Pelvic Limb & Lymph App Questions

Which of the following structures is NOT palpable? a) Acetabulum b) Tuber sacrale c) Ischial arch d) Iliac crest

a) Acetabulum

The muscles of the pelvic diaphragm: a) Arise from the pelvis and insert on the caudal vertebrae b) Extend between the left and right ischial tuberosities c) Extend between the left and right wings of the ilium d) Arise from the ilium and insert of the ischium

a) Arise from the pelvis and insert on the caudal vertebrae

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the stifle joint? a) Articular discs b) Fat deposits c) Collateral ligaments d) Menisci

a) Articular discs

Which part of the ilium articulates with the sacrum? a) Auricular surface b) Body c) Greater ischiatic notch d) Iliac crest

a) Auricular surface

Which mammary glands normally drain to the axillary and superficial inguinal lymph nodes? a) Cranial abdominal b) Caudal thoracic c) Inguinal d) No mammary glands drain to the axillary and superficial inguinal lymph nodes

a) Cranial abdominal

A dog with a fractured calcaneal tuber will have the most difficulty with which of the following actions? a) Extension of the tarsus b) Extension of the stifle c) Flexion of the tarsus d) Flexion of the stifle

a) Extension of the tarsus

Which of the following pelvic bones articulate(s) with the vertebral column? a) Ilium b) Ischium and pubis c) Ischium d) Ilium and Ischium

a) Ilium

What bone(s) form(s) the ischiatic spine? a) Ilium and ischium b) Ischium and pubis c) Ilium and pubis d) Ilium only

a) Ilium and ischium

The origin of both semimembranouses and semitendinosus muscles is the: a) Ischial tuberosity b) Tuber coxae c) Greater trochanter of the femur d) Lesser trochanter of the femur

a) Ischial tuberosity

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the pubis? a) Ischiatic spine b) Pelvic symphysis c) Iliopubic eminence d) Acetabulum

a) Ischiatic spine

Which of the following bones form the entire pelvic symphysis? a) Ischium and pubis (right and left) b) Pubis only (right and left) c) Ischium, ilium, and pubis (right and left) d) Ilium and ischium (right and left)

a) Ischium and pubis (right and left)

Which of the following structures is mostly commonly used as a point of anchor for surgical extracapsular reconstructions of the stifle for cranial cruciate ligament rupture? a) Lateral fabella b) Patella c) Extensor fossa of the femur d) Trochlea of the femur

a) Lateral fabella

Which of the following lymph nodes is routinely palpable in normal dogs? a) Popliteal b) Mediastinal c) Axillary d) Medial retropharyngeal

a) Popliteal

On radiographs, a large abnormal opacity is noted in the carnioventral region of the thoracic cavity at the level of the second rib. Which of the following lymph nodes is consistently located in this region? a) Sternal b) Caudal deep cervical c) Axillary d) Cranial mediastinal

a) Sternal

Which of the following bones articulates with the cochlea of the tibia? a) Talus b) Calcaneus c) Patella d) Fibula

a) Talus

Which of the following structures has efferent lymphatic vessels that are part of the spermatic cord? a) Testis b) Kidney c) Penis d) Prostate

a) Testis

On radiographs, in may be possible to visualize the sesamoid bone of the popliteus muscle. Which of the following best describes the location of this sesamoid bone? a) The caudalateral aspect of the stifle b) The craniomedial aspect of the stifle c) The plantar aspect of the tarsus d) The caudomedial aspect of the stifle

a) The caudalateral aspect of the stifle

Which of the following muscle groups plays a significant role in extension, abduction, and medial rotation of the hip joint? a) The gluteal muscles (superficial, middle, and deep) b) The medial thigh muscles (gracilis, adductor, pectineus, caudal part of sartorius) c) The lateral thigh muscles (biceps femoris, tensor fasciae latae) d) The caudal thigh muscles (semimembranosus and semitendinosus)

a) The gluteal muscles (superficial, middle, and deep)

On which of the following structures does the quadriceps femoris muscle insert? a) Tibial tuberosity b) Femoral condyles c) Cochlea of the tibia d) Tibial condyles

a) Tibial tuberosity

The condyle is the distal articular surface of the humerus. Which two structures form the condyle? a) Trochlea and capitulum b) Trochlea and head c) Anconeal and coronoid processes d) Trochear notch and head

a) Trochlea and capitulum

The popliteal lymph node is a palpable ovoid structure lying caudal to the stifle joint between the distal ends of the: a) Semitendinosus and gastronemius muscle b) Biceps femoris and semitendinosus muscle c) Lateral and medial heads of the gastronemius d) Biceps femoris and semimembranosus muscles

b) Biceps femoris and semitendinosus muscle

Which of the following structures is sometimes referred to as the "point of the hock"? a) Sustentaculum tali b) Calcaneal tuber c) Medial malleolus d) Central tarsal bone

b) Calcaneal tuber

Rupture of which of the following ligaments results in excessive cranial movement of the tibia with respect to the femur? a) Caudal cruciate ligament b) Cranial cruciate ligament c) Meniscotibial liagment d) Meniscofemoral ligament

b) Cranial cruciate ligament

Which aspect of the proximal tibia is covered by the least amount of muscle tissue? a) Caudomedial b) Craniomedial c) Caudolateral d) Cranial

b) Craniomedial

Which of the following structures primarily drains to the caudal mesentric lymph nodes? a) Transverse colon b) Descending colon c) Stomach d) Cecum

b) Descending colon

Which of the following structures is located on the medial aspect of the femur? a) Greater trochanter b) Lesser trochanter c) Intercondylar fossa d) Trochanteric fossa

b) Lesser trochanter

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the ilium? a) Greater ischiatic notich b) Pelvic symphysis c) Tuber sacrale d) Wing

b) Pelvic symphysis

The patella reflex is tested by tapping the patellar ligament. The muscle involved in the resulting reflex arc is the: a) Gastronemius muscle b) Quadriceps femoris muscle c) Sartorius muscle d) Biceps femoris muscle

b) Quadriceps femoris muscle

Which of the following muscles is NOT associated with a sesamoid bone or bones? a) Popliteus muscle b) Semimembranosus muscle c) Interosseous muscle d) Rectus femoris muscle

b) Semimembranosus muscle

Which of the following structures is most likely to be mistaken for a chip fracture on a radiograph of the stifle joint due to its small size? a) Patella b) Sesamoid bone of the popliteus muscle c) Fovea capitis femoris d) Lateral fabella

b) Sesamoid bone of the popliteus muscle

The cavity of which of the following synovial joints contains fibrocartilage in order to improve joint congruity? a) Tarsus b) Stifle joint c) Articular process joint d) Shoulder joint

b) Stifle joint

Which lymph node(s) is/are located in the caudal part of the neck, just cranial to the scapula? a) Axillary lymph node b) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes c) Superficial cervical lymph nodes d) Popliteal lymph nodes

b) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

The sacroiliac joint is formed by an articulation between: a) The body of the ilium and the wing of sacrum b) The wing of the ilium and the wing of the sacrum c) The body of the ilium and the body of the sacrum d) The wing of the ilium an the cranial articular process of the sacrum

b) The wing of the ilium and the wing of the sacrum

Which of the following best describes the distal attachment sites of the cruciate ligaments? a) Cranially on the trochlea of the femur b) On the medial and lateral fabellae c) Cranial and caudal to the tibial intercondylar eminences d) On the medial and lateral femoral epicondyles

c) Cranial and caudal to the tibial intercondylar eminences

Which of the following muscles does NOT contribute to the calcanean tendon? a) Gracilis muscle b) Gastronemius muscle c) Deep digital flexor muscle d) Biceps femoris muscle

c) Deep digital flexor muscle

The superficial digital flexor muscle inserts on the middle phalanx of: a) Digits 1 to 5 b) Digit 1 only c) Digits 2 to 5 only d) Digit 5 only

c) Digits 2 to 5 only

Which of the following structure is palpable on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur, as a landmark for the hip (coxofemoral) joint? a) Lesser trochanter b) Neck of femur c) Greater trochanter d) Lateral femoral condyle

c) Greater trochanter

Which of the following muscles attaches to the femur? a) Gracilis muscle b) Sartorius muscle c) Iliopsoas muscle d) Semitendinosus muscle

c) Iliopsoas muscle

What bony protuberance is palpable lateral to the proximal part of the tail? a) Tuber sacrale b) Tuber coxae c) Ischial tuberosity d) Iliac crest

c) Ischial tuberosity

Lymph from which of the following structures does NOT drain to the celiac lymphocenter? a) Liver b) Stomach c) Jejunum d) Diaphragm

c) Jejunum

Where does lymph from the adrenal glands first drain to? a) Celiac lymphocenter b) Mediastinal lymphocenter c) Lumbar lymphocenter d) Inguinofemoral lymphocenter

c) Lumbar lymphocenter

Which of the following lymph nodes is/are routinely palpable in normal dogs? a) Lymph nodes of the celiac lymphocenter b) Medial retropharyngeal lymph node c) Mandibular lymph nodes d) Axillary lymph node

c) Mandibular lymph nodes

A dog is diagnosed with an abscess in the nasopharynx. Which of the following lymph nodes is most likely to receive lymph from this area? a) Mandible b) Superficial cervical c) Medial retropharyngeal d) Axillary

c) Medial retropharyngeal

A dog is diagnosed with otitis media (infection of the middle ear). Which of the following lymph nodes is most likely to receive lymph from this area? a) Mandibular b) Superficial cervical c) Medial retropharyngeal d) Axillary

c) Medial retropharyngeal

Which of the following lymph nodes is the largest lymph node of the head and neck? a) Mandibular b) Parotid c) Medial retropharyngeal d) Lateral retropharyngeal

c) Medial retropharyngeal

Which of the following best describes the location of the fabellae? a) On the craniodorsal aspect of the medial and lateral femoral condyles b) On the plantar aspect of the tarsus c) On the caudodorsal aspect of the medial and lateral femoral condyles d) On the caudodorsal aspect of the medial and lateral tibial condyles

c) On the caudodorsal aspect of the medial and lateral femoral condyles

Which of the following best describes the location of the proximal sesamoid bones in the pes (hind paw)? a) On the plantar aspect of the tibiotarsal joint b) On the plantar aspect of the proximal interphalangeal joints c) On the plantar aspect of the metatarsophalangeal joints d) On the caudal aspect of the stifle

c) On the plantar aspect of the metatarsophalangeal joints

Which of the following pelvic structures is an attachment site of the rectus abdominis muscle? a) Pelvic symphysis b) Ischiatic tuberosity c) Pecten d) Ischiatic spine

c) Pecten

Which of the following lymph nodes receive(s) lymph from all parts of the distal pelvic limb? a) Axillary lymph node b) Parotid lymph node c) Popliteal lymph node d) Superifical inguinal lymph nodes

c) Popliteal lymph node

Which of the following bones border(s) the obturator foramen? a) Ilium and ischium b) Ischium only c) Pubis and ischium d) Ilium, ischium and pubis

c) Pubis and ischium

Lymph from which of the following structures does NOT drain to the cranial messnteric lymphocenter? a) Colon b) Jejunum c) Stomach d) Pancreas

c) Stomach

Which of the following structures courses through the extensor groove of the tibia? a) Tendon of origin of the popliteus muscle b) Tendon of origin of the fibularis longus muscle c) Tendon of origin of the long digital extensor muscle d) Tendon of origin of the lateral digital extensor muscle

c) Tendon of origin of the long digital extensor muscle

The trochlea of the humeral condyle articulates with which of the following structures? a) The head of the radius b) The lateral styloid process of the ulna c) The trochlear notch of the ulna d) The head of the ulna

c) The trochlear notch of the ulna

The patellar ligament connects the patella to which feature of the tibia? a) Extensor groove of the tibia b) Popliteal notch c) Tibial tuberosity d) Cranial border of the tibia

c) Tibial tuberosity

Due to their association with the respiratory system, enlargement of which of the following lymph nodes is most likely to lead to coughing or dyspnea (difficulty breathing)? a) Deep cervical b) Medial retropharyngeal c) Tracheobronchial d) Cranial mediastinal

c) Tracheobronchial

The feature of the femur that bears the articular surface for the femoropatellar joint is the: a) Condyle b) Greater trochanter c) Trochlea d) Head

c) Trochlea

With which of the following structures does the patella articulate? a) Tibial tuberosity b) Tibial condyles c) Trochlea of the femur d) Cochlea of the tibia

c) Trochlea of the femur

The muscle of the pelvic diaphragm: a) Arise form the ilium and insert on the ischium b) Extend between the left and right ischial tuberosities c) Extend between the left and right wings of the ilium d) Arise from the pelvis and insert on the caudal vertebrae

d) Arise from the pelvis and insert on the caudal vertebrae

On physical exam of a dog the popliteal lymph nodes are determined to be enlarged. Which of the following joints is LEAST likely to drain to these lymph nodes? a) Stifle b) Tarsometatarsal c) Interphalangeal d) Coxofemoral

d) Coxofemoral

Which of the following lymph nodes receives lymph from the lungs? a) Axillary b) Superficial cervical c) Superficial inguinal d) Cranial mediastinal

d) Cranial mediastinal

Tendons of the deep digital flexor muscle insert on the distal phalanges. Which specific structure is their point of insertion? a) Condyle b) Extensor process c) Proximal sesamoid d) Flexor tubercle

d) Flexor tubercle

Which of the following muscles is most closely associated with the fabellae? a) Popliteus muscle b) Biceps femoris muscle c) Quadriceps femoris muscle d) Gastrocnemius muscle

d) Gastrocnemius muscle

Which of the following is a readily palpable bony feature that lies over the hip joint on the lateral aspect of the pelvic limb, thus serving as a useful landmark for locating the hip joint in the live animal? a) Tuber coxae b) Lip of acetabulum c) Ischial tuberosity d) Greater trochanter of the femur

d) Greater trochanter of the femur

Which of the following structures is NOT present on the tibia? a) Cochlea b) Condyle c) Malleolus d) Head

d) Head

The main biomechanical impact of complete rupture of the calcanea tendon is: a) Hyperflexion of the stifle b) Inability to rotate the stifle c) Inability to flex the digits d) Hyperflexion of the tarsus

d) Hyperflexion of the tarsus

Which of the following structures is palpable? a) Body of the ilium b) Acetabulum c) Obturator foramen d) Iliac crest

d) Iliac crest

Which of the following muscles attaches to the lesser trochanter of the femur? a) Deep gluteal muscle b) Pectineus muscle c) Adductor muscle d) Iliopsoas muscle

d) Iliopsoas muscle

Which of the following pelvic structures is a primary attachment site of the hamstring or caudal thigh muscles (biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscle)? a) Pelvic symphysis b) Pecten c) Wing of ilium d) Ischial tuberosity

d) Ischial tuberosity

The tendon of origin of which muscle passes over the craniolateral aspect of the femorotibial joint? a) Lateral digital flexor muscle b) Popliteus muscle c) Lateral digital muscle d) Long digital extensor muscle

d) Long digital extensor muscle

Which of the following muscles originates from the extensor fossa of the femur? a) Lateral digital extensor muscle b) Fibularis longus muscle c) Cranial tibial muscle d) Long digital extensor muscle

d) Long digital extensor muscle

Which of the following lymph nodes receives lymph from all regions of the head, either primarily or secondarily? a) Lateral retropharyngeal b) Parotid c) Superificial cervical d) Medial retropharyngeal

d) Medial retropharyngeal

Which of the following joints is/are considered to be hyperextended in the normal standing position? a) Elbow b) Hip joint c) Femorotibial joint d) Metacarpophalangeal joint

d) Metacarpophalangeal joint

Which of the following best describes the location of the extensor fossa of the femur? a) On the medial aspect of the distal femur b) On the caudal aspect of the distal femur c) On the medial aspect of the proximal femur d) On the lateral aspect of the distal femur

d) On the lateral aspect of the distal femur

Which of the following lymph nodes usually occurs as a single node? a) Superficial cervical b) Mediastinal d) Popliteal d) Mandibular

d) Popliteal

With which of the following muscles is the patella most closely associated? a) Popliteus muscle b) Sartorius muscle c) Semitendinous muscle d) Quadriceps femoris muscle

d) Quadriceps femoris muscle

Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the hip joint? a) Vastus lateralis muscle b) Adductor muscle c) Vastus medialis muscle d) Rectus femoris muscle

d) Rectus femoris muscle

Which muscle lies immediately to the left and right of the nuchal ligament in the neck? a) Longus capitis b) Logissiumus capitis c) Spinalis cervicis d) Semispinalis capitis

d) Semispinalis capitis

Which of the following lymph nodes is usually palpable in a normal dog? a) Axillary b) Deep cervical c) Medial retropharyngeal d) Superficial cervical

d) Superficial cervical

Which of the following bones spans the middle and distal rows of tarsal bones? a) Tarsal bone 2 b) Talus c) Central tarsal bone d) Tarsal bone 4

d) Tarsal bone 4

What is the relative position of the two components of the humeral condyle? a) The trochlea is dorsal and the capitulum is ventral b) The trochlea is lateral and the capitulum is medial c) The trochlea is cranial and the capitulum is caudal d) The trochlea is medial and the capitulum is lateral.

d) The trochlea is medial and the capitulum is lateral.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the hip joint? a) Head of femur b) Ligament of the head of the femur c) Acetabular lip d) Trochanteric fossa

d) Trochanteric fossa

Malformation of which of the following structures is most likely to contribute to patellar luxation? a) Intercondylar fossa of the femur b) Cochlea of the tibia c) Femoral condyles d) Trochlea of the femur

d) Trochlea of the femur