Practice ARRT test
Which clinical manifestation is NOT associated with acute abdominal distress? A. Rigid Abdomen B. Extreme diarrhea C. Nausea/Vomiting D. Extreme thirst
B. Extreme diarrhea Rigid abdomen, extreme thrust, nausea and vomiting are signs the radiographer must recognize and respond to. Extreme diarrhea, his NOT a sign of acute distress but another underlying process potentially related to a disease process of food poisoning.
What does bit depth describe? A. Pixel density B. Grayscale availability C. FOV D. Matrix size
B. Grayscale availability Bit depth describes that available grayscale for image acquisition and display.
A hospital worker who discloses confidential patient information to unauthorized individuals can be found guilty of? A. Libel B. Invasion of privacy C. Slander D. Defamation
B. Invasion of privacy Defamation is the action of damaging the good reputation of a patient. Spoken defamation is known as slander; written defamation is known as libel.
The term parenteral refers to which oft the following medication routes? A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Mucosal D. Other, except alimentary
D. Other, except alimentary Medication is administered parenterally when it cannot be given by mouth. Examples of parenteral route are: intravenous, intramuscular, or intracardiac. The speed of absorption varies with route use.
Which of the following factors can affect the amount or nature of radiation damage to biological tissue? 1. radiation quality 2. absorbed dose 3. size of irradiated area A. 2,3 B. 3 only C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3
D. 1,2,3 The larger the absorbed dose, the greater the effect. Biologic effect is increased as size of the irradiated area is increased. The nature of the effect is influenced by the type of tissue (bone marrow, gonads, etc).
Sources of secondary radiation include 1. Background radiation 2. Leakage radiation 3. Scatter radiation 4. Cosmic radiation A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,4 C. 3,4 D. 2,3
D. 2,3 Leakage and scatter radiation are considered secondary radiation. Leakage radiation can be emitted with a defect exists in the tube housing. Scatter radiation is generated within, and emitted from the patient.
Which of the following exposure factors would provide the least ionizing radiation dose to the patient? A. 200 mA, 0.4 sec, 70kVp, 100 Screen Speed, 12:1 Grid B. 400 mA, 0.2 sec, 80 kVp, 200 Screen Speed, 8:1 Grid C. 600 mA, 0.2 sec, 70 kVp, 200 Screen Speed, 5:1 Grid D. 800 mA, 0.1 sec, 90 kVp, 400 Screen Speed, 6:1 Grid
D. 800 mA, 0.1 sec, 90 kVp, 400 Screen Speed, 6:1 Grid The first step in solving the equation is to: 1. Solve for milliamperage-seconds 2. The lowest kVp and the lowest mAs would cause the lowest patient dose because dose directly increases with mAs and exponentially with kVp. Doubling the mAs would double the dose to the patient. Doubling the kVp would result in four times greater dose to the patient.
Grid ratio is defined as the relationship between the height of the lead strip and the: A. Angle of the lead strip B. Width of the lead strip C. Number of lead strips per inch D. Distance between the lead strips
D. Distance between the lead strips The ratio of the height of the lead strips to the distance between the lead strip. Grid frequency refers to the number of lead strips per inch.
Collimator tests must be made to be accurate within: A. 2 inches B. 2% of the SID C. 2% of OID D. 2 mm
B. 2% of the SID
Which of the following are advantages of 35mm cine film over 16mm cine film? 1. Less expensive and easier to handle 2. Larger filming area results in higher resolution 3. Permits the recording of more information 4. All of the above A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 4
B. 2,3
Which part of the X-ray tube describes the negative side of the tube and has two primary parts: a filament and a focusing cup? A. Anode B. Cathode C. Grid D. Anode target
B. Cathode The cathode is the negative side of the X-ray tube and has two primary parts:a filament and focusing cup. The focusing cup is a metal piece that surrounds the filament.
Which of the following is true if the matrix size is increased yet the FOV (field of view) remains unchanged? 1. Pixel size decreases 2. Pixel size increases 3. Resolution decreases 4. Resolution increases A. 1,4 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 2,4
A. 1,4 As the matrix size increases, there are more pixel distributed over the area. A s a result, the pixels will be smaller and smaller pixels give better resolution.
A quality control (QC) program is for: 1. Addressing patient care problems 2. Film processors 3. X-ray equipment 4. CT scanners A. 2,3,4 B. 1,3,4 C. 1 only D. 1,2,3,4
A. 2,3,4 A quality control program is for all instrument and equipment. A quality assurance program is addressing patient care.
To demonstrate the apophyseal joints of the lumbar vertebrae within AP projection, the patient is rotated how many degrees? A. 45 B. 30 C. 50 C. 15
A. 45 To demonstrate the apophyseal joints on a oblique projection of the lumbar vertebrae, rotate the body 45 degrees towards the side being examined. The 45 degree angle should demonstrate the lumbar articular facets closer to the image receptor. If the fifth articular facet is in question, an additional view with a 30 degree rotation should be obtained.
A optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimetry system would use which of the following crystals? A. Aluminum oxide B. Sodium thiosulfate C. Litium fluoride D. Silver halide
A. Aluminum oxide Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeters uses aluminum oxide. The method makes use of electrons trapped between the valence and conduction bands in the crystalline structure of certain types of matter (such as quartz, feldspar, and aluminum oxide). Trapping sites are imperfections of the lattice-impurities or defects. The OSL dosimeter provides a new degree of sensitivity by giving an accurate reading as low as 1mrem for x-ray and gamma ray photons with energies ranging from 5keV to greater than 40 MeV. The OSL dosimeter's max equivalent dose measurement for x-ray and gamma ray photons is 1000 rem. For beta particles with energies from 150 keV to in excess of 10 MeV, dose measurement ranges from 10mrem to 1000 rem. In diagnostic imaging the increased sensitivity of the OSL dosimeter makes it ideal for monitoring employees working in low radiation environments and for pregnant workers.
Which is the best way to control voluntary motion? A. Instruction the patient to suspend their respiration B. Immobilization C. Using short exposure time D. Physical restraint
A. Instructing the patient to suspend their respiration Motion has a negative effect on radiographic detail. Even the slightest movement can cause unsharpness of the radiograph. Instructing the patient to hold the breath and suspend respiration is ineffective means of reducing voluntary motion.
What is the relationship of LET and biological damage? A. They increase in direct proportion. B. They are inversely proportional. C. There is no relationship. D. There is a nonlinear nonthreshold relationship.
A. They increase in direct proportion. The LET refers to the linear energy transfer, the amount of energy transferred by ionizing radiation per unit length of tissue traveled. LET is variable between radiation types. High-ionization radiation, including neutrons and alpha particles, cause more biological damage than radiation with a lower LET, including x-rays and gamma rays.
Involuntary motion may be caused by which of the following? 1. Peristalsis 2. Pain 3. Spasm 4. Breathing A. 1,2,4 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,2,3 D. 2,3,4
C. 1,2,3 Severe pain and muscle spasms cause involuntary movements. Peristaltic activity of the G.I tract is also uncontrollable by the patient.
Which of the following is the most likely site for a lumbar puncture? A. At the level of S 1-2 B. At the level of L 1-2 C. At the level of L 3-4 D. At the level of C 6-7
C. At the level of L 3-4 A lumbar puncture can help diagnose serious infections such as meningitis; disorders of the central nervous system, such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, and multiple sclerosis, or cancers of the brain or spinal cord. Sometimes doctors use lumbar puncture to inject anesthetic medications or chemotherapy drugs into the cerebrospinal fluid. A spinal needle is inserted between the lumbar vertebrae of L3/L4 or L5/S1
High-velocity electrons (e-) that completely avoid the orbital electrons as they pass through a tungsten atom, yet come close enough to the nucleus of the atom to come under the influence of its positively charged electric field (P+), will produce what type of X-rays? A. Characteristic B. Compton C. Bremsstrahlung C. Thompson
C. Bremsstrahlung X-rays Bremsstrahlung literally means "braking". When a high-velocity electron passes through a tungsten atom, avoiding the electrons, yet coming close enough to the nucleus to be affected by the positively charged electric field of the nucleus, the change of direction, or braking, causes a release of x-rays known as Bremsstrahlung.
What actions must a radiographer perform when their adult patient is experiencing either cardiac or respiratory arrest? A. All of the answers provided B. Call a code C. Call a code and begin CPR D. Assess the brachial pulse in adults E. Begin CPR
C. Call a code and begin CPR In an adult patient the carotid pulse is the first location to palpate. If the pulse is difficult to feel, the next location is the femoral pulse. In infants, the brachial pulse is the correct location.
Increasing kVp of an x-ray beam will result in the photons having: A. Increased velocity B. Longer wavelength C. Lower frequency D. Shorter wavelength
D. Shorter wavelength The energy of the x-rays is controlled by the high voltage kVp. When the kVp is increased, the x-ray photons that are produced have a shorter wavelength, and thus have higher energy. This is an inversely proportional relationship.
Which skull position is most useful to demonstrate the sphenoid sinuses? A. AP axial B. Lateral C. Parietoacanthal D. Caldwell E. Submentovertical
E. Submentovertical The submentovertical projection is used to demonstrate the cranial base for the basal foramina, the bony portion of the Eustachian tubes, and the sphenoid sinuses. The study is performed with the patient's head resting on the vertex. The CR is perpendicular to the IOML. The AP axial and PA axial or Caldwell view is used to demonstrate the occipital region of the skull and can be used to evaluate the sellar region. The parietoacanthal projection demonstrates the facial bones. The lateral projection is part of the routine skull series.