Physio Final

Réussis tes devoirs et examens dès maintenant avec Quizwiz!

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the terms to changes presented, assuming a resting membrane potential of -70 mV.

s may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. electrical polarization B. hyperpolarization C. depolarization D. repolarization E. more than one of the answers 43) to -50 mV from resting potential Answer: C Section Title: The Resting Membrane Potential Learning Outcome: 5.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 59) One substance has no membrane transporters to move it but can diffuse freely through open leak channels if there is a concentration gradient. Initially, this substance's concentrations in the filtrate and extracellular fluid are equal. Later, however, the active transport of Na+ and other solutes creates a gradient by removing water from the lumen of the tubule where it is located. What substance is this? A) glucose B) calcium C) urea D) glucose and calcium E) glucose, calcium, and urea

: C Section Title: Reabsorption Learning Outcome: 19.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 16) In the medulla oblongata, the nucleus tractus solitarius contains the ________ of neurons. A) pontine respiratory group B) ventral respiratory group C) dorsal respiratory group D) pre-Botzinger complex

: C Section Title: Regulation of Ventilation Learning Outcome: 18.14

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 31) Sinusoids are modified vessels that replace ________ in some tissues. A) arteries B) veins C) capillaries

: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.1

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 69) Fenestrated capillaries are present in A) skeletal muscles. B) cardiac muscle. C) the liver. D) the spleen. E) skin.

: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 44) If a person is bedridden for several days, the baroreceptor reflex may fail upon standing. Why? A) Blood pools in the feet and legs. B) There is reduced blood flow to the brain. C) The kidneys have reduced the blood volume. D) Blood pools in the feet and legs and there is reduced blood flow to the brain. E) All of the statements are correct.

: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 18) The vessels that are the main site of variable resistance in the circulatory system, and that contribute more than 60% of the total resistance, are the A) muscular arteries. B) elastic arteries. C) arterioles. D) venules. E) veins.

: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 72) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except one. Identify the exception. A) increased sympathetic stimulation B) elevated levels of epinephrine C) vasodilation D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques E) factors that cause increased hematocrit

: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 73) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/80, her mean arterial pressure would be A) 200 mm Hg. B) 100 mm Hg. C) 93 mm Hg. D) 80 mm Hg. E) 40 mm Hg.

: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 24) Each of the following paracrines may cause vasodilation EXCEPT A) nitric oxide. B) H+ ions from metabolic acids. C) Ca2+. D) K+. E) CO2.

: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 37) The integrating center for neural control of blood pressure resides in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) medulla oblongata. D) pons variolli. E) hypothalamus.

: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 38) Stretch-sensitive mechanoreceptors known as ________ are located in some artery walls. A) nociceptors B) chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors D) elasticeptors

: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 54) When calcium becomes available inside a cell, it comes from A) extracellular fluid only. B) intracellular storage only. C) extracellular fluid and intracellular storage. D) It is always available as a major cytosol cation.

: C Section Title: Signal Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 53) An ion widely important in intracellular signaling is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) chloride. E) cobalt.

: C Section Title: Signal Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 45) Smooth muscle cells lack which protein(s)? A) actin only B) myosin only C) troponin only D) tropomyosin only E) troponin and tropomyosin

: C Section Title: Smooth Muscle Learning Outcome: 12.15

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 47) This protein is activated by the Ca2+-calmodulin complex to phosphorylate the myosin light chain protein. A) tropomyosin B) myosin heavy chain C) myosin light chain kinase D) myosin light chain phosphatase

: C Section Title: Smooth Muscle Learning Outcome: 12.17

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 49) A change in smooth muscle cell tension in the absence of a change in electrical potential of the cells is described as a A) pacemaker potential. B) slow wave potential. C) pharmacomechanical coupling. D) electromechanical coupling.

: C Section Title: Smooth Muscle Learning Outcome: 12.19

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 21) ACE converts A) renin to angiotensinogen. B) angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. C) angiotensin I to angiotensin II. D) angiotensin II to aldosterone. E) renin to aldosterone.

: C Section Title: Sodium Balance and ECF Volume Learning Outcome: 20.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 16) "Dual innervation" refers to an organ receiving A) two nerves from the spinal cord. B) both autonomic and somatomotor nerves. C) both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. D) nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord. E) None of the answers are correct.

: C Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 12) Which area(s) of the brain exert(s) control over the autonomic nervous system? 1. cerebrum 2. cerebellum 3. hypothalamus 4. pons 5. medulla 6. thalamus A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B) 1, 3, 5 C) 1, 3, 4, 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 5 E) 2, 3, 4, 5

: C Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the answers to the questions. A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 23) The neural pathway from the spinal cord to the target tissue has two neurons, the preganglionic neuron and the postganglionic neuron.

: C Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 26) Inside the ganglia are interneurons, which modulate messages.

: C Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) Which area is NOT normally considered to be an autonomic control center? A) pons B) medulla C) amygdala D) hypothalamus

: C Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. acetylcholine B. norepinephrine C. cholinergic nicotinic receptor D. adrenergic receptor E. cholinergic muscarinic receptor 19) target receptor for preganglionic neurons

: C Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 32) On average, one preganglionic neuron synapses with eight or nine postganglionic neurons, each innervating a different target.

: C Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) An alien retrieved alive from a crashed UFO has had a thorough medical examination. A hormone with a distinct but similar structure to epinephrine has been isolated, and named ufo-epi. 47) If humans administered a physiological dose of ufo-epi responded to the chemical, which of the following would indicate ufo-epi is an epinephrine agonist? A) constriction of respiratory tubes B) hyperglycemia (high blood glucose) C) increase in fatty acids in the blood D) localized sweating E) decreased heart rate

: C Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 150) The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential: 1. sodium channels are inactivated 2. more voltage-regulated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization 3. sodium channels regain their normal properties 4. a graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold 5. a temporary hyperpolarization occurs 6. sodium channel activation occurs 7. sodium ions enter the cell and further depolarization occurs The proper sequence of these events is A) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1. B) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 5, 3. C) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5. D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5. E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1.

: B Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 51) Which of the following will best increase the conduction rate of action potentials? A) Increase the diameter of the axon, decrease the resistance of the axon membrane to ion leakage. B) Increase the diameter of the axon, increase the resistance of the axon membrane to ion leakage. C) Decrease the diameter of the axon, decrease the resistance of the axon membrane to ion leakage. D) Decrease the diameter of the axon, increase the resistance of the axon membrane to ion leakage.

: B Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 155) Conduction occurs along an axon because A) outflow of K+ triggers the adjacent channels to open. B) inflow of Na+ triggers the adjacent channels to open. C) once Na+ enters the cell, the entire membrane depolarizes simultaneously. D) axonal transport "walks" voltage changes along the membrane.

: B Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) In the reaction shown, identify the role of each of the participants. CO2 + H2O H2CO3 A. enzyme B. substrate(s) C. product(s) 58) CO2 + H2O

: B Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 22) A molecule that loses electrons during a reaction is A) reduced. B) oxidized. C) dehydrated. D) hydrated.

: B Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 54) lipase

: B Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 53) dehydratase

: B Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 12) In an epithelium, the apical membrane is also known as the ________ membrane. A) basolateral B) mucosal C) serosal D) basement E) nictitating

: B Section Title: Epithelial Transport Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) The most primitive nervous systems consist of structures known as nerve A) tracts. B) nets. C) webs. D) cords. E) mazes.

: B Section Title: Evolution of Nervous Systems Learning Outcome: 9.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Which of these have the most advanced nervous system? A) flatworms B) segmented worms C) jellyfish D) sea anemones

: B Section Title: Evolution of Nervous Systems Learning Outcome: 9.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 33) Due to the differences in opposing forces, there is net ________ occurring at the arteriolar end of most capillaries, coupled with net ________ at the venous end. A) absorption, filtration B) filtration, absorption

: B Section Title: Exchange at the Capillaries Learning Outcome: 15.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 20) The amount of plasma that filters into the nephrons is approximately ________ of the total volume. A) 4/5 B) 1/5 C) 3/4 D) 1/2 E) 90%

: B Section Title: Filtration Learning Outcome: 19.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 60) Measurements in a nephron reveal a glomerular hydraulic pressure of 69 mm Hg, and a fluid pressure in the Bowman's capsule of 15 mm Hg. Assuming that the plasma osmotic pressure is 30 mm Hg, and that essentially no plasma proteins are filtered by the glomerulus, what is the net glomerular filtration pressure in this case? A) -6 mm Hg B) 24 mm Hg C) 54 mm Hg D) 84 mm Hg E) 114 mm Hg

: B Section Title: Filtration Learning Outcome: 19.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) The primary route for ion loss from the body is the ________ system. A) respiratory B) urinary C) digestive D) integumentary E) cardiovascular

: B Section Title: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis Learning Outcome: 20.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) Shrinkage of hepatocytes in the liver causes them to cause which of the following? A) glycogen production only B) glycogen breakdown only C) protein synthesis only D) both glycogen production and protein synthesis E) both glycogen breakdown and protein synthesis

: B Section Title: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis Learning Outcome: 20.12

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 20 Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 1) The primary route for water loss from the body is the ________ system. A) respiratory B) urinary C) digestive D) integumentary E) cardiovascular

: B Section Title: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis Learning Outcome: 20.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 2) The space that is surrounded by the tissue wall of hollow organs is known as A) the peritoneal cavity. B) the lumen. C) the extracellular space. D) the epidural space. E) the tract.

: B Section Title: Functional Compartments of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) The lumen of a hollow organ such as the stomach is considered to be part of the ________ environment. A) internal B) external

: B Section Title: Functional Compartments of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.1

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 3 Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues 1) When cancer develops in one tissue and spreads to another via the blood or the lymph, the cancer is said to have undergone what process? A) differentiation B) metastasis C) cytokinesis D) mutation

: B Section Title: Functional Compartments of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 25) decreased surface area for gas exchange

: B Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the lung disease to its description. A. fibrotic lung disease B. emphysema C. asthma D. pulmonary edema 23) destruction of alveoli

: B Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 8) If the partial pressure of oxygen in both air and water is 100 mm Hg, then the concentration of the oxygen is the same in the air and water. A) True B) False

: B Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the cells of peripheral tissues is approximately ________ mm Hg. A) 40 B) 45 C) 50 D) 70 E) 100

: B Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the factor with its effect on the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. A. increase B. decrease 31) increased PCO2

: B Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the factor with its effect on the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. A. increase B. decrease 32) increased 2,3-DPG

: B Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the factor with its effect on the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. A. increase B. decrease 29) increased temperature

: B Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 21) Air moves out of the lungs because A) the gas pressure in the lungs is less than outside pressure. B) the volume of the lungs decreases with expiration. C) the thorax is muscular. D) contraction of the diaphragm increases the volume of the pleural cavity. E) All of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Gas Laws Learning Outcome: 17.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 27) When alveolar pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure, air flows into the lungs. A) True B) False

: B Section Title: Gas Laws Learning Outcome: 17.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 26) According to the law of LaPlace, when comparing two alveoli lined with fluid, pressure in the one with the ________ diameter will be greater. A) larger B) smaller

: B Section Title: Gas Laws Learning Outcome: 17.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 61) A molecule that blocks the activity of carbonic anhydrase would A) interfere with oxygen binding to hemoglobin. B) cause an increase in blood pH. C) increase the amount of bicarbonate formed in the blood. D) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma. E) All of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Gas Transport in the Blood Learning Outcome: 18.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 9) The variables of oxygen consumption, cardiac output, and blood oxygen content are unrelated. A) True B) False

: B Section Title: Gas Transport in the Blood Learning Outcome: 18.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 11) Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is A) dissolved in plasma. B) bound to hemoglobin. C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma. D) bound to a plasma protein. E) carried by white blood cells.

: B Section Title: Gas Transport in the Blood Learning Outcome: 18.7

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 59) For maximum efficiency in loading oxygen at the lungs, A) the pH should be slightly acidic. B) the temperature should be slightly lower than normal body temperature. C) the PO2 should be about 70 mm. D) DPG levels in the red blood cells should be high. E) All of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Gas Transport in the Blood Learning Outcome: 18.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 60) A student in your lab volunteers to enter a hypoxic breathing chamber for 10 minutes, and his alveolar PO2 drops to 50 mm Hg. What other change would occur? A) decrease in arterial pH B) decrease in arterial PCO2 C) decrease in pH of cerebrospinal fluid D) increase in alveolar PCO2 E) hypoventilation

: B Section Title: Gas Transport in the Blood Learning Outcome: 18.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 11) Oxytocin is a hormone that is released in response to cervical dilation. It in turn causes more uterine contractions that will further dilate the cervix. What type of feedback loop does oxytocin trigger? A) negative feedback B) positive feedback C) local control D) nociceptive feedback

: B Section Title: Homeostasis Learning Outcome: 1.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 22) the organ or gland that performs the change

: B Section Title: Homeostatic Reflex Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 78) A sample of tissue from an injury shows a large number of basophils. This would indicate that the tissue was A) abscessed. B) inflamed. C) being rejected. D) infected by viruses. E) infected by multicellular parasites.

: B Section Title: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 25) Opsonins function by A) poisoning and killing invading cells. B) marking or tagging pathogens so phagocytes can find and ingest them. C) digesting invading cells directly. D) poisoning and killing invading cells and marking or tagging pathogens so phagocytes can find and ingest them. E) poisoning and killing invading cells, marking or tagging pathogens so phagocytes can find and ingest them, and digesting invading cells directly.

: B Section Title: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 21) All of the following are characteristics of acquired immunity EXCEPT A) cell-mediated immunity. B) nonspecific immunity. C) humoral immunity. D) adaptive immunity.

: B Section Title: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 25) The swallowing center in the brain, which coordinates the muscular reflexes, is located in the A) cerebrum. B) medulla oblongata. C) pons. D) cerebellum. E) hypothalamus.

: B Section Title: Integrated Function: The Cephalic Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 26) Which of the following events does NOT occur when you swallow? A) Respiration is inhibited. B) The upper esophageal sphincter closes. C) The glottis and epiglottis close. D) The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes.

: B Section Title: Integrated Function: The Cephalic Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 96) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid A) rich in enzymes. B) rich in bicarbonate. C) rich in bile. D) that contains only proteases. E) that contains only amylase.

: B Section Title: Integrated Function: The Cephalic Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 104) stimulates bile release

: B Section Title: Integrated Function: The Cephalic Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 36) The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by A) the sight, thought, or smell of food. B) the entry of food into the stomach. C) the entry of chyme into the small intestine. D) the entry of chyme into the large intestine. E) the release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine.

: B Section Title: Integrated Function: The Gastric Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 53) Protein digestion begins here.

: B Section Title: Integrated Function: The Gastric Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 92) During defecation, A) stretch receptors in the rectal wall activate sympathetic centers in the spinal cord. B) stretch receptors in the rectal wall activate parasympathetic centers in the spinal cord. C) stretch receptors in the rectal wall activate both sympathetic and parasympathetic centers in the spinal cord. D) the internal anal sphincter is consciously relaxed. E) the external anal sphincter contracts.

: B Section Title: Integrated Function: The Intestinal Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 99) Diarrhea often accompanies intestinal infections. Why? A) The immune system increases the production of enzymes for added protection. B) Bacterial toxins enhance the secretion of KCl from the cells, which causes water movement into the intestine. C) Dehydration of the body will kill the bacteria causing the infection. D) Loss of electrolytes will kill bacteria.

: B Section Title: Integrated Function: The Intestinal Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 116) When you eat a large meal and your body absorbs a lot of glucose and that makes its way to the interstitial fluid before going into the cell. 100% of the glucose should be absorbed into the cell from the interstitial fluid. Why does nearly all of the glucose enter the cell, rather than only half of it? A) It is moved by active transport. B) It is modified by the cell, so there is still more glucose on the outside of the cell than inside it. C) Insulin forces glucose into the cell against a concentration gradient. D) The cells make ATP so fast, they use up all the glucose as soon as it enters the cell.

: B Section Title: Integrated Membrane Processes: Insulin Secretion Learning Outcome: 5.14

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 71) In order for a synapse to be an effective means of cellular communication, slow removal or inactivation of neurotransmitter molecules from the synapse is important. A) True B) False

: B Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 74) Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs ) A) result in local depolarizations. B) result in local hyperpolarizations. C) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions. D) prevent the escape of potassium ions. E) prevent the escape of calcium ions.

: B Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 70) The neurotransmitter thought to be involved in learning and memory is A) norepinephrine. B) glutamate. C) acetylcholine. D) GABA. E) glycine.

: B Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 81) The pattern of synaptic connectivity where a large number of presynaptic neurons provide input to a single postsynaptic neuron, is known as A) divergence. B) convergence. C) integration. D) saltatory conduction. E) potentiation.

: B Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 78) If a hyperpolarizing graded potential and a depolarizing graded potential of similar magnitudes arrive at the trigger zone at the same time, what is most likely to occur? A) An action potential is fired off more quickly than usual. B) Nothing. They will cancel each other out. C) The cell becomes hyperpolarized. D) The cell becomes easier to excite. E) The cell dies.

: B Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 77) Spatial summation refers to A) electrical signals reaching neurons from outer space. B) multiple graded potentials arriving at one location simultaneously. C) repeated graded potentials reaching the trigger zone one after the other. D) suprathreshold potentials triggering action potentials that are extra large. E) All of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 80) When a second EPSP arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs? A) spatial summation B) temporal summation C) inhibition of the impulse D) hyperpolarization E) decrease in speed of impulse transmission

: B Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 161) Arrange the following events in the proper sequence: 1. Efferent neuron reaches threshold and fires an action potential. 2. Afferent neuron reaches threshold and fires an action potential. 3. Effector organ responds by performing output. 4. Integrating center reaches decision about response. 5. Sensory organ detects change in the environment. A) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 B) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 C) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3 D) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 E) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

: B Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 30) The proteins synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum are then sent to A) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum for storage. B) the Golgi complex for packaging. C) the lysosome for modification. D) the cell membrane for secretion. E) the nucleus for cellular use.

: B Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 25) Which does NOT accurately complete the sentence? One of the major functions of both types of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the A) synthesis of biomolecules. B) storage of genetic material for the cell. C) transport of biomolecules. D) storage of biomolecules.

: B Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 23) Centrioles A) function as pipelines to move fluid through the cell. B) direct the movement of DNA during cell division. C) hold the cell's ribosomes in place. D) are white blood cells out of vessels. E) provide shape and stability to a cell.

: B Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 36) The beta cells of the pancreas produce insulin, a protein-based hormone. Which of the following organelles would be found in higher levels in the beta cells? A) mitochondria B) ribosomes C) microvilli D) lysosomes

: B Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 118) Increasing muscle mass and decreasing fat content in your body can increase resting metabolism. Why is this? A) because doing so requires exercise and exercising burns calories B) because muscle cells have more mitochondria than fat cells, allowing for more energy to be made from sugar C) because adipocytes contain more cytoplasmic inclusions which slow down metabolism D) because fat cells have no blood supply and cannot carry nutrients to be metabolized

: B Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 109) Examination of a sample of glandular cells reveals an extensive network of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following would be a likely product of these cells? A) digestive enzymes B) steroid hormones C) protein (peptide) hormones D) transport proteins E) antibodies

: B Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) For each question, select the corresponding category: A. membranous organelle B. inclusion 125) ribosome

: B Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) For each question, select the corresponding category: A. membranous organelle B. inclusion 126) cilium

: B Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) The two divisions of the efferent side of the peripheral nervous system are A) somatic motor neurons and voluntary neurons. B) somatic motor neurons and autonomic neurons. C) the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. D) voluntary nervous system and somatic motor neurons.

: B Section Title: Introduction Learning Outcome: 11.5

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 15 Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure 1) Fainting is also known as A) eclampsia. B) vasovagal syncope. C) infarction. D) reactive hyperemia. E) orthostatic hypotension.

: B Section Title: Introduction Learning Outcome: 15.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 16) A competitive inhibitor binds to A) a region of the enzyme other than the active site. B) the active site. C) the substrate. D) the product. E) the surrounding tissue.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 23) The active sites of enzymes are A) products of an enzymatic reaction. B) regions of an enzyme that are involved in bringing substrates together. C) bonds between the substrate and certain amino acids. D) not necessarily involved in a reaction.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 28) Compartmentation refers to A) pairing together isozymes that perform similar reactions. B) grouping related enzymes into specific organelles. C) separating substrates into chemical classes. D) dividing metabolic reactions into groups for better understanding.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 99) Cells normally regulate the rate of an enzymatic reaction by A) raising their temperature to 110° F. B) changing the concentration of an enzyme. C) increasing reaction rate as the concentration of product increases. D) allowing all metabolic enzymes to be found throughout the cytoplasm.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 101) In order to slow generation of product from a particular biochemical pathway within a cell, the intermediates formed by that pathway A) are removed from the cell more quickly. B) accumulate inside the cell. C) are rapidly converted into. D) become toxic to the cell.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 34) What is the potential yield of ATP molecules for each FADH2 molecule entering the electron transport system? A) 1 B) 1.5 C) 2 D) 2.5 E) 3

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 27) When energy is released during catabolism, it is temporarily trapped in high energy bonds or electrons of certain compounds. Which of the following is NOT associated with carrying energy? A) ATP B) DNA C) NADH D) FADH2 E) NADPH

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 31) In the aerobic metabolism of glucose, ________ acts as the final electron acceptor. A) water B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) lactate E) ATP

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 35) Why is there a range of 30-32 ATP molecules produced from one glucose molecule? A) Sometimes the electron transport system is more efficient than other times. B) The NADH molecules produced during glycolysis are in the cytoplasm; occasionally, electrons are carried by the lower energy FADH2 instead of NADH. C) Individual variation is normal among cells. D) Any of these answers may work under different cellular conditions.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 102) Which of the following is a key intermediate of glucose catabolism to the citric acid cycle? A) ATP B) pyruvate C) oxygen D) lactate E) glucokinase

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 42) All of the triplet codes needed to produce exactly one functional piece of RNA are found in one A) chromosome. B) gene. C) codon. D) anticodon. E) None of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 39) The process of forming mRNA is called A) replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) ribolation. E) protein synthesis.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 48) The tRNA molecule contains the three-base sequence called the A) codon. B) anticodon. C) semicodon. D) aminocodon.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 45) The enzymes that synthesize mRNA from the start codon are called A) ribonucleases. B) RNA polymerases. C) DNA polymerases. D) ATP synthases. E) lactate dehydrogenases.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 49) In the absence of a signal sequence, a newly synthesized protein localizes to the A) mitochondria. B) cytoplasm. C) peroxisome. D) nucleus. E) plasma membrane.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 112) The template strand of DNA A) is not involved in mRNA synthesis. B) serves as a guide for mRNA synthesis. C) includes the base uracil. D) is alternatively spliced to generate the exon.

: B Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 8) Down-regulation may allow a target cell to A) only increase its number of receptors for a ligand. B) only decrease its number of receptors for a ligand. C) only increase its binding affinity for a ligand. D) decrease the receptors' binding affinity and increase its number of receptors.

: B Section Title: Modulation of Signal Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 21) In regard to lipids, the term unsaturated refers to A) the lack of double bonds between adjacent carbon atoms in a fatty acid. B) the presence of double bonds between adjacent carbon atoms in a fatty acid. C) the ring structure of steroids. D) glycerol, which acts as an anchor for joined fatty acids. E) fats, such as butter and lard, which come from animal sources.

: B Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match each class of biomolecules to the correct statement about it. A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. proteins D. nucleotides 60) Triglycerides and steroids are members of this group. As a class they are hydrophobic.

: B Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the correct subatomic particle with the statement about it. Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. proton(s) B. neutron(s) C. electron(s) 43) This particle has a neutral charge and a mass of 1.

: B Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 12) Which of the following are examples of cations? A) SO42- B) Ca2+ C) HPO42- D) HCO3- E) Cl-

: B Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the correct subatomic particle with the statement about it. Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. proton(s) B. neutron(s) C. electron(s) 39) Isotopes of the same element differ by having different numbers of ________.

: B Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 2 Molecular Interactions 1) Stanley Miller set out to demonstrate an explanation for the origins of organic molecules using a combination of simple organic molecules, heat and periodic burst of electricity through the mixture, ultimately producing what kind of molecules? A) carbohydrates B) amino acids C) lipids D) glycoproteins E) nucleic acids

: B Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match each bond type with its description. A. van der Waals B. ionic C. hydrogen D. covalent 53) This results when an atom has such a strong attraction for electrons that it pulls one or more electrons completely away from another atom.

: B Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.3

: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 100) A double covalent bond is formed when atoms A) share one pair of electrons (a total of two). B) share two pairs of electrons (a total of four). C) swap two pairs of electrons. D) transfer a pair of electrons from one atom to the other. E) transfer two pairs of electrons from one atom to the other.

: B Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 22) Slow waves are A) cycles of smooth muscle contraction and relaxation. B) spontaneous cycles of depolarization and repolarization. C) reflexes that originate and are integrated in the enteric nervous system. D) peristaltic contractions. E) segmental contractions.

: B Section Title: Motility Learning Outcome: 21.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 11) The motor activity of the muscularis externa is controlled by the A) submucosal plexus. B) myenteric plexus. C) migrating motor complex. D) extrinsic neurons. E) motilin.

: B Section Title: Motility Learning Outcome: 21.7

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 98) In a 5% NaCl solution, A) this means there are 5 grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of water. B) this means there are 5 grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of total solution. C) the solute is water. D) this means there are 5 grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of water and there are 5 grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of total solution. E) this means there are 5 grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of total solution and the solute is water.

: B Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.5

: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 141) If 100 mL of water contains 5 grams of NaCl, m.w. 58.5 daltons, what is the molarity of the solution in moles/L? A) 0.05 B) 0.85 C) 2.92 D) 0.085 E) 0.25

: B Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 23) The alpha-helix and pleated sheet are examples of the ________ structure of a protein. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) pentanary

: B Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 34) Which of the following substances is most alkaline? A) lemon juice, pH = 2 B) urine, pH = 6 C) tomato juice, pH = 4 D) white wine, pH = 3 E) stomach secretions, pH = 1

: B Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 35) If a substance has a pH that is less than 7, it is considered A) neutral. B) acidic. C) alkaline. D) a buffer. E) a salt.

: B Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.7

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 105) In the equation CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-, which of these is an acid? A) HCO3- B) H2CO3 C) H2O D) CO2 E) H+

: B Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 16) What by-product results during the production of nitric oxide? A) arginine B) citrulline C) nitric oxide synthase D) carbon monoxide E) carbon dioxide

: B Section Title: Novel Signal Molecules Learning Outcome: 6.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) Detailed understanding of the cellular basis of signaling in the nervous system has led to good understanding of consciousness, intelligence, and emotion. A) True B) False

: B Section Title: Organization of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) Exocrine glands, smooth muscles, and cardiac muscles are controlled by the A) central nervous system. B) autonomic nervous system. C) somatic motor division. D) peripheral nervous system. E) enteric nervous system.

: B Section Title: Organization of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 8) Autonomic motor neurons are subdivided into the A) visceral and somatic divisions. B) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. C) central and peripheral divisions. D) visceral and enteric divisions. E) somatic and enteric divisions.

: B Section Title: Organization of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 9) The enteric nervous system is a network of neurons that function in controlling A) reproduction. B) digestion. C) excretion, particularly urination. D) the skeletal system. E) the endocrine system.

: B Section Title: Organization of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 65) Groups of tissues that carry out related functions may form structures known as A) cells. B) organs. C) organelles. D) organisms. E) impossible to tell from the information given

: B Section Title: Organs Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 79) Water will always move from ________ areas to ________ areas, if there are no impermeable barriers. A) hyperosmotic, hyposmotic B) hyposmotic, hyperosmotic C) isosmotic, hyposmotic D) hyperosmotic, isosmotic

: B Section Title: Osmosis and Tonicity Learning Outcome: 5.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 80) Substances that readily dissolve in water and do not readily dissolve in lipids are A) hydrophobic and lipophobic. B) hydrophilic and lipophobic. C) hydrophobic and lipophilic. D) hydrophilic and lipophilic.

: B Section Title: Osmosis and Tonicity Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 30) movement from the glomerulus to the nephron lumen

: B Section Title: Overview of Kidney Function Learning Outcome: 19.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 12) A glomerulus is A) the expanded end of a nephron. B) a "knot" of capillaries that lies within the Bowman's capsule. C) the portion of the nephron closest to the renal corpuscle. D) the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct. E) the hairpin-shaped segment of the nephron.

: B Section Title: Overview of Kidney Function Learning Outcome: 19.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 51) Place the following blood vessels that carry blood to and within the kidney in the order in which blood passes through them. 1. afferent arteriole 2. efferent arteriole 3. glomerulus 4. peritubular capillary A) 4, 2, 3, 1 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 4, 3, 2, 1 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 E) 3, 4, 2, 1

: B Section Title: Overview of Kidney Function Learning Outcome: 19.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 4) The purpose of having valves in the cardiovascular system is to A) provide sounds so that heart health can be monitored. B) ensure that blood flows in one direction. C) prevent blood from flowing too quickly. D) regulate blood pressure. E) provide the force for circulation.

: B Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 9) Which of the following statements about hydrostatic pressure is NOT true? A) If a fluid is not moving, the pressure that it exerts is called hydrostatic pressure. B) Force is not equal in all directions. C) The lateral pressure component of moving fluid represents the hydrostatic pressure. D) Hydrostatic pressure does not include the dynamic component of a moving fluid. E) All of the statements are true.

: B Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 4) Antibiotics are drugs that destroy or inhibit the growth of A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) multicellular pathogens such as hookworms. D) viruses and bacteria. E) viruses, bacteria, and multicellular pathogens such as hookworms.

: B Section Title: Pathogens of the Human Body Learning Outcome: 24.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 29) Excess potassium ions are eliminated from the body by the A) sweat glands. B) kidneys. C) liver. D) digestive system. E) spleen.

: B Section Title: Potassium Balance Learning Outcome: 20.10

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 64) What effect would a decrease in pH have on the amount of potassium ion in the urine? A) an increase in the amount of potassium in the urine B) a decrease in the amount of potassium in the urine C) no effect on the amount of potassium in the urine

: B Section Title: Potassium Balance Learning Outcome: 20.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 14) When a quantity is expressed as "4 cm/sec," what is being described is the A) flow rate. B) velocity of flow. C) pressure. D) pressure gradient. E) volume.

: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the change with the cardiovascular event described. A. increased B. decreased C. unchanged D. stopped 141) Joey develops a medical condition that decreases his blood viscosity. Assuming no other change (e.g., no compensatory reflex), what happens to his blood pressure?

: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 10) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue except one. Identify the exception. A) increased blood volume B) decreased vessel diameter C) increased blood pressure D) decreased peripheral resistance E) relaxation of precapillary sphincters

: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 13) Which of the following will increase flow in a vessel the most? A) decrease length by 1 unit B) increase radius by 1 unit C) decrease viscosity by 1 unit D) All have the same effect on flow.

: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 117) Which of the following conditions would have the greatest effect on peripheral resistance? A) doubling the length of a vessel B) doubling the diameter of a vessel C) doubling the viscosity of the blood D) doubling the turbulence of the blood E) doubling the number of white cells in the blood

: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) For the following questions, match the type of modulator with the best description below. A. involved in phosphorylation B. cannot be displaced by competition C. bind to proteins away from the active site D. reversible antagonist 70) irreversible antagonist

: B Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 37) Which of the following is a common feature of soluble proteins? A) structural support B) noncovalent interaction C) receptor binding D) chemical modulation E) All of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the descriptions to the correct protein category. A. fibrous B. globular 65) soluble in water

: B Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match each level of protein structure with its description. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary 64) the spatial arrangement of amino acids; can be a helix or a pleated sheet

: B Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the descriptions to the correct protein category. A. fibrous B. globular 67) disulfide bond

: B Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the descriptions to the correct protein category. A. fibrous B. globular 68) lipid carriers

: B Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the membrane protein with its function. A. transfer signals from the extracellular environment to the cytoplasm of the cell B. form cell-to-cell connections C. bind to molecules to facilitate entry to or exit from the cell D. ligands bind to these proteins and are changed by the protein 27) structural proteins

: B Section Title: Protein-Mediated Transport Learning Outcome: 5.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 26) Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed by A) diffusion. B) symport with sodium. C) cotransport. D) countertransport.

: B Section Title: Reabsorption Learning Outcome: 19.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match each substance with its primary mode of transport across the kidney epithelium. A. transcytosis B. active transport C. symport with a cation D. passive reabsorption/diffusion 32) sodium

: B Section Title: Reabsorption Learning Outcome: 19.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 24) The primary function of the proximal tubule is A) filtration. B) reabsorption of ions, organic molecules, and water. C) secretion of acids and ammonia. D) secretion of drugs. E) adjusting the urine volume.

: B Section Title: Reabsorption Learning Outcome: 19.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 58) The typical pattern for molecules absorbed by Na+-dependent transport involves this: an apical ________ and a basolateral ________. A) facilitated diffusion carrier, osmotic gradient B) symport protein, facilitated diffusion carrier C) symport protein, osmotic gradient D) osmotic gradient, symport protein E) facilitated diffusion carrier, symport protein

: B Section Title: Reabsorption Learning Outcome: 19.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 101) A drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin would affect A) the amount of bile produced by the liver. B) the composition of pancreatic secretions. C) the level of intestinal gastrin. D) secretions of the duodenal glands. E) All of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Regulation of GI Function Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 20) If the neural connections between the pons and medulla are severed, breathing will stop. A) True B) False

: B Section Title: Regulation of Ventilation Learning Outcome: 18.14

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 17) The most important chemical regulator of respiration is A) oxygen. B) carbon dioxide. C) bicarbonate ion. D) sodium ion. E) hemoglobin.

: B Section Title: Regulation of Ventilation Learning Outcome: 18.14

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 19) The expiratory neurons control the ________ muscles, whereas the inspiratory neurons control the ________ muscles. A) diaphragm and external intercostal, abdominal and internal intercostal B) abdominal and internal intercostal, diaphragm and external intercostal C) diaphragm and internal intercostal, abdominal and external intercostal D) abdominal and external intercostal, diaphragm and internal intercostal E) diaphragm and abdominal, intercostal internal and external

: B Section Title: Regulation of Ventilation Learning Outcome: 18.14

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 18) An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will A) decrease the rate of breathing. B) increase the rate of breathing. C) decrease pulmonary ventilation. D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate. E) increase the pH of arterial blood.

: B Section Title: Regulation of Ventilation Learning Outcome: 18.15

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 58) Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen. To get the same amount of oxygen to dissolve in plasma as carbon dioxide, you would have to A) decrease the temperature of the plasma. B) increase the partial pressure of oxygen. C) decrease the partial pressure of nitrogen. D) increase the rate of plasma flow through the lungs. E) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.

: B Section Title: Regulation of Ventilation Learning Outcome: 18.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 14) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the A) level of oxygen at the tissue increases. B) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases. C) pH rises. D) vessels constrict. E) All of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 25) Reactive hyperemia is A) lack of blood flow due to an allergic reaction. B) increased blood flow following a period of reduced blood flow. C) increased blood pressure after stress. D) reflex contraction of smooth muscle in response to stress. E) None of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 80) Which of the following is greater? A) heart rate normally B) heart rate during circulatory shock

: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 82) Which of the following is greater? A) blood pressure when the peripheral vessels dilate B) blood pressure when the peripheral vessels constrict

: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 71) Which of the following conditions would have the greatest effect on peripheral resistance? A) doubling the length of a vessel B) doubling the diameter of a vessel C) doubling the viscosity of the blood D) doubling the turbulence of the blood E) doubling the number of white cells in the blood

: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 23) Myogenic autoregulation means that A) increased blood pressure in a vessel triggers relaxation in that vessel. B) stretched smooth muscle in a blood vessel constricts reflexively. C) blood vessel diameter is adjusted by centers in the brain through monitoring blood pressure in areas throughout the body. D) increased blood pressure in a vessel triggers relaxation in that vessel and blood vessel diameter is adjusted by centers in the brain through monitoring blood pressure in areas throughout the body. E) stretched smooth muscle in a blood vessel constricts reflexively and blood vessel diameter is adjusted by centers in the brain through monitoring blood pressure in areas throughout the body.

: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 41) When blood pressure receptors sense a loss of blood pressure, they ________ their firing rate. A) increase B) decrease

: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 40) When blood pressure is normal, the receptors in arterial walls fire action potentials A) very seldom. B) continuously.

: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 4) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion? A) stomach B) pancreas C) spleen D) colon E) esophagus

: B Section Title: Secretion Learning Outcome: 21.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match each product with the cell or region that secretes or contains it. A. enzymes B. HCl C. HCO3- D. mucus E. more than one of these 57) parietal cells

: B Section Title: Secretion Learning Outcome: 21.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 100) A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in A) a lower pH during gastric digestion. B) a higher pH during gastric digestion. C) decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells. D) increased protein digestion in the stomach. E) decreased gastrin production.

: B Section Title: Secretion Learning Outcome: 21.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Why do some normal cells fail to respond to a chemical signal? A) Chemical signals are only delivered to specific cells. B) Some cells lack the necessary receptors. C) Some cells are completely without receptors. D) Some cells are completely without ligands. E) Signal chemicals often break down before reaching a distant target.

: B Section Title: Signal Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 11) When adenylyl cyclase is activated, A) calcium ions are released from intracellular stores. B) cAMP is formed. C) cAMP is broken down. D) protein kinases are metabolized. E) steroids are produced.

: B Section Title: Signal Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 26) Aldosterone A) is secreted in response to elevated levels of sodium in the blood. B) promotes sodium retention in the kidneys. C) helps decrease blood volume. D) increases the concentration of sodium in urine. E) functions in pH regulation.

: B Section Title: Sodium Balance and ECF Volume Learning Outcome: 20.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 24) Which of the following is NOT true about angiotensin II? A) increases cardiac output B) activates parasympathetic output C) is a potent vasoconstrictor D) elevates blood pressure E) stimulates thirst

: B Section Title: Sodium Balance and ECF Volume Learning Outcome: 20.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 58) The RAAS pathway begins with A) secretion of angiotensin converting enzyme. B) secretion of the enzyme renin. C) secretion of angiotensinogen. D) secretion of aldosterone. E) secretion of antidiuretic hormone.

: B Section Title: Sodium Balance and ECF Volume Learning Outcome: 20.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 25) The cell bodies of preganglionic neurons are found either in the brain stem or in the sacral region of the spinal cord.

: B Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 34) It dominates during resting-and-digesting activities.

: B Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 15) Increased parasympathetic stimulation A) increases heart rate. B) increases gastric motility. C) causes sweat glands to release sweat. D) causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate. E) causes the pupils to dilate.

: B Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 45) ________ postganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete ________ onto their target cells. A) All, norepinephrine B) Most, norepinephrine C) All, acetylcholine D) Most, acetylcholine

: B Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 27) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released by neurons at the neuroeffector synapse.

: B Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 11) Which of the following has its cell body in the ganglion? A) preganglionic neuron B) postganglionic neuron C) somatic motor neuron D) preganglionic neuron and postganglionic neuron E) preganglionic neuron, postganglionic neuron, and somatic motor neuron

: B Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Nicotine enhances the release of ________ in the brain. A) serotonin B) dopamine C) acetylcholine D) epinephrine E) glutamate

: B Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 85) corpus callosum

: B Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 52) playing key roles in homeostasis, an area that contains centers for hunger and thirst, as well as controlling the autonomic nervous systems

: B Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 79) relay station for transfer of information between the cerebrum and cerebellum; coordinates breathing control with other areas

: B Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, A) the cell membrane becomes less permeable. B) a second messenger appears in the cytoplasm. C) the cell becomes inactive. D) the hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA. E) None of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: The Classification of Hormones Learning Outcome: 7.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) Steroid hormones are synthesized in the ________ of the cell. A) rough endoplasmic reticulum B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) mitochondria E) nucleus

: B Section Title: The Classification of Hormones Learning Outcome: 7.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 4) When adenylyl cyclase is activated, A) calcium ions are released from intracellular stores. B) cAMP is formed. C) cAMP is broken down. D) protein kinases are metabolized. E) steroids are produced.

: B Section Title: The Classification of Hormones Learning Outcome: 7.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 36) The medical term for heart attack is A) heart failure. B) myocardial infarction. C) heart murmur. D) fibrillation. E) heart block.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 37) In the condition known as complete heart block, what happens? A) Coronary arteries are blocked by plaques, preventing blood and oxygen from reaching the myocardial contractile cells. B) Electrical signals from the SA node never reach the ventricles, so the contraction of the atria is not coordinated with the contraction of the ventricles. C) The fibrous skeleton of the heart breaks down, interfering with the passage of blood from the atria to the ventricles. D) The mitral valve leaflets calcify and close, preventing blood from being pumped efficiently by the left side of the heart. E) Blood flow through the foramen ovale is blocked.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 35) The AV node is important because it A) directs electrical impulses from the ventricles to the atria. B) delays the transmission of the electrical impulses to the ventricles in order for the atria to finish contracting. C) serves as the pacemaker in a normal heart. D) electrically opens the AV valves. E) None of these answers are correct.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 122) Put these autorhythmic cells into the correct order for conveying electrical signals through a normal heart. 1. bundle of His 2. internodal pathway 3. Purkinje fibers 4. atrioventricular node 5. sinoatrial nodes 6. left and right bundle branches A) 5, 2, 1, 6, 4, 3 B) 5, 2, 4, 1, 6, 3 C) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3 D) 3, 6, 1, 4, 2, 5 E) 5, 4, 1, 6, 2, 3

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 51) During the cardiac cycle, A) the P wave of the ECG occurs between the first and second heart sounds. B) the QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure. C) the third heart sound occurs during atrial systole. D) the second heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG. E) the greatest increase in ventricular pressure occurs during the ejection phase.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the name of the wave with the correlated event. A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T wave D. PR segment E. ST segment 67) immediately followed by ventricular contraction

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 42) The QRS complex of an ECG corresponds to A) the depolarization of the atria. B) the progressive wave of ventricular depolarization. C) the repolarization of the ventricles. D) atrial repolarization. E) None of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 43) A heart rate of 125 beats per minute could be correctly termed A) bradycardia. B) tachycardia. C) an arrhythmia. D) fibrillation. E) a normal resting heart rate.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 46) In electrocardiography, a lead is a(n) A) electrode. B) pair of electrodes. C) cable that attaches between the ECG machine and the body.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 47) Which event happens at the start of a cardiac cycle? A) Blood is ejected from the atrium. B) The SA node fires. C) The P wave develops. D) Ventricular systole occurs. E) Atrial systole occurs.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 49) Which of the following events result in the first heart sound? A) The AV valves open. B) The AV valves close. C) The semilunar valves close. D) The semilunar valves open. E) The atria contract.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 50) During the isovolumic phase of ventricular systole, A) the atria contract. B) the atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed. C) blood is ejected into the great vessels. D) the ventricles are relaxing. E) the ventricles are filling with blood.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the name of the wave with the correlated event. A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T wave D. PR segment E. ST segment 70) ventricular depolarization

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 129) Left ventricular pressure is higher than pressure in the aorta during A) atrial systole only. B) ventricular diastole only. C) ventricular systole only. D) atrial systole and ventricular systole E) All of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 124) If the connection between the AV node and bundle of His becomes blocked, A) the ventricles will beat faster. B) the ventricles will beat more slowly. C) the ventricular rate of contraction will not be affected. D) the stroke volume will increase. E) tachycardia will occur.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 56) The cardiac output is equal to A) the difference between the end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume. B) the product of heart rate and stroke volume. C) the difference between the stroke volume at rest and the stroke volume during exercise. D) the stroke volume less the end-systolic volume. E) the product of heart rate and blood pressure.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 62) Drugs known as beta blockers will A) increase heart rate. B) decrease heart rate. C) increase stroke volume. D) increase cardiac output. E) decrease the end-systolic volume.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 132) A certain drug decreases heart rate by producing hyperpolarization in the pacemaker cells of the heart. This drug probably binds to A) nicotinic receptors. B) muscarinic receptors. C) alpha adrenergic receptors. D) beta receptors.

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 130) In which of the following situations would the end-systolic volume (ESV) be the greatest? A) when sympathetic stimulation of the heart is increased B) when parasympathetic stimulation of the heart is increased C) when the force of myocardial contraction is increased D) when the intracellular stores of calcium are increased E) when stroke volume is increased

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 133) Under which set of circumstances would the diameter of peripheral blood vessels be the greatest? A) increased sympathetic stimulation B) decreased sympathetic stimulation C) increased parasympathetic stimulation D) decreased parasympathetic stimulation E) both increased parasympathetic and increased sympathetic stimulation

: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 83) A decrease in which population of lymphocytes would impair all aspects of an immune response? A) cytotoxic T cells B) helper T cells C) suppressor T cells D) B lymphocytes E) plasma cells

: B Section Title: The Immune Response Learning Outcome: 24.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the type of immunity to its description. A. specific B. nonspecific 59) present at birth

: B Section Title: The Immune Response Learning Outcome: 24.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 60) Secreted lysozyme kills bacteria.

: B Section Title: The Immune Response Learning Outcome: 24.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 61) NK cells cause apoptosis of viral-infected cells.

: B Section Title: The Immune Response Learning Outcome: 24.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) Alveolar ventilation refers to the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli. C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.

: B Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 13) Type II alveolar cells A) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes. B) secrete a chemical known as surfactant. C) are phagocytic. D) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes, secrete a chemical known as surfactant, and are phagocytic. E) None of the statements are true.

: B Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) The upper respiratory tract includes all EXCEPT which of the following? A) nasal cavity B) lungs C) trachea D) larynx E) mouth

: B Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 17) The resting membrane potential in a typical nerve cell is approximately A) +70 mV. B) -70 mV. C) +35 mV. D) -35 mV. E) 0 mV.

: B Section Title: The Resting Membrane Potential Learning Outcome: 5.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 21) The ion that plays a key role in initiating electrical signals in neurons is A) K+. B) Na+. C) Cl-. D) Ca2+.

: B Section Title: The Resting Membrane Potential Learning Outcome: 5.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 51) Cl- enters the cell

: B Section Title: The Resting Membrane Potential Learning Outcome: 5.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 18) Compared to the outside surface, the inside of a resting cell membrane is A) positively charged. B) negatively charged. C) electrically neutral. D) continuously reversing its electrical charge. E) positively charged whenever the sodium-potassium pump is active.

: B Section Title: The Resting Membrane Potential Learning Outcome: 5.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 45) to -90 mV from resting potential

: B Section Title: The Resting Membrane Potential Learning Outcome: 5.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the level of organization with its definition below. A. a collection of similar cells that carry out similar functions B. the smallest living unit C. a collection of different tissues that carry out related functions D. groups of organs functioning in a coordinated manner 22) cell

: B Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 21) You are interested in learning more about Parkinson's disease, a neurological disorder that primarily affects motor function. What is the best source to begin your investigation? A) Google B) PubMed C) public library D) physiology textbook E) a physician

: B Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 34) A horse runs 10 races, each a mile long, during a 6-month period, and you are interested in determining if the horse's race time changes with experience. You set up a graph to display the race finish times of this horse. What type of graph would be best to display the race finish times of this horse? A) bar graph B) line graph C) scatter plot

: B Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 14) A study in which a participant acts as an experimental subject in part of the experiment and a control in another part of the experiment is called what? A) double-blind study B) crossover study C) meta-analysis study D) retrospective study

: B Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) The literal meaning of the term physiology is knowledge of A) organs. B) nature. C) science. D) chemistry. E) math.

: B Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) Because anatomy and physiology have different definitions, they are usually considered separately in studies of the body. A) True B) False

: B Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 28) Adaptive significance is an important concept in physiology because it describes A) the importance of a highly variable external environment. B) the physiological functions that promote an organism's survival. C) the ability of an organism to monitor and restore its internal state to normal conditions when necessary. D) the similarities between ancient and modern marine organisms. E) the parameters necessary to maintain a constant internal environment.

: B Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 82) corticospinal tracts

: B Section Title: The Spinal Cord Learning Outcome: 9.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 63) The term meaning programmed cell death is A) necrosis. B) apoptosis. C) oncogenesis. D) diuresis. E) cytocide.

: B Section Title: Tissue Remodeling Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 122) Only totipotent stem cells are capable of producing new cells in an adult. A) True B) False

: B Section Title: Tissue Remodeling Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 57) The simple squamous epithelial lining of blood vessels is called A) basolateral epithelium. B) endothelium. C) luteal cells. D) the vasa recta. E) None of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the organelle with its function. A. endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi apparatus C. lysosomes D. mitochondria E. peroxisomes 70) It modifies proteins and packages them into secretory vesicles for export from the cell.

: B Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the type of cell junction with the best description. Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all A. gap junction B. tight junction C. anchoring junction 72) contributes to the blood-brain barrier

: B Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 42) Movement of material between cells is known as the ________ pathway. A) transcellular B) paracellular C) metacellular D) transendothelial E) cisendothelial

: B Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the cell type to its tissue or function. A. cartilage B. destroys bone matrix C. loose connective tissue D. fat E. maintains bone matrix 79) osteoclast

: B Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 114) A layer of glycoproteins and a network of fine protein filaments that prevents the movement of proteins and other large molecules from the connective tissue to epithelium describes A) interfacial canals. B) the basal lamina. C) the reticular lamina. D) areolar tissue. E) endothelium.

: B Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) The five functional types of epithelia are listed below. Match each type with its location and/or description. A. exchange B. transport C. ciliated D. protective E. secretory 129) This tissue actively and selectively regulates the exchange of nongaseous material, such as ions and nutrients, and can be regulated in response to various stimuli.

: B Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 8) What are the two extracellular fluid compartments in the body? A) intracellular and plasma B) plasma and interstitial C) interstitial and intracellular D) plasma and the fluid portion of the blood E) None of the answers are correct.

: B Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the transport process to its description. A. active transport B. passive transport 31) the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

: B Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 38) conform(s) to the properties of specificity, competition, and saturation

: B Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 34) tends to create an equilibrium state

: B Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 37) a form of mediated transport

: B Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 71) A cell membrane that is selectively permeable A) randomly chooses which substances will pass through. B) can change which substances pass through by changing its lipid and protein content. C) is impermeable to all substances but water. D) will only allow substances in or out if their concentration in the cell is above or below a certain point.

: B Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the type of transport with its description. A. secretion B. paracellular transport C. transcellular transport D. absorption 39) between adjacent cells

: B Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) The term cellular (metabolic) energy indicates any biological process requiring A) energy in any form. B) ATP. C) thermal energy. D) chemical energy. E) thermal energy and chemical energy.

: B Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) Match the change in gas composition with the response (disregard weak responses). A. PO2 increases. B. PCO2 increases. C. PO2 decreases. D. PCO2 decreases. 91) Bronchioles and systemic arterioles dilate.

: B Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.13

82) In the lungs, an example of the body's reserve capacity is that A) some areas of the lung can be closed off during rest and opened again when needed during exercise. B) capillary beds in the lungs are reversibly collapsible, allowing blood to be shunted to additional areas during exercise. C) pulmonary blood flow is completely under the control of the autonomic nervous system, dilating arteries and arterioles to adjust blood flow. D) All of the statements are true. E) None of the statements are true.

: B Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.14

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the type of breathing with its description. A. hyperpnea B. hyperventilation C. tachypnea D. dyspnea E. apnea 86) increased respiratory rate and/or volume without increased metabolism

: B Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.15

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 79) Breathing that involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements is called A) eupnea. B) hyperpnea. C) diaphragmatic breathing. D) costal breathing. E) shallow breathing.

: B Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the lung capacity with its description. A. total lung capacity B. inspiratory capacity C. vital capacity D. functional residual capacity 46) the amount of air inhaled during an active (forced) inspiration

: B Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the lung volume with its description. A. tidal volume B. inspiratory reserve volume C. expiratory reserve volume D. residual volume 40) the additional air inhaled after a normal inspiration

: B Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.5

84) In a condition known as pleurisy, there is excess fluid in the pleural space. How would you expect this to affect the process of pulmonary ventilation? A) Ventilation would require less energy. B) Breathing would be labored and difficult. C) It would be easier to expand the lungs on inspiration. D) More air would be forced out during expiration. E) Tidal volume would increase.

: B Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 18) When baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies register increased blood pressure, this results in A) secretion of ADH. B) inhibition of ADH secretion. C) increased glomerular filtration. D) decreased urine production. E) increased thirst.

: B Section Title: Water Balance Learning Outcome: 20.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 17) When venous return is increased, stretch receptors in the atria of the heart are activated. This results in A) secretion of ADH. B) inhibition of ADH secretion. C) increased glomerular filtration. D) decreased urine production. E) increased thirst.

: B Section Title: Water Balance Learning Outcome: 20.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 15) Osmoreceptors depolarize after they ________ in response to ________ plasma osmolarity. A) shrink, decreased B) shrink, increased C) swell, decreased D) swell, increased

: B Section Title: Water Balance Learning Outcome: 20.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 13) Why do patients taking loop diuretics need to take supplemental potassium? A) They cause active secretion of potassium in the loop of Henle. B) They inhibit the reabsorption of potassium as well as sodium in the loop of Henle. C) They inhibit intestinal absorption of potassium. D) They cause active reabsorption of potassium in the distal convoluted tubule.

: B Section Title: Water Balance Learning Outcome: 20.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 50) A child is rushed to the hospital after taking one of his grandmother's blood pressure medications. He has a low blood pressure and is also having trouble breathing, with audible wheezing upon exhalation. Which class of drugs did the child most likely take? A) ACE inhibitor B) beta blocker C) calcium channel blocker D) diuretic

: B [Beta blockers will cause relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels (prompting dilation and decreased blood pressure). They cause contraction of smooth muscles in the airways, resulting in constriction of the respiratory tree and possibly wheezing and dyspnea.] Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 118) Explain how these statements differ, and identify which one(s) is/are correct. Explain what is wrong with each incorrect statement. Explain when chemical reactions continue and when they stop. A. A chemical reaction proceeds until the enzyme molecules are all consumed. B. A chemical reaction proceeds until the substrate molecules are all consumed. C. A chemical reaction proceeds until equilibrium is established. D. A chemical reaction proceeds until all the product molecules are removed.

: B and C are correct as written, but B requires some clarification. A is incorrect because enzyme molecules are not consumed in chemical reactions and will continue to be active until acted upon by environmental conditions (temperature, pH, or modifiers). B is correct only when the product is removed from the system. If the product remains, the enzyme will reach equilibrium where the ratio of substrate to product is constant (Correct Answer C). In D, if the product of the reaction is removed, the reaction would continue to proceed to form new product (assuming enzymes and substrates are available). Chemical reactions continue if conditions are favorable, including presence of substrate and enzyme and fairly constant temperature and pH. In living systems, most chemical reactions do not have a steady supply of substrate; for example, the chemical reactions of digestion will stop when the small intestine is empty. Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 84) Vitamin ________ must be complexed with a protein called ________ to be absorbed from the small intestine.

: B12, intrinsic factor Section Title: Digestion and Absorption Learning Outcome: 21.10

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 96) Compare and contrast the nature of the pathogens in bacterial and viral infection.

: Bacteria are independent cells with DNA that can survive and reproduce outside a host. Viruses are not cells, but rather are small pieces of DNA or RNA enclosed in a protein coat. Viruses can only survive and reproduce inside a host cell. Bacteria are susceptible to antibiotics. Viruses are treated with antiviral drugs. See Table 24.1 in the chapter. Section Title: Pathogens of the Human Body Learning Outcome: 24.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 86) Describe the physical protection afforded by the cerebrospinal fluid.

: Because the brain floats on CSF there is less weight and, therefore, less pressure on the blood vessels and nerves attached to the CNS. The fluid also pads the brain so it is less likely to hit the cranium and risk bruising when there is a blow to the head. Section Title: Anatomy of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 9.5

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 127) When the kidney goes into failure, one of the signs that doctors will see is that red blood cells will crenate (shrivel up). Why does this happen in kidney failure? What process is occurring to the blood cells?

: Because the kidney is failing to filter particles out of the blood effectively, the plasma becomes hypertonic or hyperosmotic in comparison to the intracellular compartment of the blood cell. Since the cell membrane is impermeable to the ions, but permeable to water, water will leave the cell to try to balance the tonicity and osmolarity with the plasma and in the process the cell will shrink. Section Title: Osmosis and Tonicity Learning Outcome: 5.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 114) List the key components of bile. Is bile action similar to the action of lipases? Explain.

: Bile salts, bile pigments, and cholesterol are the key components. Bile does not contain enzymes or have enzymatic action; rather bile emulsifies lipids so that lipases have sufficient access to their lipid substrates. Section Title: Digestion and Absorption Learning Outcome: 21.10

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 102) By binding to the Ca2+ channel proteins, drugs known as calcium channel blockers have two main effects. Name them. Why are some cells unaffected by these drugs?

: Binding to calcium channels makes them less likely to open, effectively blocking the normal inward calcium current that would result from neural or endocrine stimulation. This causes vasodilation and a decrease in heart rate. Insensitive tissues have a different subtype of calcium channel. Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.5

: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 229) Explain the roles that the AMPA and NMDA receptors play in long-term potentiation.

: Both AMPA and NMDA receptors are located on the postsynaptic cells (dendrites) and require binding of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate for activation. When glutamate binds to the AMPA receptor, the channel opens and Na enters the cell. This causes depolarization of the immediate postsynaptic cell or dendrite. This depolarization causes Mg2+ ions to be "kicked out" of the NMDA receptor channel; hence, Mg2+ is no longer acting as a channel blocker. If at the same time glutamate is bound to the NMDA receptor then the channel gate is open and Ca2+ enters the cell. The entry of Ca2+ triggers 2nd messenger pathways that results in an increase in the number of glutamate receptors inserted into the post-synaptic membrane. This increases the probability of an increase in the postsynaptic response or depolarization to glutamate that is referred to as long-term potentiation. Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 96) Define implicit and explicit memory.

: Both are a type of long-term memory. Implicit or reflexive memory is automatic and does not require conscious effort. Examples are tasks that primarily involve motor skills such as writing or throwing a ball and the memory tasks typically stored at in large part in the cerebellum and the amygdala. Explicit or declarative memory requires conscious attention, using higher-level thinking skills. These memories can be communicated. Section Title: Brain Function Learning Outcome: 9.17

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 117) What do virus-infected cells and cancer cells have in common, related to the type of immune response and its long-term effectiveness?

: Both are treated as altered self cells by the immune system, and both can undergo frequent mutation and thus can fail to be eliminated by the immune system. Section Title: Immune Response Pathways Learning Outcome: 24.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 185) Compare and contrast Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes.

: Both insulate axons by creating myelin. Schwann cells, found in the PNS, are associated with a single axon. One axon may have many Schwann cells wrapped around it leaving small gaps of unmyelinated areas called nodes of Ranvier. Oligodendrocytes are found in the CNS and form myelin around portions of several axons. Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 98) Compare and contrast facilitated diffusion and active transport.

: Both involve binding of substrate to a carrier, but facilitated is passive, moving solutes down their concentration gradients, whereas active requires ATP and can move solutes against their concentration gradients. Section Title: Protein-Mediated Transport Learning Outcome: 5.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 97) Compare and contrast the effectiveness of the immune response to bacterial and viral infection.

: Both pathogens are foreign and thus have antigens, therefore they each stimulate both branches of the immune response. The humoral response is more effective at eliminating bacterial infections than viral infections because bacteria typically do not have self antigens. The cell-mediated immune response is more effective at eliminating viral infections than bacterial, because viruses infect and therefore alter self cells, and it is altered self cells that stimulate cytotoxic T cells. Section Title: Pathogens of the Human Body Learning Outcome: 24.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 95) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would A) result in the production of more viscous saliva. B) impair the lubricating properties of saliva. C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. D) eliminate the sense of taste. E) cause all of these effects.

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 10) Rugae, plicae, and villi are all features that accomplish A) secretion of enzymes. B) secretion of hormones. C) an increase in surface area. D) immune function. E) mechanical digestion.

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 21.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 18) The myenteric plexus is A) a layer of circular smooth muscle. B) a layer of longitudinal smooth muscle. C) a network of neurons. D) the mucus secreting layer of the digestive tract. E) primarily composed of connective tissue.

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 21.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 58) A patient with hay fever symptoms that have been going on for a couple weeks comes to your office to be treated for his hay fever. If a white blood cell differential count was performed, which leukocytes would likely be elevated? A) neutrophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes B) monocytes, lymphocytes, and eosinophils C) monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils D) lymphocytes, basophils, and neutrophils

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Immune System Learning Outcome: 24.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 53) Precursors of macrophages, these cells are relatively rare in blood because they are actually in transit to some other site.

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Immune System Learning Outcome: 24.10

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 86) Leslie has a bad sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This indicates A) the focus of the infection is the lymph nodes. B) lymph is not flowing through these lymph nodes. C) the affected lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes. D) the lymph gland has increased its secretion of thymosin.

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Immune System Learning Outcome: 24.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 11) ________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules located beneath the epithelial lining of the small intestine. A) Tonsils B) Adenoids C) Peyer's patches D) Immune complexes E) Lymph nodes

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Immune System Learning Outcome: 24.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 14) The portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct is the A) loop of Henle. B) proximal tubule. C) distal tubule. D) collecting duct. E) minor calyx.

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 19.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by A) blood vessels. B) lymphatics. C) the ureters. D) the urethra. E) All of the answers are correct.

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 19.2

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 53) Damage to the renal medulla would interfere first with the functioning of the A) Bowman's capsule. B) distal tubule. C) collecting ducts. D) proximal tubule. E) glomerulus.

: C Section Title: Anatomy of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 19.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) Cell membranes are said to be A) impermeable. B) freely permeable. C) selectively permeable. D) actively permeable. E) None of the answers are correct.

: C Section Title: Biological Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 17) All of the following would cause an increase in blood pressure EXCEPT A) an increase in arterial resistance. B) a decrease in arterial diameter. C) a decrease in cardiac output. D) sympathetic stimulation.

: C Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 16) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the A) systemic pressure. B) mean arterial pressure. C) pulse pressure. D) blood pressure. E) circulatory pressure.

: C Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 15) Blood pressure is determined by A) measuring the size of the pulse pressure. B) measuring the pressure in the left ventricle. C) measuring the force exerted by blood in a vessel. D) measuring the degree of turbulence in a closed vessel. E) All of the answers are correct.

: C Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 36) Declarative memories are stored in cortical areas of the ________ lobes. A) frontal B) parietal C) temporal D) amygdala E) cerebellar

: C Section Title: Brain Function Learning Outcome: 9.17

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 38) An enhancement of the postsynaptic cell's response to a constant stimulus that lasts for a period of time from hours to weeks is called A) training. B) consolidation. C) long-term potentiation. D) synchronicity. E) synaptic plasticity.

: C Section Title: Brain Function Learning Outcome: 9.17

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 55) temporal lobe

: C Section Title: Brain Function Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 29) The importance of the plateau phase of the action potential of myocardial cells is in A) preventing overstretching of the cells. B) enhancing the efficiency of oxygen use by the cells. C) preventing tetanus. D) preventing fibrillation. E) regulating Ca2+ availability to the cells.

: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 23) The rapid depolarization phase of the action potentials of myocardial contractile cells is due to which ion(s)? A) Ca2+ only B) K+ only C) Na+ only D) both Ca2+ and K+ E) both Na+ and K+

: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 15) The sac around the heart is the A) peritoneum. B) pleural sac. C) pericardium. D) myocardium. E) epicardium.

: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the following terms to the correct answer: A. tricuspid valve B. bicuspid valve C. aortic valve D. pulmonary valve 66) has three cuplike leaflets and has the aorta on one side

: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 20) The term myogenic indicates that the heart muscle is the source of A) the contractile force for pumping. B) a hormone that indirectly regulates blood volume. C) the electrical signal that triggers heart contraction. D) receptors that trigger blood pressure reflexes. E) stem cells that repair damaged heart tissue.

: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 120) As a result of the long refractory period, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit A) tonus. B) treppe. C) tetany. D) recruitment. E) fatigue.

: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 78) Edema is likely to occur when A) the concentration of protein in the blood increases. B) hemorrhage occurs. C) the heart becomes an insufficient pump. D) blood hydraulic pressure at the capillary decreases. E) the blood hydraulic pressure in a capillary is equal to the blood osmotic pressure.

: C Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.11

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 6 Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis 1) Cells that respond to signals are usually called A) responders. B) receivers. C) targets. D) contacts. E) junctions.

: C Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication Learning Outcome: 6.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 34) The total amount of neurotransmitter released at the axon terminal is directly related to A) the amplitude of the action potential. B) the length of the axon. C) the total number of action potentials. D) the amplitude of the graded potential.

: C Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 59) The ion necessary to initiate the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) chloride. E) zinc.

: C Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 60) To increase the amount of neurotransmitter released onto a postsynaptic cell, the presynaptic cell would have to A) send action potentials with higher voltage (higher amplitude). B) send action potentials with longer durations. C) send action potentials with higher frequency. D) do nothing; no change is possible since the all-or-none law is in effect.

: C Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 167) Inhibition of neural activity can result from A) presynaptic events only. B) postsynaptic events only. C) presynaptic events and postsynaptic events.

: C Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the response with the type of chemical. A. sympathetic antagonist B. parasympathetic antagonist 55) blocks secretion of pancreatic enzymes 56) blocks secretion of adrenal catecholamines 57) blocks urination 58) blocks sweating

55: B 56: A 57: B 58: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 224) The amplitude of an action potential depends in part on the amount of sodium in the extracellular fluid. Stanley Student has carefully impaled a neuron with an intracellular electrode. He tests the role of extracellular sodium by changing the concentration in the bathing fluid and recording an action potential after each change. The data he generated are shown in the table, where amplitude listed is the peak amplitude of the action potential; make an appropriate graph. Conc. Sodium (mOsM) Amp. (mV) 100 90 120 91 140 92 160 94 180 96 200 100

: Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.4

: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 141) A dehydrated patient needs a saline solution IV in order to be rehydrated. Unfortunately the hospital is poorly stocked with saline solutions. The nurse was asked by the doctor to mix up 1 L of a 0.45% saline solution using NaCl and distilled water. How would she do this? What is the osmolarity of this solution?

: 4.5 g NaCl into 950 mL of distilled water. Adjust the pH if necessary to 7.4, then add more distilled water, up to 1000 mL. × × × = 0.154 osmoles/L Section Title: Osmosis and Tonicity Learning Outcome: 5.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 86) Describe the distribution of water in the body's fluid compartments.

: 67% is intracellular. 33% is extracellular; of that 75% is in the interstitial fluid and 25% is in the plasma. Section Title: Osmosis and Tonicity Learning Outcome: 5.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 46) The normal pH range for most body fluids is ________.

: 7.35 to 7.45 Section Title: Acid-Base Balance Learning Outcome: 20.14

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 99) A molecule of sucrose has a molecular weight of 342 daltons. How many grams of sucrose would be required to make one liter of a 2.5 Molar solution of sucrose?

: 805 grams (per liter). This is calculated by multiplying the amount of sucrose in one liter of a 1 molar solution (342 grams) times the molar concentration (2.5). 342 × 2.5 = 805 grams Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 42) A person who suffers from emphysema will exhibit signs of A) respiratory acidosis. B) respiratory alkalosis. C) metabolic acidosis. D) metabolic alkalosis. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Acid-Base Balance Learning Outcome: 20.18

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 43) Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.

: A Section Title: Acquired Immunity: Antigen-Specific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.14

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 91) present in breast milk

: A Section Title: Acquired Immunity: Antigen-Specific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.16

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 28) Passive immunity is a type of ________ immunity. A) acquired B) innate

: A Section Title: Acquired Immunity: Antigen-Specific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 30) Stem cells that will form B lymphocytes are found in the A) bone marrow. B) liver. C) spleen. D) thymus. E) kidneys.

: A Section Title: Acquired Immunity: Antigen-Specific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 41) unmyelinated, consists of cell bodies, dendrites, and axon terminals

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Central Nervous System Learning Outcome: 9.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 10) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the A) choroid plexus. B) arachnoid villi. C) frontal sinuses. D) pia mater. E) ventricles.

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Central Nervous System Learning Outcome: 9.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 45) located at the ventral end of the cecum

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 21.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 48) organ that adds exocrine secretions to the duodenum via a duct

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 8) The layer of loose connective tissue beneath the digestive epithelium is the A) lamina propria. B) muscularis mucosae. C) submucosa. D) submucosal plexus. E) myenteric plexus.

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 21.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 57) A patient has elevated neutrophils and monocytes with normal levels of basophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these test results? A) a chronic bacterial infection B) an acute viral infection C) an allergic reaction D) a fungal infection E) an autoimmune reaction

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Immune System Learning Outcome: 24.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 55) Estimated to reach populations of one trillion in normal adults, most of these cells reside in the lymphoid tissues of the body. These cells look quite similar to one another under the microscope, yet function very differently.

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Immune System Learning Outcome: 24.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 8) The largest lymphoid tissue(s) is/are the A) spleen. B) thymus. C) GALT. D) lymph nodes. E) tonsils.

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Immune System Learning Outcome: 24.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 12) Cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system include A) macrophages and monocytes. B) neutrophils and eosinophils. C) lymphocytes and plasma cells. D) macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils and eosinophils. E) macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells.

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Immune System Learning Outcome: 24.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 69) Some types of antihistamines make one sleepy, others do not. This difference is partly attributed to a difference in A) lipid solubility. B) the type of receptor involved. C) ATP-dependence of drug transport. D) whether or not the drug mimics the hormone melatonin.

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 9.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 15) The hairpin-shaped segment of the nephron is the A) loop of Henle. B) proximal tubule. C) distal tubule. D) vasa recta. E) minor calyx.

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 19.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 16) The segment of the nephron between the proximal and distal tubules that loops down into the medulla of the kidney and returns back to the cortex is called the ________. A) loop of Henle B) Bowman's capsule C) collecting duct D) vasa recta E) minor calyx

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 19.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) Blood flow through the kidney includes a feature seen in only a few organs. What is it? A) portal system B) arterial shunts C) vascular sinuses D) veins containing highly oxygenated blood E) anastomoses

: A Section Title: Anatomy of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 19.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Which of the following terms is NOT used to define the structure that separates the contents of a human cell from its surrounding medium? A) a cell wall B) a cell membrane C) plasma membrane D) plasmalemma E) All of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Biological Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 13) The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is important because A) it represents the driving pressure for blood flow. B) it reflects the difference in time that systole lasts compared to diastole. C) it forces the practitioner to do math, thus they must pay attention to the values obtained. D) it represents the driving pressure for blood flow and it reflects the difference in time that systole lasts compared to diastole. E) All of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 26) The internal clock of mammals appears to be located in the A) suprachiasmatic nucleus. B) pituitary gland. C) choroid plexus. D) pons. E) brain stem.

: A Section Title: Brain Function Learning Outcome: 9.14

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 75) When a puppy is scolded "No!" each time he chews on your ficus tree, eventually he learns to leave the tree alone. This type of learning is called A) associative. B) nonassociative. C) habituation. D) sensitization.

: A Section Title: Brain Function Learning Outcome: 9.16

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 54) parietal lobe

: A Section Title: Brain Function Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 73) Experimental animals become tamer and more sexually active following damage to the A) amygdala. B) hippocampus. C) suprachiamatic nucleus. D) hypothalamus. E) corpus callosum.

: A Section Title: Brain Function Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 25) Language and verbal skills tend to be ________ side of the brain of right-handed people. A) concentrated on the left B) concentrated on the right C) equally distributed between the left and right D) randomly located with respect to the left or right

: A Section Title: Brain Function Learning Outcome: 9.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 30) Myocardial cells can generate action potentials spontaneously because they have A) unstable ion channels. B) permanently open channels for Na+ and K+. C) a net influx of Na+. D) L-type Ca2+ channels. E) prolonged Ca2+ influx.

: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 118) Which statement is NOT true regarding cardiac muscle? A) Cardiac muscle cells must obey the all-or-none law of contraction. B) Cardiac muscle cells rely on a sarcoplasmic reticulum for storage of Ca2+ ions. C) Calcium-induced calcium release is the process by which extracellular Ca2+ triggers the release of stored Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) Intercalated disks contain both desmosomes for firm attachment and gap junctions to allow communication. E) The oxygen demand of cardiac muscle cells is high because they have many mitochondria.

: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 21) The action potential in a cardiac contractile cell causes A) opening of L-type calcium channels. B) opening of ryanodine receptor calcium channels. C) activation of sodium-potassium ATPase. D) activation of NCX transporters. E) opening of HCN channels.

: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 26) The action potentials of myocardial autorhythmic cells, are due to a combination of increasing Na2+ ________ and decreasing K+________. A) influx, efflux B) efflux, influx C) influx, influx D) efflux, efflux

: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 32) Autorhythmic cells A) are also called pacemakers because they set the rate of the heartbeat. B) are the same size as myocardial contractile cells. C) have organized sarcomeres. D) contribute to the force of contraction. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 121) Ivabrandine selectively blocks If channels in the heart. Which statement would be true concerning a patient who is taking this drug? A) The drug would slow down this individual's heart rate. B) This patient must have been suffering from bradycardia. C) This drug would decrease contractility of the patient's heart. D) This drug would raise the blood pressure of the patient. E) The amount of calcium entering the patient's heart cells would increase.

: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6

: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 39) Blood pressure and flow to the brain are monitored by receptors located in the wall of the A) carotid artery. B) aorta. C) venae cavae. D) cerebral arteries. E) cephalic arteries.

: A Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 58) Which type of synapse is most prevalent in the nervous system? A) chemical B) electrical C) mechanical D) processing E) radiative

: A Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 63) Excitatory neurotransmitters of the CNS usually act by opening ________ channels. A) Na+ B) K+ C) Cl- D) H+ E) Ca2+

: A Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 152) When more action potentials arrive at the axon terminal, how are neurotransmitters affected? A) More molecules are released into the synapse. B) Different molecules are released into the synapse. C) Fewer molecules are released into the synapse. D) There is no effect-all signals are identical.

: A Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 96) cells that create a selectively permeable epithelial layer to separate fluid compartments of the CNS

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 106) contribute(s) most to membrane surface area of cell

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 89) microglia

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 91) ependymal cells

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 92) astrocytes

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 99) cells that are a source of neural stem cells

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 20) Anterograde and retrograde axonal transport are forms of ________ transport. A) fast B) slow C) Neither of these

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 88) oligodendrocytes

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 84) A damaged neuron has a better chance of survival and repair if the ________ is/are undamaged. A) cell body B) axon C) dendrites D) Schwann cells E) axon and dendrites

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 108) where most graded potentials originate

: A Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 25) anterior pituitary

: A Section Title: Control of Hormone Release Learning Outcome: 7.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match each term with the appropriate description. A. peptide hormone B. steroid hormone C. amino acid-derived hormone D. anterior pituitary E. hypothalamus F. posterior pituitary 16) lipophobic molecule that interacts with receptors on cell surface

: A Section Title: Control of Hormone Release Learning Outcome: 7.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 13) The pituitary hormone that controls hormone synthesis and release from the thyroid gland is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) STH.

: A Section Title: Control of Hormone Release Learning Outcome: 7.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 6) Permeability is a property of A) membranes. B) ions. C) solutes. D) solvents. E) proteins.

: A Section Title: Diffusion Learning Outcome: 5.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 117) If a 10% sucrose solution is separated from a 20% sucrose solution by a membrane impermeable to sucrose, in which direction will net movement of water occur? A) from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution only B) from the 20% sucrose solution to the 10% sucrose solution only C) There will be no net movement of water in this case. D) from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution and from the 20% sucrose solution to the 10% sucrose solution E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Diffusion Learning Outcome: 5.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 40) Which of the following statements is true? A) Glucose and galactose absorption uses an apical Na+-glucose SGLT symporter. B) Fructose moves across the apical membrane by active transport. C) Glucose and galactose use different transporters in absorption. D) A basolateral GLUT5 transporter moves glucose out of the intestinal epithelial cell. E) None of the statements are true.

: A Section Title: Digestion and Absorption Learning Outcome: 21.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 91) Put the following steps of fat digestion and absorption in order: 1. Bile salts coat fat droplets. 2. Cholesterol is transported into cells. 3. Chylomicrons are formed. 4. Chylomicrons are released into lymphatic system. 5. Monoglycerides and fatty acids move out of micelles. 6. Pancreatic lipase and colipase break down fats. A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 5 C) 2, 6, 5, 1, 3, 4 D) 6, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Digestion and Absorption Learning Outcome: 21.10

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 110) blocks cholesterol absorption

: A Section Title: Digestion and Absorption Learning Outcome: 21.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 59) brush border

: A Section Title: Digestion and Absorption Learning Outcome: 21.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 32) Bile is A) secreted by hepatocytes only. B) manufactured by the gallbladder only. C) released into the stomach only. D) secreted by hepatocytes and manufactured by the gallbladder. E) secreted by hepatocytes, manufactured by the gallbladder, and released into the stomach.

: A Section Title: Digestion and Absorption Learning Outcome: 21.8

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 137) In the body, 80% of all lymphocytes, a type of immune system cell, are thought to be present in the A) small intestine. B) large intestine. C) appendix. D) stomach. E) mouth.

: A Section Title: Digestive Function and Processes Learning Outcome: 21.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 28) Which is the correctly written Nernst equation? A) 61/z × log [ion]out / [ion]in B) 61/z × log [ion]in / [ion]out C) log 61/z × [ion]in / [ion]out D) log 61/z × [ion]out / [ion]in

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 31) Which ion(s) is/are higher in concentration inside the cell compared to outside? A) potassium B) sodium C) chloride D) calcium E) More than one of the answers is correct.

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 48) In the membrane of a resting nerve cell, when chemically gated Cl- channels open, A) Cl- ions enter the cell. B) Cl- ions leave the cell. C) the cell becomes depolarized. D) Cl- ions enter the cell and the cell becomes depolarized. E) Cl- ions leave the cell and the cell becomes depolarized.

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 112) originate(s) on dendrites and cell bodies

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 115) size increases if stimulus strength increases

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 56) The term hyperkalemia specifically indicates too much potassium in which fluid compartment? A) blood B) intracellular C) interstitial D) extracellular E) All of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the type of signal to its description (answers may be used more than once). A. graded potential B. action potential C. both 110) may be hyperpolarizing

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 113) can involve ion channels regulated by chemicals

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 42) All of the following must occur before a second action potential can begin, EXCEPT A) the Na+ and K+ ions that moved in/out of the cell must move back to their original compartments. B) the Na+ inactivation gate must open and the Na+ activation gate must close. C) the absolute refractory period must occur. D) the Na+ and K+ ions that moved in/out of the cell must move back to their original compartments; the Na+ inactivation gate must open; and the Na+ activation gate must close. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 36) The rising phase of the action potential is due to A) Na+ flow into the cell only. B) Na+ flow out of the cell only. C) K+ flow out of the cell only. D) K+ flow into the cell only. E) Na+ flow out of the cell and K+ flow into the cell.

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 143) How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-gated sodium channels remained inactivated? A) It would be longer than normal. B) It would be shorter than normal. C) It would be the same whether the channels remained inactivated or not. D) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 54) Hormones acting through signal transduction pathways elicit a ________ response compared to hormones that produce genomic effects. A) faster B) slower C) equal

: A Section Title: Endocrine Pathologies Learning Outcome: 7.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) According to the second law of thermodynamics, A) the amount of entropy in living systems increases without the input of energy. B) entropy decreases in living systems that are not receiving energy. C) energy can be converted, but not be created nor destroyed. D) the total amount of energy in the universe never changes.

: A Section Title: Energy in Biological Systems Learning Outcome: 4.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 59) carbonic anhydrase

: A Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 10) When a chemical reaction is in equilibrium, A) there is no net change in the amount of substrates or products. B) the reaction is proceeding at its maximum rate. C) the reaction has stopped. D) there are equivalent amounts of substrates and products.

: A Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 8) Isozymes A) are enzymes with slightly different structure that catalyze the same reaction. B) are enzymes with the same structure that catalyze different reactions. C) are inorganic molecules that bind to and thereby activate enzymes. D) are the inactive form of an enzyme.

: A Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 9) Enzymes increase reaction rate by A) lowering the activation energy of a reaction. B) increasing the free energy in the products. C) raising the activation energy of a reaction. D) converting an endergonic reaction to an exergonic reaction.

: A Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 97) The rate of product formation by an enzyme-catalyzed reaction would be increased by A) adding more substrate molecules. B) adding more product molecules. C) reducing the number of enzymes. D) reducing the number of substrate molecules.

: A Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 38) An example of transamination is A) removing an amine group from one molecule and binding it to a different molecule. B) removing an amino group and putting it into the bloodstream for the kidneys to discard. C) removing a phosphate group from a molecule. D) finding a brand new sports car in your driveway with your name on it.

: A Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 20) An enzyme that adds or subtracts water molecules is a A) hydrolase. B) lipase. C) transferase. D) ligase. E) kinase.

: A Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 52) dehydrogenase

: A Section Title: Enzymes Learning Outcome: 4.3

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 9 The Central Nervous System 1) The first multicellular animals to develop neurons were A) jellyfish and sea anemones. B) flatworms and sea urchins. C) segmented worms and sea horses. D) mollusks and sea stars. E) fish and sea monkeys.

: A Section Title: Evolution of Nervous Systems Learning Outcome: 9.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 27) Which of the following statements about autoregulation is NOT true? A) Myogenic response is the intrinsic ability of vascular smooth muscle to respond to pressure changes. B) Myogenic response is a paracrine signaling mechanism. C) In tubuloglomerular feedback, stretch-sensitive ion channels open, resulting in depolarization of smooth muscle cells. D) In myogenic response, the macula densa cells send a paracrine message to the neighboring afferent arteriole.

: A Section Title: Filtration Learning Outcome: 19.10

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 55) If blood flow through the afferent arterioles increases, A) stretch reflexes trigger vasoconstriction to reduce the flow. B) the smooth muscle in the vessel walls stretches to accommodate the increased flow. C) the stretch triggers further relaxation of the arteriolar wall, lessening blood pressure. D) the smooth muscle in the vessel walls stretches to accommodate the increased flow and the stretch triggers further relaxation of the arteriolar wall, lessening blood pressure.

: A Section Title: Filtration Learning Outcome: 19.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 23) The force for glomerular filtration is the A) blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries. B) osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries. C) fluid pressure produced by the displacement of the fluid in the lumen of the tubules. D) ATP-dependent processes in the nephron. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Filtration Learning Outcome: 19.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) The characteristic yellow color of urine is attributed to the presence of A) urobilinogen. B) uric acid. C) urea. D) renin. E) bile.

: A Section Title: Functions of the Kidneys Learning Outcome: 19.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 24) thickened alveolar membrane and decreased lung compliance

: A Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 4) Of the factors that influence diffusion of respiratory gases, the most variable and, therefore, important factor to consider is the A) concentration gradient. B) diffusion distance. C) membrane surface area. D) membrane thickness. E) electrical charge.

: A Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the factor with its effect on the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. A. increase B. decrease 30) increased pH

: A Section Title: Gas Exchange in the Lungs and Tissues Learning Outcome: 18.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 20) Air moves into the lungs because A) the gas pressure in the lungs is less than outside pressure. B) the volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration. C) the thorax is muscular. D) contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity. E) All of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Gas Laws Learning Outcome: 17.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 35) Flow of air A) is directly proportional to a pressure gradient, and flow decreases as the resistance of the system increases. B) is directly proportional to the resistance, and flow decreases as the pressure of the system increases. C) is directly proportional to a pressure gradient, and flow increases as the resistance of the system increases. D) is directly proportional to the resistance, and flow increases as the resistance of the system increases. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Gas Laws Learning Outcome: 17.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 12) Pressure and volume of gas in a container are related to temperature and number of gas molecules. This is known as ________ law. A) the ideal gas B) Boyle's C) Dalton's D) Henry's E) Ohm's

: A Section Title: Gas Laws Learning Outcome: 17.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 13) Which of the following would make the oxygen-hemoglobin curve shift right? A) increased H+ concentration B) increased pH C) decreased temperature D) decreased CO2 E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Gas Transport in the Blood Learning Outcome: 18.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 60) Homeostatic control that takes place at the tissue or cell by using paracrine or autocrine signals is called ________. A) local control B) reflex control C) Cannon's law D) down-regulation

: A Section Title: Homeostatic Reflex Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 21) the minimum stimulus to trigger a response

: A Section Title: Homeostatic Reflex Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 51) Hormones are not typically considered to be cytokines because hormones are ________ like cytokines. A) synthesized in advance and stored, not B) not peptides C) not effective in small amounts D) secreted into the blood, not E) secreted by cells, not

: A Section Title: Hormones Learning Outcome: 7.1

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 79) Meghan thinks she has an abscessed tooth. If she does, what type of white blood cell would you expect to see in elevated numbers in a differential count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes

: A Section Title: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 22) Cytokines function by A) acting as messengers for growth and activity of other cells. B) poisoning and killing invading cells. C) digesting invading cells. D) acting as messengers for growth and activity of other cells and poisoning and killing invading cells. E) acting as messengers for growth and activity of other cells, poisoning and killing invading cells, and digesting invading cells.

: A Section Title: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 36) The cells that are actively involved in immunological surveillance are the A) NK cells. B) plasma cells. C) B lymphocytes. D) helper T cells. E) suppressor T cells.

: A Section Title: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 10) Swelling and soreness of the lymph nodes indicate that A) immune cells are fighting infection. B) the immune system is incapable of working. C) dangerous cancerous changes are occurring in the immune system. D) too much or improper exercise has been undertaken. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 16) Leukocytes recognize molecules that are unique to pathogens; thus, the molecules are A) pathogen-associated molecular patterns. B) pattern recognition receptors. C) toll-like receptors. D) phagosomes. E) antigens.

: A Section Title: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Responses Learning Outcome: 24.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 62) Two hours before major surgery is to begin, the patient experiences "jitters," an elevated heart rate and blood pressure, increased rate of breathing, cold sweats, and an urge to urinate. These symptoms are the result of A) sympathetic activation. B) decreased levels of epinephrine in the blood. C) decreased activity of sympathetic centers in the hypothalamus. D) increased parasympathetic activity. E) all of these mechanisms.

: A Section Title: Integrated Control of Volume and Osmolarity Learning Outcome: 20.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the structure to its function. A. mouth B. stomach C. rectum D. small intestine E. large intestine 51) Carbohydrate digestion begins here.

: A Section Title: Integrated Function: The Cephalic Phase Learning Outcome: 21.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 55) Fat digestion begins here.

: A Section Title: Integrated Function: The Cephalic Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 94) In response to the arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum, the blood levels of A) secretin rise. B) cholecystokinin fall. C) gastrin rise. D) enterocrinin fall. E) All of these answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Integrated Function: The Cephalic Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) Match the hormone with the correct statement. A. gastrin B. cholecystokinin C. secretin D. motilin E. gastric inhibitory peptide 102) secreted by cells in the stomach

: A Section Title: Integrated Function: The Cephalic Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 97) In response to the hormone cholecystokinin, the pancreas secretes a fluid A) rich in enzymes. B) rich in bicarbonate. C) rich in bile. D) that contains only proteinases. E) that contains only amylase.

: A Section Title: Integrated Function: The Cephalic Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 13) Chief cells secrete A) pepsinogen. B) gastrin. C) mucus. D) hydrochloric acid. E) intrinsic factor.

: A Section Title: Integrated Function: The Gastric Phase Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 163) The basis of neural integration is A) addition of postsynaptic potentials overlapping in time and space. B) command signals from central pattern generators. C) spontaneous activity in pacemaker neurons. D) the area under the curve of postsynaptic potentials overlapping in time and space.

: A Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer Learning Outcome: 8.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 16) The thickest protein fibers from the following group are A) microtubules. B) neurofilaments. C) microfilaments. D) myosin molecules. E) keratin filaments.

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 34) The number of mitochondria in skeletal muscle cells is ________ adipose (fat) cells. A) greater than B) less than C) equal to

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 35) The control center for cellular operations is the A) nucleus. B) mitochondria. C) Golgi complex. D) endoplasmic reticulum. E) ribosomes.

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 28) Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached ribosomes? A) rough endoplasmic reticulum B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) mitochondria D) nucleoli E) Golgi apparatus

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 33) Peroxisomes A) use an enzyme to destroy H2O2 that is toxic to the cell. B) are a type of lysosome. C) are responsible for the atrophy of unused muscles. D) are sites for synthesis of fatty acids, steroids, and phospholipids. E) All of the answers accurately describe peroxisomes.

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 15) Each of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle except one. Identify the exception. A) lysosome B) cilia C) centriole D) ribosome E) cytoskeleton

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 110) In a pancreatic cell producing digestive enzyme, you would expect to find an elaborate A) rough endoplasmic reticulum. B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) For each question, select the corresponding category: A. membranous organelle B. inclusion 124) mitochondrion

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) For each question, select the corresponding category: A. membranous organelle B. inclusion 127) endoplasmic reticulum

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) For each question, select the corresponding category: A. membranous organelle B. inclusion 123) lysosome

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 41) Arrange the following events in protein secretion in the proper sequence. 1. The polypeptide chain enters the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. 2. A secretory vesicle is formed. 3. A transport vesicle is formed. 4. The polypeptide chain enters the lumen of the Golgi complex. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 1, 3, 4, 2 D) 4, 3, 1, 2 E) 3, 1, 4, 2

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 39) The term secretion refers to A) the process by which a cell releases a substance into the extracellular space for a particular use. B) synthesis of a protein for export from the cell. C) the manufacture and assembly of a material. D) storage of a material, until it is time for it to leave the cell. E) None of the answers describe secretion.

: A Section Title: Intracellular Compartments Learning Outcome: 3.6

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 17 Mechanics of Breathing 1) Which is NOT considered to be a primary function of the respiratory system? A) regulation of water balance B) regulation of pH balance C) protection against pathogens D) vocalization E) gas exchange

: A Section Title: Introduction Learning Outcome: 17.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 17) An allosteric modulator binds to A) a region of the enzyme other than the active site. B) the active site. C) the substrate. D) the product. E) the surrounding tissue.

: A Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.2

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 107) The protein in the mitochondria that captures the kinetic energy of moving H+ ions and converts it to the stored energy of ATP is called A) ATP synthase. B) lactate dehydrogenase. C) oxidative phosphorylase. D) glucokinase.

: A Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 50) Following post-translational modification, any misfolded protein will be destroyed by A) ubiquitin. B) chaperones. C) methylation. D) ribonucleases.

: A Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 44) Transcription occurs in the ________ of the cell. A) nucleus B) cytoplasm C) Golgi apparatus D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) plasma membrane

: A Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 41) The TAC sequence of DNA is the ________ of a coding sequence that is preceded by the ________ that regulates transcription. A) start, promoter region B) start, intron C) stop, promoter region D) stop, intron

: A Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 114) If the enzyme RNA polymerase was completely inhibited within a cell, it could not A) form proteins. B) form complementary sequences of DNA. C) link pieces of DNA together. D) form spindle fibers. E) form a new nuclear membrane during cell division.

: A Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 110) Transcription of the DNA triplet sequence ATC yields A) UAG. B) TAG. C) UTC. D) ATC.

: A Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match each class of biomolecules to the correct statement about it. A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. proteins D. nucleotides 57) Glucose and ribose are examples; these molecules provide energy or structure.

: A Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the correct subatomic particle with the statement about it. Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. proton(s) B. neutron(s) C. electron(s) 41) This particle has a charge of +1 and a mass of 1.

: A Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the correct subatomic particle with the statement about it. Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. proton(s) B. neutron(s) C. electron(s) 40) The identity of an element can be determined by the number of ________.

: A Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 31) Polymers are a typical formation of ________ molecules. A) organic B) inorganic C) either organic or inorganic

: A Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.1

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 97) The designation Ca2+ means A) calcium has space for two more electrons. B) calcium has gained two more electrons. C) calcium has space for two more protons. D) calcium has gained two more protons.

: A Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match each bond type with its description. A. van der Waals B. ionic C. hydrogen D. covalent 56) These are weak attractive forces between the nucleus of one atom and the electrons of another atom close by.

: A Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 14) The most important polar molecule is ________ because it is practically a universal solvent. A) water B) bicarbonate C) sodium chloride D) magnesium sulfate E) nucleic acid

: A Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 96) Which of the following elements combine to form nonpolar covalent bonds? A) carbon and hydrogen B) nitrogen and hydrogen C) sodium and chlorine D) hydrogen and oxygen E) carbon and chlorine

: A Section Title: Molecules and Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 23) ________ are pacemakers for slow wave activity. A) Interstitial cells of Cajal B) Intrinsic neuron cells C) Extrinsic neuron cells D) G cells E) Chief cells

: A Section Title: Motility Learning Outcome: 21.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 39) Which of the following statements is true about GI muscle contractions? A) Phasic contractions last only seconds and occur in the stomach and small intestine. B) Tonic contractions are sustained for minutes and occur in the small intestine. C) Cycles of smooth muscle contraction and relaxation are associated with fast wave potentials. D) Contractions of the smooth muscle do not depend on calcium. E) None of these statements are true.

: A Section Title: Motility Learning Outcome: 21.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 104) Only free H+ contributes to the hydrogen ion concentration. A) True B) False

: A Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.5

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 139) How many grams of glucose, m.w. 180 daltons, is necessary to make 1 liter of a 1.0 molar solution? A) 180 B) 360 C) 90 D) 6.02 × 1023 E) 1.0

: A Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 103) Lipids are hydrophobic, and do not usually dissolve in water. Because blood is water-based, the lipid cholesterol is combined with ________ so that it can be transported by blood. A) a hydrophilic molecule B) a hydrophobic molecule C) nothing; cholesterol is not transported in blood D) a cation E) an anion

: A Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) The brain and spinal cord together compose the A) central nervous system. B) autonomic division system. C) somatic motor division of the nervous system. D) peripheral nervous system. E) visceral nervous system.

: A Section Title: Organization of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.1

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 76) The inside of a resting cell is slightly negative relative to the outside. This is an example of A) electrical disequilibrium. B) osmotic equilibrium. C) chemical disequilibrium. D) failed homeostasis.

: A Section Title: Osmosis and Tonicity Learning Outcome: 5.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match each step in urine formation to its description. A. excretion B. filtration C. reabsorption D. secretion 28) movement from the nephron lumen to the external environment

: A Section Title: Overview of Kidney Function Learning Outcome: 19.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Which organ is NOT known to include a special portal system for blood? A) heart B) kidney C) liver D) brain E) All of these organs have portal systems.

: A Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) Capillaries are best described as A) microscopic vessels in which blood exchanges material with the interstitial fluid. B) thick walled vessels that convey blood away from the heart. C) thin walled vessels that convey blood toward the heart. D) thick walled vessels that carry blood rich in oxygen. E) thin walled vessels that carry blood deficient in oxygen.

: A Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) The hepatic portal vein carries blood away from the A) digestive tract. B) liver. C) kidneys. D) spleen. E) pancreas.

: A Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 24 The Immune System 1) Which is NOT a pathogen? A) cancer B) hookworm C) athlete's foot fungus D) chicken pox virus E) meningococcus bacterium

: A Section Title: Pathogens of the Human Body Learning Outcome: 24.16

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 11) Which parameters are associated with increased resistance? A) reduced flow B) reduced friction C) increased blood vessel diameter D) decreased viscosity E) decreased length

: A Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the change with the cardiovascular event described. A. increased B. decreased C. unchanged D. stopped 144) You suck milk through a 6-inch straw and through a 10-inch straw; the diameters are identical. Resistance is ________ in the 10-inch straw compared to the 6-inch straw.

: A Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the change with the cardiovascular event described. A. increased B. decreased C. unchanged D. stopped 147) During fasting, some capillary beds in the digestive tract are closed and therefore have no blood flow. Others are open to meet the minimal need of the tract for blood flow. During eating and as long as food is present in the tract, all capillary beds open to flow. What happens to total cross-sectional area of vessels in the digestive tract?

: A Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the change with the cardiovascular event described. A. increased B. decreased C. unchanged D. stopped 149) If total cross-sectional area of vessels in an organ remains the same but blood flow to that organ increases, what happens to velocity of blood?

: A Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) match the type of modulator with the best description below. A. involved in phosphorylation B. cannot be displaced by competition C. bind to proteins away from the active site D. reversible antagonist 71) covalent modulator

: A Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) Cells regulate their level of activity by regulating the amount of proteins present in the cell at any given time, so an up regulation of enzymes would be expected to A) increase the level of productivity of chemical reactions that rely on them. B) decrease the level of productivity of chemical reactions that rely on them. C) increase the rate of reactions catalyzed by the enzymes. D) decrease the rate of reactions catalyzed by the enzymes. E) both decrease the level of productivity of chemical reactions that rely on them and decrease the rate of reactions catalyzed by the enzymes.

: A Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.10

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match each level of protein structure with its description. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary 62) the sequence and number of amino acids in the chain

: A Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the descriptions to the correct protein category. A. fibrous B. globular 66) keratin

: A Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the descriptions to the correct protein category. A. fibrous B. globular 69) structural components

: A Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 106) Chemical reactions that occur in the human body proceed at a faster rate due to special catalytic molecules called A) enzymes. B) cytozymes. C) cofactors. D) activators. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 4) When an enzyme reaches its saturation point, A) the amount of substrate for the enzyme to act upon is very high. B) the amount of substrate for the enzyme to act upon is very low. C) the amount of product produced continues to increase. D) the amount of product produced by the enzyme decreases. E) the amount of substrate for the enzyme to act upon is very low and the amount of product produced by the enzyme decreases.

: A Section Title: Protein Interactions Learning Outcome: 2.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 29) receptors

: A Section Title: Protein-Mediated Transport Learning Outcome: 5.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 35) small plasma proteins

: A Section Title: Reabsorption Learning Outcome: 19.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 57) In the lumen of the proximal tubule, Na+ concentration ________ the Na+ concentration inside the cells of the tubule wall. A) is much higher than B) is slightly higher than C) is about the same as D) is slightly lower than E) is much lower than

: A Section Title: Reabsorption Learning Outcome: 19.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 3) Which function(s) is/are NOT continuously regulated by the GI tract? A) absorption only B) motility only C) secretion only D) All 3 functions are regulated. E) None of the 3 functions are regulated.

: A Section Title: Regulation of GI Function Learning Outcome: 21.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 26) Reactive hyperemia is triggered by A) local accumulation of paracrines due to reduced blood flow. B) reflex contraction of smooth muscle following a period of dilation. C) stress and the hormones released during stress. D) toxins or allergens, such as bee venom or pollen. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 20) Increased blood volume ________ blood pressure. A) increases B) decreases C) has no effect on

: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 27) The elevated blood pressure that sometimes accompanies pregnancy is known as A) preeclampsia. B) vasovagal syncope. C) infarction. D) reactive hyperemia. E) orthostatic hypotension.

: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 19) If cardiac output increases and resistance in arterioles does NOT change, what happens to arterial blood pressure? A) increases B) decreases C) is unchanged

: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 79) Which of the following is greater? A) blood pressure when sympathetic stimulation to the heart increases B) blood pressure when parasympathetic stimulation to the heart increases

: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 15) In the intestine, the epithelial cells have A) leaky junctions. B) tight junctions. C) electrical gap junctions.

: A Section Title: Secretion Learning Outcome: 21.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 28) In the digestive system, HCl is released by ________, whereas HCO3- is secreted primarily from the ________. A) parietal cells of the stomach, pancreas B) the pancreas, parietal cells of the stomach C) parietal cells of the stomach, liver D) the liver, parietal cells of the stomach

: A Section Title: Secretion Learning Outcome: 21.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 15) Usually, cytokine binding activates A) JAK kinase. B) tyrosine kinase. C) intrinsic transducers. D) calmodulin kinase. E) citrulline kinase.

: A Section Title: Signal Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.2

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 52) The most important factor determining which type of receptor a signal molecule will bind to is A) the lipid solubility of the ligand. B) the size of the ligand. C) the size of the receptor molecule. D) the location of the receptor molecule.

: A Section Title: Signal Pathways Learning Outcome: 6.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 85) An important difference between single-unit and multiunit smooth muscle is the A) numerous gap junctions in single-unit smooth muscle, which allow many cells to work together as a sheet. B) longer actin and myosin filaments in multiunit smooth muscle, which allow coordination of contraction. C) ability of single-unit fibers to change into multiunit fibers when advantageous. D) closely controlled individual fibers in single-unit smooth muscle to allow fine control and graded contractions by selective activation.

: A Section Title: Smooth Muscle Learning Outcome: 12.16

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 48) The calcium release channel in the smooth muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum that is opened by increases in phospholipase C activity is the A) inositol trisphosphate (IP3) receptor channel. B) ryanodine receptor. C) dihydropyridine (DHP) receptor. D) voltage-gated Ca2+ channel. E) Ca2+-ATPase.

: A Section Title: Smooth Muscle Learning Outcome: 12.18

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 36) Decreased ECF volume causes A) sympathetic output from the cardiovascular control center to increase. B) parasympathetic output from the cardiovascular control center to increase. C) the force of ventricular contraction to decrease. D) arteriolar vasodilation. E) sympathetic output from the cardiovascular control center to increase and arteriolar vasodilation.

: A Section Title: Sodium Balance and ECF Volume Learning Outcome: 20.12

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 59) Renal tubule cells in the kidney medulla are constantly exposed to high extracellular osmolarity. How do they maintain normal cell volume? A) They synthesize organic solutes as needed to match the osmolarity. B) They synthesize water molecules through increased metabolism to offset volume loss. C) They maintain a water-impermeable membrane. D) They add or remove aquaporins as needed.

: A Section Title: Sodium Balance and ECF Volume Learning Outcome: 20.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 25) Drugs that treat hypertension by preventing Angiotensin I from becoming Angiotensin II are called A) ACE inhibitors. B) beta blockers. C) calcium channel blockers. D) diuretics.

: A Section Title: Sodium Balance and ECF Volume Learning Outcome: 20.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 33) The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of A) angiotensin. B) cortisol. C) erythropoietin. D) atrial natriuretic peptide. E) adrenaline.

: A Section Title: Sodium Balance and ECF Volume Learning Outcome: 20.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 24) Most preganglionic neurons originate in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.

: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 28) The ganglia are found in a chain that runs close to the spinal cord or along the descending aorta.

: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 33) It is important during stress or emergencies (fight-or-flight).

: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) The division of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for intense levels of activity and stress is the A) sympathetic division. B) parasympathetic division. C) craniosacral division. D) intramural division. E) somatomotor division.

: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.2

: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 29) It releases norepinephrine at the neuroeffector synapse.

: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) A. true only for the sympathetic division B. true only for the parasympathetic division C. true for both divisions 31) The adrenal medulla is closely allied with this system.

: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 14) Sweat glands contain A) cholinergic receptors. B) alpha receptors. C) beta receptors. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 49) The drug Chantix®, which treats nicotine addiction, is an ________ for the nicotine receptor. A) agonist B) antagonist

: A Section Title: The Autonomic Division Learning Outcome: 11.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) Perfusion is A) blood flow through an organ. B) the driving force behind blood flow. C) delivery of oxygen to cells. D) the connection between capillaries and other vessels. E) movement of blood through a shunt.

: A Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) Differences between arterioles and metarterioles include the fact that arterioles A) have a continuous smooth muscle layer in their walls. B) allow blood to bypass capillary beds. C) have an endothelial lining. D) have a continuous smooth muscle layer in their walls and allow blood to bypass capillary beds. E) All of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 29) Symptoms of the fight-or-flight reaction include all of these EXCEPT A) hunger. B) pounding heart. C) sweating palms. D) increased blood pressure. E) pupillary dilation.

: A Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) For the structures listed below, choose one of the following: A. structure is composed of gray matter B. structure is composed of white matter 80) cerebral cortex

: A Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 84) basal ganglia

: A Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 81) limbic system

: A Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 21) The most primitive region of the cerebrum is probably the A) limbic system. B) basal nuclei. C) corpus callosum. D) reticular system. E) pons.

: A Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 28) Which brain area is considered to be a key integrating center for homeostasis? A) hypothalamus B) thalamus C) pituitary gland D) brain stem E) medulla

: A Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 31) The brain area acknowledged as the center for emotions is the A) amygdala. B) hypothalamus. C) suprachiasmatic nucleus. D) pons. E) cerebellum.

: A Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 50) receives sensory input from the inner ear's receptors for equilibrium and balance

: A Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) Match these functions with the correct brain area. A. medulla oblongata B. pons C. midbrain D. reticular formation 76) contains corticospinal tracts, the pyramids, and control centers for breathing, swallowing, and blood pressure

: A Section Title: The Brain Learning Outcome: 9.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 9) The majority of hormones in the body are A) peptide hormones. B) steroid hormones. C) amino acid-derived hormones. D) neurohormones. E) All of the hormones are present in equal amounts in the body.

: A Section Title: The Classification of Hormones Learning Outcome: 7.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 49) When stimulated by a particular hormone, there is a marked increase in the activity of G proteins in the membrane. The hormone is probably A) a steroid. B) a peptide. C) testosterone. D) estrogen. E) aldosterone.

: A Section Title: The Classification of Hormones Learning Outcome: 7.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 33) The depolarization of the pacemaker action potential spreads to adjacent cells through A) gap junctions. B) tight junctions. C) chemical synapses. D) desmosomes.

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 34) The fibrous skeleton of the heart is important because it A) forces electrical activity to be conducted through the atrioventricular node. B) transmits electrical activity from the atria to the ventricles. C) helps guide the blood into the proper chambers in sequence. D) directs the flow of blood into the arteries.

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 125) If a myocardial infarction results in the formation of scar tissue along the pathway of the left bundle branch, A) cardiac arrhythmias may occur. B) blood flow to the lungs will decrease. C) the ventricle will contract more forcefully. D) conduction through the left ventricle would remain normal. E) the right ventricle will fail to contract.

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 39) Electrical shock to the heart is usually used to treat A) ventricular fibrillation. B) atrial fibrillation. C) heart block. D) heart murmur. E) myocardial infarction.

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 41) The P wave of an ECG corresponds to A) the depolarization of the atria. B) the progressive wave of ventricular depolarization. C) the repolarization of the ventricles. D) atrial repolarization. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 53) During ventricular ejection, A) the ventricles are in systole. B) the QRS complex is just starting. C) the semilunar valves are closed. D) the AV valves are open. E) blood is forced into veins.

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 61) Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle results in A) the formation of cAMP. B) decreased rate of contraction. C) decreased force of cardiac contraction. D) increased sensitivity to acetylcholine. E) All of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match each term with its definition. A. cardiac output (CO) B. heart rate (HR) C. end-diastolic volume (EDV) D. stroke volume (SV) E. end-systolic volume (ESV) 74) the volume of blood circulated by the heart in one minute

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 57) The term that describes the volume of blood circulated by the heart in one minute is A) cardiac output (CO). B) heart rate (HR). C) end-diastolic volume (EDV). D) stroke volume (SV). E) end-systolic volume (ESV).

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 138) Drugs known as calcium channel blockers can be used to A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction. B) increase blood pressure. C) constrict the coronary arteries. D) increase sympathetic stimulation of the myocardium. E) increase stroke volume.

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 135) Sympathetic stimulation increases the heart rate by A) just increasing ion influx, thus increasing the rate of depolarization. B) just increasing the permeability to Ca2+. C) just increasing the permeability to K+. D) just decreasing the permeability to Ca2+. E) increasing the permeability to K+ and decreasing the permeability to Ca2+.

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 136) In which situation would the stroke volume be the greatest? A) when venous return is increased B) when venous return is decreased C) when the force of contraction is decreased D) when the difference between the end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume is small E) when calcium channel blockers are present

: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 62) Antibodies in breast milk protect a newborn baby from pathogens.

: A Section Title: The Immune Response Learning Outcome: 24.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 63) Infected cells are killed by perforin and granzymes.

: A Section Title: The Immune Response Learning Outcome: 24.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 36) A parasitic condition resulting in extreme enlargement of one or both legs is called A) elephantiasis. B) elephantitis. C) elephantosis. D) ascites.

: A Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 76) Malnutrition can cause edema because A) there are not enough nutrients for plasma protein synthesis. B) interstitial protein levels are lower than plasma protein levels. C) the resulting anemia increases blood pressure. D) there are not enough nutrients for plasma protein synthesis and interstitial protein levels are lower than plasma protein levels. E) All of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 17) The motor end plate is A) a folded area of muscle cell membrane with ACh receptors clustered at the top of each fold. B) the same as the neuromuscular junction. C) the same as the synaptic cleft. D) formed by the membrane of enlarged axon terminals, or boutons, that lie on the surface of skeletal muscle cells. E) a special fibrous matrix whose collagen fibers hold the axon terminal in proper position.

: A Section Title: The Motor Division Learning Outcome: 11.4

33) In the lungs, the A) blood flow rate is higher and the blood pressure is lower, respectively, than the blood flow rate and the blood pressure in other tissues. B) blood flow rate is higher and the blood pressure is higher, respectively, than the blood flow rate and the blood pressure in other tissues. C) blood flow rate is lower and the blood pressure is lower, respectively, than the blood flow rate and the blood pressure in other tissues. D) blood flow rate is lower and the blood pressure is higher, respectively, than the blood flow rate and the blood pressure in other tissues. E) blood flow rate and the blood pressure are the same as in other tissues.

: A Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.14

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 34) The distance between the alveolar airspace and capillary endothelium is ________, allowing gases to diffuse ________ between them. A) short, rapidly B) long, rapidly C) short, slowly D) long, slowly E) None of the answers are correct-distance does not affect diffusion rate.

: A Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 24) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) lungs. D) alveoli. E) All of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 31) Total cross-sectional area ________ with each division of the airways. A) increases B) decreases C) does not change

: A Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 15) Which of the following features of the alveolar sacs allows for the ease of diffusion of gasses? A) They are made of a single layer of simple squamous epithelium. B) Type II alveolar cells secrete surfactant. C) Elastin fibers allow the alveoli to stretch thin enough for diffusion to occur. D) They are made of a single layer of simple squamous epithelium and elastin fibers allow the alveoli to stretch thin enough for diffusion to occur.

: A Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) Ventilation is also known as A) breathing. B) inspiration. C) expiration. D) air conduction. E) blowing.

: A Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 14) Type I alveolar cells A) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes. B) secrete a chemical known as surfactant. C) are phagocytic. D) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes, secrete a chemical known as surfactant, and are phagocytic. E) None of the statements are true.

: A Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.2

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 32) Blood vessels cover approximately ________% of the alveolar surface. A) 80-90 B) 10-20 C) > 90 D) < 10 E) 50

: A Section Title: The Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 17.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 48) any value other than 0 mV, regardless of relationship to resting potential

: A Section Title: The Resting Membrane Potential Learning Outcome: 5.11

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 85) The cell membrane acts as a good A) electrical insulator. B) electrical conductor. C) electrical gradient. D) source of ions.

: A Section Title: The Resting Membrane Potential Learning Outcome: 5.11

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 17) A technique used to resolve contradictory results in scientific studies is A) meta-analysis. B) retrospective analysis. C) prospective analysis. D) cross-sectional analysis. E) longitudinal analysis.

: A Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.10

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 32) You want to display data on the finish times of the 10 fastest race horses in a single race at the Kentucky Derby. What type of graph would be best to display this information? A) bar graph B) line graph C) scatter plot

: A Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) "Glucose is transported from blood into cells by transporters in response to insulin." This type of explanation is A) mechanistic. B) theological. C) teleological. D) metalogical. E) scatological.

: A Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 8) Which of the following is one of Cannon's "internal secretions"? A) hormones B) nutrients C) water D) inorganic ions E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 13) A physician basing clinical decisions on primary research published in biomedical literature is doing ________ medicine. A) evidence-based B) traditional C) alternative D) whimsical E) holistic

: A Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 48) sensory fibers enter this part of the "H"

: A Section Title: The Spinal Cord Learning Outcome: 9.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 83) ventral horn

: A Section Title: The Spinal Cord Learning Outcome: 9.3

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 64) The term meaning a mitotic population of cells that persists into adulthood applies to A) stem cells. B) totipotent cells. C) apoptosis. D) nurse cells. E) gametocytes.

: A Section Title: Tissue Remodeling Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 55) Due to the fact that they divide frequently, epithelia are prone to the genetic mutations associated with cancer. A) True B) False

: A Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 52) Glands that secrete hormones into the blood via tissue fluids are A) endocrine glands. B) mixed glands. C) exocrine glands. D) unicellular glands. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 54) Every substance that enters or leaves the internal environment of the body must cross an epithelium. A) True B) False

: A Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 117) Close examination of an organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not contain any blood vessels, and one surface of the cells faces the internal cavity of the organ. This tissue is probably A) epithelium. B) muscle tissue. C) connective tissue. D) neural tissue. E) fat tissue.

: A Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) The five functional types of epithelia are listed below. Match each type with its location and/or description. A. exchange B. transport C. ciliated D. protective E. secretory 130) These thin, flattened cells allow the rapid passage of O2 and CO2 through the cells of the lungs and of certain blood vessels.

: A Section Title: Tissues of the Body Learning Outcome: 3.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 33) the movement of molecules against the concentration gradient

: A Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 32) the movement of molecules via proteins embedded in the cell membrane; requires ATP

: A Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 11) Which of the following is a way for solutes in an aqueous solution to move from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low solute concentration? A) only facilitated diffusion B) only osmosis C) only active transport D) both facilitated diffusion and osmosis E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 42) movement from the extracellular fluid into the lumen of an organ

: A Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Pulmonary ventilation refers to the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. C) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space. D) movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells. E) utilization of oxygen.

: A Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 36) An increase in PCO2 would cause A) the bronchioles to dilate and the systemic arterioles to dilate. B) the bronchioles to dilate and the systemic arterioles to constrict. C) the bronchioles to constrict and the systemic arterioles to dilate. D) the bronchioles to constrict and the systemic arterioles to constrict. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.13

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the change in gas composition with the response (disregard weak responses). A. PO2 increases. B. PCO2 increases. C. PO2 decreases. D. PCO2 decreases. 90) Arterioles: systemic constrict, pulmonary dilate.

: A Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.13

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the type of breathing with its description. A. hyperpnea B. hyperventilation C. tachypnea D. dyspnea E. apnea 87) increased respiratory rate and/or volume due to increased metabolism

: A Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.15

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 18) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, A) the volume of the thorax increases. B) the volume of the thorax decreases. C) the volume of the lungs decreases. D) the lungs collapse. E) expiration occurs.

: A Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.2

81) Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will A) increase the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli. B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood. C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli. D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli. E) have no effect on either the partial pressure or diffusion rate of gases.

: A Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.4

: A Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the lung volume with its description. A. tidal volume B. inspiratory reserve volume C. expiratory reserve volume D. residual volume 43) the amount of air taken in during a single normal inspiration

: A Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.5

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 76) During normal expiration, A) elastic recoil of stretched muscles helps return the thorax to its resting volume. B) the internal intercostal muscles are required. C) the abdominal muscles become involved. D) elastic recoil of stretched muscles helps return the thorax to its resting volume and the internal intercostal muscles are required. E) elastic recoil of stretched muscles helps return the thorax to its resting volume, the internal intercostal muscles are required, and the abdominal muscles become involved.

: A Section Title: Ventilation Learning Outcome: 17.8

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 19) Caveolae and clathrin-coated pits are both used in A) endocytosis. B) exocytosis. C) phagocytosis. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Vesicular Transport Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 74) Pinocytosis and potocytosis are types of A) endocytosis. B) exocytosis. C) phagocytosis. D) endocytosis and exocytosis. E) exocytosis and phagocytosis.

: A Section Title: Vesicular Transport Learning Outcome: 5.5

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 63) Dan has been lost in the desert for two days with very little water. As a result, you would expect to observe A) elevated ADH levels. B) decreased blood osmolarity. C) normal urine production. D) increased blood volume. E) cells enlarged with fluid.

: A Section Title: Water Balance Learning Outcome: 20.1

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 35) The osmolarity in the deepest part of the loop of Henle is ________ mOsM. A) 1200 B) 100 C) 300 D) 900 E) None of these answers are correct.

: A Section Title: Water Balance Learning Outcome: 20.12

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 11) The hormone that directly controls water excretion by the kidneys is A) ADH. B) aldosterone. C) epinephrine. D) ANP. E) angiotensin.

: A Section Title: Water Balance Learning Outcome: 20.2

: A Section Title: The Science of Physiology Learning Outcome: 1.1

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 122) Explain what a concentration gradient is and how it assists a cell in doing its work.

: A concentration gradient is a difference in concentration of a particular molecule between the cytosol of a cell and the interstitial fluid. A concentration gradient represents potential energy because of the tendency of molecules to diffuse from areas of high to areas of low concentration. Section Title: Energy in Biological Systems Learning Outcome: 4.1

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 115) Provide the basic physics definition of the term fluid. What is bulk flow relative to body compartments? What types of matter move by bulk flow? What is fundamentally different in the behavior of these types of matter?

: A fluid is a substance that flows. Bulk flow is movement of a fluid, usually within a body compartment. Liquids and gases are fluids, and they flow. Gases are compressible, but liquids are not. Section Title: Transport Processes Learning Outcome: 5.1

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 89) Describe a lumbar puncture and explain its purpose.

: A lumbar puncture, also called a spinal tap, samples the cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space at the lower end of the spinal cord. This procedure is performed to sample the chemical environment of the brain and test for infection. An infection is indicated by proteins or blood cells found in the sample. Section Title: Anatomy of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 9.5

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 206) A compound action potential is recorded using electrodes on a nerve. How does a nerve differ from an axon? Amplitude and duration of a compound action potential vary according to the stimulus intensity applied to the nerve. Given that there is no such variation in the action potential of a single axon, how can you explain this?

: A nerve consists of many axons. A regular action potential is produced by a single axon, whereas a compound action potential is recorded by equipment from a nerve when multiple axons are producing action potentials, and the voltages add together. Increasing stimulus intensity increases the number of axons contributing to the compound action potential. This is because different axons have different threshold voltages, so increasing the voltage stimulates a larger number of axons. Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons Learning Outcome: 8.3

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 107) Describe how a virus is eliminated in an immune response.

: A virus in the plasma may be eliminated due to antibody action (see the "Antibodies Have Multiple Functions" section in the chapter). Host cells containing viruses are killed by cytotoxic T cells, through the action of perforin, granzymes, and a "death receptor" all of which lead to apoptosis. Section Title: Immune Response Pathways Learning Outcome: 24.16

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 137) How does the beta cell in the pancreas react to release insulin when glucose levels are low?

: ATP dependent potassium gates keep the insulin releasing channels closed when there is enough glucose getting into the cell. When glucose levels drop and the amount of ATP the beta cell is making drops, it eventually loses the energy to keep the gates closed, therefore opening and allowing insulin to be released into the blood. Section Title: Integrated Membrane Processes: Insulin Secretion Learning Outcome: 5.14

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 92) What are the advantages of using ATP as the energy-transferring molecule in a cell?

: ATP easily acquires the energy stored in complex biomolecules such as carbohydrates and its phosphate bonds are readily broken to release energy. Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 71) The activity of metabolic pathways is influenced by the ratio of ________.

: ATP to ADP Section Title: Metabolism Learning Outcome: 4.4

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 134) You are studying the toxic effects of a newly discovered tropical plant extract. From preliminary studies, it appears that the toxin prevents H+-dependent membrane transport. Explain which digestive processes may thus be impaired.

: Absorption of some amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides may be impaired, as well as iron and sodium absorption, because these are dependent upon an H+ exchanger or cotransporter. HCl secretion into the stomach, which acidifies the lumen for protein digestion, may also be impaired. Section Title: Digestive Function and Processes Learning Outcome: 21.5

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 128) Erica came down with the flu. She experienced severe vomiting, determined to be primarily stomach contents, for three days, and now is having chest pains. She is calling one of her symptoms "heartburn," but reported that it felt as if she had swallowed a small apple whole. Certain that she was having a heart attack, Erica rushed to the doctor. The doctor took her history and symptoms, and reassured her that she only had esophagitis. How did the physician conclude this? Is her blood pH higher or lower than normal?

: Acid reflux irritated the esophageal lining, causing it to swell. Her pH is higher than normal due to loss of H+ from her stomach. Section Title: Anatomy of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 21.1

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 136) Chronic inflammation of the pancreas, or pancreatitis, impairs the digestive functions of this organ. What would be the effect on digestion and absorption of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins if acinar cells are impaired? What if duct cells are impaired? Which hormones may be used to treat pancreatitis?

: Acinar cells secrete digestive enzymes for all three classes of molecule, therefore nutrient digestion and consequent absorption would be decreased. Duct cells secrete bicarbonate, which counteracts the acidic nature of the chyme entering from the stomach and allows the pancreatic enzymes to function. The loss of these cells would also decrease digestion and absorption of the three classes of nutrient. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion and secretin stimulates bicarbonate secretion. Section Title: Secretion Learning Outcome: 21.11

: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 207) Explain the processes that lead to the exocytosis of neurotransmitter from a presynaptic cell. Which components are recycled? Which ion is important in triggering exocytosis?

: Action potential arrives in synaptic terminal, and stimulates opening of voltage-regulated calcium channels. The resulting calcium influx triggers exocytosis of synaptic vesicle contents. The phospholipids of the vesicle membranes are recycled, either from fusion of vesicles then later formation of new vesicles from the same molecules; or from the kiss-and-run model, in which the vesicle phospholipids are not incorporated into the membrane at all, but remain as vesicles that can be refilled with neurotransmitter. Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 153) When more action potentials arrive at the axon terminal, how is the postsynaptic cell affected? A) Neurotransmitter release increases, but does not change the graded potentials that follow. B) Neurotransmitter release does not change, thus the postsynaptic cell behaves the same way it always behaves. C) Neurotransmitter release increases, thereby increasing the frequency or magnitude of graded potentials in the postsynaptic cell. D) Neurotransmitter release does not change, but voltages applied to the postsynaptic cell increase.

: C Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.6

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 65) The site of information integration in the nervous system is the A) chemical synapse. B) electrical synapse. C) trigger zone. D) dendritic membrane. E) axon terminal.

: C Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 8.9

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 13) The multiple thin, branched structures on a neuron whose main function is to receive incoming signals are the A) cell bodies. B) axons. C) dendrites. D) somata. E) None of the answers are correct.