Prep U Brunner 28: Structural, Infectious, Inflammatory Cardiac Disorders
The nurse determines that a client recently diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis understands discharge teaching upon which client statement?
"I have to call my doctor so I can get antibiotics before seeing the dentist." Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for high-risk clients immediately before and sometimes after dental procedures.
A client with infective endocarditis is assessed by the nurse for the presence of Janeway lesions. On inspection, the nurse recognizes these lesions by identifying which characteristic sign?
Red or purple macules found on the palms of the hands Janeway lesions are painless, red or purple macules found on the palms and soles.
A client with a confirmed DVT is being discharged from the ED. Which client statement indicates that the client has received proper nursing instruction and understands how to manage this condition?
"I need to do my leg exercises five times or more every hour." Exercise prevents venous stasis by promoting venous circulation, relieves swelling, and reduces pain. Promoting venous blood flow prevents the formation of thrombi and subsequent potential for emboli in the unaffected extremity. Bending the knees is contraindicated for a client with DVT because it interferes with venous circulation and may increase the size of the existing clot or contribute to the formation of additional thrombi. Clients with DVT should apply warm, moist compresses to the area of discomfort because warmth dilates blood vessels, improves circulation, and relieves swelling, all of which relieve discomfort; moist heat is more comforting than dry heat. Adequate fluid volume dilutes blood cells in plasma and reduces the risk for platelet aggregation.
A nurse working at a pediatric clinic is teaching a group of parents. A parent asks the nurse if it is okay to let the young child recover from a sore throat naturally, rather than bringing the child to the clinic for diagnosis and treatment. What is the nurse's best response?
"It may be streptococcal sore throat. Rheumatic heart disease can be prevented with early treatment." A sore throat may be streptoccocal pharyngitis. Diagnosing and treating the sore throat can prevent rheumatic fever and, therefore, rheumatic heart disease. Letting children recover naturally can be dangerous if the sore throat is a strotococcal infection. The use of antibiotics is considered by each prescribing heath care provider. General statements about treatments are not helpful.
A nurse and a nursing student are performing a physical assessment of a client with pericarditis. The client has an audible pericardial friction rub on auscultation. When leaving the room, the student asks the nurse what causes the sound. The nurse's best response is which of the following?
"The pericardial surfaces lose their lubricating fluid because of inflammation and rub against each other." A pericardial friction rub occurs when the pericardial surfaces lose their lubricating fluid due to inflammation. The rub is audible on auscultation and is synchronous with the heartbeat. The layers of the heart never become loose from each other. The great vessels are not in contact with the inside of the pericardium, where the inflammation is located. The lungs have nothing to do with a pericardial friction rub.
A nurse is teaching a client about valve replacement surgery. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the benefit of an autograft replacement valve?
"The valve is made from my own heart valve, and I will not need to take any blood-thinning drugs when I am discharged." Autografts (i.e., autologous valves) are obtained by excising the client's own pulmonic valve and a portion of the pulmonary artery for use as the aortic valve. Anticoagulation is unnecessary because the valve is the client's own tissue and is not thrombogenic. The autograft is an alternative for children (it may grow as the child grows), women of childbearing age, young adults, clients with a history of peptic ulcer disease, and people who cannot tolerate anticoagulation. Aortic valve autografts have remained viable for more than 20 years.
A client who had a prosthetic valve replacement was taking warfarin to reduce the risk of postoperative thrombosis. The client visited the nurse at a clinic once a week. What INR level would alert the nurse to notify the health care provider?
3.8 Warfarin patients usually have individualized target international normalized ratios (INRs) between 2 to 3.5 to maintain adequate anticoagulation. Levels below 2 to 2.5 can result in insufficient anticoagulation and levels greater than 3.5 can result in dangerous and prolonged anticoagulation.
The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a client with a mechanical valve replacement. The client's international normalized ratio is 2.7. What action will the nurse take?
Administer the medication as ordered. Patients with mechanical valve replacements who take warfarin usually have individualized target international normalized ratios (INRs) between 2.0 and 3.5. The nurse would give the medication as ordered. There is no need to adminsiter the antidote vitamin K. The medication should not be held because the INR is normal. The client should not have bleeding with the normal INR.
Which would the nurse stress as a lifelong necessity for a client managing infective endocarditis?
Antibiotic therapy The nurse informs the client that periodic antibiotic therapy is a lifelong necessity because the client will be vulnerable to diseases for the rest of his life. Antihypertensive therapy is not always prescribed. Limited activity is stressed. Potassium replacement is typical when combined with diuretic therapy.
The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with pericarditis. What serious complication should this patient be monitored for?
Cardiac tamponade The inflammatory process of pericarditis may lead to an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac (pericardial effusion) and increased pressure on the heart, leading to cardiac tamponade (see Chapter 29).
The nurse is admitting a patient to the cardiac care unit with complaints of dyspnea on exertion and fatigue. The patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) shows dysrhythmias associated with left ventricular hypertrophy. What diagnostic tool would be the most helpful in diagnosing cardiomyopathy?
Echocardiogram The echocardiogram is one of the most helpful diagnostic tools because the structure and function of the ventricles can be observed easily. ECG demonstrated dysrhythmias and changes consistent with left ventricular hypertrophy. A cardiac catheterization, ABGs, and Swan-Ganz analysis would not be helpful in diagnosing cardiomyopathy.
A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage cardiomyopathy and the client's spouse asks the nurse to clarify one of the last treatment options available that the health care provider mentioned earlier. What option will the nurse most likely discuss?
Left ventricular assist device When heart failure progresses and medical treatment is no longer effective, surgical intervention, including heart transplantation, is considered. Because of the limited number of organ donors, many clients die waiting. In some cases, a left ventricular assist device is implanted to support the failing heart until a suitable donor becomes available. The other three choices have to do with failing valves and valve repairs.
A client is diagnosed with pericarditis. What symptom will be the nurse's priority for treatment?
acute pain Pain is the primary symptom of the client with pericarditis. Pain relief and the absence of complications are two major nursing goals.The client may have anxiety, fatigue, or denial, but these symptoms are not the nurse's priority for care.
Which describes a valve used in replacement surgery that is made from the client's own heart valve?
autograft An example of an autograft is when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement. An allograft, also called a homograft, refers to replacement using human tissue. Xenograft refers to animal tissue used in tissue replacement
The nurse is assessing a client admitted with acute left-sided infective endocarditis. What is the best diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?
blood cultures A definitive diagnosis of acute left-sided infective endocarditis is made when a micro-organism is found in two separate blood cultures. A complete blood count, urinalysis, and a transesophageal echocardiogram may contribute to the diagnosis, but are not the most definitive diagnostic tests for endocarditis.
A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage cardiomyopathy and the client's spouse asks the nurse to clarify one of the last treatment options available that the health care provider mentioned. What is considered to be one of the last treatments for end-stage cardiomyopathy?
heart transplantation When heart failure progresses and medical treatment is no longer effective, surgical intervention, including heart transplantation, is considered. The other three choices have to do with failing valves and valve repairs.
Which type of graft is used when a heart valve replacement is made of tissue from an animal heart valve?
heterograft Heterograft, also called bioprosthesis, refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue, usually pigs but also cows or horses. An autograft is a heart valve replacement made from the client's own heart valve. Allograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for homograft.
If a client were to develop rheumatic carditis, which cardiac structure would most likely be affected?
mitral valve In rheumatic carditis, cardiac structures that usually are affected include the heart valves (particularly the mitral valve), endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium.
During a teaching session, a client who is having a valuloplasty tomorrow asks the nurse about the difference between a mechanical valve replacement and a tissue valve. What answer from the nurse is correct?
"A mechanical valve is thought to be more durable and so requires replacement less often." Mechanical valves are thought to be more durable than tissue valves and so require replacement less often. Tissue valves are less likely to generate blood clots and so long-term anticoagulation therapy is not required. Homografts (human valves) are not always available and are very expensive.
The nurse obtains a health history from a client with a prosthetic heart valve and new symptoms of infective endocarditis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate to ask?
"Have you been to the dentist recently?" Invasive procedures, particularly those involving mucosal surfaces (e.g., those involving manipulation of gingival tissue or periapical regions of teeth), can cause a bacteremia, which rarely lasts more than 15 minutes. However, if a client has any anatomic cardiac defects or implanted cardiac devices (e.g., prosthetic heart valve, pacemaker, implantable cardioverter defibrillator), bacteremia can cause bacterial endocarditis.
While assessing a patient with pericarditis, the nurse cannot auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?
Ask the patient to lean forward and listen again. The most characteristic sign of pericarditis is a creaky or scratchy friction rub heard most clearly at the left lower sternal border. Having the patient lean forward and to the left uses gravity to force the heart nearer to the chest wall, which allows the friction rub to be heard. These assessment data are not life-threatening and do not require a call to the health care provider. The nurse should try multiple times to auscultate the friction rub before deciding that the rub is gone. Chest tubes are not the treatment of choice for not hearing friction rubs.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy following a mechanical valve replacement. The client had a prothrombin time and International Normalized Ratio (INR) drawn before breakfast. The laboratory report shows the client's INR reading was 4. What is the nurse's first priority ?
Assess the client for bleeding and notify the health care provider of the results. For a client taking warfarin following a valve replacement, the INR should be between 2 and 3.5. The nurse should notify the health care provider of an elevated INR level and communicate assessment data regarding possible bleeding. The nurse shouldn't administer medication such as warfarin or vitamin K without a health care provider's order. The nurse should notify the health care provider before holding a medication scheduled to be administered during another shift.
A nurse evaluates a client and suspects pericarditis. What indicator is considered the most characteristic symptom of pericarditis?
Chest pain The most characteristic symptom of pericarditis is chest pain. The pain is typically persistent, sharp, pleuritic, and usually felt in the mid chest, although it also may be located beneath the clavicle, in the neck, or in the left trapezius region. The discomfort is usually fairly constant, but is aggravated by deep inspiration, coughing, lying down, or turning. It may be relieved with a forward-leaning or sitting position.
Which procedure describes splitting or separating fused cardiac valve leaflets?
Commissurotomy Commissurotomy is frequently used to repair mitral stenosis. Annuloplasty refers to repair of a cardiac valve's outer ring. Chordoplasty refers to repair of the chordae tendineae of atrioventricular valve leaflets. Valvuloplasty is a general term that refers to repair of a stenosed or regurgitant cardiac valve by commissurotomy, annuloplasty, leaflet repair, and/or chordoplasty.
The nurse determines that a patient has a characteristic symptom of pericarditis. What symptom does the nurse recognize as significant for this diagnosis?
Constant chest pain The most characteristic symptom of pericarditis is chest pain, although pain also may be located beneath the clavicle, in the neck, or in the left trapezius (scapula) region. Pain or discomfort usually remains fairly constant, but it may worsen with deep inspiration and when lying down or turning.
During assessment of a client admitted for cardiomyopathy, the nurse notes the following symptoms: dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, fluid retention, and nausea. The initial appropriate nursing diagnosis is which of the following?
Decreased cardiac output A primary nursing diagnosis for cardiomyopathy is decreased cardiac output related to structural disorders caused by cardiomyopathy or to dysrhythmia from the disease process and medical treatments. Dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, and fluid retention are related to poor cardiac output. Nausea is related to poor perfusion of the gastrointestinal system. Autonomic dysreflexia is related to a spinal cord injury. Ineffective airway clearance relates to the inability to clear secretions from the airway, which is not an initial problem with cardiomyopathy. Disturbed sensory perception is related to specific senses and not to initial cardiomyopathy.
Clients with myocarditis are sensitive to which medication?
Digoxin The nurse must closely monitor these clients for digoxin toxicity, which is evidenced by arrhythmia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and malaise. If the cause of the myocarditis is hemolytic streptococci, penicillin will be given. The use of corticosteroids remains controversial.
A client is admitted to the hospital with possible acute pericarditis and pericardial effusion. The nurse knows to prepare the client for which diagnostic test to confirm the client's diagnosis?
Echocardiography Echocardiography is useful in detecting the presence of pericardial effusions associated with pericarditis. An echocardiogram may detect inflammation, pericardial effusion, tamponade, and heart failure. It may help confirm the diagnosis.
A client reporting heart palpitations is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation caused by mitral valve prolapse. To relieve the symptoms, the nurse should teach the client which dietary intervention?
Eliminate caffeine and alcohol To minimize symptoms of mitral valve prolapse, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol. The nurse encourages the client to read product labels, particularly on over-the-counter products such as cough medicine, because these products may contain alcohol, caffeine, ephedrine, and adrenaline, which may produce arrhythmias and other symptoms. The nurse also explores possible diet, activity, sleep, and other lifestyle factors that may correlate with symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client with aortic stenosis whose compensatory mechanisms of the heart have begun to fail. The nurse will monitor the client carefully for which initial symptoms?
Exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, pulmonary edema When symptoms develop, clients with aortic stenosis usually first have exertional dyspnea, caused by increased pulmonary venous pressure from left heart failure. Orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, dizziness, and pulmonary edema may also occur. Nausea and vomiting may be signs of gastrointestinal congestion, but would be related to right heart failure, which does not occur initially with aortic stenosis.
The nurse is auscultating the heart of a client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse. Which is often the first and only manifestation of mitral valve prolapse?
Extra heart sound Often the first and only sign of mitral valve prolapse is identified when a physical examination of the heart reveals an extra heart sound, referred to as a mitral click. Fatigue, dizziness, and syncope are other symptoms of mitral valve prolapse.
A client is diagnosed with rheumatic endocarditis. What bacterium is the nurse aware causes this inflammatory response?
Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococcus Acute rheumatic fever, which occurs most often in school-age children, may develop after an episode of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis (Chart 28-2). Clients with rheumatic fever may develop rheumatic heart disease as evidenced by a new heart murmur, cardiomegaly, pericarditis, and heart failure.
Which common assessment question does the nurse use when admitting all clients that helps to screen for cardiomyopathy?
Have you ever had a close family member die unexpectedly? Having a client's close family member die unexpectedly can indicate cardiomyopathy. Many individuals with cardiomyopathy are asymptomatic with the disorder not discovered until the affected person becomes acutely ill or dies.
An adult client with a tentative diagnosis of infective endocarditis is admitted to an acute care facility. The medical history reveals diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and pernicious anemia. The client underwent an appendectomy 20 years earlier and an aortic valve replacement 2 years before this admission. What history finding is a major risk factor for infective endocarditis?
History of aortic valve replacement A heart valve prosthesis such as an aortic valve replacement is a major risk factor for infective endocarditis. Other risk factors include a history of heart disease (especially mitral valve prolapse), chronic debilitating disease, I.V. drug abuse, and immunosuppression. Although race, age, and a history of diabetes mellitus may predispose a person to cardiovascular disease, they aren't major risk factors for infective endocarditis.
In which type of cardiomyopathy does the heart muscle actually increase in size and mass weight, especially along the septum?
Hypertrophic Because of structural changes, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy had also been called idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis or asymmetric septal hypertrophy. Restrictive cardiomyopathy is characterized by diastolic dysfunction caused by rigid ventricular walls that impair ventricular stretch and diastolic filling. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy occurs when the myocardium of the right ventricle is progressively infiltrated and replaced by fibrous scar and adipose tissue.
A nurse reviewing a client's echocardiogram report reads the following statements: "The heart muscle is asymmetrically thickened and the overall size and mass are increased, especially along the septum. The ventricular walls are thickened, reducing the size of the ventricular cavities. Several areas of the myocardium show evidence of scaring." The nurse knows these manifestations are indicative of which type of cardiomyopathy?
Hypertrophic In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), the heart muscle asymmetrically increases in size and mass, especially along the septum. It often affects nonadjacent areas of the ventricle. The increased thickness of the heart muscle reduces the size of the ventricular cavities and causes the ventricles to take a longer time to relax after systole. The coronary arteriole walls are also thickened, which decreases the internal diameter of the arterioles. The narrow arterioles restrict the blood supply to the myocardium, causing numerous small areas of ischemia and necrosis. The necrotic areas of the myocardium ultimately fibrose and scar, further impeding ventricular contraction. Because of the structural changes, HCM had also been called idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) or asymmetric septal hypertrophy (ASH). Restrictive (or constrictive) cardiomyopathy (RCM) is characterized by diastolic dysfunction caused by rigid ventricular walls that impair ventricular stretch and diastolic filling. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) occurs when the myocardium of the right ventricle is progressively infiltrated and replaced by fibrous scar and adipose tissue.
The school nurse is providing care to a child with a sore throat. With any sign of throat infection, the nurse stresses which of the following?
Obtaining a throat culture When a child has a sore throat and symptoms of a possible infection occur, it is essential that a culture is obtained. A culture can identify group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, which needs to be eliminated with use of an antibiotic. Warm, salt gargles; increasing fluids; and administering antiseptic lozenges are helpful for symptom control. Obtaining a throat culture is a priority.
A client with a recent history of atrial fibrillation has been prescribed warfarin. What action will the nurse take to confirm safe dosing?
Review the client's international normalized ratio (INR). Warfarin doses are adjusted on the basis of the client's INR. Blood levels are not taken for the drug, and the client's heart rate is not the indicator of efficacy or safety.
A client comes to the clinic reporting fever, chills, and sore throat and is diagnosed with streptococcal pharyngitis. A nurse knows that early diagnosis and effective treatment is essential to avoid which preventable disease?
Rheumatic fever Rheumatic fever is a preventable disease. Diagnosing and effectively treating streptococcal pharyngitis can prevent rheumatic fever and thereby rheumatic heart disease.
A nurse is caring for a client with acute mitral regurgitation related to an acute myocardial infarction. The nurse knows to monitor the client carefully for symptoms of which initial complication or result?
Severe heart failure Acute mitral regurgitation usually manifests as severe congestive heart failure, resulting from blood flowing backward from the left ventricle to the left atria and eventually into the lungs. Kidney failure could become a problem later if cardiac output is too low, but not initially. CVA and an infarcted bowel would not be caused by mitral regurgitation.
A client with a myocardial infarction develops acute mitral valve regurgitation. The nurse knows to assess for which manifestation that would indicate that the client is developing pulmonary congestion?
Shortness of breath Chronic mitral regurgitation is often asymptomatic, but acute mitral regurgitation (e.g., resulting from a myocardial infarction) usually manifests as severe congestive heart failure. Dyspnea, fatigue, and weakness are the most common symptoms. Palpitations, shortness of breath upon exertion, and cough from pulmonary congestion also occur. A loud, blowing murmur often is heard throughout ventricular systole at the apex of the heart. Hypertension may develop when reduced cardiac output triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cycle. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism when stroke volume decreases.
Which symptom occurs in the client diagnosed with mitral regurgitation when pulmonary congestion occurs?
Shortness of breath f pulmonary congestion occurs, the client with mitral regurgitation develops shortness of breath. A loud, blowing murmur often is heard throughout ventricular systole at the apex of the heart. Hypertension may develop when reduced cardiac output triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cycle. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism when stroke volume decreases.
A nurse is caring for a client with pericarditis and auscultates a pericardial friction rub.What action does the nurse ask the client to do to distinguish a pericardial friction rub from a pleural friction rub?
The nurse asks the client to hold the breath during auscultation. A pericardial friction rub occurs when the pericardial surfaces lose their lubricating fluid as a result of inflammation. The audible rub on auscultation is synchronous with the heartbeat. To distinguish between a pleural rub and a pericardial rub, the client should hold the breath. The pericardial rub will continue. Length of auscultation and standing would not assist in distinguishing one kind of rub from the other.
The nurse is teaching a client with cardiomyopathy. Which statement is a valid teaching point?
The treatments include medications, medical devices, surgery, or transplantation. Treatments for clients with cardiomyopathy include medications, medical devices such as pacemakers, internal defibrillators, surgery or transplantation. The disease is not curable or reversible. Clients with cardiomyopathy do not need to live in a skilled facility. The main goal for clients with cardiomyopathy is to improve heart function.
A nurse is preparing a teaching plan regarding biological tissue valve replacement. What is a disadvantage of this type of valve replacement?
The valve has to be replaced frequently. Biological valves deteriorate and need to be replaced frequently. They do not necessitate accompanying anticoagulant therapy. Infections are easier to treat and the risk of thromboembolism is lower as compared with mechanical valves.
The nurse caring for a client with cardiomyopathy plans to have an education session with the client and the client's spouse about ways to improve cardiac output and reduce the workload of the heart. Which of the following instructions would help reduce preload?
When resting, sit up with the legs down to pool blood in the legs. Many clients find that sitting up with their legs down is more comfortable than lying in bed. This position is helpful in pooling venous blood in the periphery and reducing preload. Laying flat in bed impairs respiratory efforts due to abdominal contents pushing against the lungs. This client must be on a low sodium cardiac diet to avoid fluid retention. It is impossible to avoid all physical and emotional stress.
A nurse caring for a client with cardiomyopathy determines a diagnosis of anxiety related to a fear of death. Which behavior would indicate to the nurse recognizes that the client's level of anxiety has decreased when the client
is able to discuss the prognosis freely. As anxiety decreases, clients will be able to discuss prognosis freely, verbalize fears and concerns, participate in support groups, and demonstrate appropriate coping mechanisms.
A nurse is caring for a young female adult client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation who has just had a mitral valve replacement. The client is being discharged with prescribed warfarin. The client mentions to the nurse that she relies on the rhythm method for birth control. What education will be a priority for the nurse to provide to this client?
the high risk for complications if she becomes pregnant while taking warfarin Women of childbearing age should not take warfarin (pregnancy X category) if they plan to become pregnant. There is danger to the placenta and risk for the mother to bleed. The fetus may also be affected. This client should practice a more reliable method of birth control. The rhythm method for birth control is not always accurate.The symptoms of worsening tachycardia are important, but do not correspond to the warfarin therapy. Limiting green leafy vegetables is important with warfarin therapy, but risk for fetal harm is more important.
The nurse understands that which of the following medications will be administered to the client for 6 to 12 weeks following prosthetic porcine valve surgery?
warfarin To reduce the risk of thrombosis in patients with porcine or bovine tissue valves, warfarin is required for 6 to 12 weeks, followed by aspirin therapy. Furosemide would not be given for 6 to 12 weeks following this type of surgery. Digoxin may be used for the treatment of arrhythmias, but not just for 6 to 12 weeks.