PEDS EXAM 2

The nurse is caring for a neonate who is suspected of having sepsis. Which assessment findings would the nurse interpret as most indicative of sepsis? A. Rash on face B. Edematous neck C. Hypothermia D. Coughing

Answer: C Rationale: Hypothermia is a sign of sepsis in neonates. A rash on the face is a symptom of scarlet fever. An edematous neck is a sign of diphtheria. Paroxysmal coughing is a symptom of pertussis.

The nurse is teaching the mother of a 5-year-old boy with a history of impaction how to administer enemas at home. Which response from the mother indicates a need for further teaching? A) "I should position him on his abdomen with knees bent." B) "He will require 250 to 500 mL of enema solution." C) "I should wash my hands and then wear gloves." D) "He should retain the solution for 5 to 10 minutes."

Ans: A Feedback: A 5-year-old child should lie on his left side with his right leg flexed toward the chest. An infant or toddler is positioned on his abdomen. Using 250 to 500 mL of solution, washing hands and wearing gloves, and retaining the solution for 5 to 10 minutes are appropriate responses.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a child and finds that the child has a grade III murmur. After auscultating the child's heart sounds, how would the nurse document this murmur? A) Loud without a thrill B) Loud with a precordial thrill C) Soft and easily heard D) Loud, audible with a stethoscope

Ans: A Feedback: A grade III murmur is loud without a thrill. Grade II is soft and easily heard. Grade IV is loud with a precordial thrill. Grade V is characterized as loud, audible with a stethoscope.

After assessing a child's blood pressure, the nurse determines the pulse pressure and finds that it is narrowed. What would the nurse identify as associated with this finding? A) Aortic stenosis B) Patent ductus arteriosus C) Aortic insufficiency D) Complete heart block

Ans: A Feedback: A narrowed pulse pressure is associated with aortic stenosis. A widened pulse pressure is associated with patent ductus arteriosus, aortic insufficiency, fever, anemia, or complete heart block.

A nurse is caring for a 14-year-old girl scheduled for a barium swallow/upper gastrointestinal (GI) series. Before providing instructions, what would be the priority? A) Screening the girl for pregnancy B) Reminding her to drink plenty of fluids after the procedure C) Ordering a bowel preparation D) Reminding the girl about potential light-colored stools

Ans: A Feedback: Females of reproductive age must be screened for pregnancy prior to the test because radiography is used. A bowel preparation is not necessary for a barium swallow/upper GI series. The reminders about fluids and light-colored stools are appropriate but are not the first priority.

The nurse is taking a health history of an 11-year-old girl with recurrent abdominal pain. Which response would lead the nurse to suspect irritable bowel syndrome? A) "I always feel better after I have a bowel movement." B) "I don't take any medicine right now." C) "The pain comes and goes." D) "The pain doesn't wake me up in the middle of the night."

Ans: A Feedback: In cases of irritable bowel syndrome, the pain may be relieved by defecation. Use of medications and pain that comes and goes or wakes the person up in the middle of the night are all relevant findings pertinent to recurrent abdominal pain.

A child with heart failure is receiving supplemental oxygen. The nurse understands that in addition to improving oxygen saturation, this intervention also has what effect? A) Cause vasodilation B) Increase pulmonary vascular resistance C) Promote diuresis D) Mobilize secretions

Ans: A Feedback: Oxygen improves oxygen saturation and also functions as a vasodilator and decreases pulmonary vascular resistance. Diuretics promote diuresis. Chest physiotherapy helps to mobilize secretions.

The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a child with a suspected cardiovascular disorder. Which finding would the nurse most likely expect to assess if the child had transposition of the great vessels? A) Significant cyanosis without presence of a murmur B) Abrupt cessation of chest output with an increase in heart rate/filling pressure C) Soft systolic ejection D) Holosystolic murmur

Ans: A Feedback: Significant cyanosis without presence of a murmur is highly indicative of transposition. Abrupt cessation of chest output accompanied by an increase in heart rate and filling pressure is indicative of cardiac tamponade. A soft systolic ejection or holosystolic murmur can be found with other disorders, such as hypoplastic left heart syndrome, but is not highly suspicious of transposition.

The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a child with suspected Crohn disease. Which finding would be the most suspicious of Crohn disease? A) Normal growth patterns B) Perianal skin tags or fissures C) Poor growth patterns D) Abdominal tenderness

Ans: B Feedback: Perianal skin tags and/or fissures are highly suspicious of Crohn disease. Poor growth patterns and abdominal tenderness are common to Crohn disease but are also seen with many other conditions. Normal growth patterns would not point to Crohn disease because of problems with absorbing nutrients.

An 8-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for evaluation. The mother tells the nurse that she has noticed some white patches on the infant's tongue that look like curdled milk after breastfeeding. The nurse suspects oral candidiasis (thrush). Which question would the nurse use to help confirm this suspicion? A) "Are you having breast pain when you nurse the baby?" B) "Has he had any dairy problems recently?" C) "Is he experiencing any vomiting lately?" D) "How have his stools been this past week?"

Ans: A Feedback: The infant may develop thrush from the mother if the mother has a fungal infection of the breast. Asking the mother about breast pain would be important because this type of infection can cause the mother a great deal of pain with nursing. Dairy products are not associated with oral candidiasis but are associated with the development of infectious diarrhea in infants. Vomiting is unrelated to thrush. The infant also may have candidal diaper rash, but this would be manifested on the skin as a beefy-red rash with satellite lesions, not in his stools.

The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old girl with short bowel syndrome as a result of trauma to the small intestine. The girl's mother is extremely anxious and tells the nurse she is afraid she will never learn how to care for her daughter at home. How should the nurse respond? A) "I will help you become an expert on your daughter's care." B) "You must learn how to care for your daughter at home." C) "You really need the support of your husband." D) "There is a lot to learn and you need a positive attitude."

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse needs to empower families to become the experts on their children's needs and conditions via education and participation in care. The most positive approach in this case is to let the mother know the nurse will support her and help her become an expert on her daughter's care. Telling the mother that she must learn how to care for her daughter or that she must have a positive attitude is not helpful. Telling her that she needs the support of her husband is irrelevant and unhelpful.

A child is diagnosed with Kawasaki disease and is in the acute phase of the disorder. What would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe? Select all that apply. A) Intravenous immunoglobulin B) Ibuprofen C) Acetaminophen D) Aspirin E) Alprostadil

Ans: A, D Feedback: In the acute phase, high-dose aspirin in four divided doses daily and a single infusion of intravenous immunoglobulin are used. Acetaminophen is used to reduce fever. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents such as ibuprofen are avoided while the child is receiving aspirin therapy. Alprostadil is used to temporarily keep the ductus arteriosus patent in infants with ductal-dependent congenital heart defects.

The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a child with a ventricular septal defect. Which finding would the nurse expect to assess? A) Right ventricular heave B) Holosystolic harsh murmur along the left sternal border C) Fixed split-second heart sound D) Systolic ejection murmur

Ans: B Feedback: With ventricular septal defects, there is often a characteristic holosystolic harsh murmur along the left sternal border. Right ventricular heave, fixed split-second heart sound, and systolic ejection murmur are typically found with atrial septal defects.

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for the parents of a child who has been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. What would the nurse be least likely to include? A) Daily weight assessment B) Maintenance of strict bed rest C) Prevention of infection D) Signs of complications

Ans: B Feedback: A child with congenital heart disease should be allowed to engage in activity as tolerated, with rest periods frequently throughout the day to prevent overexertion. Daily weights, infection prevention measures, and signs of complications are all appropriate to include when teaching parents of a child with a congenital heart defect.

After teaching a class about the hemodynamic characteristics of congenital heart disease, the instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the class identifies which defect as an example of a disorder involving increased pulmonary blood flow? A) Tetralogy of Fallot B) Atrial septal defect C) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D) Transposition of the great vessels

Ans: B Feedback: Atrial septal defect is an example of a disorder involving increased pulmonary blood flow. Tetralogy of Fallot is a defect involving decreased pulmonary blood flow. Transposition of the great vessels and hypoplastic left heart syndrome are examples of mixed disorders.

When conducting a physical examination of a child with suspected Kawasaki disease, which finding would the nurse expect to assess? A) Hirsutism or striae B) Strawberry tongue C) Malar rash D) Café au lait spots

Ans: B Feedback: Dry, fissured lips and a strawberry tongue are common findings with Kawasaki disease. Acne, hirsutism, and striae are associated with anabolic steroid use. Malar rash is associated with lupus. Café au lait spots are associated with neurofibromatosis.

The mother of a 3-week-old infant old brings her daughter in for an evaluation. During the visit, the mother tells the nurse that her baby is spitting up after feedings. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "We need to tell the healthcare provider about this." B) "Infants this age commonly spit up." C) "Your daughter might have an allergy." D) "Don't worry; you're just feeding her too much."

Ans: B Feedback: In infants younger than 1 month of age, the lower esophageal sphincter is not fully developed, so infants younger than 1 month of age frequently regurgitate after feedings. Many children younger than 1 year of age continue to regurgitate for several months, but this usually disappears with age. The mother's report is not a cause for concern, so the healthcare provider does not need to be notified. Additional information would be needed to determine if the infant had an allergy. Although the infant's stomach capacity is small, telling the mother not to worry does not address the mother's concern, and telling her that she is feeding the daughter too much implies that she is doing something wrong.

The school nurse is working with a 10-year-old girl with recurrent abdominal pain. The girl's teacher has been less than understanding about the frequent absences and trips to the nurse's office. How should the nurse respond? A) "Be patient; she is trying some new medication." B) "The pain she is having is real." C) "The family is working toward improvement." D) "Please do not add to this family's stress."

Ans: B Feedback: It is important to educate the teacher that this recurrent abdominal pain is a true pain that the child feels and it is not "in her mind." Telling the teacher not to add to the family's stress or that the family is working toward improvement does not teach. The nurse must have the permission of the family to discuss the girl's medication.

The nurse is caring for a 2-month-old with a cleft palate. The child will undergo corrective surgery at age 3 months. The mother would like to continue breastfeeding the baby after surgery and wonders if it is possible. How should the nurse respond? A) "There is a good chance that you will be able to breastfeed almost immediately." B) "Breastfeeding is likely to be possible but check with the surgeon." C) "After the suture line heals, breastfeeding can resume." D) "We will have to wait and see what happens after the surgery."

Ans: B Feedback: Postoperatively, some surgeons allow breastfeeding to be resumed almost immediately. However, the nurse needs to advise the mother to check with the surgeon to determine when breastfeeding can resume. Telling the mother that she has to wait until the suture line heals may be inaccurate. Telling her to wait and see does not answer her question.

The nurse is assessing a child with suspected infective endocarditis. Which assessment finding would the nurse interpret as a sign of extracardiac emboli? A) Pruritus B) Roth spots C) Delayed capillary refill D) Erythema marginatum

Ans: B Feedback: Roth spots are splinter hemorrhages with pale centers on the sclerae, palate, buccal mucosa, chest, fingers, or toes, and are signs of extracardiac emboli. Delayed capillary refill time does not point to extracardiac emboli. Wheezing and pruritus are indicative of a hypersensitivity reaction. Erythema marginatum is a classic rash associated with acute rheumatic fever.

After teaching a group of students about acute rheumatic fever, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which assessment finding? A) Janeway lesions B) Jerky movements of the face and upper extremities C) Black lines D) Osler nodes

Ans: B Feedback: Sydenham chorea is a movement disorder of the face and upper extremities associated with acute rheumatic fever. Janeway lesions, black lines, and Osler nodes are associated with infective endocarditis.

The nurse is caring for an infant girl with a suspected cardiovascular disorder. Which statement by the mother would warrant further investigation? A) "My baby does not make any grunting noises." B) "The baby seems more comfortable over my shoulder." C) "The baby usually drinks all of her bottle." D) "I don't notice any rapid breathing patterns."

Ans: B Feedback: The nurse should be alert to statements indicating that the baby seems to be more comfortable when she is sitting up or over her mother's shoulder than when she is lying flat. Grunting or rapid breathing would be a cause for concern. Drinking all of the bottle would be considered normal.

The nurse is caring for an infant with a temporary ileostomy. As part of the plan of care, the nurse monitors for skin breakdown around the stoma. If redness occurs, what would be most appropriate to promote healing and prevent further skin breakdown? A) Clean the area well with a scented diaper wipe. B) Apply a barrier/healing cream or paste on the skin. C) Use a barrier wafer to attach the appliance. D) Sanitize the area with an alcohol wipe after each diaper change.

Ans: B Feedback: The nurse should use a barrier/healing cream or paste on the skin around the stoma to promote healing and prevent further skin breakdown. Diaper wipes that contain fragrance or alcohol can sting if used on nonintact skin and can worsen skin breakdown. The barrier wafer would be helpful but does not address the skin breakdown.

The nurse is determining maintenance fluid requirements for a child who weighs 25 kg. How much fluid would the child need per day? A) 1,560 mL B) 1,600 mL C) 1,650 mL D) 1,700 mL

Ans: B Feedback: Using the following formula of 100 mL/kg for the first 10 kg, plus 50 mL/kg for the next 10 kg, and then 20 mL/kg for the remaining kg, the child would require (100 Å~ 10) + (50 Å~ 10) + (20 Å~ 5) = 1,000 + 500 + 100 = 1,600 mL in 24 hours.

The nurse is caring for a newborn diagnosed with an atrial septal defect (ASD). The parents voice concern and state, "I can't believe this is happening. Will our child be okay?" What is the nurse's best response? A) "If the defect isn't treated it can cause problems such as pulmonary hypertension, heart failure, atrial arrhythmias, or stroke." B) "While each case is different, the majority of these defects correct on their own. Let's see what the tests show, then speak with the healthcare provider." C) "Since there are no symptoms being exhibited right now, your child will likely not require surgery until the age of 3 years." D) "Most children have no symptoms of this defect."

Ans: B Feedback: While all responses supply correct information about the disorder, the best response is, "While each case is different, the majority of these defects correct on their own. Let's see what the tests show, then speak with the healthcare provider." This individualizes the response to this child, offers realistic hope, and verifies that the healthcare provider will need to be consulted to answer questions regarding prognosis.

The parents of a 6-week-old boy come to the clinic for evaluation because the infant has been vomiting. The parents report that the vomiting has been increasing in frequency and forcefulness over the last week. The mother says, "Sometimes, it seems like it just bursts out of his mouth." A diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is suspected. When performing the physical examination, what would the nurse most likely find? A) Sausage-shaped mass in the upper midabdomen B) Hard, moveable, olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant C) Tenderness over the McBurney point in the right lower quadrant D) Abdominal pain in the epigastric or umbilical region

Ans: B Feedback: With hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a hard, moveable, olive-shaped mass would be palpated in the right upper quadrant. A sausage-shaped mass in the upper midabdomen would suggest intussusception. Tenderness over the McBurney point would be associated with appendicitis. Epigastric or umbilical pain would be associated with peptic ulcer disease.

The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected patent ductus arteriosus. Which assessment finding would the nurse identify as helping to confirm this suspicion? A) Thrill at the base of the heart B) Harsh, continuous, machine-like murmur under the left clavicle C) Faint pulses D) Systolic murmur best heard along the left sternal border

Ans: B Feedback: With patent ductus arteriosus, a harsh, continuous, machine-like murmur (usually loudest under the left clavicle) is heard at the first and second intercostal spaces. A thrill at the base, faint pulses, and systolic murmur heard best along the left sternal border point to aortic stenosis.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for an infant with heart failure who is receiving digoxin. The nurse would hold the dose of digoxin and notify the healthcare provider if the infant's apical pulse rate was: A) 140 beats per minute B) 120 beats per minute C) 100 beats per minute D) 80 beats per minute

Ans: D Feedback: In an infant, if the apical pulse rate is less than 90 beats per minute, the dose is held and the healthcare provider should be notified.

The nurse is caring for a child that just returned from a coronary arteriogram in which the catheter was placed through the left femoral artery. Which nursing actions demonstrate knowledge of the procedure? Select all that apply. A) The nurse allows the client up to the bathroom only. B) The nurse assesses the dorsalis pedis pulse in the left foot. C) The nurse assesses the puncture site frequently. D) The nurse tells the parents that the healthcare provider will discuss the results of the procedure with them. E) The nurse assesses the client's vital signs every 8 hours.

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: The nurse must assess the pulse distal to the puncture site to determine that circulation remains adequate to the extremity. Assessing the puncture site ensures early recognition of bleeding from the site. The healthcare provider will be able to inform the parents regarding the results of the procedure after completion. The child should be kept on bed rest for a specified period of time, so they cannot be up to the bathroom. Vital signs will need to be taken more frequently than every 8 hours for early detection of complications.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a child with infective endocarditis. What would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply. A) White blood cell count revealing leukopenia B) Microscopic hematuria with urinalysis C) Electrocardiogram with prolonged PR interval D) Lungs clear on auscultation E) Petechiae on palpebral conjunctiva

Ans: B, C, E Feedback: With infective endocarditis, leukocytosis, microscopic hematuria, prolonged PR interval, adventitious lung sounds, and petechiae on the palpebral conjunctiva are noted.

Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a child is experiencing moderate dehydration? A) Dusky extremities B) Tenting of skin C) Sunken fontanels D) Hypotension

Ans: C Feedback: A child with moderate dehydration would exhibit sunken fontanels. Severe dehydration would be characterized by dusky extremities, skin tenting, and hypotension.

Auscultation of a child's heart reveals a loud murmur with a precordial thrill. The nurse documents this as which grade? A) Grade II B) Grade III C) Grade IV D) Grade V

Ans: C Feedback: A grade IV murmur is loud with a precordial thrill. A grade II murmur is soft and easily heard. A grade III murmur is characterized as loud without a thrill. A grade V murmur is characterized as loud, audible without a stethoscope.

A 9-year-old child has undergone a cardiac catheterization and is being prepared for discharge. The nurse is instructing the parents and child about postprocedure care. Which statement by the parents indicates that the teaching was successful? A) "This pressure dressing needs to stay on for 5 days from now." B) "He can't eat but he can drink fluids for the next 24 hours." C) "He should avoid taking a bath for about 3 days, but he can shower." D) "It's normal if he says he feels like his heart skipped a beat."

Ans: C Feedback: After a cardiac catheterization, the child should avoid tub baths for about 3 days, but he can shower or use sponge baths. The pressure dressing should be removed the day after the procedure and a dry sterile dressing or adhesive bandage is applied for the next several days. After the procedure, the child can resume his usual diet. Any reports of fluttering or the heart skipping a beat should be reported.

The nurse is caring for a 2-month-old infant who has been diagnosed with acute heart failure. The nurse is providing teaching about nutrition. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? A) "The baby may need as much as 150 calories/kg/day." B) "Small, frequent feedings are best if tolerated." C) "I need to feed him every hour to make sure he eats enough." D) "Gavage feedings may be required for now."

Ans: C Feedback: Although offering small frequent feedings is appropriate if the infant tolerates them, feeding every hour is not necessary. During the acute phase, continuous or intermittent gavage feedings may be needed to help the infant maintain or gain weight. Due to the increased metabolic demands, the infant may require as much as 150 calories/kg/day.

A child with a suspected cardiovascular disorder is to undergo diagnostic testing and is scheduled for an echocardiogram. When explaining this test to the child, what would the nurse most likely include? A) "This test will check the pattern of how your heart is beating." B) "They'll take a picture of your chest to look at the heart's size." C) "A special wand that picks up sound is used to check your heart." D) "Small patches are attached to your chest to check the heart rhythm."

Ans: C Feedback: An echocardiogram is a noninvasive ultrasound procedure using a gel-coated wand that assesses the heart wall thickness, the size of the chambers, valve and septal motion, and the relationship of the great vessels to other cardiac structures. An electrocardiogram reveals the pattern or rhythm of the heart's beating and involves small patches or electrodes attached to the chest. A chest radiograph involves a radiographic film of the chest to determine the size of the heart and its chambers.

The mother of a 4-week-old infant is tearful. She reports the healthcare provider has told her that her son has a small atrial septal defect. She reports she is worried and asks the nurse more about the condition. Which statement by the parents best indicates an understanding of the nurse's teaching? A) "This greatly places my son at risk for cardiac failure." B) "If this does not resolve by the time my child is 1 year old, he will likely need surgery." C) "Most of the time this condition spontaneously resolves." D) "Since the surgery to correct this condition can be risky my son will need to be at least 40 pounds."

Ans: C Feedback: Atrial septal defects in children most likely resolve without treatment. Those that are not corrected by the age of 18 months will likely require surgical intervention. When planned, surgery is not usually performed until the child is at least 3 years of age. There is no indication other problems are present, so the child is not at an increased risk for cardiac failure.

An infant with congenital heart disease is to undergo surgery to correct the defect. The mother states, "I guess I'm going to have to stop breastfeeding her." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "That's true, but we'll make sure she gets the best intravenous nutrition." B) "Unfortunately, your baby needs more nutrients than what breast milk can provide." C) "Breast milk may help to boost her immune system, so you can continue to use it." D) "She won't be able to suck, so we have to give her fortified formula through a tube."

Ans: C Feedback: Breastfeeding a child before and after cardiac surgery may boost the infant's immune system, which can help fight postoperative infection. If breastfeeding is not possible, mothers can pump milk and the breast milk may be given via bottle, dropper, or gavage feeding. In addition, breastfeeding is associated with decreased energy expenditure during the act of feeding.

A newborn is diagnosed with patent ductus arteriosus. The nurse anticipates that the healthcare provider will most likely order which medication? A) Alprostadil B) Heparin C) Indomethacin D) Spironolactone

Ans: C Feedback: Indomethacin is the drug typically ordered to close a patent ductus arteriosus. Alprostadil would be indicated to maintain the ductus arteriosus temporarily in infants with ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. Heparin would be used for prophylaxis and treatment of thromboembolic disorders, especially after surgery. Spironolactone would be used to manage edema due to heart failure and to treat hypertension.

A nurse is working with an adolescent who is slightly overweight and was recently diagnosed with hypertension. They are discussing nutritional management. Which statement by the adolescent demonstrates understanding of the information? A) "I have to make sure that I don't eat a lot of salty foods." B) "I can eat any amount at a meal as long as I don't eat between meals." C) "I should eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables." D) "If I skip breakfast, I can eat a much bigger lunch."

Ans: C Feedback: Nutritional management includes controlling portion sizes, decreasing the intake of sugary beverages and snacks, eating more fresh fruits and vegetables, and eating a healthy breakfast. Salt restriction and potassium or calcium supplements have not been shown to decrease blood pressure in children.

When examining the abdomen of a child, which technique would the nurse use last? A) Auscultation B) Percussion C) Palpation D) Inspection

Ans: C Feedback: Palpation should be the last part of the abdominal examination. Inspection, auscultation, and percussion should be done before palpation.

The nurse is providing care to a child with an intussusception. The child has a bowel movement and the nurse inspects the stool. The nurse would most likely document the stool's appearance as having what quality? A) Greasy B) Clay-colored C) Currant jelly-like D) Bloody

Ans: C Feedback: The child with intussusception often exhibits currant jelly-like stools that may or may not be positive for blood. Greasy stools are associated with celiac disease. Cay-colored stools are observed with biliary atresia. Bloody stools can be seen with several gastrointestinal disorders, such as inflammatory bowel disease.

During a follow-up visit, the parents of a 5-month-old infant diagnosed with congenital heart disease tell the nurse, "We're just so tired and emotionally spent. All these tests and examinations are overwhelming. We just want to have a normal life. We're so focused on the baby that it seems like our 3-year-old is lost in the shuffle." Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse identify as most appropriate? A) Risk for delayed growth and development related to necessary treatments B) Deficient knowledge related to the care of a child with congenital heart disease C) Interrupted family processes related to demands of caring for the ill child D) Fear related to infant's cardiac condition and need for ongoing care

Ans: C Feedback: The statements by the parents indicate that there is disruption in the family resulting from the demands of caring for the ill infant and they verbalized concern about their older child. The child may be at risk for delayed growth and development, but this is not indicated by the parents' statements. The parents may lack knowledge about their infant's condition and they may be experiencing fear about the infant's condition, but the statements reflect issues related to the family functioning.

A child with suspected dyslipidemia undergoes laboratory testing. The nurse is reviewing the results. Which finding would the nurse interpret as supporting the diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Total cholesterol level of 150 mg/dL (3.88 mmol/L) B) Total cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL (4.66 mmol/L) C) Total cholesterol level of 220 mg/dL (5.70 mmol/L) D) LDL level of 90 mg/dL (2.33 mmol/L) E) LDL level of 120 mg/dL (3.11 mmol/L) F) LDL level of 140 mg/dL (3.63 mmol/L)

Ans: C, F Feedback: A total cholesterol level over 200 mg/dL (5.18 mmol/L) and LDL level above 130 mg/dL (3.37 mmol/L) are considered high and would support the diagnosis of dyslipidemia. Total cholesterol levels between 170 to 199 mg/dL (4.40 to 5.15 mmol/L) and LDL levels between 110 to 129 mg/dL (2.85 to 3.34 mmol/L) are considered borderline. Total cholesterol levels less than 170 mg/dL (4.40 mmol/L) and LDL levels less than 110 mg/dL (2.85 mmol/L) are acceptable in children.

The nurse is administering digoxin as ordered and the child vomits the dose. What should the nurse do next? A) Contact the healthcare provider. B) Offer a snack and administer another dose. C) Immediately administer another dose. D) Administer next dose as ordered in 12 hours.

Ans: D Feedback: Digoxin should be administered at regular intervals, every 12 hours, 1 hour before or 2 hours after feeding. If the child vomits digoxin, the nurse should not give a second dose and should wait until the next scheduled dose. It is not necessary to contact the healthcare provider.

A 7-year-old child with a family history of cardiovascular disease is being screened for hyperlipidemia. When reviewing the child's laboratory test results, which total cholesterol level would be of significant concern? A) 120 mg/dL (3.11 mmol/L) B) 150 mg/dL (3.88 mmol/L) C) 180 mg/dL (4.66 mmol/L) D) 210 mg/dL (5.44 mmol/L)

Ans: D Feedback: A total cholesterol level greater than 200 mg/dL (5.18 mmol/L) is considered high and would be of the greatest concern. Levels of 120 mg/dL (3.11 mmol/L) and 150 mg/dL (3.88 mmol/L) are considered within the normal range. A level of 180 mg/dL (4.66 mmol/L) would be considered borderline and significant. However, a level greater than 200 mg/dL (5.18 mmol/L) would be of greater concern.

The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old boy who has undergone an appendectomy. The child is unwilling to use the incentive spirometer. Which approach would be most appropriate to elicit the child's cooperation? A) "Can you cough for me please?" B) "You must blow in this or you might get pneumonia." C) "If you don't try, I will have to get the healthcare provider." D) "Can you blow this cotton ball across the tray?"

Ans: D Feedback: Children are more likely to cooperate with interventions if play is involved. Encourage deep breathing by playing games. Asking the boy to cough is less likely to engage him. Telling the child he might get pneumonia is not age appropriate and is unhelpful. Threatening to call the healthcare provider is unhelpful and inappropriate. Remember, however, that the incentive spirometer works on the principle of the amount of air inhaled, not exhaled. Having the child take a deep breath prior to blowing the cotton ball is a beginning step.

The parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease ask the nurse what types of food they can offer their child. What recommendation would the nurse include in the teaching plan? A) Frozen yogurt B) Rye bread C) Creamed spinach D) Fruit juice

Ans: D Feedback: For the child with celiac disease, foods containing gluten such as frozen yogurt, rye bread, and creamed vegetables should be avoided. Fruit juice would be an appropriate suggestion in a gluten-free diet.

The nurse has developed a plan of care for a 12-month-old hospitalized with dehydration as a result of rotavirus. Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care? A) Encouraging consumption of fruit juice B) Offering Kool-Aid or popsicles as tolerated C) Encouraging milk products to boost caloric intake D) Maintaining the intravenous (IV) fluid rate as ordered

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse should maintain an IV line and administer the IV fluid as ordered to maintain fluid volume. High-carbohydrate fluids like fruit juice, Kool-Aid, and popsicles should be avoided as they are low in electrolytes, increase simple carbohydrate consumption, and can decrease stool transit time. Milk products should be avoided during the acute phase of illness as they may worsen diarrhea.

A group of students are reviewing information about fluid balance and losses in children in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they state that: A) children have a proportionately greater amount of body water than do adults. B) fever plays a greater role in insensible fluid losses in infants and children. C) a higher metabolic rate plays a major role in increased insensible fluid losses. D) the infant's immature kidneys have a tendency to overconcentrate urine.

Ans: D Feedback: The young infant's renal immaturity does not allow the kidneys to concentrate urine as well as in older children and adults, placing them at risk for dehydration or overhydration. Children do have a proportionately greater amount of body water than adults, and fever is important in promoting insensible fluid losses in infants and children because children become febrile more readily and their fevers are higher than those in adults. Children also experience a higher metabolic rate, which accounts for increased insensible fluid losses and increased need for water for excretory function.

A child has been prescribed a nasal cannula for oxygen delivery. What should the nurse do before applying the cannula? A. Assess patency of the nares B. Test the oxygen saturation C. Add humidification to the delivery device D. Assess the lung sounds

Answer: A Rationale: A nasal cannula is a good delivery device for children, because it allows them to eat and talk unobstructed. Because the device is designed for flow through the nares, the patency of the nares should be assessed prior to using the cannula. If the nares are blocked from secretions, suctioning may be required. If there is a defect in the upper airway causing blockage, the nasal cannula may not be an appropriate oxygen delivery device. The oxygen saturation should have been measured and used as a guide for the prescription of oxygen therapy. Adding humidification is a way to keep the upper airways from becoming too dry, but oxygen can be started before humidity is added. Anytime a child is sick enough to require oxygen all respiratory assessments, including lung sounds, should be done. It does not matter, however, what the lung sounds are if the child is in enough distress to require oxygen. The lung sounds can be assessed after oxygen is started.

A hospitalized child suddenly begins reporting "my chest hurts," is tachypneic, and has tachycardia. The nurse auscultates the lung sounds and finds absent breath sounds on one side. After notifying the health care provide what action would the nurse take first? A. Prepare for chest tube insertion B. Administer oxygen C. Obtain oxygen saturation measurement D. Prepare for mechanical ventilation

Answer: A Rationale: A pneumothorax is a collection of air in the pleural space. Trapped air consumes space in the pleural cavity causing a partial or complete collapse. The priority symptom a nurse would assess is the decreased or absent lung sounds on the affected side. A pneumothorax can occur spontaneously in a healthy child or it can occur in a child with chronic lung disease, has been on a ventilator or has had thoracic surgery. Additional symptoms the child would experience would be chest pain, tachypnea, retractions, grunting, cyanosis and tachycardia. Many of these symptoms could be present with any child with an acute or chronic lung disease or respiratory distress, but the defining symptom is the absent breath sounds.The treatment for a pneumothoriax is with a chest tube so the priority action would be to gather supplies and prepare for the health care provider to insert a chest tube. Obtaining an oxygen saturation level measurement will only provide data, it will not help the child in distress. Oxygen may need to be administered, but with a pneumothorax it will be very ineffective. Mechanical ventilation would be a last resort and could actually make the situation worse if the lung was not reinflated.

A child requires supplemental oxygen therapy at 8 liters per minute. Which delivery device would the nurse most likely expect to be used? A. Simple mask B. Venturi mask C. Nasal cannula D. Oxygen hood

Answer: A Rationale: A simple mask would be used to deliver a flow rate of 8 liters per minute. A Venturi mask would be used to deliver a specific percentage of oxygen, from 24% to 50%. A nasal cannula would be used to deliver no more than 4 liters per minute. An oxygen hood requires a liter flow of 10 to 15 liters per minute.

The nurse is preparing to provide tracheostomy care to an infant. After gathering the necessary equipment, what would the nurse do next? A. Position the infant supine with a towel roll under the neck. B. Cut the new tracheostomy ties to the appropriate length. C. Cut the tracheostomy ties from around the tracheostomy tube. D. Cleanse around the site of the tracheostomy with the prescribed solution.

Answer: A Rationale: After gathering the necessary equipment, the nurse would position the infant supine with a blanket or towel roll to extend the neck. Then the nurse would open all the packaging and cut the new tracheostomy ties to the appropriate length. This would be followed by cleaning the site with the appropriate solution and then rinsing it. After placing the precut sterile gauze under the tracheostomy tube, the nurse would cut the ties and remove them from the tube while an assistant holds the tube in place.

The nurse determines that it is necessary to implement airborne precautions for children with which infection? A. Measles B. Streptococcus group A C. Rubella D. Scarlet fever

Answer: A Rationale: Airborne precautions are designed to reduce the risk of infectious agents transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei or dust particles such as for children with measles, varicella, or tuberculosis. Droplet precautions would be used for children with streptococcal group A infections, rubella, and scarlet fever.

A child is being treated for pertussis and is prescribed azithromycin by the health care provider. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider before administering this drug? A. Child has had previous episodes of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). B. Child has a potassium level of 3.7 mEq/l (3.7 mmol/l). C. Child is also prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). D. Child experienced a rash on the back taking this drug previously.

Answer: A Rationale: Azithromycin is recommended for use to treat pertussis in infants older than 1 month of age and children. It should, however, not be used in children at risk for cardiovascular events. It may cause a potentially fatal heart rhythm, because it can lead in changes in the electrical activity of the heart. It is espeicially important in children with prolonged QT intervals. The finding of SVT should be reported to the health care provider before the administration of the drug. The potassium level is within a normal range and it has no effect on the drug. Azithromycin should not be given with any aluminum or magnesium antacids. The PPI should be safe. A rash may indicate an allergy to the drug and should be reported, but it is not the most important finding. The health care provider would make a determination for the drug administration based on risks versus benefits.

The nurse is assessing a 8-month-old infant who has symptoms of poor feeding, a poor gag reflex, listlessness and a weak cry. What is the most important question the nurse should ask the parent about these symptoms? A. "Have you given your infant any honey?" B. "When did these symptoms begin?" C. "Has your infant had any unpasteurized milk to drink?" D. "What is the source of your family's water supply?"

Answer: A Rationale: Infant botulism occurs when the infant ingests the spores of Clostridium botulinum. These multiply in the intestinal track and produce toxins. The disease is caused by the ingestion of spores from dust, improperly preserved home-canned foods and feeding an infant under 1 year of age raw honey. The infant has poor feeding, is listless, has a weak cry, and a has poor gag reflex--a distinguishing symptom. The nurse would ask about the water supply and unpasteurized milk if food poisonings or parasites were suspected. Asking about the date of the infant's illness is important, but this information does not take priority over the question about honey.

The nurse is educating the parents of a 7-year-old boy with asthma about the medications that have been prescribed. Which drug would the nurse identify as an adjunct to a β2-adrenergic agonist for treatment of bronchospasm? A. Ipratropium B. Montelukast C. Cromolyn D. Theophylline

Answer: A Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic administered via inhalation to produce bronchodilation without systemic effects. It is generally used as an adjunct to a β2-adrenergic agonist. Montelukast decreases the inflammatory response by antagonizing the effects of leukotrienes. Cromolyn prevents release of histamine from sensitized mast cells. Theophylline provides for continuous airway relaxation.

A mother brings her 8-year-old son for evaluation because of a rash on his lower leg. Which finding would support the suspicion that the child has Lyme disease? A. Playing in the woods about a week ago B. Rash is papular and vesicular C. High fever occurring about 4 days before the rash D. Reports of extreme pruritus with visible nits

Answer: A Rationale: Lyme disease is caused by the bite of an infected tick, with a rash appearing 7 to 14 days after the tick bite. Ticks are commonly found in wooded areas. Therefore, reports of the child playing in the woods about 7 days ago would support the diagnosis of Lyme disease. A papular and vesicular rash is commonly associated with varicella (chickenpox). A high fever for 3 to 5 days before a rash suggests roseola. Extreme pruritus with visible nits would suggest pediculosis.

The nurse is performing a physical examination of an 8-year-old girl who was bitten by her kitten. Which assessment would lead the nurse to suspect cat-scratch disease? A. Swollen lymph nodes B. Strawberry tongue C. Infected tonsils D. Swollen neck

Answer: A Rationale: Lymph nodes, especially under the arms, can become painful and swollen due to catscratch disease. Strawberry tongue is typical of scarlet fever. Infected tonsils and an edematous neck are symptoms of diphtheria.

The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old girl with a respiratory disorder. The nurse anticipates the need for providing supplemental oxygen to the child when performing which action? A. Suctioning a tracheostomy tube B. Administering drugs with a nebulizer C. Providing tracheostomy care D. Suctioning with a bulb syringe

Answer: A Rationale: Supplemental oxygenation may be necessary before, and is always performed after, suctioning a child with a tracheostomy tube. Providing tracheostomy care, administering drugs with a nebulizer, and suctioning with a bulb syringe do not require supplemental oxygen.

A child is hospitalized with pneumonia. The nurse assesses an increase in the work of breathing and in the respiratory rate. What intervention should the nurse do first to help this child? A. Elevate the head of the bed B. Administer oxygen C. Notify the health care provider D. Obtain oxygen saturation levels

Answer: A Rationale: The child who is experiencing increased work of breathing should be placed in a position to better open the airway and provide more room for lung expansion. Generally this is accomplished by elevating the head of the bed. If this does not improve the work of breathing, then administering oxygen should be done. The oxygen saturation should be measured because it will provide information as to the severity of the respiratory problem, but this measurement will not directly help the child. The health care provider should be notified if the child continues to deteriorate.

The nurse is obtaining a health history of a child suspected of tuberculosis. What question would the nurse ask first about the child's cough? A. "How long has your child had a cough?" B. "Does your child cough only at night?" C. "Does your child cough up anything when coughing?" D. "Has your child been around anyone who is coughing?"

Answer: A Rationale: Tuberculosis is a highly contagious disease. Most children contract it from an infected immediate household member. When taking the health history, the nurse should ask about symptoms such as malaise, weight loss, anorexia, chest tightness and a cough. The child's cough from tuberculosis is described as progressing slowly over several weeks and months rather than having an acute onset. Asking about the production from the cough is a way to determine if hemoptysis has occurred. Asking about being around anyone coughing is a way to determine if the child has been exposed to anyone with tuberculosis. Coughing only at night could be related to other respiratory disorders such as asthma.

A child is in the emergency department with an asthma exaccerbation. Upon asucultation the nurse is unable to hear air movement in the lungs. What action should the nurse take first? A. Administer a beta-2 adrenergic agonist B. Administer oxygen C. Start a peripheral IV D. Administer corticosteroids

Answer: A Rationale: When lungs sounds are unable to be heard in a child with asthma, the child is very ill. This means there is severe airway obstruction. The air movement is so severe wheezes cannot be heard. The priority treatment is to administer an inhaled short term bronchodilator (beta-2 adrenergic agonist). The child may require numerous inhalations until bronchodilation occurs and air can pass through the bronchi. Oxygen can be started but until the brochi are dilated no oxygen can get through to the lung fields. In IV would need to be started and IV steroids administered to reduce the inflammation, but the priority is bronchodilation.

The nurse is preparing a room for a child being transferred out of the intensive care unit. The child has a tracheostomy. What item(s) are essential for the nurse to have available at the bedside in case of emergency? Select all that apply. A. A new tracheostomy tube of the same size B. A new tracheostomy tube of a smaller size C. A bag valve mask D. A sterile tracheostomy kit E. Cleaning supplies for the tracheostomy

Answer: A, B, C Rationale: A child with a tracheostomy can have an emergent situation for any number of reasons. It is important to always have emergency equipment at the bedside to provide immediate care when these situations arrive. Two spare tracheostomy tubes should always be at the bedside, one the same size as in place and once a size smaller. These would be needed if the tube became dislodged. A bag valve mask needs to remain at the bedside at all times. Ideally it should be connected to oxygen, but that is an individual protocol for the health care organization. The bag can be used to hyperoxygenate the child prior to or following suctioning or it can be used in an emergent situation such as a respiratory arrest. Sterile tracheostomy kits and cleaning supplies can be available at the bedside, but they are used for routine cleaning and not for emergencies.

An infant with a high respiratory rate is NPO and is receiving IV fluids. What assessment(s) will the nurse make to assure this infant is hydrated? Select all that apply. A. Measure skin turgor B. Palpate anterior fontanel C. Determine urine output D. Review electrolyte laboratory results E. Assess the lung sounds

Answer: A, B, C Rationale: IV fluids are necessary many times for infants and children who are experiencing high respiratory rates. The high respiratory rates make the child very tired from the increased work of breathing. In an infant there are very little reserves so the infant tires very quickly, especially when the work of sucking is added to the compromised respiratory state. To determine if the infant is hydrated the nurse should assess the skin turgor, palpate for a flat anterior fontanel, observe for moist mucus membranes and measure the urine output. The urine output should be 1 to 2ml/kg/hr. The electrolyte laboratory results will tell the nurse if the infant has an electrolyte imbalance, not a fluid imbalance. Assessing the lung sounds will not tell if the child is hydrated, only if the lungs are "wet" and fluid overloaded. The infant would also exhibit additional signs of respiratory distress if the lungs are fluid overloaded.

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized, 1-week-old infant who appears very ill. Which assessment finding(s) will the nurse report to the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) A. Petchiae B. Heart rate 100 beats/min C. Respiratory rate 60 breaths/min D. Axillary temperature 97.6°F (36.5°C) E. Characteristic of cry

Answer: A, B, C, D, E Rationale: Sepsis is suspected in any infant under 3 months of age until laboratory findings return. In an infant, the most important findings are hypothermia, bradycardia, and apnea. Tachypnea care be present in both infants and children. The nurse would be concerned with the infant's weak cry, lethargy, and an increased work of breathing such as rate, nasal flaring, grunting, and retractions. The child with sepsis generally has an elevated termperature, but hypothermia is seen in infants. The nurse should perform a good skin assessment. If petechiae are present, it is indicative of a very serious infection caused by Neisseria meningitidis.

A group of nursing students are reviewing the six links in the chain of infection and the nursing implications for each. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which precaution as helping to break the chain of infection to the susceptible host? A. Keeping linens dry and clean B. Maintaining skin integrity C. Washing hands frequently D. Coughing into a handkerchief

Answer: B Rationale: Maintaining the integrity of the child's skin and mucous membranes is a precaution that will break the chain of infection at the susceptible host. Keeping linens dry and clean is a precaution to take at the reservoir link. Washing hands frequently breaks the chain at the mode of transmission. Coughing into a handkerchief is a precaution for the portal of exit.

The nurse is teaching the parent of a child with cystic fibrosis about nutrition requirements for the child. What should be included in this teaching? A. "Give your child high-calorie foods and snacks." B. "Feed your child foods that are high in protein." C. "Administer water soluble vitamins." D. "Give panreatic enzymes with meals." E. "Give your child foods high in fat."

Answer: A, B, D Rationale: Children with cystic fibrosis (CF) have trouble digesting and absorbing nutrients. They tend to be underweight. For optimal health, their diets should be high in calories and high in protein, with the supplementation of fat soluble vitamins and pancreatic enzymes. This diet helps with growth and the optimal nutrients. The fat soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E and K) are needed, because children with CF have trouble absorbing fat and need the vitamin supplementation to aid in fat absorption. Water soluble vitamins (the B vitamins and vitamin C) do not aid in fat absorption. The child should not have a high-fat diet, because the extra fat is difficult to digest and be absorbed. Pancreatic enzymes are necessary because they are missing due to the disease process. They are necessary to aid in digestion. They should be ingested with meals.

A parent with a child who has cystic fibrosis asks the nurse how to determine if the child is receiving an adequate amount of pancreatic enzymes. How should the nurse respond? Select all that apply. A. "The dose is adequate when your child is only having 1 to 2 stools per day." B. "The dose is adequate when your child's weight is improving." C. "The dose prescribed is based on your child's pancreatic laboratory values so it should be correct." D. "When your child starts to eat more quantity of food you will need to adjust the amount of enzyme pills." E. "You will need to give your child less enzyme pills when high-fat foods are eaten."

Answer: A, B, D Rationale: Pancreatic enzymes are required for the child with cystic fibrosis (CF) to help absorb nutrients from the diet and to aid in digestion. They are given with each meal and snack the child eats. The number of capsules required at each dose depends upon the diagnosis of how the pancreas is functioning and the amount of food needing to be digested. The pancreatic laboratory values may determine a baseline for the number of pills to start with, but the dosage is adjusted regularly. The dosage of pancreatic enzymes is adjusted until an adequate growth pattern is established and the child is having no more than 1 to 2 stools per day. The child should be given an increased number of enzyme pills when a meal with high-fat content is consumed, not fewer.

The parents of a 7-month-old child with an infection ask the nurse about how to treat their child's fever. After providing teaching, the parents voice understanding with which statements? Select all that apply. A. "If my child's fever is under 102°F , I don't need to make an appointment with the physician." B. "Having a temperature over 38°C puts my child at risk for the infection spreading to the bloodstream." C. "I can use acetaminophen to help with the symptoms of the infection but it won't get rid of the infection." D. "Even though people get frightened, fevers are not a bad thing during an infection unless it gets too high." E. "Any fever is dangerous and can cause serious damage to brain cells if it goes on too long."

Answer: A, C, D Rationale: In infants older than 3 months of age, fever less than 38.9°C (102°F) usually does not require treatment by a physician. Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, provide symptomatic relief but do not change the course of the infection. A fever can actually enhance various components of the immune response. Infants younger than 3 months of age with a rectal temperature greater than 38°C should be seen by a physician or nurse practitioner because of increased risk of sepsis.

A group of nursing students are reviewing the medications used to treat asthma. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which agent as appropriate for an acute episode of bronchospasm? A. Salmeterol B. Albuterol C. Ipratropium D. Cromolyn

Answer: B Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting β2-adrenergic agonist that is used for treatment of acute bronchospasm. Salmeterol is a long-acting β2-adrenergic agonist used for long-term control or exercise-induced asthma. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic agent used as an adjunct to β2- adrenergic agonists for treatment of bronchospasm. Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer used prophylactically but not to relieve bronchospasm during an acute wheezing episode.

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the variations in respiratory anatomy and physiology in children in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which finding? A. Children's demand for oxygen is lower than that of adults. B. Children develop hypoxemia more rapidly than adults do. C. An increase in oxygen saturation leads to a much larger decrease in pO2. D. Children's bronchi are wider in diameter than those of an adult.

Answer: B Rationale: Children develop hypoxemia more rapidly than adults do because they have a significantly higher metabolic rate and faster resting respiratory rates than adults do, which leads to a higher demand for oxygen. A smaller decrease in oxygen saturation reflects a disproportionately much larger decrease in pO2. The bronchi in children are narrower than in adults, placing them at higher risk for lower airway obstruction.

A nursing instructor is preparing a class on chronic lung disease. What information would the instructor include when describing this disorder? A. It is a result of cystic fibrosis. B. It is seen most commonly in premature infants. C. It typically affects females more often than males. D. It is characterized by bradypnea.

Answer: B Rationale: Chronic lung disease, formerly known as bronchopulmonary dysplasia, is often diagnosed in infants who have experienced respiratory distress syndrome, most commonly seen in premature infants. Male gender is a risk factor for development. Tachypnea and increased work of breathing are characteristic of chronic lung disease.

After teaching a mother how to remove a tick from her 6-year-old boy's arm, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the mother makes what statement? A. "I'll protect my fingers with a paper towel." B. "I'll grasp the tick and pull it away quickly." C. "I should put the tick in a plastic bag in the freezer." D. "I need to grasp the tick close to the child's skin."

Answer: B Rationale: Grasping the tick and pulling it away quickly would indicate the need for additional teaching. When removing a tick, the mother should use fine-tipped tweezers while protecting her fingers with a tissue, paper towel, or latex gloves. The mother should grasp the tick as close to the skin as possible and pull upward with steady, even pressure. Once removed, the mother should place the tick in a sealable plastic bag in the freezer in case the child becomes sick and identification of the tick is needed.

A nurse is conducting a health history for a 1-month-old with an infectious disorder. Which segment of the maternal health history would be most helpful for the nurse when determining if the infant developed the infection from the mother? A. Family history B. Past medical history C. Home treatments D. Present illness history

Answer: B Rationale: Past medical history will provide information about the mother's pregnancy and birth, giving insight into the possibility of maternal transmission of the infection. Family history would provide information about lack of immunizations or recent infectious or communicable diseases. Home treatments and present illness history would provide no information about the possibility of maternal transmission of infection.

The nurse is examining an 8-year-old boy with tachycardia and tachypnea. The nurse anticipates which test as most helpful in determining the extent of the child's hypoxia? A. Pulmonary function test B. Pulse oximetry C. Peak expiratory flow D. Chest radiograph

Answer: B Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a useful tool for determining the extent of hypoxia. It can be used by the nurse for continuous or intermittent monitoring. Pulmonary function testing measures respiratory flow and lung volumes and is indicated for asthma, cystic fibrosis, and chronic lung disease. Peak expiratory flow testing is used to monitor the adequacy of asthma control. Chest radiographs can show hyperinflation, atelectasis, pneumonia, foreign bodies, pleural effusion, and abnormal heart or lung size

While hospitalized, a child develops scarlet fever. Isolation has been prescribed by the health care provider. The nurse would place this child in what type of isolation? A. Airborne B. Droplet C. Contact D. Reverse

Answer: B Rationale: Scarlet fever is produced by group A streptococcus. It is most seen in children ages 5 years to 15 years. It is spread by droplets from respiratory secretions by talking, coughing, or sneezing. These droplets can travel 3 feet (1 meter). Isolation recommendations require the use of a mask for care of the child. Airborne isolation is required for illness that also produce droplets but these are smaller, can travel further and stay suspended in air. An N95 mask and negative pressure room is required for this type of isolation. Contact isolation requires the use of gowns, masks and gloves for direct contact with an infected person. Reverse isolation occurs if the client is neutropenic.

The nurse is assessing a 5-year-old girl who is anxious, has a high fever, speaks in a whisper, and sits up with her neck thrust forward. Based on these findings, what would be least appropriate for the nurse to perform? A. Providing 100% oxygen B. Visualizing the throat C. Having the child sit forward D. Auscultating for lung sounds

Answer: B Rationale: The child is exhibiting signs and symptoms of epiglottitis, which can be lifethreatening. Under no circumstances should the nurse attempt to visualize the throat. Reflex laryngospasm may occur, precipitating immediate airway occlusion. Providing 100% oxygen in the least invasive manner that is most acceptable to the child is a sound intervention, as is allowing the child to assume a position of sitting forward with the neck extended. Auscultation would reveal breath sounds consistent with an obstructed airway.

A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for the family of a child with allergic rhinitis. When describing the immune reaction that occurs, the nurse would identify the role of which immunoglobulin? A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM

Answer: B Rationale: The immunoglobulin involved in the immune response associated with allergic rhinitis is IgE. IgA, IgG, and IgM are not involved in this response.

The nurse is preparing to perform a physical examination of a child with asthma. Which technique would the nurse be least likely to perform? A. Inspection B. Palpation C. Percussion D. Auscultation

Answer: B Rationale: When examining the child with asthma, the nurse would inspect, auscultate, and percuss. Palpation would not be used.

A child is diagnosed with a helminthic infection. Which treatments would the nurse expect to be prescribed? Select all that apply. A. Erythromycin B. Albendazole C. Pyrantel pamoate D. Acyclovir E. Metronidazole F. Permethrin

Answer: B, C Rationale: Drugs used to treat helminthic infections include albendazole and pyrantel pamoate. Erythromycin is used to treat bacterial infections. Acyclovir is used to treat viral infections. Metronidazole is used to treat trichomoniasis. Permethrin is used to treat pediculosis.

The nurse is performing a physical examination on a 9-year-old boy who has experienced a tick bite on his lower leg and is suspected of having Lyme disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find? A. Swelling in the neck B. Confusion and anxiety C. Ring-like rash on lower leg D. Hypersalivation

Answer: C Rationale: A ring-like rash at the site of the tick bite is characteristic for Lyme disease. Swelling in the neck is a symptom of mumps. Confusion, anxiety, and hypersalivation are symptoms of rabies.

A nurse is administering 100% oxygen to a child with a pneumothorax based on the understanding that this treatment is used primarily for which reason? A. Improve gas exchange B. Bypass the obstruction C. Hasten air reabsorption D. Prevent hypoxemia

Answer: C Rationale: Administration of 100% oxygen is used to treat pneumothorax primarily because it hastens the reabsorption of air. Generally this is used only for a few hours. Although the oxygen also improves gas exchange and prevents hypoxemia, these are not the reasons for its use in this situation. There is no obstruction with a pneumothorax.

The mother of a 4-year-old boy has contacted the physician's office. She reports her son was exposed to someone with chickenpox. She has inquired about when her son may show if he has gotten the disease. What information should be provided? A. The illness should be seen in a week if he has been exposed. B. Symptoms of the disease should show up within 24 to 48 hours of exposure. C. The incubation period for the disease is between 10 and 21 days. D. Younger children will have longer periods of incubation.

Answer: C Rationale: Chickenpox is the common name for varicella. This condition has an incubation period of 10 to 21 days.

When performing the physical examination of a child with cystic fibrosis, what would the nurse expect to assess? A. Dullness over the lung fields B. Increased diaphragmatic excursion C. Decreased tactile fremitus D. Hyperresonance over the liver

Answer: C Rationale: Examination of a child with cystic fibrosis typically reveals decreased tactile fremitus over areas of atelectasis, hyperresonance over the lung fields from air trapping, decreased diaphragmatic excursion, and dullness over the liver when enlarged.

A child with a pneumothorax has a chest tube attached to a water seal system. When assessing the child, the nurse notices that the chest tube has become disconnected from the drainage system. What would the nurse do first? A. Notify the physician. B. Apply an occlusive dressing. C. Clamp the chest tube. D. Perform a respiratory assessment.

Answer: C Rationale: If a chest tube becomes disconnected from the water seal drainage system, the nurse would first clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the child's chest cavity. Then the nurse would perform a respiratory assessment and notify the physician. An occlusive dressing would be applied first if the chest tube became dislodged from the child's chest.

The nurse is discussing discharge instructions with the parents of a 6-year-old who had a tonsillectomy. What is the most important thing to stress? A. Administer analgesics. B. Encourage the child to drink liquids. C. Inspect the throat for bleeding. D. Apply an ice collar.

Answer: C Rationale: Inspecting the throat for bleeding is the most important discharge information to give the parents. Hemorrhage is unusual postoperatively but may occur any time from the immediate postoperative period to as late as 10 days after surgery. The nurse should inspect the throat for bleeding. Mucus tinged with blood may be expected, but fresh blood in the secretions indicates bleeding. Administering analgesics, encouraging fluids and applying an ice color are important but not as important as assessing for bleeding.

A child is diagnosed with scarlet fever. The nurse is reviewing the child's medical record, expecting which medication to be prescribed for this child? A. Ibuprofen B. Acyclovir C. Penicillin V D. Doxycycline

Answer: C Rationale: Penicillin V is the antibiotic of choice for the treatment of scarlet fever. Ibuprofen is used to treat fever. Acyclovir is used to treat viral infections. Doxycycline, a tetracycline, is the drug of choice for treating Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

Bacterial pneumonia is suspected in a 4-year-old boy with fever, headache, and chest pain. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate the need for this child to be hospitalized? A. Fever B. Oxygen saturation level of 96% C. Tachypnea with retractions D. Pale skin color

Answer: C Rationale: Pneumonia is usually a self-limiting disease. Children with bacterial pneumonia can be successfully managed at home if the work of breathing is not severe and oxygen saturation is within normal limits. Hospitalization would most likely be required for the child with tachypnea, significant retractions, poor oral intake, or lethargy for the administration of supplemental oxygen, intravenous hydration, and antibiotics. Fever, although common in children with pneumonia, would not necessitate hospitalization. An oxygen saturation level of 96% would be within normal limits. Pallor (pale skin color) occurs as a result of peripheral vasoconstriction in an effort to conserve oxygen for vital functions; this finding also would not necessitate hospitalization.

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for the mother of a 4-year-old girl with cold and fever. What would the nurse include in this teaching plan? A. Keeping the child covered and warm B. Calling the doctor if the child's fever lasts more than 36 hours C. Ensuring fluid intake to prevent dehydration D. Observing for changes in alertness resulting from brain damage

Answer: C Rationale: Teaching the mother to ensure fluid intake is important because fever can cause dehydration. The child should be dressed lightly. There is no need to call the doctor unless the child's fever lasts more than 3 to 5 days or the fever is greater than 105ºF. A rapid rise to a high fever can cause a febrile convulsion, but it does not lead to brain damage.

A parent asks the nurse about immunizing her 7-month-old daughter against the flu. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A. "She really doesn't need the vaccine until she reaches 1 year of age." B. "She will probably receive it the next time she is to get her routine shots." C. "Since your daughter is older than 6 months, she should get the vaccine every year." D. "The vaccine has many side effects, so she wouldn't get it until she's ready to go to school."

Answer: C Rationale: The current recommendations are for all children older than 6 months of age to be immunized yearly against influenza.

The nurse is providing education to the parents of a child diagnosed with pinworms. Which statement is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching? A. "Seal the child's clothing in a plastic bag for at least 10 days." abirb.com/test B. "Be sure your child wears shoes at all times." C. "Make sure your child washes hands before eating." D. "After applying this special cream, leave it on for about 8 to 10 hours."

Answer: C Rationale: The most effective measure to prevent pinworms or a recurrence is good hand hygiene, especially after using the bathroom and before eating. Sealing the child's clothing in a plastic bag is appropriate for pediculosis capitis. Having the child wear shoes at all times is helpful in preventing hookworm. Use of a cream that remains on for a specified time is associated with scabies.

The nurse is caring for a female infant with torticollis and is providing instructions to the parents about how to help their daughter. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching? A. "We must encourage our daughter to turn her head both ways." B. "Flatness on one side of the head is a common side effect." C. "We must apply firm pressure and stretching every other day." D. "We will do a daily stretching regimen with multiple sessions."

Answer: C Rationale: The nurse needs to remind the parents that the stretching exercises should be done several times a day. The stretching is applied with gentle, not firm, pressure and should be done every day for multiple sessions. The statements about turning the head both ways, flatness on one side as common, and daily stretching with multiple sessions are correct.

The client has a heavily draining wound for which there is an order to change the dressing every 4 hours. The nurse becomes busy and does not change the dressing as ordered. Which link in the chain of infection has the nurse allowed to flourish? A. Susceptible host B. Portal of exit C. Reservoir D. Mode of transmission

Answer: C Rationale: The reservoir is the area where a pathogen grows and reproduces. Leaving the dressing unchanged allows for a dark, warm, nutrient rich, and moist environment where many organisms will thrive. A susceptible host is a person who cannot fight off an infection. The portal of exit is the way a pathogen exits the host. The mode of transmission is the way the pathogen travels.

A child is brought to the emergency department by his parents because he suddenly developed a barking cough. Further assessment leads the nurse to suspect that the child is experiencing croup. What would the nurse have most likely assessed? A. High fever B. Dysphagia C. Toxic appearance D. Inspiratory stridor

Answer: D Rationale: A child with croup typically develops a bark-like cough often at night. This may be accompanied by inspiratory stridor and suprasternal retractions. Temperature may be normal or slightly elevated. A high fever, dysphagia, and toxic appearance are associated with epiglottitis.

After teaching the parents of a child with chickenpox (varicella zoster), the nurse determines that the parents have understood the teaching when they state that their child can return to school at which time? A. After day 5 of the rash B. When the rash is completely healed C. Once the rash appears D. After the lesions have crusted

Answer: D Rationale: Children with chickenpox (varicella zoster) can return to school once the lesions have crusted.

A nurse is teaching the parents of a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis about medication therapy. Which would the nurse instruct the parents to administer orally? A. Recombinant human DNase B. Bronchodilators C. Anti-inflammatory agents D. Pancreatic enzymes

Answer: D Rationale: Pancreatic enzymes are administered orally to promote adequate digestion and absorption of nutrients. Recombinant human DNase, bronchodilators, and anti-inflammatory agents are typically administered by inhalation.

The nurse is examining a 5-year-old. Which sign or symptom is a reliable first indication of respiratory illness in children? A. Slow, irregular breathing B. A bluish tinge to the lips C. Increasing lethargy D. Rapid, shallow breathing

Answer: D Rationale: Tachypnea, or increased respiratory rate, is often the first sign of respiratory illness in infants and children. Slow, irregular breathing and increasing listlessness are signs that the child's condition is worsening. Cyanosis (a bluish tinge to the lips) or the degree of cyanosis present is not always an accurate indication of the severity of respiratory involvement.

The nurse is providing care to several children who have been brought to the clinic by the parents reporting cold-like symptoms. The nurse would most likely suspect sinusitis in which child? A. A 2-year-old with thin watery nasal discharge B. A 3-year-old with sneezing and coughing C. A 5-year-old with nasal congestion and sore throat D. A 7-year-old with halitosis and thick, yellow nasal discharge

Answer: D Rationale: The frontal sinuses, those most commonly associated with sinus infection, develop by age 6 to 8 years. Therefore, the 7-year-old would most likely experience sinusitis. In addition, this child also exhibits halitosis and a thick, yellow nasal discharge, other findings associated with sinusitis. Thin watery discharge in a 2-year-old is more likely to indicate allergic rhinitis. A 3-year-old with coughing and sneezing or a 5-year-old with nasal congestion and sore throat suggests the common cold.

The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a 5-year-old boy with chickenpox. Which nursing intervention should be questioned? A. Administer antipyretics as ordered. B. Keep the child's fingernails short. C. Monitor fluid intake and output. D. Provide alcohol baths as needed.

Answer: D Rationale: Treatments such as sponging the child with alcohol or cold water are not appropriate interventions for fever management. Rather, the nurse would use tepid sponge baths and cool compresses. Administering antipyretics, keeping the child's fingernails short, and monitoring intake and output are appropriate.