAW 3 is used when the pharmacist selected a substitution and authorized it to be used

A prescriber writes in their own handwriting: "Brand Name Medically Necessary". What DAW number should be assigned to the prescription? a. DAW 0 b. DAW 1 c. DAW 2 d. DAW 3

DAW 1 *DAW 0 means that no product selection is indicated; DAW 2 means that substitution is allowed upon patient's request; DAW 3 means that substitution is allowed upon pharmacist's request

What DAW number is assigned to a prescription where generic substitution is authorized however the pharmacist selected the product dispensed? a. DAW 3 b. DAW 4 c. DAW 5 d. DAW 6

DAW 3 *DAW 4 means that substitution is allowed, but the generic drug is not in stock; DAW 5 means that substitution is allowed as the brand drug is dispensed as the generic; DAW 6 means an override has occurred

Which of the following pieces of prescriber information is required on a prescription for Ultram (tramadol)? a. DEA number b. Medicaid number c. Medicare number d. Physician's license number

DEA number *Controlled substance

Which of the following is an advantage of a solid dosage form? a. Does not cause gastrointestinal distress b. Easier to swallow than other dosage forms c. Easy to package, transport, store, and dispense d. Uniformity and flexibility of dosage form in dosing

Easy to package, transport, store, and dispense

_________________can be compounded by using the continental (dry gum) method. a. Capsules b. Emulsions c. Suppositories d. Syrups

Emulsions

In multiples of what number should medication be counted? a. Two b. Three c. Five d. Ten

Five

A prescription for cephalexin is to be administered "qid"; how many times a day should it be administered? a. Four times a day b. Every other day c. Three times a day d. Twice a day

Four times a day *Qd means every day; tid means three times a day; adn bid means twice a day

What technique is used in mixing two ingredients of unequal quantities? a. Blending b. Geometric dilution c. Levigation d. Spatulation

Geometric dilution *Geometric dilution is a technique used in mixing two ingredients of unequal quantities; blending is an act of combining two substances together *Trituration is a process of rubbing, grinding, or pulverizing a powder to create fine particles; Levigation is a trituration of a powder drug with solvent *Spatulation is mixing powders using a spatula in a mortar, an ointment slab, or a plastic bag; it is a process used when ingredients may liquefy on mixing; there is no reduction in particle size

Which of the following must be done if a patient requests an easy-open container? a. verify with the physician that the dispensing of a medication in an easy-open container is permitted b. Verify that there are no children younger than 12 years living with the patient c. Verify that the patient has activated charcoal at home in case of a potential overdose d. Have the patient sign the back of the prescription indicating that he or she has requested an easy-open container

Have the patient sign the back of the prescription indicating that he or she has requested an easy-open container *To protect the pharmacy from lawsuits

What type of container prevents air from reaching the medication? a. Hermetic b. Multi dose c. Single dose d. Unit dose

Hermetic *Multi dose container is defined as a multiple unit container for parenteral administration; a single-dose container is a single unit container for parenteral administration, and a unit-dose container is a single unit container intended for administration other than parenteral

The pharmacy receives a prescription for lisinopril 10 mg. What term refers to the name and strength of the medication? a. Inscription b. Prescription c. Signa d. Subscription

Inscription

Which organization developed billing rejection codes for third-party prescriptions? a. BIN b. GMP c. NCPDP d. SCRIPT

NCPDP (National Council for Prescription Drug Programs) *BIN (Bank Identification Number): six-digit number used to identify the company that will reimburse the pharmacy for the prescription being filled *GMPs (Good Manufacturing Practices): principles that are followed in drug manufacturing and compounding to ensure product quality *SCRIPT: standards by which prescriptions are transferred to another pharmacy

What term refers to the processing of a prescription claim to a third-party provider? a. Banking identification number b. Group number c. Online adjudication d. Rejection code

Online adjudication

What is the purpose of an auxiliary label? a. Identifies medications that require a patient product insert to be provided to the patient b. Identifies the expiration date of the medication c. Identifies the lot or batch number of the medication d. Provides additional information about the medication that may include when to take the medication, storage, and possible adverse effects

Provides additional information about the medication that may include when to take the medication, storage, and possible adverse effects

What process is used in mixing a liquid and powder to form a suspension or solution? a. Geometric dilution b. Levigation c. Reconstitution d. Trituration

Reconstitution *Geometric dilution is a technique used in mixing two ingredients of unequal quantities; blending is an act of combining two substances together *Trituration is a process of rubbing, grinding, or pulverizing a powder to create fine particles; Levigation is a trituration of a powder drug with solvent

A medication that may require a prior authorization due to the patient's age is________________. a. Absorica b. Methotrexate c. Retin-A d. Robitussin with codeine

Retin-A

Which of the following auxiliary labels would be appropriate for a suspension? a. For ears only b. For external use only c. For eyes only d. Shake well

Shake well *To ensure that the medication is the same concentration throughout the whole liquid

Which part of a prescription indicates the directions to the patient? a. Inscription b. Signa c. Subscription d. Superscription

Signa

Which of the following containers is a single-unit container ONLY intended for parenteral administration? a. Tight container b. Single-unit container c. Single-dose container d. Unit-dose container

Single-dose container *Tight container protects the product from contamination; a single-unit container is designed to hold a quantity of drug product intended for administration as a single dose after the container is opened; unit-dose container is a single container intended for administration other than the parenteral route as a single drug directly from the container

_______________________is an exempt from being dispensed in child-resistant container. a. Atorvastatin b. Isosorbide dinitrate 40 mg c. Naproxen d. Sodium fluoride

Sodium fluoride

Which dosage form can be prepared by the heat method? a. Elixir b. Suppository c. Syrup d. Tincture

Syrup *It is quicker, but must be at constant temperature

What is the meaning of the following sig: "2 tab PO quid ac and hs"? a. Place two tablets under tongue four times a day b. Take two tablets by mouth four times a day c. Take two tablets by mouth four times a day after meals and at bedtime d. Take two tablets by mouth four times a day before meals and at bedtime

Take two tablets by mouth four times a day before meals and at bedtime

If two or more plans cover dependent children of separated or divorced parents who do not have joint custody of the children, which option is first used to determine the children's primary plan? a. The birthday rule b. The plan of the custodial parent c. The plan of the parent without custody d. The plan of the spouse of the custodial parent (if the patient has remarried)

The plan of the custodial parent

What type of container protects the contents form contamination by liquids, solids, or vapors? a. Hermetic b. Single dose container c. Tight container d. Well-closed

Tight container *A hermetic container is impervious to air or gas; a single dose container is a single unit for parenteral administration; a well-closed container protects the contents from other solids and from loss of the article under normal conditions

A prescriber's medication order indicates that it is to be administered "STAT"; when should it be administered? a. As soon as possible b. Whenever the patient asks for the medication c. Within 15 minutes of receiving the medication order d. Within 30 minutes of receiving the medication order

Within 15 minutes of receiving the medication order

A pharmacy technician may_________________________. a. administer immunizations b. collect patient information c. counsel patients d. sign a DEA form 222

collect patient information

A(n)___________________is a clear, sweetened, flavored hydro alcoholic containing water and alcohol. a. aromatic water b. elixir c. suspension d. syrup

elixir

What does "dtd" mean on a prescription? a. give of such doses b. of each c. weight d. write on label

give of such doses

A patient receiving a prescription for Coumadin (warfarin) should receive a ____________________ upon receiving their prescription. a. medication guide b. MSDS c. package insert d. SDS

medication guide

A noncontrolled prescription is written with five refills and filled today at the pharmacy. Two weeks later, the patient requests that it be transferred to another pharmacy. How many times may it be transferred? a. zero times b. one time c. four times d. five times

one time

an amber unit- dose blister pack is used for __________ and ______________. a. creams, ointments b. oral liquids, suspensions c. suppositories, transdermal gels d. tablets, capsules

tablets, capsules