Pharm - Chapter 10

Nitrous oxide is a complete anesthetic. Answers: True False

False

Patients should be instructed to fast before a dental procedure using nitrous oxide. Answers: True False

False

The more soluble the anesthetic is in body tissues, the more rapid the onset and recovery will be. Answers: True False

False

Nitrous oxide has amnestic qualities. Answers: True False

True

To prevent diffusion hypoxia, patients should be given 100% oxygen for 5 minutes after treatment with nitrous oxide. Answers: True False

True

Nitrous oxide is contraindicated for use in a patient with which of the following conditions? Answers: a. Diabetes b. Emphysema c. Hypertension d. Glaucoma e. None of the above

b

The average percentage of nitrous oxide required for patient comfort is: Answers: a. 50%. b. 35%. c. 10%. d. 25%.

b

A patient for whom nitrous oxide is to be administered should be warned to avoid eating a large meal within _____ hours of the appointment. Answers: a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 3

c

According to Guedel's description of the stages and planes of anesthesia, the induction period refers to stage: Answers: a. I. b. II. c. I and II. d. I, II, and III. e. None of the above are correct.

c

Approximately 15% of halothane is metabolized in the liver, and these metabolites have been suggested as a cause of renal damage. Answers: a. The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false. b. Both parts of the statement are false. c. Both parts of the statement are true. d. The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.

c

At the termination of a N2O/O2 sedation procedure, the patient should be placed on 100% oxygen for at least _____ minutes. Answers: a. 8 b. 2 c. 5 d. 11

c

The following are characteristics of propofol except which one? Answers: a. Undergoes phase II metabolism in the liver b. Rapid onset of action c. Structurally related to barbiturates d. Produces little vomiting e. Intravenous anesthetic

c

The loss of respiratory control (i.e., diminished carbon dioxide response, paralysis of intercostal muscles) first occurs during which of Guedel's stages of anesthesia? Answers: a. Stage IV b. Stage I c. Stage III d. Stage II

c

Which of the following is the major disadvantage of the use of opioids as an adjunctive drug to general anesthesia in preanesthetic medication? Answers: a. Salivary stimulation b. Hallucinations c. Respiratory depression d. Hypertensive crisis

c

Nitrous oxide combined with oxygen (N2O/O2) has become a primary part of dental office _____ procedures. Answers: a. general anesthesia b. bruxism c. sleep apnea d. anxiety reduction

d

Nitrous oxide, as used in the dental office, maintains the patient in stage _____ of Guedel's system of stages and planes. Answers: a. III b. IV c. II d. I

d

Nitrous oxide has been shown to reduce the activity of methionine synthetase, the enzyme involved with the function of which vitamin? Answers: a. Vitamin B1 b. Folic acid c. Vitamin B6 d. Vitamin K e. Vitamin B12

e

The best indicator of the degree of sedation under nitrous oxide is: Answers: a. response to a painful stimulus. b. eye movements. c. muscle tone. d. percent nitrous oxide being delivered. e. response to questions.

e

The greatest danger in using nitrous oxide for analgesia is: Answers: a. foreign body aspiration. b. hyperventilation. c. a gas embolus. d. cardiac arrhythmias. e. oxygen deprivation.

e

Diffusion hypoxia may occur if insufficient 100% oxygen is delivered at the termination of a nitrous oxide procedure because: Answers: a. the loss of carbon dioxide could decrease ventilation. b. nitrous oxide has a slow onset and recovery. c. nitrous oxide is highly soluble in blood. d. the lungs are insufficiently inflated.

a

Nitrous oxide cylinders are _____ and oxygen cylinders are _____: (1) red, (2) green, (3) blue, (4) orange, and (5) tan. Answers: a. 3, 2 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 4 d. 3, 5 e. 3, 4

a

Nitrous oxide has _____ onset and _____ solubility in blood. Answers: a. rapid; low b. slow; high c. rapid; high d. slow; low

a

Recovery from a single intravenous dose of thiopental (sodium pentothal) is the result of: Answers: a. drug redistribution. b. drug metabolism. c. enzyme induction. d. drug excretion.

a

Which of the following statements are true about volatile general anesthetics? (Select all that apply.) Answers: a. They are classified as halogenated hydrocarbons and ethers. b. They are liquids that evaporate easily at room temperature. c. They are known to have good solubility in body tissues. d. They are administered intravenously (IV).

a and b

Which of the following are benzodiazepines that are used for conscious sedation and preanesthetic medication prior to general anesthesia? (Select all that apply.) Answers: a. Diazepam (Valium) b. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) c. Midazolam (Versed) d. Methohexital sodium (Brevital)

a and c

Which of the following are true of etomidate? (Select all that apply.) Answers: a. It can cause adrenal suppression. b. It is a halogenated hydrocarbon for general anesthesia. c. It produces dissociative anesthesia. d. It is used for induction of general anesthesia.

a and d

Which inhalational agent has a pungent smell and can cause respiratory acidosis with deeper levels of anesthesia? Answers: a. Enflurane b. Isoflurane c. Sevoflurane d. Nitrous oxide e. Halothane

b

Which of the following dental specialists is most likely to use general anesthetic drugs in their offices? Answers: a. Prosthodontist b. Oral and maxillofacial surgeon c. Endodontist d. Pediatric dentist e. Orthodontist

b

Which of the following effects is not a characteristic of the action of ketamine? Answers: a. Produces "dissociative" anesthesia b. Causes xerostomia c. Causes recovery associated with delirium and hallucinations d. Increases cardiac output

b

Which of the following types of agents is used during balanced general anesthesia to help the patient pass from stage I to stage III and skip over the signs of stage II? Answers: a. Ketamine b. Ultrashort-acting IV barbiturate c. Propofol d. Opioids

b

Which of the following are types of intravenous general anesthetics? (Select all that apply.) Answers: a. Isoflurane b. Propofol c. Opioids d. Etomidate e. Enflurane

b, c, and d

What are the goals of surgical anesthesia? (Select all that apply.) Answers: a. Reduced respiratory rate b. Good patient control c. Adequate muscle relaxation d. Reduced cardiac output e. Pain relief

b, c, and e

The less soluble the anesthetic is in body tissues, the more rapid the _____. (Select all that apply.) Answers: a. heart rate b. breathing rate c. recovery d. onset

c and d

Which of the following general anesthetic agents was introduced in the middle 1800s and led to a dramatic reduction in surgically related mortality? Answers: a. Nitrous oxide b. Propofol c. Isoflurane d. Ether

d

Which of the following intravenous general anesthetic agents can be administered intramuscularly (IM)? Answers: a. Methohexital (Brevital) b. Diazepam (Valium) c. Propofol (Diprivan) d. Ketamine (Ketalar)

d