PrepU Ch 32: Management of Patients with Immune Deficiency Disorders

Which is a major manifestation of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

Thrombocytopenia Major symptoms of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome include thrombocytopenia, infections, and malignancies. Ataxia occurs with ataxia-telangiectasia. Episodes of edema in various body parts occur with angioneurotic edema. Bacterial infection occurs with hyperimmunoglobulinemia E syndrome.

A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) for a group of new graduate nurses, including the steps in the process of HIV entering the host cell. What would the nurse describe as the first step?

Attachment Once HIV enters the host cell, attachment occurs in which the glycoproteins of HIV bind with the host's uninfected CD4+ receptor and chemokine coreceptors. This is followed by uncoating, in which HIV's viral core is emptied into the CD4+ T cell. Cleavage and budding occur as the last steps.

A child has just been diagnosed with a primary immune deficiency. The parents state, "Oh, no. Our child has AIDS." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

"Although AIDS is an immune deficiency, your child's condition is different from AIDS." Primary immune deficiencies should be not be confused with AIDS. They are not the same condition. In addition, a primary immune disorder does not increase the child's risk for developing AIDS later in life. Primary immune deficiency diseases are serious, but they are rarely fatal and can be controlled. Testing will reveal the evidence of a primary immune disease, not AIDS. AIDS is classified as a secondary immunodeficiency.

The nurse is aware that the most prevalent cause of immunodeficiency worldwide is

Malnutrition

There are major differences between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies. Select the most accurate statement the nurse would use to explain the cause of a secondary immunodeficiency.

"Your immune system was most likely affected by an underlying disease process." A secondary immunodeficiency is the result of an underlying disease process or the treatment of a disorder. It is not genetically inherited. Some examples of a secondary immunodeficiency are chronic stress and diabetes mellitus.

While caring for a patient with pneumocystis pneumonia, the nurse assesses flat, purplish lesions on the back and trunk. What does the nurse suspect these lesions indicate?

Kaposi's sarcoma Kaposi's sarcoma, the most common HIV-related malignancy, is a disease that involves the endothelial layer of blood and lymphatic vessels. Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestation of HIV; they can appear anywhere on the body and are usually brownish pink to deep purple. They may be flat or raised and surrounded by ecchymoses (hemorrhagic patches) and edema (Fig. 37-3).

The home health nurse is assessing a client who is immunosuppressed. What is the most essential teaching for this client and the family?

The need to report any slight changes in the client's health status They must be informed of the need for continuous monitoring for subtle changes in the client's physical health status and of the importance of seeking immediate health care if changes are detected. Nutrition is important, but infection control is the priority. Clients and families do not choose antibiotics independently. Vaccinations are often contraindicated in immunocompromised clients.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is brought to the clinic by a family member. The family member tells the nurse the client has become forgetful, with a limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. What condition is represented by these symptoms?

AIDS dementia complex (ADC) AIDS dementia complex, or ADC, is a neurologic condition that causes the degeneration of the brain, especially in areas that affect mood, cognition, and motor functions. Such clients exhibit forgetfulness, limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. DSP is characterized by abnormal sensations, such as burning and numbness in the feet and later in the hands. Candidiasis is a yeast infection that may develop in the oral, pharyngeal, esophageal, or vaginal cavities or in the folds of the skin. CMV infects the choroid and retinal layers of the eye, leading to blindness, and can also cause ulcers in the esophagus, colitis, diarrhea, pneumonia, and encephalitis.

A nurse is working in a health clinic at a retirement community. What is the nurse's primary rationale for recommending HIV testing for older adults?

Age-related immune system changes increase the risks of infections for older adults. Normal aging decreases the immune system's response to infection and puts the older adult at greater risk for HIV. Since 2006, more than 10% of new HIV cases occurred in those older than 50. Choices A and B are assumptions; choice D would only be relevant for those who did receive a blood transfusion. The rationale would not be generalized for all adults over age 55.

A client with AIDS is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea and dehydration. The physician suspects an infection with Cryptosporidium. What type of specimen should be collected to confirm this diagnosis?

Stool specimen for ova and parasites A stool specimen for ova and parasites will give a definitive diagnosis. The organism is spread by the fecal-oral route from contaminated water, food, or human or animal waste. Those infected can lose from 10 to 20 L of fluid per day. Losing this magnitude of fluid quickly leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

A client is beginning highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The client demonstrates an understanding of the need for follow up when scheduling a return visit for viral load testing at which time?

6 weeks Viral load tests are measured immediately before initiating antiretroviral therapy and then again in 2 to 8 weeks. In most clients, adherence to a regimen of potent antiretroviral agents should result in a large decrease in the viral load by 2 to 8 weeks. Therefore, a return visit at 6 weeks would be in this time frame. By 16 to 20 weeks, the viral load should continue to decline, dropping below detectable levels.

A newborn has been diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome. Which of the following would the nurse least likely expect to assess?

Hypercalcemia Infants born with DiGeorge syndrome have hypoparathyroidism with resultant hypocalcemia resistant to standard therapy, congenital heart disease, cleft palate and lip, dysmorphic facial features, and possibly renal abnormalities.

A patient in the clinic states, "My boyfriend told me he went to the clinic and was treated for gonorrhea." While testing for the sexually transmitted infection (STI), what else should be done for this patient?

Inform the patient that it would be beneficial to test for HIV. HIV screening is recommended for all persons who seek evaluation and treatment for STIs. HIV testing must be voluntary and free of coercion. Patients must not be tested without their knowledge. HIV screening after notifying the patient that an HIV test will be performed (unless the patient declines) is recommended in all health care settings. Specific signed consent for HIV testing should not be required. In most settings, general informed consent for medical care is considered sufficient.

The nurse is gathering data from laboratory studies for a client who has HIV. The client's CD4+ cell count is 200/mm³, and the client has been diagnosed with pneumocystis pneumonia. What does this indicate to the nurse?

The client has converted from HIV infection to AIDS. AIDS is the end stage of HIV infection. Certain events establish the conversion of HIV infection to AIDS: a markedly decreased CD4+ cell count from a normal level of 500 to 1000/mm³ and the development of certain cancers and opportunistic infections. The client does not have advanced HIV; they meet the criteria for the development of AIDS. The CD4+ cell count is not decreasing due to an infection.

Which condition is an early manifestation of HIV encephalopathy?

Headache Early manifestations of HIV encephalopathy include headache, memory deficits, difficulty concentrating, progressive confusion, psychomotor slowing, apathy, and ataxia. Later stages include hyperreflexia, a vacant stare, and hallucinations.

What test will the nurse assess to determine the client's response to antiretroviral therapy?

Viral load Viral load should be measured at baseline and on a regular basis thereafter because viral load is the most important indicator of response to ART. The other tests are not used in this way.

A client is prescribed didanosine as part of a highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). Which instruction would the nurse emphasize with this client?

"Be sure to take this drug about 1/2 hour before or 2 hours after you eat." Didanosine (Videx) should be taken 30 to 60 minutes before or 2 hours after meals. Other antiretroviral agents, such as abacavir, emtricitabine, or lamivudine can be taken without regard to meals. High-fat meals should be avoided when taking amprenavir. Atazanavir should be taken with food and not with antacids.

A client receiving antiretroviral therapy reports "not urinating enough." What is the nurse's best action?

Assess blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. Adverse effects associated with antiretroviral therapy include potential nephrotoxicity. Assessing blood urea nitrogen and creatinine for clients who have decreased urination is appropriate. The other answers will not assist the nurse in determining the client's problem, which should be assessed before intervention are administered.

What intervention is a priority when treating a client with HIV/AIDS?

Assessing fluid and electrolyte balance Fluid and electrolyte deficits are a priority in monitoring clients with HIV/AIDS, and assessment of fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance is essential. Skin integrity should be monitored but is a lower priority. Neurologic and psychological status should also be monitored, but this is not as high a priority as fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

A client is taking a corticosteroid for the treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus. When the nurse is providing instructions about the medication to the client, what priority information should be included?

Be alert for signs and symptoms of infection and report them immediately to the physician. Instruct the client about signs and symptoms of and the increased risk for infection. Instruct the client to report signs and symptoms of infection immediately to the physician. Early treatment promotes a shorter duration of illness and reduced complication. Tell the client to avoid high-risk activities, such as being in crowds, during periods of immunosuppression. The client should not omit a dose if nausea is experienced; he may take the medication with food. There are many side effects and required laboratory work to detect the side effects from immunosuppressive therapy. Joint aches are vague symptoms and are not a priority for reporting purposes.

What treatment option does the nurse anticipate for the patient with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)?

Bone marrow transplantation Treatment options for SCID include stem cell and bone marrow transplantation.

A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize what intervention?

Educational programs that focus on control and prevention Until an effective vaccine is developed, preventing HIV by eliminating and reducing risk behaviors is essential. Educational interventions are the primary means by which behaviors can be influenced. Screening is appropriate, but education is paramount. Enhancing immune function does not prevent HIV infection. Ineffective use of standard precautions applies to very few cases of HIV infection.

Which blood test confirms the presence of antibodies to HIV?

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) EIA and Western blotting identify and confirm the presence of antibodies to HIV. ESR is an indicator of the presence of inflammation in the body. p24 antigen test is a blood test that measures viral core protein. Reverse transcriptase is not a blood test. Rather, it is an enzyme that transforms single-stranded RNA into double-stranded DNA.

A client infected with HIV comes into the clinic. What symptoms may be the focus of a medical complaint in women infected with HIV?

Gynecologic problems In clients with HIV, gynecologic problems, such as abnormal results of Papanicolaou tests, genital warts, pelvic inflammatory disease, and persistent vaginitis may be the focus of a majority of complaints. Acute retroviral syndrome (viremia) may be the chief complaint in one third to more than one half of those infected. Its manifestations include rashes, muscle and joint pain, and weight loss.

When learning about HIV/AIDS, the student should be able to differentiate the two subtypes of virus by which characteristic?

HIV-1 is more prevalent than HIV-2 subtypes Two HIV subtypes have been identified: HIV-1 and HIV-2. HIV-1 mutates easily and frequently, producing multiple substrains that are identified by letters from A through O. HIV-2 is less transmittable, and the interval between initial infection with HIV-2 and development of AIDS is longer. HIV-1 is more prevalent in the United States and in the rest of the world. Western Africa is the primary site of infection with HIV-2. There is no cure for HIV/AIDS; hence, no cure rate. The virus is thought to be a mutation of a simian virus. Transmission of the virus is not a characteristic.

Which of the following indicates that a client with HIV has developed AIDS?

Herpes simplex ulcer persisting for 2 months A diagnosis of AIDS cannot be made until the person with HIV meets case criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The immune system becomes compromised. The CD4 T-cell count drops below 200 cells and develops one of the opportunistic diseases, such as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, candidiasis, cytomegalovirus, or herpes simplex.

A client with ataxia-telangiectasia is admitted to the unit. The nurse caring for the client would expect to see what included in the treatment regimen?

IV gamma globulin administration Treatment for ataxia-telangiectasia includes IV gamma globulin, antimicrobial therapy, and bone marrow transplantation. It does not include platelet administration, factor VIII administration, or thymus grafting.

HIV is harbored within which type of cell?

Lymphocyte Because HIV is harbored within lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, any exposure to infected blood results in significant risk of infection. HIV infection is not harbored in platelets, erythrocytes, or nerve cells.

A client is receiving ganciclovir as part of the treatment for cytomegalovirus retinitis. What would the nurse monitor the results of the client's laboratory tests for?

Neutropenia A common reaction to ganciclovir is severe neutropenia. Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia are associated with foscarnet. Ganciclovir is not associated with thrombocytopenia.

A client comes to the clinic and tells the nurse, "I think I have another vaginal infection and I also have some wart-like lesions on my vagina. This is happening quite often." Which nursing action is the priority for this client?

Offer information on human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing. In women, gynecologic problems may be the focus of the chief complaint for clients who are HIV positive but not yet diagnosed. Abnormal results of Papanicolaou tests, genital warts, pelvic inflammatory disease, and persistent vaginitis may also correlate with HIV infection. Based on this information, the priority nursing action is to offer information on HIV testing to the client. Although recommending abstinence or safer-sex practices, providing a prescribed topical antifungal agent to treat the client's vaginal infection, and referring to a support group may be appropriate, the priority is to determine the source of the client's symptoms.

A nurse knows that more than 50% of clients with CVID develop the following disorder.

Pernicious anemia More than 50% of clients with CVID develop pernicious anemia. Although chronic diarrhea may occur in clients with CVID, it does not happen in 50% of them. Hypocalcemia and neutropenia are not concerns for clients with CVID.

A patient had unprotected sex with an HIV-infected person and arrives in the clinic requesting HIV testing. Results determine a negative HIV antibody test and an increased viral load. What stage does the nurse determine the patient is in?

Primary infection The period from infection with HIV to the development of HIV-specific antibodies is known as primary infection, or stage 1. Initially, there is a period during which those who are HIV positive test negative on the HIV antibody blood test, although they are infected and highly infectious, because their viral loads are very high.

A patient develops gastrointestinal bleeding from a gastric ulcer and requires blood transfusions. The patient states to the nurse, "I am not going to have a transfusion because I don't want to get AIDS." What is the best response by the nurse?

"I understand your concern. The blood is screened very carefully for different viruses as well as HIV." Blood and blood products can transmit HIV to recipients. However, the risk associated with transfusions has been virtually eliminated as a result of voluntary self-deferral, completion of a detailed health history, extensive testing, heat treatment of clotting factor concentrates, and more effective virus inactivation methods. Donated blood is tested for antibodies to HIV-1, human immunodeficiency virus type 2 (HIV-2), and p24 antigen; in addition, since 1999, nucleic acid amplification testing (NAT) has been performed.

A hospital client is immunocompromised because of stage 3 HIV infection and the physician has ordered a chest radiograph. How should the nurse most safely facilitate the test?

Arrange for a portable x-ray machine to be used. A client who is immunocompromised is at an increased risk of contracting nosocomial infections due to suppressed immunity. The safest way the test can be facilitated is to have a portable x-ray machine in the client's room. This confers more protection than disinfecting the radiology department or using masks.

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to pneumocystis pneumonia and increased bronchial secretions for a client with AIDS. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Assist with chest physiotherapy every 2 to 4 hours. The nurse should include interventions such as assisting with and/or performing chest physiotherapy every 2 to 4 hours to prevent stasis of secretions, assist the client to attain the semi- or high Fowler's position to facilitate breathing and airway clearance, allow for frequent rest periods to prevent excessive fatigue, and maintain a fluid intake of at least 3 liters per day unless contraindicated.

A home care nurse is visiting a client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) at home. During the visit, the nurse observes the caregiver providing care. What action by the caregiver would alert the nurse to the need for additional teaching?

Caregiver cleans the client's anal area without wearing gloves To prevent the risk of HIV transmission, standard precautions should be used. Cleaning the client's anal area without wearing gloves indicates that the nurse needs to reinstruct the caregiver in measures related to standard precautions. Handwashing before and after client care, disposing of sharps in a puncture-resistant container, and cleaning up spills with a dilute bleach solution are appropriate measures.

Which of the following is a lack of one or more of the five immunoglobulins?

Hypogammaglobulinemia Hypogammaglobulinemia is a lack of one or more of the five immunoglobulins. Agammaglobulinemia is a disorder marked by an almost complete lack of immunoglobulins or antibodies. Panhypoglobulinemia is a general lack of immunoglobulins in the blood. Telangiectasia are vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is exhibiting shortness of breath, cough, and fever. What type of infection will the nurse most likely suspect?

Pneumocystis jiroveci Although mycobacterium, legionella, and cytomegalovirus may cause the signs and symptoms described, the most common infection in people with AIDS is pneumocystis pneumonia caused by pneumocystis jiroveci. It is the most common opportunistic infection associated with AIDS.

A client is scheduled to receive an intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) infusion. The client asks the nurse about the infusion's administration and its adverse effects. Which condition should the nurse instruct this client to report immediately?

Tickle in the throat Continually assess the client for adverse reactions; be especially aware of complaints of a tickle or lump in the throat, which could be the precursor to laryngospasm that precedes bronchoconstriction.

A client that is HIV+ has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia caused by P. jiroveci. What medication does the nurse expect that the client will take for the treatment of this infection?

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole To prevent and treat Pneumocystis pneumonia, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) is prescribed. The other medications are antifungals and used to treat candidiasis.

Ataxia refers to

uncoordinated muscle movement. Ataxia-telangiectasia is an autosomal recessive disorder affecting both T-cell and B-cell immunity. Telangiectasia refers to vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels. Receptive aphasia is an inability to understand spoken words. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing.

A client taking abacavir has developed fever and rash. What is the priority nursing action?

Report to the health care provider. Fever and a rash could be indicative of a hypersensitivity reaction. Hypersensitivity reactions are also known as anaphylactic reactions and often involve skin rashes, fever, and bronchopulmonary issues such as bronchial constriction. The health care provider should be notified immediately and the medication stopped. Interventions need to be taken to assure that the client's airway is not compromised. Administering acetaminophen and documentation and treating the rash are not the priority and would be completed after the client is stabilized.

Which adverse effect(s) should the nurse closely monitor in a client who has secondary immunodeficiencies due to immunosuppressive therapy?

Respiratory or urinary system infections Secondary immunodeficiencies occur as a result of underlying disease processes or the treatment of these disorders, including administration of immunosuppressive agents. Abnormalities of the immune system affect both natural and acquired immunity. Because immunodeficiencies result in a compromised immune system and pose a high risk for infection, careful assessment of the client's immune status is essential. The nurse assesses and monitors the client for signs and symptoms of infection.

Nursing students are reviewing the pathophysiology of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). They demonstrate understanding of the information when they state which of the following as the form of the genetic viral material?

Ribonucleic acid (RNA) HIV is a retrovirus that carries its genetic material in the form of RNA rather than DNA. HIV consists of a viral core containing the viral RNA, surrounded by an envelope consisting of protruding glycoproteins.

A client in a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows signs of AIDS-related dementia. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?

Risk for injury In a client with AIDS, central nervous system (CNS) deterioration can lead to AIDS-related dementia. This type of dementia impairs cognition and judgment, placing the client at risk for injury. Although Bathing or hygiene self-care deficit and Complicated grieving may be relevant in AIDS, these diagnoses don't take precedence in a client with AIDS-related dementia. Because CNS deterioration results from infection, Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion isn't applicable.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Part of this client's teaching plan is educating the client about their medications. What is essential for the nurse to include in the teaching of this client regarding medications?

Side effects of drug therapy Describing the side effects of drug therapy is essential, with the admonition to refrain from discontinuing any of the prescribed drugs without first consulting the prescribing physician. Although the client may want to know how the drugs work in general, the specific action of each antiretroviral drug is not essential information. Teaching about condoms and vaccinations may be appropriate, but these topics are not directly related to the client's HIV medications.

Which term defines the balance between the amount of HIV in the body and the immune response?

Viral set point The viral set point is the amount of virus in the body after the initial immune response subsides is referred to as the viral set point, which results in an equilibrium between HIV levels and the immune response that may be elicited. During the primary infection period, the window period occurs because a person is infected with HIV but negative on the HIV antibody blood test. The period from infection with HIV to the development of antibodies to HIV is known as the primary infection stage. The amount of virus in circulation and the number of infected cells equals the rate of viral clearance.

A client with suspected exposure to HIV has been tested with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) with positive results twice. The next step for the nurse to explain to the client for confirmation of the diagnosis is to perform a:

Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis. The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test, an initial HIV screening test, is positive when there are sufficient HIV antibodies; it also is positive when there are antibodies from other infectious diseases. The test is repeated if results are positive. If results of a second ELISA test are positive, the Western blot is performed. The p24 antigen test and the polymerase chain reaction test determine the viral load, and the T4-cell count is not used for diagnostic confirmation of the presence of HIV in the blood.

A client is prescribed antihistamines, and asks the nurse about administration and adverse effects. The nurse should advise the client to avoid:

alcohol. The nurse should advise a client taking antihistamines not to take it with alcohol or other central nervous system depressants because additive sedative effects can occur.

A client with end-stage acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has profound manifestations of Cryptosporidium infection caused by the protozoa. What client need should in the nurse focus on when planning this client's care?

fluid replacement The protozoal enteric infection caused by Cryptosporidium results in profuse watery diarrhea. Because diarrhea will lead to dehydration, the nurse should focus on fluid replacement. Pain management is also a concern in the care of a client with AIDS. However, with Cryptosporidium, the main concern is hydration. Antiretroviral therapy is most useful when a client with human immunodeficiency virus doesn't have opportunistic infections. With the wasting associated with AIDS, high-calorie nutrition is important, but with Cryptosporidium-related diarrhea, hydration takes precedence.

The lower the client's viral load,

the longer the survival time. The lower the client's viral load, the longer the time to AIDS diagnosis and the longer the survival time. The key goal of antiretroviral therapy is to achieve and maintain durable viral suppression.

A client who has AIDS reports having diarrhea after every meal, and wants to know what can be done to stop this symptom. What should the nurse advise?

Avoid fibrous foods, lactose, fat, and caffeine. Diarrhea may subside when the client avoids fibrous foods, lactose, fat, and caffeine. Although eating may seem to cause diarrhea, the client must understand that limiting the intake of food to control diarrhea only exacerbates wasting. The client will tolerate a low-fat, high-carbohydrate, and soft or liquid diet better than large, high-fat meals. The client should be advised to avoid large doses of iron and zinc because they can impair the functioning of the immune system.