pharmacology final

A community health nurse is leading a health promotion workshop during a community health fair. A participant has asked the nurse for advice on the necessity of calcium supplements. The nurse should respond in the knowledge that which demographic group most frequently require calcium supplements? Select all that apply. A) Young women B) Older women C) Elementary-aged children D) Middle-aged women E) Middle-aged men

A and B

The nurse is providing dietary education to a client who has been prescribed a loop diuretic. What type of foods should the nurse identify as important to individuals on this therapy? Select all that apply. A) Low sodium B) Potassium rich C) High fiber D) High protein E) Low fat

A and B

The nurse prepares to administer nitrofurantoin 100 mg PO every 12 hours to an adult client newly diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Which measures would the nurse provide for safe and effective drug administration? Select all that apply. A) Administer the drug with a meal or snack because food helps with drug absorption and decreases onset of GI distress. B) Inform the client that the medication may cause the urine to turn a harmless brown coloration. C) Educate the client that the drug is safe with pregnancy and has no adverse effects on fetal development. D) Instruct the client that the drug is a urinary analgesic to provide pain relief of urinary tract infection symptoms. E) Administer antacids with magnesium to increase the drug absorption of the nitrofurantoin.

A and B

A client who is undergoing chemotherapy for the treatment of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma will soon begin treatment with epoetin alfa. The nurse should be aware that this drug may be administered by which route? Select all that apply. A) Subcutaneous B) Buccal C) Intravenous D) Intramuscular E) Oral

A and C

A client has been diagnosed with moderately increased LDL, and the primary health care provider wishes to start statin therapy. What is a potential disadvantage of statins that the health care provider should consider? Select all that apply. A) Statins require regularly scheduled blood work. B) Statins are nephrotoxic. C) Statins are contraindicated in clients with a history of myocardial infarction. D) Statins are expensive. E) Statins have an immunosuppressive effect.

A and D

A client who began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago states to the nurse, "I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend." How should the nurse best respond to this client's statement? Select all that apply. A) "If you're not consistent with taking your medications, you're likely to develop more side effects." B) "Missing doses occasionally is alright, but be sure you make up for the missed doses." C) "Remember that if you miss a dose, you need to take a double dose at the next scheduled time." D) "Remember that your antiretroviral drugs will only be effective if you take them very consistently." E) "It's acceptable to miss an occasional dose as long as your symptoms don't get worse, but it's not really recommended."

A and D

A client prescribed ramipril earlier in the week states to the nurse, "Now I have a nagging, dry cough." How should the nurse best follow-up the client's statement? A) "Drugs like ramipril often cause a cough in clients; we should speak to the health care provider." B) "We should speak to the health care provider about immediately discontinuing the medication." C) "We need to obtain a sputum sample to see whether you have developed a respiratory infection." D) "Coughing is an adverse effect of the medication that may lead to pneumonitis."

A) "Drugs like ramipril often cause a cough in clients; we should speak to the health care provider."

Which statement by a client leads the nurse to believe that the client understands how to safely and effectively use bulk-forming laxatives? A) "I will mix the medication with around a cup of liquid and then drink the mixture." B) "I will mix the dry medication with applesauce and then eat prunes before bedtime." C) "I will use milk of magnesia in conjunction with a bulk-forming laxative until I have a bowel movement." D) "I will decrease the roughage in my diet while I am taking the bulk-forming laxative and eat rice."

A) "I will mix the medication with around a cup of liquid and then drink the mixture."

A client has been prescribed omeprazole by the primary health care provider. When the nurse asks whether the medication is providing relief, the client replies, "I think it's working quite well, and I've gotten in the routine of taking it every morning before breakfast." How should the nurse respond? A) "I'm glad to hear that. It sounds like you're taking it exactly like it should be taken." B) "I'm glad it's working for you, but you'll probably find it works even better if you take it after eating." C) "That's great. If you find later that it's not working as well, you might want to try taking it at bedtime." D) "That's good, but remember that you shouldn't take it on days when you're not having any symptoms."

A) "I'm glad to hear that. It sounds like you're taking it exactly like it should be taken."

A nurse is providing education to a client about epoetin alfa. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching? A) "In 2 weeks, you will return for laboratory tests." B) "Take this medication at bedtime." C) "Store the medication in the coldest section of the refrigerator." D) "Take your temperature every morning and record it in your journal."

A) "In 2 weeks, you will return for laboratory tests."

A client has just been diagnosed with liver cancer, and the care team is finalizing the extensive chemotherapy regimen that will begin imminently. Administration of chemotherapeutic drugs is best achieved through which route? A) A central venous catheter (CVC) B) An intramuscular depot C) A peripheral IV in the nondominant forearm D) Peripheral intravenous access in the antecubital fossa

A) A central venous catheter (CVC)

Which client is at highest risk for alteration in bowel elimination? A) A client who is paralyzed from a spinal cord injury B) A client who has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes C) A client who has hypertension D) A client who takes thyroid replacements

A) A client who is paralyzed from a spinal cord injury

A client diagnosed with Cushing's disease will soon begin treatment with ketoconazole. The nurse should be aware of the black box warning for this drug and consequently monitor what laboratory values? A) AST, ALT, and GGT B) White blood cell differential C) Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine D) Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell count

A) AST, ALT, and GGT

A client who has been taking medication for a seizure disorder is asking the nurse about getting pregnant. Why is pregnancy discouraged in women who are being treated for seizure disorders? A) Antiepilepsy drugs are teratogenic. B) Antiepilepsy drugs decrease fertility. C) Seizure disorders are genetic. D) Seizure disorders are familial.

A) Antiepilepsy drugs are teratogenic.

A client has been administered heparin to prevent thromboembolism development status postmyocardial infarction. The client develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Which medication will be administered? A) Argatroban 9 B) Aminocaproic acid C) Calcium gluconate D) Vitamin K

A) Argatroban 9

A client who has been administered growth hormone reports a severe headache and flashes before the eyes. What assessment should the nurse make? A) Blood pressure B) Equilibrium C) Level of anxiety D) Respiratory rate

A) Blood pressure

A client who is recovering in hospital from a bilateral mastectomy has developed minor bleeding at one of the incision sites. During the process of clot formation, plasminogen will become part of a clot by which means? A) By binding with fibrin B) By activating plasmin C) By activating factor VII D) By binding with platelets

A) By binding with fibrin

The client reports taking a phenothiazine antipsychotic. What medication does the nurse suspect the client has been prescribed? A) Chlorpromazine B) Theophylline C) Thiothixene D) Haloperidol

A) Chlorpromazine

A client is being treated with cyclophosphamide. Which laboratory values should the nurse follow most closely? A) Complete blood count B) C-reactive protein level C) Arterial blood gases D) D-dimer

A) Complete blood count

An adult client has been diagnosed with a posterior pituitary lesion that has resulted in diabetes insipidus. What is the characteristic sign of this health problem? A) Copious urine production B) Hyperglycemia that is unresponsive to exogenous insulin C) Blood glucose levels ≥400 mg/dL (22.20 mmol/L) D) Hematuria

A) Copious urine production

What is the result of failing to respond to the defecation reflex? A) Decreased sensory stimulation B) Involuntary evacuation C) Diarrhea D) Increased sensory stimulation

A) Decreased sensory stimulation

A client is taking cholestyramine to reduce LDL cholesterol. Cholestyramine will cause a decrease in absorption of which medication? A) Digoxin B) Acetaminophen C) Ibuprofen D) Aspirin

A) Digoxin

What potential adverse reaction is most likely to develop during cefazolin therapy? A) Gastrointestinal upset B) Drowsiness C) Orthostatic hypotension D) Dry skin and pruritus

A) Gastrointestinal upset

The nurse is providing education regarding lifestyle changes to a client who has been diagnosed with hypertension. When providing dietary instruction on a low-sodium diet, which dietary choice would the nurse identify as most appropriate? A) Grilled chicken, green salad, and apple B) Grilled hamburger, French fries, and cola drink C) Hot dog, baked beans, and coleslaw D) Ham sandwich, potato chips, and cookie

A) Grilled chicken, green salad, and apple

Which hormone is responsible for increases in the size and number of muscle cells? A) Growth hormone B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone C) Corticotropin-releasing hormone D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

A) Growth hormone

A client is receiving omalizumab to treat allergic asthma that is not relieved by inhaled corticosteroids. Which nursing intervention is appropriate with each dose administration of omalizumab? A) Have epinephrine available during administration. B) Instruct the client to avoid high-fat foods during the course of treatment. C) Administer a corticosteroid prior to administration. D) Administer high-flow oxygen prior to administration.

A) Have epinephrine available during administration.

The nurse is providing education to a client who has been diagnosed with asthma on the therapeutic action of inhaled corticosteroid agents. How will the nurse describe the action? A) Inhaled corticosteroid agents reduce airway inflammation. B) Inhaled corticosteroid agents reduce bronchodilation. C) Inhaled corticosteroid agents reduce respiratory rate. D) Inhaled corticosteroid agents depress the central nervous system.

A) Inhaled corticosteroid agents reduce airway inflammation.

Defecation is normally stimulated by what physiologic trigger? A) Movements and reflexes in the gastrointestinal tract B) Changes in the osmolarity of bowel contents C) Stimulation from the medulla oblongata D) Synthesis and release of digestive enzymes

A) Movements and reflexes in the gastrointestinal tract

The nurse's subsequent cardiac assessments and monitoring of a client prescribed disopyramide should be planned in the knowledge that this drug increases the client's risk for developing what health problem? A) New dysrhythmias B) New-onset chest pain C) Acute renal failure D) Mitral valve regurgitation

A) New dysrhythmias

A young adult client diagnosed with hepatitis B virus (HBV) has been prescribed treatment with lamivudine. Shortly after beginning treatment, the client reports experiencing intense abdominal pain. The nurse should recognize the possibility of what medication-associated adverse effect? A) Pancreatitis B) Gastroenteritis C) Bowel obstruction D) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

A) Pancreatitis

What is the mechanism of action for medications prescribed to treat a rapid dysrhythmia? A) Reducing automaticity B) Repolarizing myocardial cells C) Reducing refractory period D) Increasing conduction

A) Reducing automaticity

A client is being discharged from the hospital with warfarin to be taken at home. Which food should the client be instructed to avoid in the diet? A) Spinach B) Apples C) Eggs D) Dairy products

A) Spinach

A client with suspected adrenal insufficiency has been administered 1 mcg of cosyntropin as an IV bolus. Serum testing 20 minutes later reveals a markedly elevated level of cortisol. What conclusion should the nurse infer from this finding? A) The client has normal adrenocortical function. B) The client has primary adrenal insufficiency. C) The client has Cushing's disease. D) The client has Addison's disease.

A) The client has normal adrenocortical function.

An adult client with a long-standing dysrhythmia has been taking oral propranolol for the last several months, resulting in acceptable symptom control. What is a priority teaching point for the nurse to communicate to this client? A) The importance of not stopping the medication abruptly B) The need to limit intake of high-potassium foods C) The need to avoid taking over-the-counter antacids D) The need to measure the radial pulse for 1 minute prior to each dose of propranolol

A) The importance of not stopping the medication abruptly

The anesthetist administers vecuronium to a client prior to thyroidectomy. What is the purpose of the medication? A) To ensure that the client does not move during surgery B) To protect the client's airway during surgery C) To induce hypnosis and amnesia D) To prevent intraoperative vomiting

A) To ensure that the client does not move during surgery

A client is prescribed epinephrine for the treatment of anaphylaxis. This client is experiencing what type of hypersensitivity reaction? A) Type I B) Type III C) Type IV D) Type II

A) Type I

When teaching new parents about the benefits of adhering to the recommended vaccination schedule for their infant, the nurse should cite protection against which diseases? Select all that apply. A) Hepatitis B B) Varicella C) Measles D) Shingles E) Poliomyelitis

A, B, C

The client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease states, "I've never been a really anxious type of person, so I never thought I'd develop ulcers." The nurse has responded with health education addressing the etiology of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). What causative factors should the nurse cite? Select all that apply. A) Infections B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs C) Physiologic or psychological stress D) Cigarette smoking E) Diabetes mellitus

A, B, C, D

A 15-year-old client with a complex psychosocial history is being treated for inhalant abuse. When providing health education to a client being treated for inhalant abuse, the nurse should focus on which associated risks? Select all that apply. A) Impaired brain development B) Physiologic withdrawal C) Organ damage D) Extreme hyperactivity E) Psychological dependence

A, B, C, E

A client diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV) should be educated about the possible prescription of which drugs for the treatment of this disease? Select all that apply. A) Ribavirin B) Cidofovir C) Valganciclovir D) Foscarnet E) Ganciclovir

A, B, C, E

The nurse should focus on what aspects of care when preparing a caregiver to address the needs of a client who demonstrates psychotic behaviors? Select all that apply. A) Understanding the nature of the client's mental health illness B) Encouraging the client to be as independent as is possible C) Keeping all follow-up mental health appointments D) Encouraging the client to avoid people outside of family and friends E) Being familiar with the available social services in the community

A, B, C, E

A child is receiving ribavirin for a diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Nurses caring for this client should be aware of the need to monitor themselves for what possible adverse reactions? Select all that apply. A) Rhinitis B) Conjunctivitis C) Pulmonary embolism D) Bronchospasm E) Headache

A, B, D, E

A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with diarrhea. The prescriber has ordered a clear liquid diet for the first 24 hours of admission. What liquids can the nurse offer to the client during this period? Select all that apply. A) Gelatin B) Decaffeinated cola C) Milk D) Broth E) Tea F) Orange juice with pulp

A, B, D, E

The nurse prepares to administer ciprofloxacin 250 mg per enteral feeding tube every 12 hours to the adult client diagnosed with pneumonia and a history of renal impairment in the critical care unit. Which measures should the nurse provide for safe and effective drug administration? Select all that apply. A) Crush the immediate release tablet, and mix with water before administering the medication via the enteral tube. B) Monitor serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and report any changes from baseline to the prescriber. C) Examine the random peak and trough level, and report abnormal levels promptly to prevent further nephrotoxicity. D) Stop the enteral tube feeding for 1 hour before administering the drug, and resume feeding 2 hours after providing the drug. E) Wait 1 hour before administering some other medications the client takes: sucralfate, multivitamin, iron supplement.

A, B, D, E

A client appears to be in hypovolemic shock with a significant loss of blood. What assessment findings might help confirm the diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Clammy skin B) Fever C) Weak pulse D) Chest pain E) Nausea

A, C, E

A client has been prescribed 2% permethrin topically for pediculosis. Which measures would the nurse provide for safe and effective therapy? Select all that apply. A) After application, assess the skin for stinging, numbness, rash, and pruritus. B) The nurse must wear a hair covering to prevent transmission. C) Use the drug to saturate the hair and scalp, the area behind the ears, and the base of the neck. D) Allow the medication to stay on affected areas overnight and then rinse off with warm water. E) Follow contact isolation precautions until lice and nits are gone.

A, C, E

A client has sought care from the primary health care provider after "feeling under the weather" for several days. What signs and symptoms would support the presence of a viral infection? Select all that apply. A) Fever B) Increased white cell count C) Malaise D) Idiopathic bleeding E) Headache

A, C, E

The nurse prepares to administer hydrocortisone 250-mg IV bolus every 4 hours and fludrocortisone 0.1 mg PO daily for an adult client newly diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which measures would the nurse provide for safe and effective drug administration? Select all that apply. A) Dilute hydrocortisone to 50 mg/mL and administer a 5-mL IV bolus over 30 seconds. B) Increase sodium intake in the diet to maintain normal blood pressure. C) Assess vital signs for improvements in cardiac function and NA+, K+, and BUN. D) Instruct the client to limit intake of foods rich in potassium. E) Monitor for adverse effects: hypertension, heart failure, hyperglycemia, and immunosuppression.

A, C, E

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal impairment in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) after general anesthesia with isoflurane and vecuronium. The client has a weak and ineffective cough. Which assessments should the nurse perform to determine if recurarization has occurred? Select all that apply. A) Assess for the ability to swallow and handle secretions. B) Analyze the last recorded renal profile to determine renal status. C) Examine the medical record if neostigmine was administered. D) Determine what the bilateral hand grasp strength is. E) Ask the client to lift the head off the bed for 5 seconds to determine strength.

A, D, E

Which measures would the nurse provide for safe and effective drug administration when applying a 5% lidocaine patch to an adult client? Select all that apply. A) Remove the previous patch with clean gloves; fold it on itself and dispose of it. B) Write the client's initials on the patch. C) Place a heating pad over the patch to increase circulation to the area. D) Cleanse and dry the skin, and inspect for redness or rash where the previous patch was applied. E) Apply the new patch to intact skin at the most painful site.

A, D, E

An adult resident of an assisted living facility has not responded appreciably to bulk-forming laxatives, so the health care provider has prescribed bisacodyl. The nurse who oversees the care at the facility should know that this drug may be administered by what route? Select all that apply. A) Intramuscular injection B) Oral C) Subcutaneous injection D) Suppository E) Intravenous

B and D

The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of acute benzodiazepine withdrawal. What assessment findings would support that diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Lethargy B) Agitation C) Bradycardia D) Palpitations E) Anhidrosis

B and D

The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of oral atenolol to a client. Which assessment findings would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication? Select all that apply. A) Heart rate of 65 beats/min B) Blood pressure of 88/49 mm Hg C) Oxygen saturation of 90% on room air D) Blood pressure of 141/92 mm Hg E) Heart rate of 54 beats/min

B and E

A 26-year-old's gradual development of a "moon face," coupled with protracted weight gain, has caused the nurse practitioner to suspect the possibility of Cushing's disease. When explaining this health problem to the client, how should the nurse describe it? A) "Cushing's disease often results from a growth on your kidney that causes inadequate production of steroids." B) "Cushing's disease is a result of an overproduction of steroid hormones by your kidneys." C) "Cushing's disease happens when your pituitary gland doesn't stimulate your other glands enough." D) "Cushing's disease most often happens when people are taking corticosteroid medications and stop them abruptly."

B) "Cushing's disease is a result of an overproduction of steroid hormones by your kidneys."

The nurse has been educating the client about the self-administration of phenytoin. Which statement made by the client demonstrates an understanding of the medication? A) "I'll reduce my dose if I remain seizure free." B) "I'll make sure to take the drug with food." C) "I'll stop taking the drug if I don't have a seizure for 8 weeks." D) "I'll only take the drug when I feel an impending seizure."

B) "I'll make sure to take the drug with food."

A client with a diagnosis of chronic renal failure will soon begin a regimen of epoetin that will be administered by the client at home. Which statement indicates that the nurse's initial health education has been successful? A) "I'll make sure to take my epoetin pill on a strict schedule and make sure I never miss a dose." B) "I'm not all that comfortable with giving myself an injection, but I'm sure I'll be able to learn." C) "I'm glad that epoetin can help to protect me from getting an infection." D) "I'm excited that there's a medication that can help my kidneys work better."

B) "I'm not all that comfortable with giving myself an injection, but I'm sure I'll be able to learn."

The nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed a second-generation antihistamine. Which client statement suggests a need for additional teaching? A) "I know these can be a bit expensive, but hopefully it will be worth it for me." B) "I'm really hoping that these pills will cure my allergies before summer starts." C) "I'll check with my health care provider to make sure that the diet supplements I'm taking are okay to take at the same time as these pills." D) "It's handy that I don't necessarily have to take these pills at bedtime."

B) "I'm really hoping that these pills will cure my allergies before summer starts."

A client has been achieving an acceptable reduction in the positive and negative signs of schizophrenia after several weeks of treatment with clozapine. The client has asked the nurse if it is acceptable to have "a few drinks from time to time." How should the nurse best respond to the client's enquiry? A) "That shouldn't present a problem, provided you make sure that you're safe when you do it." B) "When you're taking clozapine, it's best to avoid drinking alcohol altogether." C) "If you notice that your symptoms are worsening when you drink, you should stop doing it." D) "That's okay in most cases, but it's advisable to limit it to beer and wine and to avoid spirits."

B) "When you're taking clozapine, it's best to avoid drinking alcohol altogether."

A client has been prescribed both disulfiram and phenytoin. Based on the interaction of these two medications, the nurse should contact the health care provider regarding what potential adjustment to the medication therapies? A) A larger dose of disulfiram B) A reduced dose of phenytoin C) Phenytoin to be administered twice daily D) More frequent administration of disulfiram

B) A reduced dose of phenytoin

A client's severe diarrhea has necessitated treatment with polycarbophil. The nurse should caution the client about the possibility of what adverse effect? A) Headache and visual disturbances B) Abdominal fullness and bloating C) Gastroesophageal reflux D) Nausea and vomiting

B) Abdominal fullness and bloating

A client develops lysis syndrome during the administration of chemotherapy agents. Which treatment is implemented to resolve this health problem? A) Administration of anti-inflammatory agents B) Administration of IV normal saline and sodium bicarbonate C) Administration of potassium IV D) Limiting of fluid intake and reduction in IV fluid rate

B) Administration of IV normal saline and sodium bicarbonate

A 79-year-old client has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance with signs and symptoms of ischemic stroke. The care team would consider the immediate (STAT) administration of what drug? A) Low-molecular-weight heparin B) Alteplase C) Clopidogrel D) Vitamin K

B) Alteplase

A client is administered a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF). What is the expected outcome of a G-CSF? A) Red blood cell count of 3000 mm3 B) Decreased number of infections C) White blood cell count of 20,000 mm3 D) Decreased fatigue and increased energy

B) Decreased number of infections

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a ventricular dysrhythmia associated with an acute myocardial infarction. What assessment should the nurse make prior to administering a bolus of lidocaine IV? A) Assess the client's nutritional history for allergies. B) Determine if the client has had a reaction to local anesthesia. C) Determine the client's ability to swallow. D) Assess for lidocaine administration in the client's history.

B) Determine if the client has had a reaction to local anesthesia.

A teenage client treated with dextroamphetamine for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) for the last 10 years is now diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. What intervention should be implemented with this client to provide safe management of all conditions? A) Discontinue the high-calorie diet. B) Discontinue the dextroamphetamine. C) Administer a proton pump inhibitor. D) Assess the client for pulmonary edema.

B) Discontinue the dextroamphetamine.

The nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed alendronate. The nurse should reinforce correct administration to reduce the risk for what disorder? A) Decreased joint range of motion B) Esophageal bleeding C) Ischemic stroke D) Coronary artery disease (CAD)

B) Esophageal bleeding

An older adult client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed a benzodiazepine. The nurse caring for the client knows to include what intervention in the client's care plan? A) Education regarding sexual dysfunction B) Falls risk assessment C) Seizure precautions D) Frequent dysrhythmias monitoring

B) Falls risk assessment

A client is experiencing psychotic behavior related to cocaine dependence. What medication can be administered to treat the psychosis? A) Lorazepam B) Haloperidol C) Diazepam D) Methadone

B) Haloperidol

A client diagnosed with hypertension has not responded adequately to treatment with losartan. What additional medication would the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe? A) Atorvastatin calcium B) Hydrochlorothiazide C) Digoxin D) Hydralazine hydrochloride

B) Hydrochlorothiazide

A client is taking warfarin to prevent clot formation related to atrial fibrillation. How are the effects of the warfarin monitored? A) aPTT B) PT and INR C) Platelet count D) RBC

B) PT and INR

A nursing student is scheduled to receive the hepatitis B series. What type of immunity will this immunization provide? A) Innate immunity B) Passive immunity C) Active immunity D) Natural immunity

B) Passive immunity

A child is diagnosed with fecal impaction. What medication does the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe? A) Lactulose B) Polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution C) Docusate sodium D) Sorbitol

B) Polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution

An older adult client has experienced a sharp decline in mobility and quality of life due to severe rheumatoid arthritis. As a result, the health care provider has recently prescribed abatacept. This fusion protein inhibitor will achieve a therapeutic effect by what means? A) Antagonizing histamine receptors B) Preventing the activation of T cells C) Increasing antibody production by B cells D) Inhibiting the production of mast cells

B) Preventing the activation of T cells

Which herbal and dietary supplement has shown proven success in lowering LDL and total cholesterol in research studies? A) Garlic B) Red yeast rice C) Flaxseed oil D) Soy

B) Red yeast rice

A client will undergo an endoscopy with conscious sedation using midazolam. The nurse who is participating in this procedure should monitor the client closely for which sign of adverse reaction? A) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) B) Respiratory depression C) Hemorrhage D) Rhabdomyolysis

B) Respiratory depression

A client reports feelings of gloom and the inability to perform activities of daily living. The normal function of which neurotransmitter is most likely impaired? A) Insulin B) Serotonin C) Acetylcholine D) Epinephrine

B) Serotonin

A client is undergoing a cytotoxic chemotherapy regimen for the treatment of stage III lung cancer. What effect will this regimen likely have on the client's hemostatic function? A) The client will require prophylactic heparin. B) The client's platelet count will decline. C) The client will likely experience thrombocytosis. D) The client will be at increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

B) The client's platelet count will decline.

The nurse is providing education to the parents of a child who has been prescribed somatropin. What teaching point should the nurse prioritize? A) The need to limit the child's activity level for the duration of treatment B) The correct technique for daily injections of the drug C) The rationale for not crushing the extended-release tablet D) The importance of regular blood pressure monitoring

B) The correct technique for daily injections of the drug

What hormone will be released in response to shivering as the reaction to cold? A) Somatostatin B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone C) Luteinizing hormone D) Corticotropin

B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone

A client prescribed metronidazole to treat Clostridium difficile is also prescribed which medication orally to assist in restructuring the flora of the intestinal tract? A) Rifaximin B) Vancomycin C) Quinupristin-dalfopristin D) Spectinomycin

B) Vancomycin

A nurse is caring for an adult client who has been prescribed metronidazole. Which statement should the nurse include in the medication teaching? Select all that apply. A) "Food increases the absorption of the medication." B) "The medication may cause your urine to be dark in color." C) "Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking the medication." D) "Metronidazole is safe when pregnant." E) "You may experience a metallic taste with this medication."

B, C, E

An older adult client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and congestive heart failure (CHF) has begun tapering off of prednisone. The nurse should prioritize which assessment(s) during this phase of the client's care? Select all that apply. A) Vital signs B) Extremity edema C) Daily weights D) Level of consciousness assessment E) Dyspnea

B, C, E

The nurse providing education to a client prescribed erythromycin recognizes a need for additional instruction when the client makes which suggestion? Select all that apply. A) Identifying stomach cramping as an adverse effect B) Recognizing dark urine a normal side effect C) Taking the medication with or without food D) Avoiding grapefruit juice while taking the medication E) Swallowing the medication with milk

B, C, E

A client is prescribed sacubitril and valsartan for the treatment of heart failure. What laboratory blood values should the nurse monitor to assure that the treatment is successful? Select all that apply. A) Glucose B) Potassium C) Magnesium D) Blood urea nitrogen E) Creatinine

B, D, E

A client with a history of migraine headaches self-medicates with an over-the-counter medication that contains a common combination of drugs. The nurse recognizes the client is medicating with a combination of which drugs? Select all that apply. A) Naproxen B) Acetaminophen C) Codeine D) Caffeine E) Aspirin

B, D, E

The nurse is caring for a newly admitted client requiring long-term mechanical ventilation. Which measures would the nurse provide for safe and effective long-term administration of the newly prescribed propofol intravenous (IV) drip being titrated for moderate sedation? Select all that apply. A) Report renal insufficiency because the drug will need to be discontinued. B) Determine the level of sedation before and after titrating the drug. C) Auscultate lungs since the drug can cause bronchoconstriction. D) Assess for contraindications: pancreatitis, allergies to soy, or eggs. E) Monitor and report elevations in triglycerides, creatine kinase, or lactic acid.

B, D, E

A client being treated in the hospital for a femoral fracture is scheduled to receive a daily dose of prescribed metoprolol. Prior to administering this drug, the nurse should assess and document which client data? Select all that apply. A) Potassium level B) Oxygen saturation level C) Heart rate D) Blood pressure E) Capillary refill

C and D

A client diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease. The nurse should anticipate including what information when educating the client regarding the prescribed therapy? Select all that apply. A) Clarithromycin is prescribed because it is associated with lower relapse rates. B) Any previous prescription of ethambutol will be discontinued. C) There is a once-daily dose of clarithromycin. D) The therapy may include a prescription for rifabutin. E) A 600-mg dose of azithromycin will be prescribed.

C and D

A client is prescribed interferon beta-1a to be administered subcutaneously in the home setting. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching about the medication? A) "Be sure to shake the vial before you draw up the medication." B) "Take an iron supplement daily to assist with the absorption of the medication." C) "Administer the medication at bedtime." D) "Store the medication at room temperature."

C) "Administer the medication at bedtime."

A parent asks the nurse how mebendazole will eradicate a child's parasitic worms. How should the nurse best respond to the patent? A) "This drug will prompt your child's body to expel the worms." B) "This drug causes the cells in each worm's body to burst." C) "Mebendazole robs the worms of the glucose they need to survive." D) "Mebendazole will stop the worms from being able to reproduce."

C) "Mebendazole robs the worms of the glucose they need to survive."

A teenager asks the nurse how tetracycline will improve acne. Which statement should the nurse provide to the client regarding the action of tetracycline? A) "Tetracycline is used in combination with doxycycline to treat acne." B) "Tetracycline decreases redness and swelling of the pustules." C) "Tetracycline interferes with the production of free fatty acids." D) "Tetracycline treats the Chlamydia organism that causes acne."

C) "Tetracycline interferes with the production of free fatty acids."

A client is diagnosed with a brain tumor. The client is told that the cancer cells proliferate. The client asks the nurse what this means. What is the nurse's best response? A) "The proliferation of the cancer cells is the suppression of growth." B) "The proliferation of cancer cells is the metastasis of the tumor." C) "The proliferation is the growth of cancer cells and the rate of growth." D) "The proliferation of the cancer cells is the treatment with chemotherapy."

C) "The proliferation is the growth of cancer cells and the rate of growth."

The parents of a child on methylphenidate want to know why they need to withhold the medication during the summer months. What is the nurse's best response? A) "Withholding the medication will allow for stabilized cardiac function." B) "Withholding the medication will assist in evaluating psychotherapy." C) "Withholding the medication will decrease the growth suppression." D) "Withholding the medication will assist in better drug response."

C) "Withholding the medication will decrease the growth suppression."

The client recently diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease states achieving adequate symptom relief with the use of over-the-counter (OTC) antacids but has asked the nurse about the optimal schedule for taking these drugs. What action should the nurse recommend? A) Every 4 hours during all waking hours B) Immediately prior to each meal and at bedtime C) 1 and 3 hours after each meal and at bedtime D) At the earliest appearance of symptoms

C) 1 and 3 hours after each meal and at bedtime

A client is scheduled to receive an immunization. In which client may the administration of a live vaccine be contraindicated? A) A client with renal impairment B) A client with hepatic failure C) A client taking steroid therapy D) A client over the age of 65

C) A client taking steroid therapy

A client asks the nurse about using dextromethorphan to relieve a cough. What type of cough would the nurse explain is best treated with the drug? A) A cough that occurs when the client is exposed to airborne irritants B) A cough that is associated with an allergy to ragweed C) A dry, nonproductive cough D) An occasional, productive cough

C) A dry, nonproductive cough

A client is admitted after overdose with acetaminophen. What medication would the nurse expect to be administered? A) Oxymetazoline hydrochloride B) Daptomycin C) Acetylcysteine D) Darbepoetin alfa

C) Acetylcysteine

The nurse is preparing to administer oral chlorpromazine to a client. What action should the nurse include in administration? A) Administer the drug on alternating days. B) Instruct the client to avoid dairy products for 1 hour before and 2 hours after administration. C) Administer the drug 1 to 2 hours before bedtime. D) Have the client hold the drug under the tongue for at least 30 seconds.

C) Administer the drug 1 to 2 hours before bedtime.

A client is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which assessment warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent? A) Hematocrit of 39% B) An aspartate aminotransferase (AST) test 10 Unit/L C) Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL (21.43 mmol/L) D) Sodium of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L)

C) Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL (21.43 mmol/L)

The nurse is assessing a client who is taking diphenhydramine for relief of seasonal allergies. Which finding should prompt the nurse to suspect that the resident is experiencing an anticholinergic effect of the medication? A) Tinnitus B) Wheezing on expiration C) Blurry vision D) Urticaria

C) Blurry vision

When a client has an increased serum level of ionized calcium, which hormone will be released? A) Insulin B) Estrogen C) Calcitonin D) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

C) Calcitonin

It is important for the nurse to stay current with the recommendations for immunizations. Which source is most accurate regarding immunization guidelines? A) American Academy of Pediatrics B) American Academy of Infectious Diseases C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention D) National Shot Guide

C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed filgrastim. What is the effect of filgrastim? A) Decreases white blood cells related to infection B) Decreases platelet count related to bleeding C) Decreases neutropenia related to chemotherapy D) Decreases growth of blood vessels due to ischemia

C) Decreases neutropenia related to chemotherapy

The nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed bisoprolol. During teaching, the nurse explains that the drug achieves a therapeutic effect in what way? A) Prolonging the QT interval B) Shortening the time required for repolarization C) Decreasing heart rate D) Increasing the force of myocardial contractions

C) Decreasing heart rate

Norepinephrine has been prescribed for an older adult client for the treatment of shock. The nurse should carefully monitor the client due to the increased risk of which side effect? A) Increased intracranial pressure B) Cerebral ischemia C) Exacerbation of chronic cardiovascular conditions D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C) Exacerbation of chronic cardiovascular conditions

The nurse is caring for a client suspected of experiencing benzodiazepine toxicity. Which medication does the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe? A) Pancrelipase B) Pamidronate disodium C) Flumazenil D) Olmesartan medoxomil

C) Flumazenil

The nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has been diagnosed with atrial flutter. Which nonpharmacological intervention, if prescribed by the health care provider, will best assist in long-term maintenance of a normal sinus rhythm after successful treatment for atrial flutter? A) A high-potassium diet B) Surgical intervention with a new mitral valve C) Implantation of a cardioverter-defibrillator D) Initiation of an isometric exercise program

C) Implantation of a cardioverter-defibrillator

A client is ordered to receive cyclosporine intravenously, and the nurse has explained the need for frequent blood work. This blood work is required because of what characteristic of cyclosporine? A) It decreases erythropoiesis. B) It can precipitate a thyroid storm. C) It has a narrow therapeutic range. D) It has been linked to spontaneous hemolysis.

C) It has a narrow therapeutic range.

A client is administered bevacizumab to treat tumor growth in a breast tumor. What is the action of a monoclonal antibody such as bevacizumab? A) It changes the RNA of the tumor cell to a normal form. B) It blocks the cell wall synthesis. C) It prevents the activation of intracellular growth factors. D) It binds to the 30S ribosome.

C) It prevents the activation of intracellular growth factors.

A client has received a large amount of chemotherapy to treat leukemia. The client develops gastrointestinal upset, hypertension, and paresthesias. What syndrome is the client developing? A) Irritable bowel syndrome B) Epidermal nevus syndrome C) Tumor lysis syndrome D) Fröhlich's syndrome

C) Tumor lysis syndrome

A client, after presenting at the clinic with sneezing and coughing, is diagnosed with the common cold. Which type of microorganism causes the common cold? A) Gram-negative bacteria B) Gram-positive bacteria C) Virus D) Fungus

C) Virus

The nurse prepares to administer gentamicin intravenous every 8 hours to an older adult client. Which interventions should the nurse provide to decrease the risk for nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity? Select all that apply. A) Draw the trough level 30 to 60 minutes after drug is administered, and report a level above 10 to 12 mcg/mL. B) Obtain peak level before administering the next dose of drug, and report a level above 2 mcg/mL. C) Provide the client with 2 to 3 L of noncaffeinated oral fluids daily, unless contraindicated. D) Monitor estimated creatinine clearance and BUN at baseline and periodically during therapy. E) Obtain baseline assessment of cranial nerve eight and periodic measurements during therapy.

C, D, E

The nurse is educating a young adult client diagnosed with migraine headaches about the prescribed acetaminophen-aspirin-caffeine combination for abortive therapy. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification? A) "I should not take this drug if I plan on becoming pregnant or later want to breastfeed." B) "While I am taking this drug, I should not consume any foods or drinks high in caffeine." C) "The caffeine in the drug helps the vessels in my brain to constrict and helps stop the headache." D) "I can take my over-the-counter cold remedies in addition to this drug for cold symptoms."

D) "I can take my over-the-counter cold remedies in addition to this drug for cold symptoms."

An adult client diagnosed with depression several weeks ago began taking citalopram 10 days ago. The client has told the nurse of the intent to stop taking the drug, stating, "I don't feel any less depressed than I did before I started taking these pills." How should the nurse best respond to the client's statement? A) "People often have unrealistic expectations about how the drug will make them feel." B) "I'll pass that information along to your health care provider; a different drug might be more appropriate for you." C) "It could be that one of the other medications or supplements you're taking is negating the effects of citalopram." D) "I'd encourage you to continue with the drug; it can take several weeks before it improves your mood."

D) "I'd encourage you to continue with the drug; it can take several weeks before it improves your mood."

The nurse is educating an adult client who has been diagnosed with adrenocortical carcinoma about the prescribed mitotane 6 g PO in divided doses. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification? A) "I should not drive or operate machinery while taking the drug." B) "I should not drink alcoholic beverages while taking the drug." C) "If I have a trauma or go into shock, the drug is temporarily stopped." D) "The drug will eradicate my tumor and cure my cancer."

D) "The drug will eradicate my tumor and cure my cancer."

A client is prescribed an antitussive agent with codeine. Which statement by the client indicates that the nurse's teaching has been effective? A) "I will take this medication whenever I am coughing." B) "This medication will make me anxious and nervous." C) "I will call my health care provider if I develop diarrhea when I take it." D) "This medication will cause drowsiness, and I will not drive."

D) "This medication will cause drowsiness, and I will not drive."

A postoperative surgical client prescribed twice-daily administration of docusate sodium is concerned about developing diarrhea. What should the nurse teach the client about docusate sodium? A) "You'll usually have a bowel movement within 2 to 3 hours of taking this." B) "This medication will cause your bowels to contract more strongly than they normally do." C) "This drug will help you pass regular stools while you're in the hospital, but you should not take it for more than 5 days." D) "This medication will only soften your stools over the next couple of days."

D) "This medication will only soften your stools over the next couple of days."

A 12-year-old child has been prescribed dextroamphetamine therapy, and the nurse is now reviewing the correct schedule for taking the drug. The child should most likely take the daily doses of dextroamphetamine at what times? A) 07:30, 11:30, 16:30, and 20:00 B) 08:00 and 20:00 C) 09:00, 14:00, and 19:00 D) 07:00 and 11:30

D) 07:00 and 11:30

The nurse is caring for a female client diagnosed with chronic severe diarrhea-predominant irritable bowel syndrome that has not responded to conventional therapy. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed? A) Cholestyramine B) Nitazoxanide C) Rifaximin D) Alosetron

D) Alosetron

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who experienced significant blood loss following an automobile accident. The nurse is aware that which hormone was released in response to the injury? A) Oxytocin B) Luteinizing hormone C) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone D) Antidiuretic hormone

D) Antidiuretic hormone

A client is experiencing allergy symptoms after being exposed to environmental dust. This reaction involves the action of histamine, which is released by what cell? A) Lymphocytes B) Platelets C) CD4 T cells D) Basophils

D) Basophils

The nurse has administered gabapentin to a client. Following administration, the nurse should assess the client for what possible adverse effect? A) Hypertension B) Tetany C) Paradoxical seizures D) Central nervous system (CNS) depression

D) Central nervous system (CNS) depression

A client is admitted to the hospital for the treatment of a stasis ulcer of the right leg. The client's history indicates alcohol abuse disorder with consumption of at least eight alcoholic beverages daily. What symptoms should the nurse assess the client for? A) Suspicion, mania, stubbornness, fear B) Depression, remorse, withdrawal from reality C) Denial, manipulation, combativeness D) Confusion, hallucination, agitation, tremors

D) Confusion, hallucination, agitation, tremors

What is the chemical mediator released in immune and inflammatory response to allergic reactions? A) Norepinephrine B) Mast cells C) Epinephrine D) Histamine

D) Histamine

A client has been diagnosed with hyperplasia of the parathyroid gland. The nurse expects the client to exhibit signs and symptoms most similar to what disorder? A) Hypocalcemia B) Hypoparathyroidism C) Hyperthyroidism D) Hypercalcemia

D) Hypercalcemia

A client is administered epinephrine in conjunction with a local anesthetic. What effect will epinephrine produce? A) Decreased cerebral circulation B) Increased bronchoconstriction C) Decreased coronary circulation D) Increased vasoconstrictive effects

D) Increased vasoconstrictive effects

A client is diagnosed with a gram-negative infection and is prescribed an aminoglycoside. What is the action of an aminoglycoside? A) It destroys the integrity of the cell wall structure. B) It blocks the process of DNA replication. C) It increases white blood cells viability. D) It blocks protein synthesis of the cell wall.

D) It blocks protein synthesis of the cell wall.

An adult client with a history of coronary artery disease is undergoing cardiac catheterization. What drug should the nurse most likely prepare for administration when the client suddenly begins exhibiting ventricular tachycardia? A) Digoxin B) Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) C) Epinephrine D) Lidocaine

D) Lidocaine

A client is taking lovastatin. Which are noted as the most common adverse effects? A) Increased appetite and blood pressure B) Hiccups, nasal congestion, and dizziness C) Fatigue and mental disorientation D) Nausea, flatulence, and constipation

D) Nausea, flatulence, and constipation

A client is taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents for arthritis of the knees and hips. Which disease is a result of cellular destruction of the gastrointestinal tract from this medication? A) Liver cancer B) Bowel obstruction C) Esophageal cancer D) Peptic ulcer disease

D) Peptic ulcer disease

A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy in the morning. The nurse will provide information concerning which laxative? A) Lactulose B) Castor oil C) Psyllium D) Polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution

D) Polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution

The nurse should know that lactulose achieves a therapeutic effect by which means? A) Relaxing the muscle tone of the ileocecal valve and anal sphincter B) Irritating the intestinal mucous membrane C) Decreasing the viscosity of intestinal contents in the duodenum D) Pulling water into the intestinal lumen by osmotic pressure

D) Pulling water into the intestinal lumen by osmotic pressure

A client's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which laboratory study would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem? A) INR and aPTT B) D-dimer and C-reactive protein C) White blood cell count with differential D) RBC, hemoglobin, and hematocrit

D) RBC, hemoglobin, and hematocrit

An older adult client responded well to treatment with a third-generation cephalosporin. After being largely symptom free for 48 hours, the client has developed a fever of 38.6°C and an elevated white cell count. What phenomenon may account for this client's current clinical presentation? A) The client may be developing glomerulonephritis secondary to the nephrotoxic cephalosporin. B) The cephalosporin may have initially caused leukopenia and made the client susceptible to secondary infection. C) The client may be experiencing a delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity reaction to the cephalosporin. D) The client may be infected with microorganisms that were resistant to the cephalosporin.

D) The client may be infected with microorganisms that were resistant to the cephalosporin.

A 32-year-old female client is being treated with a cytotoxic antineoplastic agent. Which is the most important instruction related to the potential for teratogenicity? A) The client should protect against infections by taking trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole. B) The medication will be completely eliminated 24 hours after the administration. C) The client will not get pregnant due to the elimination of ova. D) The client should not become pregnant for several months.

D) The client should not become pregnant for several months.

A client is receiving immunosuppressant therapy. Which adverse effects should the client be educated about regarding these effects? A) The need to maximize fluid intake B) The need for regular physical activity C) The importance of a high-protein diet D) The importance of keeping the home clean

D) The importance of keeping the home clean

Please discuss the opiate crisis in the US today and include the nurse's role in promoting safer practices around the prescription of narcotics in acute and chronic pain.

In the United States, we have been in an opioid crisis for a long time. There are many causes of the opioid crisis such as over prescription of opioids for pain management, inadequate teaching about opioid pain management, a greater demand of opioid pain management, and an increase in the illegal sales of opioids. The nurse plays a huge role in the prevention of excessive opioid use and overdoses. The nurse can be involved in community outreach programs to teach the public about signs and symptoms of an opioid overdose and what to do in the event of an overdose. Across America, especially on college campuses or places of high overdoses, they are giving out Narcan(naloxone) and training on what to do in the event of an overdose. The nurse can play a role in teaching safe administration of naloxone and what to assess for regarding an overdose. The nurse can also educate the patient and family about safe administration and storage of opioids if the patient is being discharged with a prescription for pain management at home. If a patient is being treated with opioid pain management for chronic pain and long-term use of opioids, the nurse can teach about nonpharmacological interventions and other over the counter medications used for intermittent pain between doses. The opioid crisis is a very prevalent problem in the United States and across the world, as nurses we need to educate are patients about prescription pain medications, safe administration, and storage, and what to do in the event of an overdose.

What effects of histamine are blocked by H1 receptor agonists?

Inhibit smooth muscle constriction in blood vessels and the respiratory and GI tractsDecrease capillary permeabilityDecrease salivation and tear formation

Explain the difference in PRIMARY and SECONDARY adrenocortical insufficiency.

Primary adrenocortical insufficiency ( Addison's disease ) is associated with destruction of the adrenal cortex by disorders Secondary adrenocortical insufficiency, produced by inadequate secretion of corticotropin,

Recall Harry Hadley from Chapter 19, who is being treated for cellulitis of his right lower leg caused by a feral cat bite. Oral amoxicillin was changed to intravenous vancomycin when culture results identified MRSA. How would the nurse explain why the oral route was preferred over topical antibiotic application for the initial treatment of the dermatologic infection and why the systemic route was subsequently changed from oral to intravenous antibiotic administration?

The oral route of antibiotics is preferred for cellulitis because topical antibiotics cannot penetrate all layers of the skin. we need the oral antibiotics to kill of the bacterial infection. Once the pathology came back positive for MRSA, we knew that this type of infection is resistant to amoxicillin so the patient would have to be switched to vancomycin. vancomycin was given intravenous because the patient was experiencing symptoms of a systemic infection. topical antibiotics are given for local bacterial infections of the skin. Cellulitis is a skin infection that is fast spreading and potentially life threatening if not treated with antibiotics. Because this infection spreads so fast topical antibiotics would not work fast enough or well enough to eradicate the infection. Amoxicillin is only effective against gram positive bacteria which means it is ineffective against killing MRSA, because of this the patient was switched to vancomycin intravenous which is typically used for MRSA infections.

Please describe a typical medication regimen and include Evidence-Based Practice regarding nurse administration when multiple eye medications are prescribed AND any non-pharmacological strategies you would include in a treatment plan.

There are a lot of pharmacologic interventions for primary open-angle glaucoma. Some of the first medications include prostaglandin analogs. These drugs work by increasing the aqueous humor output to reduce ocular hypertension. The next drug that can be prescribed are beta-adrenergic blockers. These drugs work by reducing the production of fluid in the eye, thereby reducing pressure. the next drug that can be prescribed includes alpha2-adrenergic agonists. These drugs work by decreasing aqueous humor production and stimulating output to reduce pressure. correct administration is highly important regarding these medications. If the nurse is giving multiple eye drop medications the need to be in intervals of at lest 5 to 10 minutes. some non pharmacological interventions for glaucoma include diet and lifestyle changes, reducing caffeine intake, reducing stressful activities in life.

explain adrenergic receptors

Three adrenergic receptors (beta1, beta2, and alpha) are targets of catecholamines, predominately epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Please MATCH the following cephalosporin generations to the appropriate action. Correct responses are wroth 1-point each. 1. Used for surgical prophylaxis, especially with prosthetic implants. 2. Used for surgical prophylaxis, especially gynecological and colorectal procedures. 3. Useful against common pathogens. 4. Greater spectrum of antimicrobial activity and stability against beta-lactamase enzymes. 5. Active against resistant, gram positive organisms such as MRSA.

__1__ First Generation __2__ Second Generation __3__ Third Generation __5__ Fifth Generation __4__ Fourth Generation

Explain 3 methods to increase compliance with medication adherence with ANTITUBERCULAR DRUGS. Please be details and explain your rationales for full points.

explain the importance of adherence to these drug regimens, change the drug dosage to only having to take twice a week instead of daily, the last thing you can do is provide very detailed patient teaching regarding these drugs and the importance.

PARASITIC infestations are uncommon aliments that are only seen in underdeveloped countries. True False

false

Please explain the effects of GLUCOCORTICOIDS on 2 different body systems. For example: Protein Metabolism, Lipid Metabolism, Inflammatory or Immune Response, or a specific body system like Cardiovascular or Nervous system. Be DETAILED each response is worth 2 points for a total of 4 points for this question.

glucocorticoids effect protein synthesis, they cause an increase in amino acids converting to glucose in the liver. this causes higher levels of glucose and stored glycogen and lower levels of protein. glucocorticoids also effect the inflammatory and immune responses by inhibiting the production of interleukin-1, tumor necrosis factor, and other cytokines, they also impair lymphocytes which cause slower wound healing.

Describe sensitivity vs allergic reaction?

hypersensitivity reactions include In predisposed people, harmless environmental antigens that often do not cause a reaction sometimes may trigger an adaptive immune response, immunologic memory, and, on subsequent exposure to the environmental antigen, inflammation responses. hypersensitivity involves allergic reactions

List 5 TOPICS with RATIONAL that you would include in your PATIENT TEACING with most ANTIBIOTICS

most antibiotics will cause mild GI upsetcomplete the full course unless severe adverse effects occurreport any adverse effects to the nurse or primary caredrink lots of water, administer with a 8oz glass of water, avoid taking with foodreport any frequent watery stools, diarrhea

Explain right vs left sided heart failure. Include symptoms.

right sided heart failure can result in peripheral edema where as left sided heart failure can result in pulmonary edema. with left sided heart failure, you might notice crackles in the lungs, increased respirations and heart rate. right sided heart failure results from accumulation of blood from the systemic venous system. left sided heart failure results from decreased cardiac output and filling of the ventricles.

Most ANTIVIRAL drugs inhibit viral reproduction but do not eliminate viruses from tissues. True False

true

Synthetically produced interferons have the same capabilities as endogenous interferons. True False

true

Explain (details) DRUG THERAPY GUIDELINES for latent and Active TB infections. You do not need to include specific drug regimens but do need to demonstrate an understanding of their importance, including the rationales for multiple drugs with interval dosing.

you have to use multiple drugs and interval dosing with TB to kill of the Tb infection or inhibit the formation of the bacterial cell walls. with TB you can ave latent Tb infections where you need to give a certain drug that stops the formation of the bacteria cell walls to stop bacteria replication, then you need to give another drug to kill off the fully grown Tb cells.

Explain 2 methods of DRUG MONITORING that would be utilized for the miscellaneous class of drugs such as Vancomycin, Daptomycin, Linezolid, or Metronidazole. Please be specific and detailed in your response for full points. For example, "labs" is worth 0 points.

you would want to assess a peak and trough for these medications to make sure the serum levels in the blood are good. another thing to assess is kindey and liver function tests because some of these antibiotics can be harsh on the kidneys or liver.