Pharm Mod D CNS and Abx

A client has been taking paroxetine (Paxil) to treat anxiety disorder for several weeks. The client calls the nurse to say that he has been grinding his teeth during the night, which causes pain in his mouth and insomnia for his spouse. Which of the following measures may be used to manage bruxism? a) Concurrent administration of buspirone b) Administration of a different SSRI c) Use of a mouth guard d) Changing to a different class of antianxiety medication e) Use of paroxetine

a) Concurrent administration of buspirone c) Use of a mouth guard d) Changing to a different class of antianxiety medication

A nurse is teaching client about possible adverse effects of her new prescription for ramelteon (Rozerem). For which of the following should the nurse teach the client to notify the provider? a) Decrease libido b) blurred vision c) productive cough d) dry mouth

a) Decrease libido Amenorrhea, decreased libido, galactorrhea, and problems with fertility are adverse effects of ramelteon for which the client should be taught to notify the provider. Blurred vision, productive cough, and dry mouth are not adverse effects of the medication.

A nurse is caring for a group of clients who take antidepressants. The nurse should educate the client who take which of the following medications about the possible occurrence of sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect? a) Fluoxetine (Prozac) b) Phenelzine (Nardil) c) Bupropion HCL (Wellbutrin) d) Amitriptyline (Elavil)

a) Fluoxetine (Prozac) Clients with prescriptions for SSRI antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac) are at rish for problems with sexual dysfunction. Phenelzine (a MAOI antidepressant), buproprion HCL (an atypical antidepressant) and amitriptyline (a TCA) do not cause sexual dysfunction.

a nurse is teaching a client who has begun taking oral baclofen (Lioresal) three times daily to treat muscle spasms caused by a spinal cord injury. Which of the following statements by the client indicates to the nurse a need for further teaching? a) I will stop taking the medication right away if I develop dizziness. b) I know the doctor will gradually increase my dose of the medication for a while c) I'll make sure that I empty my bladder completely while taking this medication d) I won't be able to drink alcohol while I am taking this medication

a) I will stop taking the medication right away if I develop dizziness. Abrupt withdrawal from baclofen may cause severe reactions, such as seizures. If the client stops taking the medication, withdrawal should be done gradually over 7 to 14 days. The initial doseage of baclofen is usually lwo and gradually increased to prevent CNS depression. Urinary retention is an adverse reaction that may occur with baclofen, the client should be taught to empty their bladder when urinating. Alcohol and other CNS depressants may potentiate the effects of baclofen and cause decreased level fo consciousness or respiratory depression.

A client has a prescription for valproic acid (Depakote). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse anticipate monitoring for a client taking this medication? (Select all that apply) a) Thrombocyte count b) White Blood Count c) Amylase level d) Liver function test e) potassium level

a) Thrombocyte count c) Amylase level d) Liver function test Valproic acid may lead to thrombocytopenia or liver disease. The nurse should plan to monitor the thrombocyte count, amylase level, and liver function tests. Monitoring of the WBC and potassium level would not give information regarding an adverse effect of the medication

A nurse is teaching an adult client with a severe infection about her prescription to ciprofloxacin. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse tell the client to watch? (select all that apply) a) achillies tendon rupture b) vaginal yeast infection c) irregular pulse rate d) urinary hesitancy e) achilles tendon pain

a) achillies tendon rupture b) vaginal yeast infection e) achilles tendon painThe client taking ciprofloxacin should be taught about adverse reactions including achilles tendon rupture; suprainfection, which may cause yeast overgrowth in vagina or mouth/throat; achilles tendon pain which could be sign of impending rupture. The others are not expected side effects of ciprofloxacin

For which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor? (select all that apply) a) proteinuria b) elevated BUN c) sedation d) reports of muscle weakness e) reports of headache

a) proteinuria b) elevated BUN

a client comes to the clinic stating she has been taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for a bladder infection. The client reprots intense perineal itching and a whitish, cheese-like vaginal discharge. The nurse should recognize these findings are likely a result of a) suprainfection b) hypersensitivity reaction c) toxicity d) medication interaction

a) suprainfection

An adolescent client has just begun taking amitriptyline (Elavil) for depression. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse teach the client in order to minimize an adverse effect of his medication? a) wear sunglasses when outdoors b) check temperature daily while taking this medication c) take medication first thing in the morning before eating d) add extra calories to the diet as between-meal snacks

a) wear sunglasses when outdoors wearing sunglasses when outdoors will decrease photophobia, an anticholinergic effect that may be experienced when taking a tricyclic antidepressant mediaction such as amitrptyline. Checking temperature daily while taking a TCA is not necessary. Taking the medication at bedtime rather than in the morning will prevent a daytime sleepiness. Following a low calorie diet plan rather than adding extra calories as snacks will help prevent weight gain, a common adverse effet.

A nurse is teaching a client with schizophrenia ways to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine (Prolixin). Which of the following strategies should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects? a) avoid foods that cause diarrhea b) Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth c) Use cooling measures to decrease fever d) Take an antacid to relieve nausea

b) Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth Chewing gum, sucking hard candy, or sipping liquids can help the client cope with dry mouth, which occurs as an anticholinergic effect of some antipsychotic medications. Constipation is an anticholinergic side effect. Fever may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome and should be reported to the provider. Nausea is not an anticholinergic effect.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is prescribed clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to watch for which of the following side effects? a) diarrhea b) dry mouth c) agitation d) headaches

b) Dry mouth Dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine and can be managed by chewing gum or sipping water throughout the day. Clonidine may cause consitpation and drowsiness and is used to decrease the autonomic symptoms of diarrhea and agitation. Headaches are not associated with clonidine use.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking an SSRI antidepressant for the past two days. Which of the following assessment finding should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing serotonin syndrome? a) Bruising b) Fever c) Abdominal pain d) Urinary retention

b) Fever Fever, along with changes in mental status, tremors, and hyperreflexia, is a sign of serotonin syndrome. Bruising, abdominal pain, and urinary retention are not expected findings.

A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac) about possible reactions during the first three days of treatment. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse teach the family to stop the medication and notify the provider immediately? a) diaphoresis b) Fever c) Nausea d) Headache

b) Fever Fever, tremors, hyperreflexia, agitation, and hallucinations are some of the manifestations of serotonin syndromre, which may occur between 2 and 72 hours after beginning treatment with fluoxetine and other SSRI medications. The family should stop the medication and notify the provider if these symptoms occur. Diaphoresis is a side effect the client may be taught to expect; however, it will not warrant stopping the medication and notifying the provider. Nausea and headache are signs of abrupt withdrawal from SSRI medications adn are not manifestations to watch for during the first three days of therapy.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client prescribed tetracycline hydrochloride to treat a GI infection cause by H.pylori. Which of the followign statements by the client indicate a need for further teaching? a) I will be sure to wear long sleeves in the sun b) I will take this medication with a full glass of milk c) I will finish all the medicine even if I am feeling better d) I will take this medication first thing in the morning.

b) I will take this medication with a full glass of milk Tetracycline can form a non-absorbable chelate when taken with dairy products and therefore should be taken with water. The client should wear long sleeved to protect against sun exposure. The client may feel better before the entire prescription is complete but should finish the entire dose. Taking meds in the a.m. will reduce esophageal ulceration, which can occur if this medication is taken just before lying down at night.

Several hours after administering a typical antipsychotic medication, a nurse should watch for which of the following adverse effects? a) shuffling gait b) Neck spasms c) Lip smacking d) Continuous pacing

b) Neck spasms Neck spasms are a sign of acute dystonia, a side effect that can occur anywhere between 5 hours to 5 days after administration of a typical antipsychotic medication. Shuffling gait is a sing of parkinsonism, which usually does not occur for at least one month after administration. Continuous pacing is a sign of akathisia and usually develops within 2 months of the initiation of treatment. Lip smacking is a sign of tardive dyskinesia and is an adverse effect that occurs after long-term use of at least 1 year.

A nurse is preparing to care for a client in the surgical unit who will be receiving diazepam (Valium) IV. For which of the following should the nurse monitor this client? a) Status epilepticus b) Respiratory depression c) Malignant hyperthermia d) Acute facial dystonia

b) Respiratory depression The nurse should monitor the client for respiratory depression, which may occur when the medication is administered IV or PO with other CNS depressant medications or alcohol. Diazepam is used to treat seizures, therefore, this is not an adverse reaction to this medication. Malignant hyperthermia and facial dystonia are not caused by administration of benzodiazepines, such as diazepam.

Which of the following is an adverse effect for which a nurse should assess a client who is taking lithium carbonate? a) Alopecia b) Tremors c) Constipation d) Urinary retention

b) Tremors Fine hand tremors are a common adverse effect in clients who take lithium. Alopecia is not an adverse effect of lithium. Diarrhea and polyuria are side effects of lithium.

Which of the following foods should be avoided by a client who is taking an MAOI? a) Fresh vegetables b) Cheese c) Apples d) Grilled steak

b) cheese Cheese contains dietary tyramine that can interact with MAOIs to precipitate hypertensive crisis.

a nurse is teaching a client who has been prescribed metronidazole (flagyl) about important interactions that could occur when taking this medication. Which of the following could cause an adverse reaction to occur when taken along with the metrondiazole therapy ? a) smoking cigarettes or using nicotine b) drinking a product containing alcohol c) ingesting foods containing tyramine d) taking a liquid antacid

b) drinking a product containing alcohol drinking alcohol while taking metronidazole can cause a disulfram-like reaction, including n/v, h/a, flushing. Alcohol should be avoided for at least one day after metronidazole is discontinued to prevent reaction. There are no interactions between metronidazole and nicotine, tyramine, or antacids

A nurse is caring for a school-aged child who recently began a prescription for atomoxetine (Strattera). For which of the follwoing possible complications should the nurse monitor the child? a) renal toxicity b) Liver damage c) seizure activity d) adrenal insufficiency

b) liver damage Liver damage may occur while taking atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor for signs such as jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, darkening of urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Renal toxicity, seizure activity, and adrenal insufficiency are not complications expected when taking atomoxetine.

a nurse is caring for a client who has DM and pulmonary TB and has a new rx for isoniazid (INH). Which of the following supplements should the nurse expect to administer to prevent an adverse effect of isoniazid? a) ascorbic acid b) pyridoxine c) folic acid d) cyanocobalamin

b) pyridoxine pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is frequently prescribed along with isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy for clients who have increased risk factors such as diabetes and alcoholism. Ascorbic acid (vit c), folic acid, and cyanocobalamin (B12) do not have the same action and are not prescribed to prevent this adverse effect.

A nurse knows that teaching has been effective if a client who is taking bezodiazepine for long-term treatment of anxiety makes which of the following statements? a) I will only take the medication at bedtime b) I cannot takje this drug if I am using pain medication c) I will not stop taking this drug abruptly d) I will need this medication for the rest of my life

c) "I will not stop taking this drug abruptly" Abrupt discontinuation of benzodiazepine that the clinet has been taking for some time may cause withdrawal symptoms. The medication may need to be tapered for several weeks before discontinuing. The other statements indicate a need for further teaching about benzodiazepine therapy.

A nurse is infusing IV amphotericin B for a client who has a severe fungal infection. How soon after beginning the infusion should the nurse start to monitor for signs of an infusion reaction to begin? a) 5-10 min after beginning infusion b) 20-30 min after beginning infusion c) 1 - 3 hours after beginning infusion d) 4 to 5 hours after beginning infusion

c) 1 - 3 hours after beginning infusion S/sx of infusion reaction may be seen 1-3 hr after beginning amphotericin B

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting amitriptyline (Elavil) for treatment of depression. Which of the following should be included? (select all that apply) a) Therapeutic effects should be experienced immediately b) Stop taking the medication after a week of improved mood. c) Change positions slowly to minimize the dizziness d) Decrease dietary fiber intake to control diarrhea e) Chew sugarless gum to prevent dry mouth.

c) Change positions slowly to minimize the dizziness e) Chew sugarless gum to prevent dry mouth.

A nurse is caring for a client who received a bolus dose of succinylcholine IV before an endoscopy procedure. During the procedure, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and his body temperature begins to rise. Which the following should the nurse administer? a) a second dose of succinylcholine b) Naloxone as an antagonist at receptor sites c) Dantrolene to slow metabolic activity of muscles d) vecuronium as an adjunct to muscle relaxation

c) Dantrolene to slow metabolic activity of muscles Dantrolene is administered for clients who develop malignant hyperthermia, which can be caused by succinylcholine. Dantrolene decreases fever and and rigidity through direct actions of skeletal muscles to slow their metabolic activity. A second dose of succinylcholine would further exacerbate the problem. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opiods, but is not effective for malignant hyperthermia. Vecuronium is an intermediate-acting non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, which can be used for muscle relaxation during surgery, but is not useful in treating hyperthermia.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving moderate sedation with diazepam (Valium) IV. The client's respiration decreases to 10/min. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to the client? a) Ketamine (Ketalar) b) Naltroxene (ReVia) c) Flumazenil (Romazicon) d) Fluvoxamine (Luvox)

c) Flumazenil (Romazicon) Flumazenil reverses toxicity caused by benzodiapezine, such as diazepam. Ketamine is an anesthetic agent, which will potentiate the effects of diazepam. Naltrexone is used to decrease the effects of alcohol, but not used for benzodiazepine toxicity. Fluvoxoamine is as SSRI antidepressant which will also be useful to treat benzodiazepine toxicity

Which of the following is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity? a) Buspirone (BuSpar) b) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) c) Flumazenil (Romazicon) d) Naloxone (Narcan)

c) Flumazenil (Romazicon) ♦ Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, which specifically reverses overdose of benzodiazepines. Buspirone* is a nonbarbiturate anxiolytic Hydoxyzine* is an antihistamine used for anxiety disorder Naloxone* is an opiod antagonist used to reverse an overdose of opiods, such as morphine sulfate

a nurse is caring for a client who is withdrawing from alcohol. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer to decrease craving? a) Carbamazepine b) Methadone c) Propranolol d) Clonidine

c) Propranolol Propranolol is administered to decrease craving and control autonomic responses such as elevated heart rate and blood pressure. Clonidine provides relief for somatic symptoms of withdrawal. Carbamazepine is an antiepileptic agent administered to prevent seizures. Methadone is used for opiod withdrawal.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a suspected bacterial infection in her uring. Which of the following prescribed lab tests will identify antibiotics that could treat the infection? a) Gram stain b) culture c) sensitivity d) specific gravity

c) sensitivity Sensitivity tests determine which abx will be effective in treating an infection. gram identifies presence of micro-organism culture allows micro-organism to reproduce specific gravity tells concentration of urine compared to water.

Buspirone is different from other anxiety medications in which of the following ways? a) Buspirone has anticonvulsant effects. b) Buspirone has muscle relaxant effects. c) Buspirone will depress the CNS. d) Buspirone does not cause physical or psychological dependance.

d) Buspirone does not cause physical or psychological dependence. Buspirone does not affect the CNS teh same way as benzodiazepines. It does not cause dependence or tolerance, does not have anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant effects, and does not promote drowsiness.

The nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lithium carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent lithium toxicity, the nurse should advise the client to do which of the following? a) Avoid the use of acetaminophen for headaches b) Restrict intake of foods rich in sodium c) Decrease fluid intake to less than 1500 mL/day d) Limit aerobic activity in hot weather

d) Limit aerobic activity in hot weather Activities that could cause sodium/water depletion should be avoided in order to prevent lithium carbonate toxicity. Acetaminophen, rather than NSAIDs, should be used for headaches because NSAIDs interact with lithium and could cause increased blood levels of lithium. The client should make sure to take in enough sodium and increase, rather than decrease, fluid intake to prevent toxicity.

A client is admitted to undergo a surgical procedure. The nurse should be aware that which of the following pre-existing conditions may be a constraindication for the use of ketamine (Ketalar) as an intravenous anesthetic for this client? a) Peptic ulcer disease b) Breast cancer c) Diabetes d) Schizophrenia

d) Schizophrenia Ketamine is contraindicated for clients with a history of mental illness, such as schizophrenia, because this anesthetic can cause psychologic reactions such as hallucinations. There is no contraindication to the use of ketamine for clients with peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, or diabetes.

Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse recognize as a possible adverse reaction to the administration of succinylcholine? a) serum sodium 130 mEq/L b) serum sodium 150 mEq/L c) Serum potassium 3.0 mEq/L d) Serum potassium 5.2 mEq/l

d) Serum potassium 5.2 mEq/l Serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is an adverse reaction to the administration of succinylcholine. The administration of succinylcholine does not result in hyponatremia, hypernatremia, of hypokalemia

A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed oxybutynin (Ditropan). Which of the following outcomes should the nurse add to this client's plan of care while he is taking this medication? a) The client will experience less pain and muscle soreness b) The client will have an increase in range of motion c) The client will experience less constipation d) The client will have fewer episodes of nocturia

d) The client will have fewer episodes of nocturia Oxybutynin is prescribed to decrease the urge to void by inhibiting muscarinic receptors of the detrusor muscle, which contracts the bladder. Expected outcomes might include a decrease of nocturia, voiding fewer times during the day, and/or decreasing incontinence. Oxybutynin will not decreased skeletal muscle pain or increase range of motion. Constipation is a possible adverse reaction to this medication, which the client should be taught to prevent.

A nurse should understand that prophylactic use of abx is indicated for which of the following a) older adult who has recovered from several bouts of pneumonia b) toddler who had multiple ear infections last winter c) school-aged child who will be having tonsils/adenoids removed tomorrow d) adult who is undergoing total his replacement surgery today

d) adult undergoing hip replacement today Prophylactic use of abx is indicated for clients who undergo otherpedic, cardia, peripheral vascular, GI and some Gyno surgeries.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for clozapine (Clozaril). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor weekly during the first few months this client is taking clozapine? a) serum creatinine b) serium sodium c) triglycerides and cholesterol d) white blood cell count

d) white blood cell count The WBC should be monitored carefully during the first few months of treatment due to the risk for agranulocytosis. Although triglycerides and cholesterol should be monitored for clients taking clozapine, they do not require weekly monitoring. Serum sodium and creatinine are not routinely monitored for clients taking clozapine.

describe the pharmacological action of the bezodiazepine (sedative hypnotic anxiolytic) - Diazepam (valium)

diazepam enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) in the CNS.

Before administering amoxicillin/clavulanate, what additional data should the nurse collect?

1) history of previous reaction to abx - especially pcn.

The client returns to the clinic and the PCP discontinues amoxicillin/clavulanate and stated cephalexin 250mg PO q6H x 10 days. A sample is provided for the patient to begin therapy immediately. What nursing intervention should the nurse follow?

Client should take dose and sit in waiting room for 30 minutes. The nurse will then assess the pt for allergic responses. Cephalosporin and PCN have cross-sensitivity, so the nurse should ensure the client is safe. Nurse should carefully document pt condition prior to sending her home and consider making a f/u phone call to check on her. Instruct client to report any s/sx immediately

A client has been taking buspirone for 3 days for an anxiety disorder. He calls the community mental health facility and tells the nurse the medication has not helped him to sleep at all and that he is still feeling anxious. How should the nurse reply?

The initial response to buspirone takes 1 week, but it may take several weeks to reach its therapeutic peak. The medication has not hypnotic effect, so ti does not promote sleep. Try nonmedication measures to promote sleep such as warm bath, soothing music, avoiding caffeine/alcohol before bed.

A nurse plans to administer gentamicin 50 mg Intermittent IV bolus in 50 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride at 0900. The infusion will take 30 minutes. When should the nurse plan for the peak serum level to be drawn? a) 09:30 b) 10:00 c) 10:30 d) 11:00

b) 10:00

A nurse is caring for a school-aged child who has been diagnosed with viral bronchitis. The parent tells the nurse, "I am upset the doctor didn't order an antibiotic for my child. I think I'll start giving her the leftover antibiotics from her last ear infection." What should concern the nurse in this situation?

The parent is promoting resistance toward antibiotics in the child by a) not giving the full dose previously prescribed, b) giving antimicrobials meant for a bacterial infection to the child for a viral infection. This indicates a need for teaching the proper use of antibiotics.

A client's plasma lithium level is 0.2 mEq/L. The nurse can expect to implement which of the following nursing interventions? a) Administer an additional oral dose of lithium b) Prepare to give emergency resuscitation c) Infuse 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride over 4 hr d) Prepare the client immediately for another laboratory draw

a) Administer an additional oral dose of lithium This plasma level is sub-therapeutic and the client should be given an additional dose. Therapeutic level 0.4-0.8mmol/L Emergency resuscitation may be indicated if the client's lab value indicates toxicity (greater than 1.4 mEq/L). There is no indication that the client needs supplemental fluids. There is not reason to question the laboratory result.

Which of the following medications may be used for short-term management of alcohol detoxification? (Select All that apply) a) Lorazepam (Ativan) b) Diazepam (Valium) c) Disulfiram d) Naltrexone e) Acaprosate

a) Lorazepam (Ativan) b) Diazepam (Valium) Lorazepam and diazepam are both benzodiazepines used short-term for detoxification. They decrease anxiety and prevent seizures. Disulfiram is administered to assist the client maintain abstinence from alcohol. Clients who drink alcohol while taking disulfiram may experience a mild reaction such as nausea and vomitting or a more severe reaction that can lead to respiratory depression and death. Naltrexone is a pure opioid antagonist that suppresses the craving and pleasurable effects of alcohol. Acmaprosate decreases unpleasant effects resulting from abstinence (anxiety, restlessness).

A client starting phenelzine (Nardil) for treatment of depression should be monitored for which of the following effects? a) Orthostatic hypotension b) Respiratory depression c) GI bleeding d) Rash

a) Orthostatic hypotension Orthostatic hypotension is a side effect of MAOIs. Clients experience CNS stimulation - not depression. GI bleeding is a side effect of aspririn/NSAIDS Rash is a side effect of fluoxetine (Prozac)

Which of the following are side effects of Bactrim for which the nurse should instruct the client to watch? a) photosensitiviy b) dry mouth c) rash d) tinnitus e) constipation

a) photosensitiviy c) rash

A nurse is caring for a school-aged child who has just been prescribed methylphenidate (Concerta) to treat ADHD. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client and his family about this medication? a) apply the patch once daily at bedtime b) take oral medications once daily in the morning c) take oral medication early in the morning and again at bedtime d) apply the patch on awakening and remove at betime

b) take oral medication once daily in the morning Concerta is a long-acting formulation of methylphenidate that should be taken once daily in the morning. A long-acting methylphenidate (Daytrana) transdermal is available, which should be put on in the morning and removed after no more than 9 hours each day. Short acting methylphenidate (Ritalin) is taken orally 2-3 times daily. They last dose is taken no later than late afternoon or early evening as as not to interfere with the child's sleep.

Overall Diazepam key points

rapid onset used for GAD and panic disorder

Match the treatment goal with the appropriate medication 1) alcohol withdrawal 2) Heroin withdrawal 3) Nicotine withdrawal 4) Alcohol abstinence 5) Morphine overdose a) Methadone b) Naloxone c) Bupropion d) Chlordiazepoxide e) Disulfiram

1) alcohol withdrawal - d) Chlordiazepoxide 2) Heroin withdrawal - a) Methadone 3) Nicotine withdrawal - c) Bupropion 4) Alcohol abstinence - e) Disulfiram 5) Morphine overdose - b) Naloxone

After the first two doses, the client calls and states she is experiencing an itchy rash. What should the nurse tell the client?

1) nurse should asses the client for other adverse symptoms or difficulty breathing. - If so advise client to call 911 2) If sx are non-life threatening, advise client to stop taking medication immediately and come to clinic for further evaluation.

When instructing the client on the use of amoxicillin/clavulanate, what should the nurse tell the client is most important?

1) take with food to avoid GI discomfort 2) finish all meds as prescribed 3) failure to complete course of abx can result in resistance 4) never share meds due to risk of allergic reaction 5) report any s/sx of allergic reaction to MD

a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is prescrived nitrofurantoin. What teaching should the nurse include?

1) tell client that medication may turn urine a rust-brown color. 2) Inform the client to report the following side effects: Fever, sore throat, cough,dyspnea, unusual bleeding, numbness/tingling of hands and feet

A nurse is caring for a client just admitted with an infected wound on her arm. Which of the following admission prescriptions should the nurse implement first? a) Administer a prescribed antibiotic b) Obtain a wound culture c) Have blood drawn for CBC and electrolyte panel d) apply dry dressing to the wound

B) Obtain a wound culture A wound culture should be obtained prior to beginning of the antibiotic in order to identify the causative agent. This the the nurse's priority in this situation. Administering the prescribed antibiotic, having blood drawn and applying a bandage are important but the culture is the priority.

What are the three major medications used to treat anxiety disorders?

Benzodiazepines Non-barb anxiolytics SSRI