PHR - Test Questions
A - Start-ups are uncertain ventures, so employees who join at that stage of growth should be appropriately compensated for the risk they are assuming. Higher salaries, rather than lavish bonuses and benefits, are typical at this point in the life cycle.
High salaries with low benefits are most characteristic of which stage of the organizational life-cycle? a) start-up b) growth c) maturity d) decline
C - Patterned interviews break the issues covered in an interview into topics. Different applicants may be asked different particular questions, but the same topics would be covered for all applicants.
How are patterned interviews different than other interview types? a) patterned interviews place candidates in stressful situations to evaluate how they respond b) patterned interviews allow the candidates to direct what topics are discussed c) patterned interviews involve asking all applicants questions from specific areas, although the questions themselves may vary d) patterned interviews involve asking all candidates the same exact questions
A - One of the most important types of formative evaluation is the pilot test, also known as a pilot program, in order to see how it works and how effectively it teaches needed skills.
Implementing a pilot program of a training program will be most useful for: a) determining how effective the training program is prior to delivery b) capturing the opinions of experts c) determining how successful future participants expect the program to be d) pilot programs are not useful and waste valuable resources that should be reserved for complete training programs
C - The three stages of Lewin's theory are unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.
Moving is an element of: a) Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory b) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs c) Lewin's Organizational Change Model d) McClelland's Theory of Needs
D - One of the benefits of pay for performance is that it can motivate high performance and cut company costs in the event of low performance.
A pay for performance plan is best used to promote: a) pay equity b) collaboration between managers and employees c) longevity d) increased output
C
A training group scored a 50% on a pre-test and a 65% on a post-test. How much did the training increase participants' knowledge? a) 15% b) 35% c) 30% d) 130%
C - Employers may require that all paid leave be used before unpaid leave begins and can request 30 days' notice when that is practical.
According to FMLA, when must an employee provide notice of leave to an employer? a) an employee is never required to provide notice before taking family leave b) one week prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated c) 30 days prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated d) 60 days prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated
D
According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, what needs must be met before a person can focus on safety needs? a) Belonging b) Esteem c) Self-Actualization d) Physiological
A - The Family Medical Leave Act does not require unpaid leave for employees who have worked less than one year, who work less than 25 hours each week, and who are among the top 10 percent of the highest-paid employees at a company.
According to the FMLA, which of the following employee is not entitled to time off but can be reinstated upon their return, provided that the reinstatement does not cause substantial and grievous economic injury to the employer? a) An executive who is among the 5 percent of employees who are most highly compensated at a corporation, who wants to spend time with a spouse with a terminal illness b) An administrative assistant working an average of 30 hours a week who needs to care for a sick parent c) An employee who has been with a company for 18 months and is adopting a child d) A secretary at a federal agency that employs 10 people who is caring for an elderly parent
B - Passed in 1926 and amended in 1936, the Railway Labor Act was intended to prevent railroad and airline strikes from resulting in significant trade and transportation problems.
According to this act, a national state of emergency declared by the president would require striking employees to return to work for 90 days: a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act
C - Adverse impact, also known as disparate impact, is discrimination that occurs when an apparently neutral employment practice disproportionately excludes a protected group from employment opportunities. Courts have ruled that disparate impact exists if the selection rate for a protected class is less than four-fifths (or 80 percent) of that of the majority group.
Adverse impact occurs when: a) when the percentage of employees who are members of a protected class is less than that class's representation in the community b) when the percentage of employees who are members of a protected class is half than that class's representation in the community c) when the percentage of employees who are members of a protected class is less than 80 percent of that class's representation in the community d) when the percentage of employees who are members of a protected class is greater than that class's representation in the community
B
Albemarle Paper v. Moody determined which of the following? a) disparate impact is a prohibited form of discrimination b) that employment tests must have criterion-validity c) that employment tests must be ranked by supervisors d) disparate treatment is a prohibited form of discrimination
D - Some information is sensitive and will need to be protected. HR managers should think carefully about what information to store on the HRIS and who will have access to that information.
All of the following are advantages of HRIS EXCEPT: a) it does away with the need for many physical files b) it makes information easily searchable c) HRIS programs have functions to perform strategic analyses d) it makes all information accessible to every employee within a company
D - Implementation takes place before the evaluation of a training program.
All of the following are phases of training evaluation EXCEPT: a) reaction b) learning c) behavior d) implementation
D
All of the following are strategic roles played by human resource management EXCEPT: a) aligning hiring practices with long-term goals b) developing replacement charts and developing promising employees c) aligning HR priorities when organizations are in the process of restructuring d) conducting performance appraisals
B - Option B best describes the fellow servant rule, another common-law doctrine that applies to workplace safety and employer liability.
All of the following statements are true of the doctrine of contributory negligence EXCEPT: a) it is a common-law doctrine pertaining to workplace injuries b) it absolves employers of responsibility for the injuries of employees that are caused by coworkers c) it can be used to mitigate an employer's responsibility if an employee is harmed or becomes ill at work d) it recognizes that employee actions may be the cause of certain workplace injuries and illnesses Your confidence rating for this answer: [ none_entered ]
A - Because downsizing involves the elimination of jobs, the creation of an orientation program is least likely to be useful. When an organization is downsizing, HRM should focus efforts on addressing employee concerns and navigating both moral and legal issues of fairness.
All of the following would be useful ways for HRM to assist during downsizing EXCEPT: a) developing orientation training b) communicating changes to employees c) advising decision-makers in order to avoid litigation d) monitoring the process for fairness
C
An employee files a complaint accusing her employer of underpaying her for the work she's done due to sex-based wage discrimination. After examining her complaint and the supporting evidence, the EEOC concludes that the employer is guilty of sex-based wage discrimination. The employee is awarded back pay as part of the damages collected in the suit. This back pay is an example of: a) compensatory damages b) punitive damages c) liquidated damages d) actual damages
A
Documents posted on government websites are: a) public domain b) subject to copyright protections c) may be copied but only for educational purposes d) may be copied only if that is indicated on the webpage
D
During the ADDIE process, when are formative evaluations conducted? a) Just before the design process b) Just after the implementation process c) Formative evaluations are not part of the ADDIE process d) Formative evaluations are conducted throughout the ADDIE process
B - The case of Griggs v. Duke Power established that discrimination could occur unintentionally, but that an employer is responsible for that discrimination nonetheless.
Griggs v. Duke Power established the judicial concept of: a) protected classes b) adverse impact c) disparate treatment d) minimum wage
C - Employees may earn up to four credits a year for their contributions, and employees who have earned at least 40 credits are eligible to retire and collect a percentage of their income from Social Security.
How many credits must an employee earn by contributing to the Old Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance program in order to retire and collect a percentage of their income? a) 100 b) 60 c) 40 d) 10
B
This executive order effectively established the principle of affirmative action as a part of federal employment law. a) EO 11375 b) EO 11246 c) EO 11333 d) EO 11478
D - This trial established the McDonnell-Douglas test, which is used as the basis for establishing a prima facie case of discrimination
A McDonnell-Douglas test is used to evaluate whether an employer has done which of the following? a) correctly distinguished between employees and independent contractors b) mistreated employees who are interested in unionizing c) adequately prepared for the succession of those in leadership positions d) discriminated against employees who are members of a protected class
B
According to the Any Difference rule of utilization analysis, an employer underutilizes potential employees from a protected class if: a) members of a protected class are more represented within an organization than in the available labor supply b) the proportion of employees from a protected class in a company is any lower than in the available labor supply c) the proportion of employees from a protected class in a company is 80 percent of what is available in the labor supply d) employees who are members of a protected class are entirely unrepresented in an organization
C
All of the following are true of executive orders EXCEPT a) they have an effect on policy b) they are issued by presidents c) they do not have the force of laws d) they can be overturned by federal courts
A
All of the following count as sexual harassment according to Title VII EXCEPT: a) An employee asks a colleague on a date. After being turned down, no further advances are made. b) A manager makes it explicitly clear to an employee that she will only be given a promotion if she submits to a romantic or sexual relationship c) A manager makes it implicitly clear to an employee that he will only receive a promotion if he submits to a romantic or sexual relationship d) An employee unintentionally makes the work environment intimidating by frequently telling offensive or crude jokes
A - If an employee chooses to make deposits into a flexible spending account but does not use those funds during the end of the year, those funds are forfeited.
Flexible spending funds that are not used are: a) forfeited b) returned to the employee c) rolled over to the next year d) an employee has an option to either have the funds returned or rolled over to the next year
A - Immigrant visas are for individuals who want to live in the U.S. for an indeterminate amount of time. Non-immigrant visas are for individuals who want to maintain primary residence outside the U.S., but who want to visit for a specified, finite period.
Foreign nationals who wish to enter the United States and to remain there for an undefined period of time would apply for which of the following? a) an immigrant visa b) a non-immigrant visa c) a passport d) it is not possible for non-citizens to legally live in the United States for an undefined period of time
A - When employees receive compensation that is above the maximum compensation for their salary range, this is referred to as red circle pay. One way to respond to red circle rates is to freeze employee income until that income is no longer above the maximum compensation for his or her salary range, either because the salary range has increased or because the employee gains skills or experience that place him or her in a new salary range.
Freezing employee income is a way to respond to: a) red circle rates b) green circle rates c) white circle rates d) black circle rates
B
In which of the following circumstances would outsourcing be most likely to be a good decision? a) when the outsourced task is one of the functions the organization believes differentiates it from its competitors b) when the outsourced task is not among the organization's core competencies c) when it would be more costly to have the task performed by employees d) when the outsourced task could be accomplished with better quality by employees as the organization
A - Disparate treatment discrimination occurs when individuals in similar situations are treated differently based on the individual's race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, or disability status
Ji-Woo works for a sales company and has a quota her employer requires that she meet each quarter. Unfortunately, she falls 15 percent short of her quota for two quarters in a row. Her employer terminates her, but she notes many employees fell short of their sales goals, although she was the only employee who was let go. She wonders if her termination is the result of discrimination since the only other employee who was terminated is also Korean. This is most likely a case of: a) disparate treatment b) disparate impact c) a bona fide job qualification d) the four-fifths rule
A - Douglas McGregor introduced the idea that there are two distinct approaches to management, Theory X and Theory Y, respectively. Managers who work according to Theory X view their reports as essentially uninterested in work.
John is the manager at a medium-sized advertising firm. He believes that most of his employees are only there for a paycheck, and that if they are not closely supervised, they won't produce satisfactory work in a timely manner. According to Douglas McGregor, John's managerial style is most accurately captured by: a) Theory X b) Theory Y c) the Managerial Grid d) Expectancy Theory
C - Employees must work at least 25 hours a week or 1,250 hours during a year in order to be entitled to family leave. Hours that an employee does not work do not count toward that minimum.
None of the following count toward the minimum required hours to meet FMLA eligibility EXCEPT: a) vacation leave b) paid sick leave c) overtime d) unpaid sick leave
C
OSHA standards require lockout/tagout programs in which of the following circumstances? a) when working with pharmaceutical products b) when working with expensive equipment c) when working with equipment that may release dangerous energy when started d) when working with equipment that may cause serious bodily harm to employees
D - The Sarbanes-Oxley Act prohibits employers from discriminating against whistleblowers, employees who refuse to participate in or report financial misconduct or financial conduct they reasonably believe violated federal law.
Retaliation against whistleblowers is prohibited by: a) The National Labor Relations Board b) The Financial Accounting Standards Board c) The Walsh-Healey Act d) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act
A
The Family Medical Leave Act provides how many weeks of paid medical leave? a) 0 b) 4 c) 12 d) 26
C
The NLRB must conduct a decertification election in which of the following circumstances? a) When a petition is submitted within one year of certification b) When a petition is submitted with signatures from at least 25 percent of the employee population c) When a petition is submitted with signatures from at least 30 percent of the employee population d) When a petition is submitted with signatures from at least 20 percent of the employee population
A
The Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs enforces: a) affirmative action b) labor contracts c) Uniform Guidelines on Employment Selection Procedures d) all executive orders
B - The fundamental Six Sigma approach is known as DMAIC.
The fundamental approach of DMAIC (define, measure, analyze, improve, control) is characteristic of the quality management system known as: a) Juran Trilogy b) Six Sigma c) Deming's 14-Point System d) the Four Absolutes of Quality
A - Dr. Ishikawa introduced the concept of the quality circle, which formalized the idea of soliciting input and advice about quality control from the workers who are directly involved in production
The idea of soliciting input and advice about quality control from the workers who are directly involved in production is called: a) a Quality Circle b) Six Sigma c) Deming's 14-Point System d) the Four Absolutes of Quality
C - Employees may sometimes be terminated for failing drug or alcohol tests. To protect the reliability of those tests, a log must be kept of each person who was responsible for the sample from the time it is collected from the employee until it is tested at the appropriate facility.
The legal requirement that samples collected for drug testing be carefully tracked and documented is referred to as: a) double negative b) false positive c) chain of custody d) validity
A
The process of preparing HiPOs for positions in an organization is called: a) leadership development b) management development c) networking d) counseling
A - EO 13279, issued by President George W. Bush in 2002, exempted federal contractors who are religious or community organizations from the requirements of EO 11246.
This executive order exempted federal contractors who are religious or community organizations from the requirements of EO 11246. a) EO 13279 b) EO 11333 c) EO 11375 d) EO 11478
A
What does the D in QDRO stand for? a) domestic b) disability c) disaster d) disorder
B - According to the fellow servant rule, employers are not responsible for injuries caused to an employee by a fellow employee.
What follows from the fellow servant rule? a) employees are accountable for any illegal activity perpetrated by their employer b) employers are absolved of injuries caused to an employee by a coworker c) employers are absolved of injuries caused to an employee by a customer d) employees are accountable for injuries caused to a coworker by their employer
C - The answer is 'identifying the performance gap to be addressed' because all of the answers refer to aspects of training programs that are not part of a training needs analysis.
What is the last step in conducting a training needs analysis? a) Budgetary estimations b) Carrying out the training c) Identifying the performance gap to be addressed d) Identifying solutions
B - Human resource professionals will rarely be directly involved in the legislative process. The most common exception to this general rule is when human resource managers involve themselves in lobbying.
What is the most likely way a human resource professional would influence legislation? a) by serving on a congressional committee b) by lobbying lawmakers c) by running for office d) by voting bills into law
A - Qualified retirement plans provide tax benefits for both employees and employers. Qualified plans must be available to all employees in an organization, and additional benefits cannot be offered to shareholders, executives, supervisors, or highly compensated employees.
What is the primary advantage of maintaining qualified retirement plans rather than non-qualified retirement plans? a) there are greater tax benefits for qualified plans b) qualified plans can be offered to some employees but not others c) it is possible to offer some employees additional benefits with qualified plans d) there are no benefits of qualified plans
A - An organization that employs due process is committing itself to make decisions and take actions relating to employment according to pre-established procedures. By developing a clear procedure for the treatment of disciplinary issues, an employer is minimizing the risk that cases will be treated unfairly or that some employees will be given leniency while others are more strictly punished.
What would an employer do in order to implement an organizational due process? a) Develop a disciplinary procedure with principles of fairness and clear guidelines for investigations b) Develop a requirement that applies to all union shop organizations c) Address a mandatory bargaining issue d) Request that the NLRB oversees negotiations
C - The Older Worker Benefit Protection Act of 1990 prohibits employers from discriminating against older employees when it comes to benefit plan
Which of the following prohibits employers from discriminating against older workers when it comes to benefits? a) ERISA b) FICA c) OWBPA d) ADEA
C - Form 300A, also known as the summary of work-related injuries and illnesses, provides a summary of all illnesses and injuries that occur at a worksite for each year. Information about the previous year must be posted at a worksite by the first of February, and must remain viewable through April 30th.
What would an employer use an OSHA Form 300A for? a) to provide more information about work-related illnesses and injuries, including what injured employees were doing before each incident b) to report particular incidences of work-related illnesses or injuries and illnesses c) to review all work-related injuries and illnesses that take place at a worksite over the course of a year
C
When a company establishes a foreign subsidiary to perform functions that would be more expensive to do in the United States, this is called a) outsourcing b) insourcing c) offshoring d) inshoring
B - A negatively accelerating learning curve is one where the learner makes rapid progress at the beginning, but progress tapers off once the learner becomes more familiar with the task. These curves are associated with relatively routine tasks that are easy to learn.
When a learner makes significant progress at first, but then learning tapers off as he becomes familiar with a task, this would be represented by a: a) positively accelerating learning curve b) negatively accelerating learning curve c) S-shaped learning curve d) absolutely negative learning curve
A - A positively accelerating learning curve is one in which the learner makes slow progress at first, but then makes much greater gains in proficiency as she masters different parts of the task. These curves are associated with complex tasks that require detailed learning.
When a learner makes slow progress at first, but then makes great gains in the proficiency of some task or understanding of some material as time goes on, this would be represented by a: a) positively accelerating learning curve b) negatively accelerating learning curve c) S-shaped learning curve d) absolutely negative learning curve
B - Contrast biases occur when an evaluator compares all candidates or employees to a single individual.
When a rater compares employees to one another rather than judging each employee according to established standards or goals, this is an example of: a) central tendency error b) contrast error c) halo effect d) leniency error
D - Evaluators may be reticent to evaluate employees or applicants harshly, so they may rationalize giving better evaluations than an individual deserves.
When a rater gives a ratee a higher rating than they deserve, this is an example of: a) central tendency error b) contrast error c) halo effect d) leniency error
B - This bias occurs when an evaluator's opinion of one job candidate or employee significantly affects the evaluator's opinion of other candidates or employees.
When a rater's high opinion of one ratee causes her to judge others more harshly, this is an example of: a) central tendency error b) contrast error c) halo effect d) leniency error
B - If an employee's pay falls below the minimum of the compensation range, this is referred to as a green circle rate of pay.
When an employee's pay rate is lower than the minimum for their pay grade, this is called a: a) red circle rate b) green circle rate c) white circle rate d) black circle rate
B - With individual lay-offs, older workers may choose to waive their rights after being given 21 days to consider the agreement. (With group lay-offs, this time frame is 45 days.)
When is an employee permitted to waive their rights under the Older Worker Benefit Protection Act? This is a case of an individual lay-off. a) After being given 45 days to consider the agreement b) After being given 21 days to consider the agreement c) Only in circumstances where the employee is part of a group termination d) Employers are never able to waive their rights under the OWBPA
A - Ultimately, laws and regulations regarding the employer-employee relationship are in place to protect the interests of employees. Therefore, in cases where laws and regulations conflict, an employer should pursue whichever action is in the employee's best interest.
When laws and regulations conflict with one another, then an employer should: a) do what is in the best interest of the employee b) do what maximizes profit c) do what is in the best interest of the employer d) there is no appropriate response when such regulations conflict
D - The Wagner Act, also known as the National Labor Relations Act, guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers. It created the National Labor Relations Board to arbitrate deadlocked labor disputes, ensure democratic union elections, and penalize unfair labor practices by employers.
Which act guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers? a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act
C - The Clayton Antitrust Act of 1914 clarified and strengthened many provisions of the Sherman Antitrust Act, but it specifically exempted labor unions from the law's provisions. It allows the use of injunctions to stop strikes only when there was a threat of damage to property.
Which act made it the case that injunctions could be used to end strikes only in instances where there is a threat of damage to property? a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act
A
Which act was first formed to prevent the formation of monopolies, but also introduced the option for court injunction to stop union efforts? a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act
B
Which approach to job design focuses attention on making working conditions physically comfortable for an employee? a) mechanistic b) biological c) motivational d) perceptual-motor
A
Which approach to quality management involves planning, control, and improvement? a) Juran Trilogy b) Six Sigma c) Deming's 14-point system d) the Four Absolutes of Quality
A - EO 11375, issued by President Johnson in 1967, added "sex" to the list of protected classes covered by EO 11246.
Which executive order added the identity classifier "sex" to the list of protected groups, thereby making it illegal to discriminate against employees on the basis of sex? a) EO 11375 b) EO 11246 c) EO 11333 d) EO 11478
B - Rating methods employ numerical ratings or rankings. Rating scales attempt to differentiate different levels of performance by establishing performance scales.
Which of the following appraisal methods has managers evaluate employees using either numeric or descriptive scales? a) Behavioral b) Rating c) Comparison d) Narrative
C - A vision statement should be an inspiring piece that provides everyone involved in the organization - from employees to shareholders to customers - insight into the organization's future.
Which of the following best defines a vision statement? a) this is a written document that reviews various moral dilemmas an employee may face and provides guidelines for how to deal with those situations b) this is a document that is primarily aimed at an organization's employees and should differentiate the company from its competitors c) this document is a concise assertion of who the company is, who they serve, and where they are going d) this document is issued by company executives and identifies the principles that are at the foundation of how the organization does business
B - Disparate treatment discrimination occurs when individuals in similar situations are treated differently based on the individual's race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, or disability status.
Which of the following best defines disparate treatment? a) discrimination that occurs when individuals in different situations are treated differently based on the individual's race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, or disability status b) discrimination that occurs when individuals in similar situations are treated differently based on the individual's race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, or disability status c) discrimination that occurs when an apparently neutral employment practice disproportionately excludes a protected group from employment opportunities d) discrimination that occurs when an apparently neutral employment practice disproportionately includes a protected group from employment opportunities
D - Special rules are in place for common situs picketing to protect the employees and organizations that are affected by the bargaining tactic but who are uninvolved in those negotiations, especially if the location of the picketing is not owned by the employer involved in those negotiations.
Which of the following best describes a common situs? a) an agreement between an employer and a union that requires that the employer stop doing business with another organization b) when members of a bargaining unit picket an organization that is owned by the same employer, but that is not a union shop c) when members of one union strike in order to support the negotiations of another union that is in a dispute with an employer d) a strike that takes place at a location where multiple employers are represented, including those who are not union shops
D
Which of the following best describes a corporate values statement? a) this is a written document that reviews various moral dilemmas an employee may face and provides guidelines for how to deal with those situations b) this is a document that is primarily aimed at an organization's employees and should differentiate the company from its competitors c) this document is a concise assertion of who the company is, who they serve, and where they are going d) this document is issued by company executives and identifies the principles that are at the foundation of how the organization does business
B - A mission statement should elaborate on the vision statement, differentiate the organization from its competitors, and provide employees with insight into the long-term direction of the company
Which of the following best describes a mission statement? a) this is a written document that reviews various moral dilemmas an employee may face and provides guidelines for how to deal with those situations b) this is a document that is primarily aimed at an organization's employees and should differentiate the company from its competitors c) this document is an inspiring piece that lets shareholders know who the company serves and where they are going d) this document identifies what the organization does best as a result of its technology, culture, knowledge management, or some combination of these
A
Which of the following best describes a no strike/no lockout clause? a) a clause included in a collective bargaining agreement that prevents employers and employees from initiating work stoppages b) a clause included in a collective bargaining agreement that prevents the reopening of negotiations once a contract is in place c) a clause included in collective bargaining agreements that requires employees to pay union dues regardless of whether they choose to join the union d) a clause included in collective bargaining agreements that prevents union representatives from discussing negotiation meetings
B - Double-breasted picketing has historically been considered an unfair labor practice, but attitudes about it are changing.
Which of the following best describes double-breasted picketing? a) an agreement between an employer and a union that requires that the employer stop doing business with another organization b) when members of a bargaining unit picket an organization that is owned by the same employer, but that is not a union shop c) when members of one union strike in order to support the negotiations of another union that is in a dispute with an employer d) a strike that takes place at a location where multiple employers are represented, including those who are not union shops
C - A succession plan identifies promising employees who have the potential to occupy managerial or executive roles in an organization.
Which of the following best describes what an HR manager does when succession planning? a) categorize employees into groups based on their futures at the organization b) plan for the promotion of employees with no interest in supervisory positions c) plan for the promotion of employees with supervisory potential d) recruit applicants to fill positions externally
D
Which of the following counts as direct compensation? a) state-of-the-art equipment b) health insurance c) a comfortable work environment d) overtime
B - Benefits like health insurance are a type of indirect compensation. State-of-the-art equipment is an extrinsic motivator, but not a form of compensation. Incentive pay and overtime pay are both forms of direct compensation.
Which of the following counts as indirect compensation? a) state-of-the-art equipment b) health insurance c) incentive pay d) overtime
B
Which of the following describes a blocking-charge bar? a) a prohibition against union elections while a collective bargaining agreement is still in place b) a prohibition against union elections while unfair labor practice charges are pending c) a prohibition against union elections within 12 months of a union's certification d) a prohibition against union elections within 12 months of a previous election
C - Quid pro quo harassment is a situation in which a person in authority, usually a supervisor, demands sexual favors of a subordinate as a condition of getting or keeping a job benefit. C is the clearest example of quid pro quo harassment, although the other situations may constitute hostile work environment harassment
Which of the following describes a case of quid pro quo harassment? a) A supervisor's direct report repeatedly makes sexual advances toward her. b) An employee works in an office where his colleagues frequently make crude, sexual jokes that make him uncomfortable. c) An employee's supervisor suggests that she may have a bright future at the company if she spends some private time with him over the holidays. d) An employee working the front desk at a business frequently receives unwelcome and sexually explicit phone calls.
A
Which of the following describes a contract bar? a) a prohibition against union elections while a collective bargaining agreement is still in place b) a prohibition against union elections while unfair labor practice charges are pending c) a prohibition against union elections within 12 months of a previous election d) a prohibition against union elections within 12 months of a union's certification
C
Which of the following describes a statutory bar? a) a prohibition against union elections while a collective bargaining agreement is still in place b) a prohibition against union elections while unfair labor practice charges are pending c) a prohibition against union elections within 12 months of a previous election d) a prohibition against union elections within 12 months of a union's certification
D - Because this employee works more than 25 hours each week, he is entitled to unpaid family leave.
Which of the following employees is entitled to time off according to the FMLA with the understanding that they'd be reinstated upon their return? a) A secretary at a company that employs 10 people who is caring for an elderly parent b) An executive who is among the 5 percent of employees who are most highly compensated at a corporation who wants to spend time with a spouse with a terminal illness c) An employee who has been with a company for 10 months and is adopting a child d) An administrative assistant working an average of 30 hours a week who needs to care for a sick parent
D - The Economic Grown and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act (EGTRRA) permits employees over the age of 50 to make greater contributions to 401(k) plans and to make catch-up contributions.
Which of the following employees would be able to make catch-up contributions to a retirement savings account according to the Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001? a) an employee who is on leave b) anyone except a highly compensated employee c) employees who transfer to supervisory positions d) an employee over the age of 50
D - Restrictions on cash balance pension plans were instated by the Pension Protection Act of 2006.
Which of the following federal laws applies directly to cash balance pension plans? a) COBRA b) FICA c) FLSA d) PPA
D - The Delphi technique is a way to forecast future job needs that combines the input and expertise of many professionals who never meet but come to a consensus over time.
Which of the following forecasting techniques involves experts independently developing and refining forecasts? a) Ratio analysis b) Trend analysis c) Nominal group technique d) Delphi technique
B - During behavioral interviews, candidates are asked to explain how they responded to problems or events in the past.
Which of the following interview questions is best described as behavioral? a) Imagine you were overseeing the work of an employee who is struggling to meet his deadlines. How would you go about addressing that issue? b) Could you describe a case in the past where you've had to present difficult information to a general audience? c) How long did you work at your previous job? d) Why did you leave your previous position?
D - One shortcoming of written letters of recommendation is that they make it difficult to compare applicants because supportive letters may address different issues or questions. Phone interviews can provide a more consistent measure of an applicant's eligibility.
Which of the following is a reason why interviewing an employee's references on the phone may be preferable to accepting written letters of recommendation? a) written recommendations tend to be more informative b) written recommendations are more likely to result in negligent hiring c) phone interviews are more likely to result in negligent referral d) phone interviews provide the opportunity for more consistency
C
Which of the following is an example of a bona fide occupational qualification? a) Preferring to hire a man to lift boxes b) Preferring to hire an attractive person to work at the front desk c) Preferring to hire a woman as an attendant in a women's locker room d) Preferring to hire a young person to operate social media accounts
B - An Excelsior list is a list that contains the names and addresses of all employees in the bargaining unit of a union.
Which of the following is included in an Excelsior List? a) a list of unfair labor practices b) a list of the names and addresses of employees who may vote in a union certification election c) a list of demands made by a union during a negotiation d) a list of clauses to be included in a collective bargaining agreement
C
Which of the following is most characteristic of the disengagement stage of the career life cycle? a) during this stage, employees typically reach the point in an organization where the use of their talents is optimized, and performance may stagnate at this time b) during this stage, employees typically identify interests and opportunities, although performance may be low c) during this stage of employment, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines d) during this stage, employees find a meaningful role in an organization, and performance typically increases
A - Maintenance is the third traditional career stage, and it is when an employee is likely to reach a position where their talents are optimized. Performance may reach a plateau or begin to stagnate during this phase.
Which of the following is most characteristic of the maintenance stage of the career life-cycle? a) during this stage, employees typically reach the point in an organization where the use of their talents is optimized, and performance may stagnate at this time b) during this stage, employees typically identify interests and opportunities, although performance may be low c) during this stage of employment, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines d) during this stage, employees find a meaningful role in an organization, and performance typically increases
C - Moving employees through a range of jobs can increase interest and motivation, as well as encourage employees to work collaboratively with one another. When employees develop a wider range of skills, managers have more options and flexibility in scheduling work and filling open jobs. It is possible that cross-training may sometimes make it possible for employees to fill in for one another, but this will be a relatively rare outcome of job rotation. Employees will not gain the level of expertise necessary for fulfilling a job through cross-training alone.
Which of the following is most likely the goal of cross-training? a) that employees will become experts at all areas in an organization b) that employees will come to see the work their colleagues do as simple and unimportant c) that employees will work collaboratively d) that employees will be able to fill in for each other
B - The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993 established that executives may not deduct more than $1,000,000 annually.
Which of the following is prohibited by the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993? a) The deduction of expenses exceeding $500,000 for top executives b) The deduction of expenses exceeding $1,000,000 for top executives c) Golden parachutes d) Golden handcuffs
B - Evaluation programs should first be evaluated to determine how well participants react to the training materials. The most valuable information to be gained at this point is how well the material presented is being received, which is important feedback for trainers and presenters.
Which of the following is the first of Kirkpatrick's four levels of evaluation? a) results b) reaction c) learning d) behavior
B - After an idea is either had by a member of Congress or brought to a member of Congress, he or she then proposes the idea to either the Senate or the House. At this point, the idea becomes a bill.
Which of the following is the first step in the legislative process? a) a subcommittee forms to explore the advantages and disadvantages of the bill b) a member of Congress proposes the bill to either the Senate or the House c) the president vetoes the bill d) bills are placed on the legislative calendar
B - HRM practices can be deployed at every stage in a merger or acquisition: before the deal is broached, during the due diligence stage, in integration planning, and finally, when it is implemented.
Which of the following is true of HRM's capacity to assist during mergers and acquisitions? a) HRM cannot assist during mergers and acquisitions b) HRM can assist during every stage of mergers and acquisitions c) HRM is only able to assist during the due diligence stage of mergers and acquisitions d) HRM is only able to assist during the implementation stage of mergers and acquisitions
C - Most organizations are subject to the standards outlined by OSHA, and are therefore subject to OSHA inspections. Organizations exempt from OSHA regulation are those that are deemed low-risk or that employ 10 or fewer individuals.
Which of the following is true of OSHA exemptions? a) organizations with fewer than 10 employees are exempt only if considered low risk b) organizations with greater than 10 employees are exempt if considered high risk c) organizations that are considered part of low-risk industries are exempt d) no organizations are exempt from OSHA regulation
A - Fee-for-service plans place no restrictions on the doctors and hospitals a patient may use for services, so they are extremely flexible.
Which of the following is true of fee-for-service plans? a) They offer employees the most flexibility when selecting a healthcare provider. b) Fee for service plans do not require employees to pay anything out of pocket. c) Fee-for-service plans are typically the least expensive option for employees. d) Fee-for-service plans are typically the least expensive option for employers.
D - External recruiting involves making the position and associated job description available to people outside the organization. This is typically done using a combination of media sources, job boards, community sites, and social media platforms.
Which of the following job announcements would be most appropriate for external recruiting? a) job bidding b) job posting c) succession planning d) posting the position on a community site
A - If it is determined that existing employees could fill the new job position, the opening must be publicized within the organization. This may be done via internal job posting or through job bidding.
Which of the following job announcements would be most appropriate for internal recruiting? a) job bidding b) social-media recruitment c) posting the position on a community site d) posting the position on an internet job board
B -Defined-contribution benefit plans are pension plans that are controlled by the investment decisions of employees.
Which of the following pension plans provides the most control to employees? a) defined-benefit contribution plans b) defined-contribution benefit plans c) cash balance benefit plans d) flexible spending accounts
C - The Total Compensation Expense Per Employee is a more complete measure of the financial cost of each worker. It is compensation cost plus benefits cost divided by the total number of full-time employees.
Which of the following provides a complete measure of how much each employer costs an organization? a) cost per hire b) HR value added c) total compensation expense per employee d) human capital ROI
D
Which of the following should be included in a job description? a) the skills needed to perform a job b) the abilities needed to perform a job c) the knowledge needed to perform a job d) the desired outcomes for the job
D - Not all unethical acts are illegal. However, employers should take ethics seriously because companies that are perceived to engage in unethical business practices face serious consequences.
Which of the following statements is true of the relationship between ethics and the law? a) all unethical acts are illegal b) all illegal acts are unethical c) nepotism is both legal and ethical d) not all unethical acts are illegal
C - Flexible spending funds cannot be used to cover all employee needs. Certain expenses like the costs of education, weekend babysitting, and transportation costs are not eligible expenses.
Which of the following types of benefits is not permissible under a Section 125 flexible benefits plan? a) some medical expenses b) insurance premiums c) educational assistance d) dependent care
A - A catastrophe is defined as an incident that results in the hospitalization of three or more employees or the death of one or more employees.
Which of the following would be considered a catastrophe according to OSHA standards? a) A workplace incident resulting in the death of an employee b) A workplace incident resulting in the hospitalization of an employee c) A workplace incident resulting in the illness of three employees d) A workplace incident resulting in a complaint by an employee
C - Deming's 14-Point System for quality management rests on the fundamental premise that quality control is, in the final analysis, the responsibility of a company's top management.
Which quality management system is founded on the premise that quality is ultimately the responsibility of an organization's top management? a) Juran Trilogy b) Six Sigma c) Deming's 14-Point System d) the Four Absolutes of Quality
B
Which rating method has the advantage of letting managers rate the frequency with which employees have exhibited exceptionally good or bad behavior? a) BARS b) BOS c) Graphic Rating Scale d) Critical Incident Method
A - A forced distribution rating method requires employers to group employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings. For example, supervisors may rate employees along a bell-curve.
Which rating method requires managers to group employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings? a) Forced distribution method b) Paired Comparison Method c) Simple ranking method d) BARS
A - Victor Vroom introduced the Expectancy Theory, which suggests that people are motivated by the anticipation of desirable outcomes or rewards.
Which theory maintains that people work in order to bring about desirable outcomes? a) Expectancy Theory b) Operant Conditioning c) McClelland's Theory of Needs d) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
B - Vestibule training takes place away from the job site in order to shelter the employee from the pressures of the actual work.
Which training type takes place in a classroom and replicates the work environment and equipment? a) simulation b) vestibule training c) internship d) apprenticeship
A - A Pareto analysis seeks to identify which potential causes contribute most to a particular problem. The hope is that such an analysis can identify important causes and distinguish those from trivial causes of problems.
Which type of analysis aims to identify the core causes for organizational problems, with the goal of showing how much each potential cause contributes, in percentage terms, to the existing problems? a) Pareto b) GANTT c) ADDIE d) PERT
A - A PEST analysis is often performed as part of a SWOT analysis. The letters that make up the acronym PEST stand for political, economic, social, and technological. These are all factors that will determine what threats and opportunities an organization faces.
Which type of analysis focuses specifically on the factors that determine what opportunities and threats an organization faces? a) PEST analysis b) SWOT analysis c) cost-benefit analysis d) innovation metric