PEDS EXAM 3

The nurse is assessing a 5-year-old child's genitourinary system. Which findings would the nurse document as normal? Select all that apply. A) Labial fusion B) Round abdomen C) Positive bowel sounds D) Dullness over the spleen E) Undescended testicles

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Normal findings include a round abdomen, positive bowel sounds, dullness over the spleen, and descended testicles. Labial fusion, a distended abdomen, and undescended testicles are abnormal findings.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a parent group about childhood cancers, focusing on brain tumors in children. What would the nurse describe as the most common type of brain tumor? A) Brain stem glioma B) Medulloblastoma C) Ependymoma D) Astrocytoma

B) Medulloblastoma

A 16-year-old client has just been diagnosed with HIV. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the diagnosis?

"We don't want to face the fact that it is likely our child contracted HIV through sexual contact or IV drug use."

A 14-year-old boy is diagnosed with Hodgkin disease. When palpating for enlarged lymph nodes, the nurse would expect to find which nodes as most commonly enlarged? Select all that apply. A) Cervical B) Axillary C) Supraclavicular D) Occipital E) Inguinal

A) Cervical C) Supraclavicular

When evaluating the hemogram of an 8-month-old infant, the nurse would identify which type of hemoglobin as being the predominant type? A) Hemoglobin A B) Hemoglobin F C) Hemoglobin A2 D) Hemoglobin S

A) Hemoglobin A

The nurse is caring for a child admitted with pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would likely have been noted in the child with this diagnosis?

Projectile vomiting

The parents of a 6-week-old boy come to the clinic for evaluation because the infant has been vomiting. The parents report that the vomiting has been increasing in frequency and forcefulness over the last week. The mother says, "Sometimes, it seems like it just bursts out of his mouth." A diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is suspected. When performing the physical examination, what would the nurse most likely find? A) Sausage-shaped mass in the upper midabdomen B) Hard, moveable, olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant C) Tenderness over the McBurney point in the right lower quadrant D) Abdominal pain in the epigastric or umbilical region

Ans: B Feedback: With hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a hard, moveable, olive-shaped mass would be palpated in the right upper quadrant. A sausage-shaped mass in the upper midabdomen would suggest intussusception. Tenderness over the McBurney point would be associated with appendicitis. Epigastric or umbilical pain would be associated with peptic ulcer disease.

The nurse is caring for an infant with a temporary ileostomy. As part of the plan of care, the nurse monitors for skin breakdown around the stoma. If redness occurs, what would be most appropriate to promote healing and prevent further skin breakdown? A) Clean the area well with a scented diaper wipe. B) Apply a barrier/healing cream or paste on the skin. C) Use a barrier wafer to attach the appliance. D) Sanitize the area with an alcohol wipe after each diaper change

Ans: B. Apply a barrier/healing cream or paste on the skin. Feedback: The nurse should use a barrier/healing cream or paste on the skin around the stoma to promote healing and prevent further skin breakdown. Diaper wipes that contain fragrance or alcohol can sting if used on nonintact skin and can worsen skin breakdown. The barrier wafer would be helpful, but does not address the skin breakdown.

A nursing student is preparing an oral presentation about autosomal recessive inheritance. Which of the following must occur for an offspring to demonstrate signs and symptoms of the disorder with this type of inheritance?

Both parents must be heterozygous carriers.

The nurse is caring for a child who is having an anaphylactic reaction with bronchospasm. The nurse would expect to administer what medication for bronchospasm as ordered? A)Epinephrine B)Corticosteroid C)Albuterol D)Diphenhydramine

C. Albuterol The nurse would expect to administer bronchodilation inhalation treatment (albuterol) if bronchospasm is present. Epinephrine, diphenhydramine, and/or corticosteroids are administered to reverse the allergic process.

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for the parents of a child with a urinary tract infection (UTI). What would the nurse encourage the parents to avoid? A) Liberal fluid intake B) Caffeine C) Cranberry juice D) Cotton underwear

Ans: B Feedback: Caffeine is an irritant to the bladder and should be avoided. Liberal fluid intake and cranberry juice should be encouraged. The child should wear cotton underwear to avoid perineal irritation.

The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old with a suspected urinary tract infection. What would be most appropriate when obtaining a urine specimen from the child? A) "I will need a urine sample." B) "Let your mom help you tinkle in this cup." C) "Please tinkle in this cup right now." D) "Please void in this cup instead of the toilet."

Ans: B Feedback: The nurse needs to use familiar terms to explain to the child what is needed and to gain cooperation. The most positive approach would be to let the child's mother help rather than demanding that he tinkle right now. Using the terms "urine sample" or "void" is not appropriate for a 4-year-old.

The nurse is assessing an infant and notes that the infant's urine has a mousy or musty odor. What would the nurse suspect? A) Maple syrup urine disease B) Tyrosinemia C) Phenylketonuria D) Trimethylaminuria

Ans: C The urine of a child with phenylketonuria has a mousy or musty odor. For the child with maple syrup urine disease, excretions have a maple syrup odor. With tyrosinemia, excretions have a cabbage-like or rancid butter odor. With trimethylaminuria, excretions smell like rotting fish.

A nurse is instituting neutropenic precautions for a child. What information would the nurse most likely include? Select all that apply. A) Placing the child in a semiprivate room B) Avoiding rectal exams, suppositories, and enemas C) Placing a mask on the child when outside the room D) Encouraging an intake of raw fruits and vegetables E) Discouraging fresh flowers in the child's room

B) Avoiding rectal exams, suppositories, and enemas C) Placing a mask on the child when outside the room E) Discouraging fresh flowers in the child's room

The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old boy whose parents brought him to the clinic when they noticed that the right side of his abdomen was swollen. What finding would suggest this child has a neuroblastoma? A) The child has a maculopapular rash on his palms. B) The parents report that their son is vomiting and not eating well. C) The parents report that their son is irritable and not gaining weight. D) Auscultation reveals wheezing with diminished lung sounds.

B) The parents report that their son is vomiting and not eating well.

The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a child with suspected Crohn disease. Which finding would be the most suspicious of Crohn disease? A)Normal growth patterns B)Perianal skin tags or fissures C)Poor growth patterns D)Abdominal tenderness

B. Perianal skin tags or fissures. Perianal skin tags and/or fissures are highly suspicious of Crohn disease. Poor growth patterns and abdominal tenderness are common to Crohn disease but are also seen with many other conditions. Normal growth patterns would not point to Crohn disease because of problems with absorbing nutrients.

A group of nursing students are studying information about childhood cancers in preparation for a class examination. They are reviewing how childhood cancers differ from adult cancers. The group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify what location as an unlikely site for childhood cancer?

Bladder The most common sites for childhood cancer include the blood, lymph, brain, bone, kidney, and muscle. Bladder is a common site for adult cancer.

After teaching a class about humoral and cellular immunity, the nurse recognizes that the additional teaching is needed when the class states that: A) Humoral immunity crosses the placenta. B) Cellular immunity involves the T lymphocytes. C) Cellular immunity recognizes antigens. D) Humoral immunity does not destroy the foreign cell.

C. Cellular immunity recognizes antigens Humoral immunity recognizes antigens and cellular immunity does not. Humoral immunity crosses the placenta in the form of IgG. Cellular immunity involves the action of T lymphocytes, and humoral immunity does not destroy the foreign cell.

Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a child is experiencing moderate dehydration? A)Dusky extremities B)Tenting of skin C)Sunken fontanels D)Hypotension

C. sunken fontanels A child with moderate dehydration would exhibit sunken fontanels. Severe dehydration would be characterized by dusky extremities, skin tenting, and hypotension.

The nurse is caring for a child who has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management? A) Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) as ordered. B) Use guided imagery and therapeutic touch. C) Administer meperidine as ordered. D) Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.

D) Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.

The nurse is taking a health history of a 12-year-old boy presenting with scrotal pain. Which assessment finding would indicate testicular torsion?

Sudden onset of severe scrotal pain with significant hemorrhagic swelling

The nurse is caring for a special needs infant. Which intervention will be most important in helping the child reach her maximum developmental potential? A) Directing her parents to an early intervention program B) Monitoring her progress in elementary school C) Serving on an individualized education program committee D) Preparing a plan for her to transition to college

Ans: A Feedback: Early intervention is critical to maximizing the child's developmental potential by laying the foundation for health and development. While important, intervention in elementary or secondary school does not have the impact of early intervention. When the time arrives, it is important to have a written plan for transition to college, if this is a possibility for the grown child

A pregnant woman is to undergo testing to evaluate for chromosomal abnormalities. Which test would the nurse expect to be done the earliest? A) Amniocentesis B) Chorionic villi sampling C) Triple screen D) Fetal nuchal translucency

Ans: B Chorionic villi sampling is performed at 7 to 11 weeks' gestation. Amniocentesis usually is performed after 15 weeks' gestation. A triple screen is usually done between 16 and 19 weeks' gestation. Fetal nuchal translucency must be performed between 11 and 14 weeks.

The nurse is caring for families with vulnerable child syndrome. Which situation would be most likely to predispose the family to this condition? A) Having a postterm infant B) Having an infant who is reluctant to feed properly C) Having a child diagnosed with impetigo at age 10 D) Having a child with juvenile diabetes

Ans: B Feedback: "Vulnerable child syndrome" is a clinical state in which the parents' reactions to a serious illness or event in the child's past continue to have long-term psychologically harmful effects on the child and parents for many years. Risk factors for the development of vulnerable child syndrome include preterm birth, congenital anomaly, newborn jaundice, handicapping condition, an accident or illness that the child was not expected to recover from, or crying or feeding problems in the first 5 years of life.

The nurse is providing home care for the family of an 8-year-old boy who is dying of leukemia. Which action will be most supportive to the parents of the child? A) Encouraging organ and tissue donation B) Being patient with parental indecision C) Getting prior authorization for treatments D) Explaining how anorexia is a natural process

Ans: B Feedback: It is critical to be patient with parents who may vacillate when making decisions. Give them the information and time they need to make decisions and avoid being judgmental. Explaining about anorexia and encouraging organ donation may be discussed when the parents indicate they are concerned. Getting prior authorization facilitates care delivery and is not a supportive intervention.

A nurse is conducting a physical examination of an infant and observes the urethral opening on the dorsal side of the penis. The nurse documents this finding as: A) hypospadias. B) epispadias. C) varicocele. D) hydrocele.

Ans: B Feedback: Epispadias is a urethral defect in which the opening is on the dorsal surface of the penis. Hypospadias is a urethral defect in which the opening is on the ventral surface of the penis rather than at the end. Varicocele is a venous varicosity along the spermatic cord manifested as a scrotal swelling. Hydrocele is a benign condition in which fluid accumulates in the scrotal sac.

The nurse is visually inspecting a urine specimen from a 12-year-old boy. The nurse documents gross hematuria with a specimen of which color? A) Cloudy yellow B) Cola colored C) Pale to almost clear urine D) Light orange to moderately yellow colored

Ans: B Feedback: Gross hematuria causes the urine to appear tea, cola, or even dirty green colored. Cloudy urine is typically a sign of infection. Normal urine ranges from moderately yellow to pale or almost clear. Orange-colored urine can occur because of medication.

While presenting a panel discussion to a group of parents about urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children, one of the parents asks the nurse, "Why would my daughter be more at risk than my son?" Which response by the nurse would be most accurate? A) "Girls have a smaller bladder size than boys do." B) "A girl's urethra is closer to the rectal opening." C) "A girl's urethra is longer than a boy's urethra." D) "Her kidneys are less well protected."

Ans: B Feedback: In females, the urethra is shorter, which allows bacteria to enter the bladder. It also is closer in physical proximity to the rectum, leading to possible contamination. Bladder size does not differ between boys and girls. The kidneys are less well protected in the abdomen, increasing the risk for injury but not UTIs.

A child is diagnosed with hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS). Review of the child's laboratory test results would reveal which finding? A) Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine B) Decreased platelets and leukocytosis C) Hypernatremia and hypokalemia D) Respiratory acidosis and proteinuria

Ans: B Feedback: The child with HUS typically exhibits severe thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets) and leukocytosis. BUN and creatinine are elevated. Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and proteinuria also may be noted.

The nurse is taking a health history of a child with suspected acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which response would alert the nurse to a confirmed risk factor for this condition? A) "She has been very healthy up to now." B) "He just got over a head cold with laryngitis." C) "My child is just 18 months old." D) "My child has not been sick at all."

Ans: B) "He just got over a head cold with laryngitis." Feedback: Known risk factors include a recent episode of pharyngitis or other streptococcal infection, age older than 2 years, and male sex.

The nurse is providing palliative care for a 9-year-old boy in hospice. Which is unique to hospice care for children? A) Encouraging visits from friends and family B) Educating parents about terminal dehydration C) Prolonging treatment that might possibly help D) Treating constipation to relieve abdominal pain

Ans: C Feedback: Hospice for children allows for continuation of hopeful treatment so long as certain criteria are met. This is different from adult hospice. Encouraging visits from friends and family, educating parents about terminal dehydration, and treating constipation are common to family-centered care.

The nurse is teaching a couple about the pros and cons of genetic testing. Which statement best describes the capabilities of genetic testing? A) "Various genetic tests help the physician choose appropriate treatments." B) "Genetic testing helps couples avoid having children with fatal diseases." C) "Genetic tests identify people at high risk for preventable conditions." D) "Some genetic tests can give a probability for developing a disorder."

Ans: D) "Some genetic tests can give a probability for developing a disorder." The fact that some tests only provide a probability for developing a disorder raises a problem. A serious limitation of these susceptibility tests is that some people who carry a disease-associated mutation never develop the disease. The other statements affirm the value of genetic tests.

A nurse is conducting a physical examination of a 5-year-old with suspected iron-deficiency anemia. How would the nurse evaluate for changes in neurologic functioning? A)"Open your mouth so I can look inside your cheeks and lips." B)"Do you have any bruises on your feet or shins?" C)"Will you show me how you walk across the room?" D)"Let me see the palms of your hands and soles of your feet."

C. "Will you show me how you walk across the room?" Neurologic effects of iron deficiency may be demonstrated when the child's ability to sit, stand, and walk are impaired. Inspecting the mouth, looking for bruises, and checking the hands and feet provide information about signs of petechiae, purpura, or pallor.

The nurse is providing care to a child with an intussusception. The child has a bowel movement and the nurse inspects the stool. The nurse would most likely document the stool's appearance as having what quality? A)Greasy B)Clay-colored C)Currant jelly-like D)Bloody

C. Currant jelly-like The child with intussusception often exhibits currant jelly-like stools that may or may not be positive for blood. Greasy stools are associated with celiac disease. Clay-colored stools are observed with biliary atresia. Bloody stools can be seen with several gastrointestinal disorders, such as inflammatory bowel disease.

The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old boy who has undergone an appendectomy. The child is unwilling to use the incentive spirometer. Which approach would be most appropriate to elicit the child's cooperation? A)"Can you cough for me please?" B)"You must blow in this or you might get pneumonia." C)"If you don't try, I will have to get the doctor." D)"Can you blow this cotton ball across the tray?"

D. "Can you blow this cotton ball across the tray?" Children are more likely to cooperate with interventions if play is involved. Encourage deep breathing by playing games. Asking the boy to cough is less likely to engage him. Telling the child he might get pneumonia is not age appropriate and is unhelpful. Threatening to call the doctor is unhelpful and inappropriate. Remember, however, that the incentive spirometer works on the principle of the amount of air inhaled, not exhaled. Having the child take a deep breath prior to blowing the cotton ball is a beginning step.

A group of students are reviewing information about fluid balance and losses in children in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they state that: A)children have a proportionately greater amount of body water than do adults. B)fever plays a greater role in insensible fluid losses in infants and children. C)a higher metabolic rate plays a major role in increased insensible fluid losses. D)the infant's immature kidneys have a tendency to over concentrate urine.

D. the infant's immature kidneys have a tendency to over concentrate urine. The young infant's renal immaturity does not allow the kidneys to concentrate urine as well as in older children and adults, placing them at risk for dehydration or over hydration. Children do have a proportionately greater amount of body water than adults, and fever is important in promoting insensible fluid losses in infants and children because children become febrile more readily and their fevers are higher than those in adults. Children also experience a higher metabolic rate, which accounts for increased insensible fluid losses and increased need for water for excretory function.

The nurse is caring for a couple who have just learned that their infant has a genetic disorder. Which of the following would be least appropriate for the nurse to do at this time?

Teaching the parents about the child's medical needs

What finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a child has Turner syndrome? A) Webbed neck B) Microcephaly C) Gynecomastia D) Cognitive delay

Ans: A Manifestations of Turner syndrome include webbed neck, low posterior hairline, wide-spaced nipples, edema of the hands and feet, amenorrhea, and absence of secondary sex characteristics, along with short stature and slow growth. Microcephaly is commonly associated with trisomy 13. Gynecomastia and cognitive delay are associated with Klinefelter syndrome.

The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old boy with idiopathic thrombocytopenia. The nurse is providing discharge instructions about home care and safety recommendations to the boy and his parents. Which response indicates a need for further teaching? A) "We should avoid aspirin and drugs like ibuprofen." B) "He can resume participation in football in 2 weeks." C) "Swimming would be a great activity." D) "Our son cannot take any antihistamines."

B) "He can resume participation in football in 2 weeks."

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a child with thalassemia. What information would the nurse expect to include? Select all that apply.

Packed RBC transfusions Deferoxamine therapy

The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a toddler with suspected lead poisoning. Lab results indicate blood lead level 52 mcg/dL. Which action would the nurse expect to happen next? A) Repeat testing within 2 days and prepare to begin chelation therapy as ordered. B) Repeat testing within 1 week with education to decrease lead exposure. C) Confirm with repeat testing in 1 month and referral to local health department. D) Prepare to admit child to begin chelation therapy.

A) Repeat testing within 2 days and prepare to begin chelation therapy as ordered.

A nurse is caring for a 12-year-old girl with a severe peanut allergy. The girl's parents are upset because the school does not permit her to carry her EpiPen with her. It must remain in the school's office per school regulations. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A)"She is allowed by law to carry her EpiPen with her; I will talk to school authorities." B)"Let's file an action plan and keep it in the school office in the event of anaphylaxis." C)"Make sure she wears a medical alert bracelet so that school staff know she has allergies." D)"I will be happy to train school authorities and staff to recognize anaphylaxis."

A. "She is allowed by law to carry her EpiPen with her; I will talk to school authorities." Public Law No. 108-377, the Asthmatic Schoolchildren's Treatment and Health Management Act of 2004, was passed by the U.S. Congress. This law is intended to ensure that students with severe allergies can carry prescribed medications such as an EpiPen with them at all times. The nurse must contact the school and inform them of this law so that the girl is allowed to carry her EpiPen on her person at all times. The school staff should be trained to recognize anaphylaxis, there should be an action plan on file, and the girl should wear a medical alert bracelet as well. However, the most important action is to notify school authorities of the law.

The nurse is caring for a child undergoing highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for HIV infection. The nurse is preparing to administer the prescribed medication. In addition to the nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) and the nonnucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), the nurse is cognizant that the child will be taking which additional medication as part of the three-drug regimen? A)Protease inhibitors B)Corticosteroids C)Cytotoxic drugs D)Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

A. Protease inhibitors The nurse understands that the child will be taking protease inhibitors as part of the three-drug regimen for HAART. Corticosteroids, cytotoxic agents, and DMARDs are typically used for the treatment of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA).

The nurse is meeting with the parents of a 7-year-old boy with Down syndrome. The child's mother reports an interest in hippotherapy. The child's father reports that this seems to be a waste of money. The parents then ask the nurse for additional information. What information may be included in the nurse's response? Select all answers that apply. A) Hippotherapy has limited research demonstrating its actual effectiveness. B) This type of therapy is most helpful for teens. C) A variety of conditions including Down syndrome have used hippotherapy with success. D) Self-esteem may be improved with hippotherapy. E) The benefits of hippotherapy are both physical and psychological.

Ans: C, D, E Feedback: Hippotherapy refers to the use of horseback riding for the handicapped, therapeutic horseback riding, or equine-facilitated psychotherapy. Individuals with almost any cognitive, physical, or emotional disability may benefit from therapeutic riding or other supervised interaction with horses. The unique movement of the horse under the child helps the child with physical disabilities to achieve increased flexibility, balance, and muscle strength. Children with mental or emotional disabilities may experience increased self-esteem, confidence, and patience as a result of the unique relationship with the horse.

The nurse is preparing a presentation to a local community group about genetic disorders and the types of congenital anomalies that can occur. What would the nurse include as a major congenital anomaly? A) Overlapping digits B) Polydactyly C) Umbilical hernia D) Cleft palate

Ans: D Cleft palate is considered a major congenital anomaly, one that creates a significant medical problem or requires surgical or medical management. Overlapping digits, polydactyly, and umbilical hernia are considered minor congenital anomalies because they do not cause an increase in morbidity in and of themselves.

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local parent group about urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children. Which organism would the nurse incorporate into the presentation as the most common cause? A) Klebsiella B) Escherichia coli C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Pseudomonas

Ans: B Feedback: E. coli most commonly causes UTI. Other less common causative organisms include Klebsiella, S. aureus, and Pseudomonas.

The nurse is providing postsurgical care for an infant who has undergone a hypospadias repair. Which action by the nurse would be most important to help keep the area clean while maintaining proper position of the drainage tubing? A) Keeping the drainage tube taped in an upright position B) Administering antibiotics as ordered C) Administering analgesics as prescribed D) Using a double-diapering technique

Ans: D Feedback: Double diapering is a method used to protect a child's urethra and stent or catheter after surgery and additionally helps to keep the area clean and free from infection. Keeping the drainage tube taped in an upright position, administering antibiotics, and administering analgesics are also important, but double diapering keeps the area clean and helps prevent infection.

11. An 8-year-old girl is scheduled for a renal ultrasound. What would the nurse include in the plan of care when preparing the child for this test? A) Withholding food and fluids after midnight B) Checking the child for allergies to shellfish C) Ensuring the child has a full bladder D) Informing the child she should feel no discomfort

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse should inform the child that she should feel no discomfort during the test. No fasting is required and no dye is used, so allergies are not a concern. A full bladder is needed for urodynamic studies.

The mother of a 3-week-old infant old brings her daughter in for an evaluation. During the visit, the mother tells the nurse that her baby is spitting up after feedings. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A)"We need to tell the doctor about this." B)"Infants this age commonly spit up." C)"Your daughter might have an allergy." D)"Don't worry; you're just feeding her too much."

B. "Infants this age commonly spit up." In infants younger than 1 month of age, the lower esophageal sphincter is not fully developed, so infants younger than 1 month of age frequently regurgitate after feedings. Many children younger than 1 year of age continue to regurgitate for several months, but this usually disappears with age. The mother's report is not a cause for concern so the physician does not need to be notified. Additional information would be needed to determine if the infant had an allergy. Although the infant's stomach capacity is small, telling the mother not to worry does not address the mother's concern, and telling her that she is feeding the daughter too much implies that she is doing something wrong.

The nurse is caring for a 9-year-old boy who is having chemotherapy. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for the child and family about nutrition. What instruction would the nurse be least likely to include? A) Emphasizing the intake of grains, fruits, and vegetables B) Featuring high-fiber foods if opioid analgesics are being taken C) Concentrating on consuming primarily high-calorie shakes and puddings D) Avoiding milk products if diarrhea is a problem

C) Concentrating on consuming primarily high-calorie shakes and puddings

The nurse is caring for a child who has undergone stem cell transplantation for severe combined immune deficiency. What finding would the nurse interpret as indicative of graft-versus-host disease? A)Presence of wheezing B)Splenomegaly C)Maculopapular rash D)Chronic or recurrent diarrhea

C. Maculopapular rash The nurse should monitor the stem cell transplant child closely for a maculopapular rash that usually starts on the palms and soles for indication that graft-versus-host disease is developing. Wheezing and recurrent diarrhea are not typical clinical manifestations of graft-versus-host disease. Splenomegaly is associated with hypogammaglobulinemia.

When examining the abdomen of a child, which technique would the nurse use last? A)Auscultation B)Percussion C)Palpation D)Inspection

C. Palpation. Palpation should be the last part of the abdominal examination. Inspection, auscultation, and percussion should be done before palpation.

The nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother is HIV positive. The nurse would expect to administer a 6-week course of which medication? A) Lopinavir B) Ritonavir C)Nevirapine D)Zidovudine

D. Zidovudine Children born to HIV-positive mothers should receive a 6-week course of zidovudine therapy. Lopinavir, ritonavir, and nevirapine are medications used for treatment of HIV-1 infections as part of a three-drug regimen.

The nurse is assessing a 2-day-old newborn and suspects Down syndrome based on which of the following?

Flat facial profile

The nurse is conducting a physical examination of an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which finding indicates pyloric stenosis?

Hard, moveable "olive-like mass" in the upper right quadrant

The nurse is assessing a child with suspected thalassemia. What would the nurse expect to assess? A) Dactylitis B) Frontal bossing C) Presence of clubbing D) Presence of spooning

B) Frontal bossing

The nurse is caring for infants having the condition failure to thrive (FTT). Which infants would be at risk for this condition? Select all that apply. A) A newborn baby with tetralogy of Fallot B) An infant with a cleft palate C) An infant born to a diabetic mother D) An infant born to an impoverished mother E) An infant with bronchopulmonary dysplasia F) An infant born to a teenage mother

Ans: A) A newborn baby with tetralogy of Fallot B) An infant with a cleft palate D) An infant born to an impoverished mother E) An infant with bronchopulmonary dysplasia Feedback: Infants and children with cardiac or metabolic disease, chronic lung disease (bronchopulmonary dysplasia), cleft palate, or gastroesophageal reflux disease are at particular risk for FTT. Also, poverty is the single greatest contributing risk factor (Block et al., 2005). An infant born to a diabetic mother or an infant born to a teenage mother does not have increased risk for FTT.

When the nurse is assessing a 2-day-old newborn and suspects Down syndrome, what factors would lead to this assessment? Select all that apply. A) Flat facial profile B) Downward slant to the eyes C) Large tongue compared to mouth D) Simian crease E) Epicanthal folds F) Rigid joints

Ans: A) Flat facial profile C) Large tongue compared to mouth D) Simian crease E) Epicanthal folds Common clinical manifestations of Down syndrome include flat facial profile, upward slant to the eyes (oblique palpebral fissures), tongue that is large in comparison to the mouth size, simian, crease, epicanthal folds, and loose joints.

The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old girl with nephrotic syndrome. The girl confides that she feels like a "freak" compared to her peers because of her weight, edema, and moon face. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "Let's put you in touch with some other girls who are also having the same body changes." B) "Luckily, this is just a temporary, unfortunate part of your condition; you need to accept it." C) "Your real friends do not care about your appearance and just want you to get well." D) "You are beautiful in your own way; what matters is what is on the inside."

Ans: A) "Let's put you in touch with some other girls who are also having the same body changes." Feedback: It is important to introduce the girl to other youngsters with chronic renal conditions so she does not feel so isolated. Adolescents need interaction with peers. Telling the girl that this is a temporary condition, her real friends don't care about her appearance, and she is beautiful in her own way dismisses the girl's concerns and does not offer solutions. Nephrotic syndrome is a chronic condition, so telling her the condition is temporary also is inaccurate.

When providing guidance to the parents of a child with Down syndrome, which interaction would be most appropriate? A) Encourage the parents to home-school the child. B) Advise the parents that the child will need monthly thyroid testing. C) Instruct them on the need for yearly dental visits. D) Teach the parents about the need for a high-fiber diet.

Ans: D A high-fiber intake is important for children with Down syndrome because their lack of muscle tone may decrease peristalsis, leading to constipation. Early intervention programs with special education are important to promote growth and development. The child should be integrated into mainstream education whenever possible. Children with Down syndrome should undergo thyroid testing yearly and see the dentist every 6 months.

The nurse is caring for a 6-month-old with a cleft lip and palate. The mother of the child demonstrates understanding of the disorder with which statements? Select all that apply. A)"My smoking during pregnancy didn't have anything to do with this disorder. Smoking primarily causes low birth weight." B)"I know my baby takes a lot longer to feed than most children this age." C)"It really worries me that my baby may have some other disorders that haven't been detected yet." D)"I wonder if my baby will develop speech problems when language development begins?" E)"Thankfully there are doctors that specialize in correcting this type of disorder."

B, C, D, E Feeding and speech are especially difficult for the child with cleft lip and palate until the defect is repaired. Cleft lip and palate occurs frequently in association with other anomalies and has been identified in more than 350 syndromes. Plastic surgeons or craniofacial specialists, oral surgeons, dentists or orthodontists, and prosthodontists are some of the physicians that specialize in repair of this disorder. The mother is incorrect in stating that smoking is not associated with cleft lip or palate. Maternal smoking during pregnancy is a major risk factor for the disorder.