prevention of care: exam 1

Ch24: Which of the following forms of syncope does not suggest a serious disorder? A) Those occurring with exercise B) Those occurring with heat C) Those associated with palpitations or irregularities of the heart D) Those associated with a family history of recurrent syncope or sudden death

B) Those occurring with heat

Ch24: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by A. abnormal thickening of the right ventricle wall. B. abnormal thickening of the left ventricle wall. C. abnormal thickening of the right atrium wall. D. abnormal thickening of the left atrium wall.

B. abnormal thickening of the left ventricle wall.

Ch2: Questions concerning kidney disease, hernia, sexually transmitted disease and albuminuria should be addressed in: A. cardiovascular B. genitourinary C. gastrointestinal D. pulmonary

B. genitourinary

Ch6: Identify the five key areas used to develop a history of an injury.

Primary complaint, mechanism of injury, symptoms, disability resulting from injury, and related medical history

Ch7: The mnemonic PEARL we use to assess the pupils requires us to check what 4 symptoms?

Pupils equal and reactive to light

Ch6: (T/F) Clinicians have an ethical responsibility to keep accurate and factual records

T

Ch6: (T/F) Drop foot can be a sign of myotome involvement of a low back injury

T

Ch6: (T/F) The primary complaint is what the injured individual believes may be the current problem

T

Ch7: (T/F) An emergency plan for any facility should be developed cooperatively by the facility manager, athletic trainer, sports supervisor, and physician working together with the local emergency medical service.

T

Ch7: (T/F) Clinicians have an ethical responsibility to keep accurate and factual records

T

Ch7: (T/F) The pupils are extremely sensitive to conditions that affect the CNS

T

Ch6: Identify the physical findings that can be revealed during the palpation of bone and soft tissue.

Temperature, swelling, tenderness, crepitus, deformity, and muscle spasms

Ch3: What information should be engraved on the inside of each football helmet? What records should be kept on file for football helmets?

The purchase date and tracking number engraved on the inside of the helmet. As well as a detailed record should be kept that identify the purchase date, use, reconditioning history, and certification seals.

Ch24: Identify the signs and symptoms of shock. Explain the management for shock

The signs and symptoms of shock will develop over time. People with shock can experience different forms of anxiety, restlessness, the skin can be cold (moist and clammy), they will profusely sweat, have extreme thirst, their eyes will be dull, sunken, and pupils will be dilated. They can also have nausea, shallow breathing that is rapid, and their pulse is rapid and weak. To manage this one should start EMS, keep an airway open, control bleeding if any, keep body temperature, and the body should have legs elevated

Ch1: The most effective regulatory means of protecting the public is: a. licensure b. registration c. state certification d. mandatory continuing education requirements

a. licensure

Ch1: Which of the following are performance domains for entry-level certified athletic trainers? Select all answers that apply. a. prevention b. professional responsibility c. teaching and instruction d. clinical evaluation and diagnosis e. performance enhancement f. treatment, rehabilitation, and reconditioning

a. prevention d. clinical evaluation and diagnosis f. treatment, rehabilitation, and reconditioning

Ch1: How does the BOC ensure professional responsibility of individuals with the ATC credential? Select all answers that apply. a. require continuing education b. audit all credential holders c. establish a code of ethics d solicit feedback from employers e. perform criminal background checks

a. require continuing education c. establish a code of ethics

Ch1: Standard of care refers to: a. the level of competency that must be demonstrated by an individual educated in and practicing in a given profession b. the permission granted by the government for an individual to practice a profession c. the roles and responsibilities of an individual in a given profession d. the ethical responsibilities that guide an individual's actions and promote standards of conduct

a. the level of competency that must be demonstrated by an individual educated in and practicing in a given profession

Ch7: Dilated pupils are associated with all of the following conditions except: a. use of an opiate-based drug b. shock c. cardiac arrest d. hemorrhage

a. use of an opiate-based drug

Ch6: The position in which two joint surfaces fit precisely together is called the: a. packed position b. close-packed position c. loose-packed position d. firm-packed position

b. close-packed position

Ch3: What type of injury is likely to result from a low-velocity, high-mass force? a. focal b. diffuse c. dense d. axial

b. diffuse

Ch6: The escape of fluid from the blood vessels into the joint cavity is called: a. ecchymosis b. effusion c. erythema d. swelling

b. effusion

Ch6: Palpation of crepitus over a tendon or bursa could indicate: a. hemorrhage b. inflammation c. edema d. infection

b. inflammation

Ch3: Which of the following are factors in determining the type of shoulder pad that should be worn by a football player? Select all answers that apply. a. player's age b. player's medical history c. player's body type d. player's position

b. player's medical history c. player's body type d. player's position

Ch6: Somatic pain arises from: a. organs in the abdominal cavity b. skin, ligaments, muscles, bones, and joints c. organs in the thoracic cavity d. referred pain sensations

b. skin, ligaments, muscles, bones, and joints

Ch3: According to NFSHSA guidelines, in order for an athlete to compete while wearing a forearm hard cast, which of the following criteria does not have to be met? a. cast covered by 1/2 -inch of closed-cell foam b. written authorization from a certified athletic trainer indicating that the cast is necessary c. approval of on-site referee d. written authorization from a licensed physician indicating that the cast is necessary

b. written authorization from a certified athletic trainer indicating that the cast is necessary

Ch6: Normal range of motion for ankle dorsiflexion is: a. 0 to 30 degrees b. 0 to 10 degrees c. 0 to 20 degrees d. 0 to 5 degrees

c. 0 to 20 degrees

Ch6: The common abbreviation for twice daily is: a. TID b. TD c. BID d. NPO

c. BID

Ch1: Which of the following documents serves as the blueprint for the certification examination administered by the Board of Certification? a. NATA Standards of Professional Practice b. NATA Code of Ethics c. Role Delineation Study d. Educational Competencies in Athletic Training

c. Role Delineation Study

Ch3: Which of the following is not characteristic of high-density material? a. absorbs energy through deformation b. offers less cushioning of low-level impact c. comfortable to wear d. relatively effective with high levels of impact intensity

c. comfortable to wear

Ch1: A situation in which danger is apparent, or should have been apparent, that results in an unreasonable unsafe condition is called: a. misfeasance b. nonfeasance c. foreseeability of harm d. contributory negiligence

c. foreseeability of harm

Ch6: In assessing ligamentous laxity, a soft end feel indicates: a. grade I injury b. grade III injury c. grade II injury d. no injury

c. grade II injury

Ch7: The primary survey determines a. scene safety b. blood pressure c. level of responsiveness and assesses airway, breathing, and circulation d. presence of fractures or dislocations

c. level of responsiveness and assesses airway, breathing, and circulation

Ch1: If an athletic trainer commits an act that is their responsibility to perform but uses the wrong procedure, the individual could be accused of: a. malpractice b. malfeasance c. misfeasance d. gross negligence

c. misfeasance

Ch6: The motor component of a nerve root is tested using a: a. deep tendon reflex b. superficial reflex c. myotome d. dermatome

c. myotome

Ch3: What shoe characteristics should be recommended for a runner with high, rigid arches? a. firm midsoles, semi curved lasts, and moderate hindfoot stability b. firm midsoles, straight lasts, and moderate hindfoot stability c. soft midsoles, curved lasts, and low hindfoot stability d. very firm midsoles, straight lasts, and strong hindfoot stability

c. soft midsoles, curved lasts, and low hindfoot stability

Ch3: Which of the following is a disadvantage of using polycarbonate lenses in eye glasses? a. scratch easily b. nominal impact resistance c. static charges that increase dust clinging d. relatively heavy weight

c. static charges that increase dust clinging

Ch1: A wrong done by an individual for which the injured party seeks a remedy for damages suffered is called a: a. nonfeasance b. malfeasance c. tort d. gross negligence

c. tort

Ch3: Softball and baseball helmets must: a. be high in resiliency b. be a bright color c. be easily removable for base running d. be a double ear flap design

d. be a double ear flap design

Ch1: In the absence of an athletic trainer, which of the following is not a responsibility of the coach? a. recognize the severity of an injury b. implement an emergency care plan c. assess the extent of an injury d. design a rehabilitation program

d. design a rehabilitation program

Ch6: In a manual muscle test, a finding of complete range of motion against gravity with no overload is graded: a. normal b. poor c. good d. fair

d. fair

Ch6: Which of the following is a functional test? a. Tinel's sign b. PROM c. striking the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer d. figure eight running

d. figure eight running

Ch3: Which of the following helmets is not required to meet NOCSAE standards? a. lacrosse helmet b. baseball batting helmet c. field hockey goalie helmet d. ice hockey helmet

d. ice hockey helmet

Ch6: An abnormal sensation characterized by numbness, tingling, or a burning sensation is called: a. anesthesia b. hypoesthesia c. hyperesthesia d. paresthesia

d. paresthesia

Ch6: Movement of an injured body part through the range of motion with no assistance from the injured ____ individual is termed" a. resistive movement b. isotonic movement c. active movement d. passive movement

d. passive movement

Ch1: Who is the final authority in determining whether an individual should be cleared for activity? Select all answers that apply. a. head athletic trainer b. athletic trainer working with athlete c. health care specialist working with athlete d. primary care physician e. team physician

d. primary care physician e. team physician

Ch3: Which type of orthotic is designed to provide for dynamic balance of the foot while participating physical activity? a. semisoft b. soft c. rigid d. semirigid

d. semirigid

Ch6: Information pertaining to which of the following is not included in the plan component of SOAP notes? a. immediate treatment b. long-term goals c. short-term goals d. severity of injury

d. severity of injury

Ch7: A slow, bounding pulse could be indicative of: a. cardiac arrest b. hypertension c. shock d. skull fracture

d. skull fracture

Ch7: Identify five non-life-threatening conditions that warrant immediate referral to a physician.

1. Eye injuries 2. minor or simple fractures 3. injuries with noticeable deficit 4. dental injuries with loss of tooth 5. noticeable muscular muscle weakness in extremities

Ch2: identify four ocular red flags that require further examination.

1. corrected vision greater then 20/50 2. vision in one eye only 3. severely limited peripheral vision 4. severe myopia

Ch2: Identify the broad questions that physicians consider in determining clearance for participation?

1. will the condition increase the injury of the individual or other people? 2. can participation be allowed if medication, rehabilitation, or protective bracing or padding is used? 3. if denied, can the individual take part in different activities?

Ch24: An individual is lying with the legs in extension and the elbows, wrists, and fingers in flexion. Which of the following best describes this position? A) Decortication B) Decerebration C) Excortication D) Exacerbation

A) Decortication

Ch24: Extended or heavy use of alcohol, cocaine, or steroids can produce A) cardiomyopathy. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) aortic rupture. D) holiday heart syndrome.

A) cardiomyopathy.

Ch24: Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that primarily affects A) connective tissue. B) the immune system. C) the respiratory system. D) smooth muscle.

A) connective tissue.

Ch2: normal blood pressure for a female adult is: A. 120/80 B. 140/90 C. 80/120 D. 110/60

A. 120/80

Ch7: Identify five "red flags" indicating serious emergency and activation of EMS.

Airway obstructed, respiratory failure, sever shock, excessive bleeding, and head injury with loss of consciousness

Ch24: Sickle cell trait is most commonly seen in A) male athletes. B) African Americans. C) Asian Americans. D) female athletes.

B) African Americans.

Ch24: Blood pressure readings of 120 to 139 systolic and 80 to 89 diastolic are considered A) normal. B) prehypertension. C) stage 1 hypertension. D) stage 2 hypertension.

B) prehypertension.

Ch24: Hyperventilation, delirium, and hyperactive reflexes are characteristics of _______ Reye syndrome. A) stage I B) stage II C) stage III D) stage IV

B) stage II

Ch2: normal pulse rate children is: A. 60-100 bpm B. 120-140 bpm C. 40-60 bpm D. 100-120 bpm

B. 120-140 bpm

Ch2: The ideal completion time for the PPE is: A. 4 weeks before practice sessions B. 6 weeks before practice sessions C. 2 weeks before practice sessions D. 1-2 days before practice sessions

B. 6 weeks before practice sessions

Ch24: The most common cause of sudden death in individuals younger than age 35 years is A) mitral valve prolapse. B) coronary artery disease. C) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. D) myocarditis.

C) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

Ch24: Myocarditis is characterized by infiltration of inflammatory cells into the myocardium, leading to an abnormally enlarged A) left atrium. B) right atrium. C) left ventricle. D) right ventricle.

C) left ventricle.

Ch24: Sudden death is most often precipitated by A) stroke. B) pulmonary complications. C) physical activity. D) hypertension.

C) physical activity.

Ch24: Hypertension contributes to A) diabetes mellitus. B) epilepsy. C) strokes. D) shock.

C) strokes.

Ch24: In the female athlete, iron-deficiency is seen predominantly in: A) basketball players. B) those who maintain a high percentage of body fat. C) those who maintain a low percentage of body fat. D) African American athletes.

C) those who maintain a low percentage of body fat.

Ch2: Condition that exists when the rays of light entering the eye are brought to focus in front of the retina: A. emmetropia B. nystagmus C. myopia D. hypermetropia

C. myopia

Ch24: An athlete has been diagnosed with anemia. Which of the following vitamins would you suggest the athlete incorporate as part of the daily diet? A) A B) D C) B6 D) C

D) C

Ch24: Which of the following is NOT a screen for Marfan syndrome? A) Cardiac murmur B) Myopia C) Arm span greater than height D) Deviated septum

D) Deviated septum

Ch24: Which of the following is not a metabolic cause of syncope? A) Hypoxia B) Hypoglycemia C) Hyperventilation D) Migraine headache

D) Migraine headache

Ch24: Individuals with Marfan syndrome usually die from A) myocarditis. B) tachycardia. C) commotio cordis. D) aortic rupture.

D) aortic rupture.

Ch24: The most preventable cause of sudden death is A) the use of EPO. B) exercise-induced anaphylaxis. C) exertional rhabdomyolysis. D) exertional hyperthermia.

D) exertional hyperthermia.

Ch2: The advantages of having an individuals primary care physician administer a PPE include all the following, except: A. more thorough and comprehensive exam can be performed B. potentially closer examiner-athlete relationship C. setting provides greater privacy D. cost of the exam

D. cost of the exam

Ch2: Which the following is a disqualifying condition for sport participation: A. history of trauma B. sickle cell trait C. HIV infection D. fever

D. fever

Ch2: Hypomobile individuals tend to be more susceptible to: A. disc prolapse B. dislocation C. ligament sprains D. muscle strains

D. muscle strains

Ch24: (T/F) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, commotio cordis, and exertional rhabdomyolysis are all non-cardiac-related causes of sudden death.

F

Ch24: True or False? Cardiac output is determined by heart rate, blood volume, pulmonary rate, and venous return.

F

Ch2: (T/F) A physician has the authority to totally exclude an athlete from participation due to a medical condition

F

Ch2: (T/F) the musculoskeletal examination is the most important component of the PPE

F

Ch3: (T/F) The routine use of prophylactic knee braces (PKBs) has not been proven to be effective in reducing either the number or severity of knee injuries

F

Ch6: (T/F) An instrument used to measure active and passive range of motion at a joint is called a dynamometer

F

Ch6: (T/F) Musculoskeletal exam is the most important part of an evaluation or preparticipation physical exam

F

Ch6: (T/F) Passive movement involves joint motion performed voluntarily by the individual through muscular contraction

F

Ch6: (T/F) WFL stand for within full limits

F

Ch7: (T/F) Systolic pressure is the residual pressure that exists in the arteries when the heart is at rest

F

Ch3: In addition to reducing dental and oral soft tissue injuries, what other injuries could potentially be prevented through the use of a properly fitted mouthguard?

Jaw fractures, cerebral concussions, TMJ injuries

Ch24: (T/F) Individuals with sickle cell trait should avoid activity in extremely hot, humid weather.

T

Ch24: (T/F) Iron deficiency develops gradually progressing through several stages before anemia is present

T

Ch6: Why should the preliminary step, in the evaluation process of an condition, include assessment of the opposite or uninjured body part?

This allows for a point of reference for the injured side of the body, in terms of relative dysfunction and extent of rehabilitation

Ch7: Normal hemoglobin range for a male adult is: a. 13 to 18 b. 12 to 16 c. 42 to 52 d. 37 to 48

a. 13 to 18

Ch3: Standards for protective eye wear are established by the: a. ASTM b. NOCSAE c. HECC d. AOA

a. ASTM

Ch6: Methods to rule out a fracture are all the following except. a. Depression b. Compression c. Percussion d. Palpation

a. Depression

Ch7: What is the term used to described unequal pupils a. aniscoria b. dilation c. battle sign d. racoon eyes

a. aniscoria

Ch3: In a high school athletic program, which of the following individuals is/are responsible for ensuring proper use of protective equipment? Select all answers that apply. a. athletic director b. coach c. manager d. athlete e. athletic trainer

a. athletic director b. coach e. athletic trainer

Ch6: Which of the following terms refers to a structure on both sides of the body or body part? a. bilateral b. contralateral c. ipsilateral d. lateral

a. bilateral

Ch3: Face guards on football helmets must be no less than: a. 1 bar b. 2 bars c. 3 bars d. 4 bars

b. 2 bars

Ch1: Which of the following professional organizations is responsible for awarding the ATC credential? a. Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs b. Board of Certification c. National Athletic Trainers Association d. State Regulatory Commission

b. Board of Certification

Ch6: The L4 myotome is tested with: a. toe extension b. ankle dorsiflexion c. ankle plantar flexion d. knee extension

b. ankle dorsiflexion

Ch6: Which of the following is not a normal joint end feel? a. firm b. empty c. hard d. soft

b. empty

Ch1: Who regulates professions to protect the public from harm by unqualified individuals? a. BOC b. Individual states c. Better Business Bureau d. NATA e. U.S. government

d. NATA

Ch3: Which of the following organizations sets standards for the manufacturing of football helmets? a. NFL b. NFSHSFA c. ASTM d. NOCSAE

d. NOCSAE

Ch24: Crisis symptoms for sickle cell anemia include all of the following EXCEPT A) hyperactivity. B) painful hands and feet. C) severe pain because of oxygen deprivation. D) swollen and inflamed hands.

A) hyperactivity.

Ch24: After a preseason physical examination, an offensive lineman is found to have mild hypertension. What activity restrictions are there for this athlete? A. No activity restrictions B. No sprints C. No participation in contact drills D. No participation in aerobic activities

A. No activity restrictions

Ch2: The ability to change directions rapidly while moving at a high speed is referred to as: A. agility B. reaction time C. proprioceptive awareness D. neuromuscular coordination

A. agility

Ch2: Location of the heart on the right rather than the left side of the chest is: A. dextrocardia B hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. mitral valve prolapse D. marfans syndrome

A. dextrocardia

Ch24: In sports participation, anemia contributes to each of the following EXCEPT: A. increase in aerobic capacity B. decrease in aerobic capacity C. decrease in aerobic threshold D. decrease exercise time to exhaustion

A. increase in aerobic capacity

Ch2: Most important tool of the PPE is the: A. medical history B. musculoskeletal examination C. cardiovascular examination D. vision examination

A. medical history

Ch24: Excessive cholesterol buildup that blocks a coronary artery increases the risk of A. myocardial infarction. B. myocarditis. C. supraventricular tachycardia. D. pulmonary obstructions.

A. myocardial infarction.

Ch2: The advantages of the station or group format for administering PPEs including all the following except: A. reduction in cost B. optimal environment for counseling C. time efficiency D. involvement of medical specialists

B optimal environment for counseling

Ch24: Which of the following is contraindicated for individuals with Marfan syndrome? A) Isotonic exercises B) Isometric exercises C) Aerobic exercises D) Agility exercises

B) Isometric exercises

Ch2: The boys ability to sustain sub maximal exercise over an extended period is referred to as: A. anaerobic capacity B. dynamic power C. aerobic capacity D. muscular endurance

C. aerobic capacity

Ch2: which of the following factors does not affect flexibility: A. Race B. Joint adhesion C. strength D. swelling

C. strength

Ch2: Which of the following activities can be used to measure power: A. 40-meter dash B. grip strength C. kicking a stationary target D. vertical jump

D. vertical jump

Ch7: (T/F) The normal respiration rate for a child is 10-25 respirations per minute.

F

Ch24: (T/F) Shock and dehydration can cause hypotension

T

Ch24: True or False? An enlarged left ventricle is found in myocarditis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

T

Ch24: True or False? Hypertension is defined as a sustained elevated blood pressure above the accepted norms of 140 mm Hg systolic or 90 mm Hg diastolic.

T

Ch24: True or False? The severity of shock can vary dependent on the age of the individual.

T

Ch2: (T/F) The pre-participation examination should determine the general health, maturity, and fitness level of an individual and detect those at risk for injury or those who may have conditions that may limit participation.

T

Ch2: (T/F) Visual acuity is best tested using a Snellen chart

T

Ch3: Which of the following influence(s) the effectiveness of a football face guard? Select all that apply a. a four-point chin strap on the helmet b. the strength of the guard itself c. the number of bars d. the color of the bars e. the helmet attachments

a. a four-point chin strap on the helmet b. the strength of the guard itself e. the helmet attachments

Ch1: Traditional athletic training settings are considered to be in: a. colleges and high schools b. industrial settings c. fitness centers d. sports medicine clinics

a. colleges and high schools

Ch3: In fitting shoulder pads, it is important to make certain that the shoulder cups: a. cover the entire deltoid b. cover the pectoral muscles c. cover the trapezius d. cover the clavicle

a. cover the entire deltoid

Ch3: All of the following are advantages of the thermal-set mouth guard except: a. covers both upper and lower dental arches b. inexpensive c. provides a loop strap d. readily available

a. covers both upper and lower dental arches

Ch6: The discoloration or swelling outside a joint in the surrounding soft tissue is termed: a. ecchymosis b. bruising c. edema d. effusion

a. ecchymosis

Ch6: Which of the following best illustrates a diagnostic sign? a. edema b. blurred vision c. nausea d. headache

a. edema

Ch1: A written guarantee that a product is safe for use is called a(n): a. expressed warranty b. seal test standard c. implied warranty d. product safety standard

a. expressed warranty

Ch3: Knee braces designed to provide proprioceptive feedback and protect unstable anterior cruciate ligament injuries are: a. functional b. prophylactic c. rehabilitative d. derotational

a. functional

Ch6: Subjective information is gained through the _____ portion of the HOPS process. a. history b. special testing c. palpation d. observation

a. history

Ch6: Decreased tactile sensation is termed: a. hypoesthesia b. hyperesthesia c. paresthesia d. anesthesia

a. hypoesthesia

Ch1: In an athletic program, which of the following is not a role of the team physician? a. review preseason physical examinations b. apply therapeutic modalities c. dispense medications d. review policies/procedures to ensure compliance with school/athletic guidelines

b. apply therapeutic modalities

Ch6: When asking about the characteristics of symptoms, determine: a. limitations in sport, occupation, and ADLs b. location, onset, limb position, direction of force c. onset, limitations, location, severity, duration d. previous injuries, congenital abnormalities, family history

c. onset, limitations, location, severity, duration

Ch1: Which of the following professionals is not necessarily a member of the primary sports medicine team? a. certified athletic trainer b. sport participant c. orthopedic physician d. team physician

c. orthopedic physician

Ch7: The immediate assessment occurring on the field when a life-threatening injury is present is: a. Babinski test b. CPR c. primary survey d. secondary survey

c. primary survey

Ch1: Which of the following events would not qualify for continuing education units? a. speaking at a symposium b. attending workshops and seminars c. taking a correspondence or postgraduate course d. supervising athletic trainer students

d. supervising athletic trainer students

Ch3: Which of the following is not an example of low-density material used to cushion low-impact forces? a. felt b. Sorbathane c. gauze padding d. thermomoldable plastic

d. thermomoldable plastic

Ch6: Which of the following best illustrates a symptom? a. deformity b. ecchymosis c. crepitation d. tinnitus

d. tinnitus

Ch24: Each of the following is considered a noncardiac cause of sudden death EXCEPT A) commotio cordis. B) Marfan syndrome. C) exertional hyperthermia. D) exercise-induced anaphylaxis.

B) Marfan syndrome.

Ch24: Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of shock? A) Rapid and shallow respiration B) Rapid and strong pulse C) Profuse sweating D) Pale, clammy skin

B) Rapid and strong pulse

Ch24: Regurgitation is associated with A. coronary artery disease. B. acquired valvular heart disease. C. mitral valve prolapse. D. mitral valve prolapse and acquired valvular heart disease.

D. mitral valve prolapse and acquired valvular heart disease.

Ch2: (T/F) White coat syndrome is a term used to ID hypertension due to anxiety

T

Ch3: (T/F) Dense foam over a bruised area will not absorb high-level impact forces as effectively as a softer foam

T

Ch3: (T/F) Examples of high-density material include orthoplast, thermoplast, fiberglass, and plaster

T

Ch3: (T/F) Soft contact lenses protect the eye from irritation by chlorine in pools and can be worn with goggles

T