Private Pilot Oral Exam
when a control tower, located at an airport within class d airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?
700ft AGL and class G rules to the surface
If speed is 85 knots and time is 51 minutes, what will the distance be?
72 NM
What color of dye is added to the following fuel grades: 80, 100, 100LL, Turbine?
80 (obsolete):red 100 (obsolete): green 100LL: blue Jet A: colorless or straw
What is a ridge?
A ridge (also called a ridge line) is an elongated area of relatively high atmospheric pressure. Air moving out of a high or ridge depletes the quantity of air; therefore, these are areas of descending air. Descending air favors dissipation of cloudiness; hence the association of high pressure and good weather.
What is an experimental airworthiness certificate?
A special airworthiness certificate in the experimental category is issued to operate an aircraft that does not have a type certificate or does not conform to its type certificate yet is in a condition for safe operation.
6. While you are performing a preflight inspection on your aircraft, an inspector from the FAA introduces herself and says she wants to conduct a ramp inspection. What documents are you required to show the inspector?
Each person who holds an airman certificate, medical certificate, authorization, or license required by Part 61 must present it and their photo identification for inspection upon a request from the administrator, an authorized NTSB representative, any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer, or an authorized representative of the TSA.
What is a supplemental type certificate?
FAA's approval of a major change in the type design of a previously approved type certificated product.
Who can perform maintenance on an aircraft?
FAA-certificated A&P mechanic, an A&P mechanic with Inspector Authorization, an appropriately-rated FAA-certificated repair station, or the aircraft manufacturer.
Describe the braking system on this aircraft.
Hydraulically actuated disk type brakes are used on each main gear wheel. A hydraulic line connects each brake to a master cylinder location on each pilot's rudder pedals.
What effect des an increase in density altitude have on takeoff and landing performance?
Increase in density altitude results in: -increased take off dist. -reduces rate of climb -increased true airspeed on approach and landing -increased landing roll distance
What are the different types of aircraft speeds?
Indicated - read of the instrument, uncorrected for instrument or system errors Calibrated - IAS corrected for instrument position errors; obtained from the POH/AFM for various flap and landing gear configurations Equivalent - CAS corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at altitude True - CAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure Groundspeed - TAS corrected for wind; speed across the ground
Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information?
NW KRAFT NOTAMS Known ATC traffic delays Runway lengths at airports of intended use Alternative airports Fuel requirements Takeoff and landing distance data
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from aircraft?
No PIC of any civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. Is NOT PROHIBITED
Concerning a flight in the local area, is any preflight action required, and if so, what must it consist of?
Pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions
What are several examples of placards and markings required in the airplane?
Placards—Day-Night-VFR-IFR placard, "Flight Maneuvers Permitted" placard, "Caution Control Lock Remove before Starting," "Maneuvering Speed," "Compass Calibration Card," etc. Markings—Airspeed indicator markings, cockpit control markings, fuel, oil, and coolant filler openings, etc.
Spring has finally arrived and the weather looks great so you decide to rent an airplane and go
The safest rule is not to fly while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA. If there is any doubt regarding the effects of any medication, consult an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) before flying.
How can a pilot determine what frequency is appropriate for activating his/her VFR flight plan once airborne?
Two ways: Ask FSS briefer during the preflight weather briefing consult the communications section under flight service for the airport of departure in the Chart Supplements U.S.
What is UNICOM and what frequencies are designated for its use?
UNICOM nongovernment comms provide airport info at certain airports other than those with control tower will normally use: 122.700, 122.725, 122.800, 122.975, 123.000, 123.050, 123.075
What is detonation
Uncontrolled explosive ignition of fuel/air mixture within the cylinder's combustion chamber.
What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions?
The first course of action should be to leave the area of visible moisture. This might mean descending to an altitude below the cloud bases, climbing to an altitude above the cloud tops, or turning to a different course.
You determine that you need to fly your aircraft with an expired AD to another airport where a repair facility can do the work required by the AD. How can you accomplish this?
Unless the AD states otherwise, you may apply to the FAA for a special flight permit following the procedures
What are the limitations of the vertical speed indictor?
VSI not accurate until aircraft is stablized. 6-9 second lag is required to equalize or stabilize pressures.
How are the various flight controls operated?
The flight control surfaces are manually actuated through use of either a rod or cable system. A control wheel actuates the ailerons and elevator, and rudder/brake pedals actuate the rudder.
What is the difference between an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection?
The main difference is who is allowed to perform these inspections. -Only an A&P mechanic with an Inspection Authorization can perform an annual -any A&P mech can do 100 hour
What records or documents should be checked to determine that the owner or operator of an aircraft has complied with all required inspections and airworthiness directives?
The maintenance records. Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries
Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition? (14 CFR 91.403)
The owner or operator
After aircraft inspections have been made and defects have been repaired, who is responsible for determining that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition?
The pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in a condition for safe flight.
What limitations apply to aircraft operations conducted using the deferral provision of 14 CFR §91.213(d)?
When inoperative equipment is found during preflight or prior to departure, the decision should be to cancel the flight, obtain maintenance prior to flight, or to defer the item or equipment. Maintenance deferrals are not used for inflight discrepancies. The manufacturer's AFM/POH procedures are to be used in those situations.
What method is used to determine that carburetor ice has been eliminated?
When the heat is first applied, there will be a drop in RPM in airplanes equipped with a fixed pitch propeller; there will be a drop in manifold pressure in airplanes equipped with a controllable-pitch propeller. If ice is present there will be a rise in RPM or manifold pressure after the initial drop (often accompanied by intermittent engine roughness); and then, when the carb heat is turned "off" the RPM or manifold pressure will rise to a setting greater than that before the application of the heat
What are some examples of other sources of weather information?
What are some examples of other sources of weather information?
How does vacuum system operate?
air is drawn into the vacuum system by the engine driven vacuum pump. it first goes through a filter, which prevents foreign matter from entering the vacuum pressure system. The air then moves through the attitude and heading indicators, where it causes the gyros to spin.
what is the definition of class e (controlled) airspace?
airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification
For an aircraft with an approved MEL, explain the decision sequence a pilot would use after discovering the position lights are inoperative.
With an approved MEL, if the position lights were discovered inoperative prior to a daytime flight, the pilot would make an entry in the maintenance record or discrepancy record provided for that purpose. The item is then either repaired or deferred in accordance with the MEL. Upon confirming that daytime flight with inoperative position lights is acceptable in accordance with the provisions of the MEL, the pilot would leave the position lights switch OFF, open the circuit breaker (or whatever action is called for in the procedures document), and placard the position light switch as INOPERATIVE.
What instruments operate off of the pitot/static system?
altimeter, vertical speed, and airspeed indicator
Define minimum safe altitude
altitude allowing (if power fails) an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
Define the term pressure altitude, and state why it is important
altitude indicated when altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92. Used to compute density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed, and other performance data
how is class d airspace depicted on navigational charts?
blue segmented lines IFR enroute lows with boxed D
What effect does torque reactio nhave on ana riplane on the ground and in flight?
in flight: torque around longitudinal axis, tending to make airplane roll. Some older planes are rigged to create more lift on wing that is being forced downward on the ground: during takeoff roll, an additional turning moment around the vertical axis is induced by torque reaction.
what is METAR and wat are two types
hour surface observation of conditions observed at an airport routine - transmitted every hour aviation selected special weather report (SPECI). special report that can be given at any time to update METAR for rapidly changing weather conditions, aircraft mishaps, or other critical info
Describe some of the weather products available when selecting the Obs/Warn tab of the GFA
provides option to display weather data for the current time and previous 14 hours -METAR -PCPN/WX -CIG/VIS -PIREP -RAD/SAT (radar satellite)
What are PIREPS, and where are they usually found
provides valuable information regarding conditions as they actually exist in the air, whcih cannot be gathered form any other source. UA (routine) or UUA (urgent)
How can a pilot determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for?
reference POH/AFM and supplement
What does the mixture control do?
regulates the fuel-to-air ratio used to prevent mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes due to decreasing air density.
what minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within class d airspace?
require 3SM visibility, cloud clearance 500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal
Describe the Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA).
set of web-based graphics that provide observations, forecasts and warning that at can be viewed from 14 hours in the past of 15 hours in the future. aviationweather.gov
When powering up an aircraft with an FMS/RNAV unit installed, how will you verify the effective dates of the navigation database?
the effective dates for the navigation database are typically shown on a start-up screen that is displayed as the system cycles through its startup self-test
What instruments contin gyroscopes?
turn coordinator, heading indicator, attitude indicator
What type of ignition does your plane have?
two engine-driven magnetos, and two spark plugs per cylinder
when departing a satellite airport without n operative control tower located within class d airspace, what requirement must be met?
two way radio comms
when operating in class d airspace or to airport within class d, what requirement must be met?
two way radio comms with ATC
How does an altimeter work?
wafers expand as air pressure changes
Eligibility requirements for PPL
-17 years of age -read, speak, write, and understand the english language -hold at least a current third-class medical cert -received the required ground and flight training endorsements -meet applicable aeronautical experience -passed required knowledge and practical tests
What are Center Weather Advisories (CWA)?
-An aviation warning for use by aircrews to anticipate and avoid adverse weather conditions in the enroute and terminal environments. -Not a flight planning product; reflects current conditions expected at the time of issuance and/or is a short range forecast for conditions expected to begin within 2 hours of issuance.
what are the different types of AIRMET
-Sierra describes IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations -Tango describes moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater -Zulu describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights `
pertinent info weather brief includes
-adverse conditions -VFR flt not recommended -synopsis -current conditions -enroute forecast -destination forecast -wind aloft -notices to airmen (NOTAMs) -ATC delay -MOAs, MTRs from FSS, etc
What factors affect performance of an a/c during takeoffs and landings?
-air density (density altitude) -surface wind -runway surface -upslope or downslope of runway -weight
How does weight affect takeoff and landing performance?
-higher lift off speed -greater mass to accelerate -increased retarding force (drag and ground friction) -longer take off distance
What performance characteristics will adversely affected when an a/c has been overloaded?
-higher takeoff speed -longer takeoff run -reduced rate and angle of climb -lower max altitude -shorter range -reduced cruising speed -reduced maneuverability -higher stalling speed -higher landing speed -longer landing roll -excessive weight on the nosewheel
What privileges and limitations apply to private pilot
-holds PPL cannot act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire -may act as PIC of an a/c in connection with any business or employment if it is only incidental to business or employment and doesn't carry passengers -may not payless than pro rata share -may act as PIC of charitable, nonprofit, or community event flight -may be reimbursed for a/c operating expenses that are directly related to search and location operations -may demonstrate an a/c in flight to a prospective buyer if the private pilot is an a/c salesman has at leat 200 hours of logged flight time -may act as PIC of an a/c towing glider, provided they meet 3 takeoffs and landings -may act as PIC for uprose of flight test in light-sport aircraft
You're planning a cross-county flight. Does the weather data provided by commercial and/or third party vendors satisfy the preflight action required by 14 CFR §91.103?
-services other than FAA, NWS and contractors may not meet FAA/NWS quality control standards
Give some examples of the various NWS weather charts you will use during preflight planning.
-surface analysis chart -weather depiction chart: being phased out -short-range surface prognostic chart -significant weather prognostic chart -convective outlook chart -constant pressure analysis chart (phased out) -freezing level graphics
What are some main elements of a/c performance?
-takeoff/landing distance -rate of climb -ceiling -payload -range -speed -fuel ecnomy -maneuverability -stability
describe basic elements of METAR
-type of report -ICAO 4 letter ID -date and time of report -modifier (AUTO/AO2), etc) -wind -visibility -runway visual range (RVR) -weather -sky condition -temp/dew -altimeter -remarks
What basic equation is used in all weight and balance problems to find the center of gravity location of an airplane and/or its components?
-weight x arm = moment -arm (CG) =(total moment)/(total weight) -WAM
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
59°F or 15°C and 29.92" Hg or 1013.2 millibars.
If time is 2 hours, 13 minutes and gallons consumed is 32, what will the gallons-per-hour be?
14.4 GPH
At what rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with an increase in altitude?
1" Hg per 1,000 feet.
What is class A airspace?
18000 ft (5500 m) mean sea level (MSL) to 60000 ft (18000 m) MSL alternatively, flight level (FL) 180 to FL 600
When are spins most likely to occur?
1. Engine failure during takeoff climb out 2. Crossed-control turn from base to final 3. Engine failure on approach to landing 4. Go around with full nose-up trim 5. Go-around with improper flap retraction
What procedure should be used to recover from an inadvertent spin?
1. close the throttle 2. Neutralize the ailerons 3. apply full opposite rudder 4. Brisk move the elevator control forward to approximately the neutral position 5. once a stall is broken the spinning will stop 6. when the rudder is neutralized, gradually apply enough aft elevator pressure PARE (Power, ailerons, rudder, elevator)
What are the two main advantages of duel ignition system?
1. increased safety: one system fails you have the other 2. improved engine performance
For what two reasons is load factor important to pilots?
1. obviously dangerous overload that is possible for a pilot to impose on the aircraft structure 2. increased load factor increases the stalling speed and makes stalls possible at seemingly safe flight speeds
What type of fuel does a/c require and what color?
100LL, blue
Within what frequency range do VORs operate?
108.0 to 117.95
If IAS is 103, altitude is 6,000 feet, and the temperature is -10C, what will the TAS b?
110 TAS
If time equals 25 minutes and distance equals 47 NM, what will speed be?
113 kts
100 NM = SM
115
What is universal VHF emergency frequency?
121.5 MHz
What frequencies are used for ground control
121.6 - 121.9
If altitude is 10,000 feet, temperature is 0C, and IAS is 115, what will TAS be?
135 TAS
If the temperature is 40F, the IAS is 115, and the altitude is 11,000 feet, what will the TAS be?
139 TAS
what are the basic dimensions of class c airspace?
5NM radius core surface area that extends from surface up to 4,000ft. 10NM, 1,200ft to 4,000 ft. 20NM, variations
what is the maximum speed an a/c may be operated within class d airspace?
200knots
when operating beneath the lateral limits of class b airspace, or in VFR corridor designated through class b airspace, what maximum speed is authorized?
200knots
12 quarts of oil = _____ pounds
22.5
20 knots = mph
23
80F = C
26.6
45 gallons fuel = lbs
270
what is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over an area designated as a U.S. wildlife refuge, park or forest service area?
2,000 feet above surface
what is maximum speed an aircraft may be operated within class c airspace?
200 knots
How many miles can you glide in your aircraft per 1,000ft of altitude lost?
2NM per 1,000ft altitude lost above ground level
How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position?
3 - lat and long (2D) 5 - 3D and RAIM 6 - 3D and RAIM
If gallons consumed is 38 and gallons per hour is 10.8, what will the time be?
3 hours 31 minutes
If pressure altitude is 5,000 feet and the temperature is -10C what will the density altitude be?
3,100 feet
If gallons per hour is 9.3 in time is 1 hour 27 minutes, how many gallons will be consumed?
3.5 gallons
If a pilot changes his/her permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification branch of the new address, how long may the pilot continue to exercise the privileges of his/her pilot certificate?
30 days after the date of the move.
what is the fuel requirement for VFR flight during day?
30 min reserve
If distance equals 84 NM and speed equals 139 knots, what will time be?
36 minutes
what minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within class c airspace?
3SM visibility, cloud 500ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal
If pressure altitude is 1,500 feet nd temperature is 35C, what will the density altitude be?
4,100 feet
If the pressure altitude is 2,000 feet and the temperature is 30C, what will the density altitude be?
4,200 feet
what is the fuel requirement for VFR flight at night?
45 min reserve
What is the definition of a complex airplane, and what must you do to act as pilot-of-command of such an airplane?
A "complex airplane" is defined as an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller; a. Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, b. Received a one-time endorsement in your logbook
What is the primary means of obtaining a weather briefing?
A Flight Service Station (FSS) is the primary source of preflight weather information. Weather briefings are available via 1-800-WX-BRIEF and 1800wxbrief.com
what is a G-AIRMET
A G-AIRMET is a graphical advisory of weather that may be hazardous to aircraft, but are less severe than SIGMETs. G-AIRMETs identify hazardous weather in space and time more precisely than text products, enabling pilots to maintain high safety margins while flying more efficient routes. They are issued at 03:00, 09:00, 15:00 and 21:00 UTC (with updates issued as necessary). Hazards depicted in G-AIRMETs include turbulence, low level wind shear, strong surface winds, Icing, freezing level, IFR, and mountain obscurations
what is a sigmet (ws)
A SIGMET (WS) advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. SIGMET5 are issued for the six areas corresponding to the FA areas. The maximum forecast period is four hours. In the conterminous United States, SIGMETs are issued when the following phenomena occur or are expected to occur: a. Severe icing not associated with a thunderstorm. b. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms. c. Dust storms or sandstorms lowering surface or in-flight visibili ties to below 3 miles. d. Volcanic ash.
What are "Special Flight Permits," and when are they necessary?
A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight. a. Flying an aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage. b. Delivering or exporting an aircraft. c. Production flight testing new-production aircraft. d. Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger. e. Conducting customer demonstration flights in new-production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests.
How does carburetor heat system work?
A carburetor heat valve, controlled by the pilot, allows unfiltered heated air from a shroud located around an exhaust riser or muffler to be directed to the induction air manifold prior to the carburetor.
What is magnetic deviation?
A compass error caused by magnetic disturbances from electrical and metal components in the airplane. The correction for this error is displayed on a compass correction card placed near the magnetic compass in the airplane.
What is the convective SIGMET
A convective SIGMET (WST) implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low-level wind shear. It may be issued for any convective situation which the forecaster feels is hazardous to all categories of aircraft. Convective SIGMET bulletins are issued for the Eastern (E), Central (C) and Western (W) United States (convective SIGMETs are not issued for Alaska or Hawaii). Bulletins are issued hourly at H+55. Special bulletins are issued at any time as required and updated at H+55. The text of the bulletin consists of either an observation and a forecast, or just a forecast, which is valid for up to 2 hours. a. Severe thunderstorm due to: • Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots • Hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4 inches in diameter • Tornadoes b. Embedded thunderstorms c. A line of thunderstorms d. Thunderstorms producing greater than or equal to heavy precipitation that affects 40 percent or more of an area at least 3,000 square miles.
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane, and what must you do to act as pilot-in-command of such an airplane? (14
A high-performance is an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower. To act as PIC of a high-performance you must have: a. Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a flight simulator b. Received and logged a one-time endorsement in your logbook
What type of engine does your aircraft have?
A horizontally opposed four-cylinder, direct drive, air-cooled, carbureted engine. The engine is manufactured by Lycoming and is rated at 112 HP.
2. If your route of flight takes you towards a low-pressure system, in general, what kind of weather can you expect? What if you were flying towards a high-pressure system?
A low-pressure system is characterized by rising air, which is conducive to cloudiness, precipitation and bad weather. A high-pressure system is an area of descending air which tends to favor dissipation of cloudiness and good weather.
What flight time can a pilot log as second-in-command time?
A person may log second-in-command (SIC) time only for that flight time during which that a. Is qualified in accordance with the SIC requirements of 14 CFR §61.55, and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft's type certificate; or b. Holds the appropriate category, class, and instrument rating (if an instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted.
What are the two types of ADS-B equipment?
ADS-B out: auto broadcast a/c GPS position, altitude, velocity, to ATC ground. required in all airspace where transponders are required ADS-B In: receipt, processing, and display. In capability is necessary to receive ADS-B traffic and broad cast services
Describe function of the following avionics equipment acronyms: AHRS, ADC, PFD, MFD, FD, FMS, INS
AHRS: altitude and heading reference system. replace traditional mechanical gyroscopic flight instruments nd provide superior reliability and accuracy. ADC: air data computer. pilot pressure, static, pressure, and temp to calculate altitude, indicated speed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and air temp. PFD: primary flight display. 6 easy to scan display MFD: multi-function display. (nav, moving maps, terrain) FD: flight director. presents steering instructions to navigate FMS: flight management system. programs routes, approaches, and departures INS: inertial navigation system. tracks movement of a/c
before operating an aircraft into class b airspace, what basic requirement must be met?
ATC clearance
What is advection fog, and where is it most likely to form?
Advection fog results from the transport of warm humid air over a cold surface. A pilot can expect advection fog to form primarily along coastal areas during the winter. Unlike radiation fog, it may occur with winds, cloudy skies, over a wide geographic area, and at any time of the day or night.
What are the two main categories of aircraft icing?
Aircraft icing in flight is usually classified as being either structural icing or induction icing. Structural icing refers to ice that forms on aircraft surfaces and components, and induction icing refers to ice that forms in the engine's induction system.
May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft?
Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft Exceptions: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of aircraft has determined will not cause interference
Describe some of the responsibilities an aircraft owner has pertaining to aircraft documents, maintenance, and inspections of their aircraft.
Aircraft owners must: a. Have a current airworthiness certificate and aircraft registration in the aircraft. b. Maintain the aircraft in an airworthy condition including compliance with all applicable Airworthiness Directives. c. Ensure maintenance is properly recorded. d. Keep abreast of current regulations concerning the operation of that aircraft. e. Notify the FAA Civil Aviation Registry immediately of any change of permanent mailing address, or of the sale or export of the aircraft, or of the loss of citizenship. f. Have a current FCC radio station license if equipped with radios, including emergency locator transmitter (ELT), if operated outside of the United States.
Where can you find information on the placards and marking information required to be in the airplane?
Airplane flight manuals. The required placards are also reproduced in the "Limitations" section of the AFM or as directed by an AD.
What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight?
Airworthiness Certificate (14 CFR §91.203) Registration Certificate (14 CFR §91.203) Radio Station License (if operating outside of U.S.; an FCC regulation) Operating Limitations—AFM/POH and supplements, placards, markings (14 CFR §91.9) Weight and balance data (current) Compass Deviation Card (14 CFR §23.1547) External Data Plate/Serial Number (14 CFR §45.11)
What factors affect air density?
Altitude - higher = less dense Temperature - warmer = less Humidity - more = less dense
What are airworthiness directives
An AD is the medium by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other potentially interested persons of unsafe conditions that may exist because because of design defects, maintenance, or other causes, and specifies the conditions under which the product may continue to be operated. ADs are regulatory in nature, and compliance is mandatory. It is the aircraft owner's or operator's responsibility to ensure compliance with all pertinent ADs.
If the annual inspection date has passed, can an aircraft be operated to a location where the inspection can be performed?
An aircraft overdue for an annual inspection may be operated under a Special Flight Permit issued by the FAA for the purpose of flying the aircraft to a location where the annual inspection can be performed. However, all applicable ADs that are due must be complied with before the flight.
What is an airfoil? State some examples.
An airfoil is a device which gets a useful reaction from air moving over its surface, namely LIFT. Wings, horizontal tail surfaces, vertical tail surfaces, and propellers are examples of airfoils.
What is an airworthiness certificate?
An airworthiness certificate is issued by the FAA to an aircraft that has been proven to meet the minimum design and manufacturing requirements and is condition for safe operation. Under any circumstances, the aircraft must meet the requirements of the original type certificate or it is no longer airworthy. These certificates come in two different classifications: standard airworthiness and special airworthiness.
What is an "annual" inspection and which aircraft are required to have annual inspections?
An annual inspection is a complete inspection of an aircraft and engine, required by the regulations and is required to be accomplished every 12 calendar months on all certificated aircraft. Only an A&P technician holding an Inspection Authorization can conduct an annual inspection.
When are emergency ADs issued?
An emergency AD is issued when an unsafe condition exists that requires immediate action by an owner/operator rapidly correct an urgent safety-of-flight situation.
What causes an airplane to stall?
An excessive angle of attack (air struggles to get over the wing) Exceeding the critical angle of attack
What is a temperature inversion?
An inversion is an increase in temperature with height—a reversal of the normal decrease with height. An inversion aloft permits warm rain to fall through cold air below. Temperature in the cold air can be critical to icing. A ground-based inversion favors poor visibility by trapping fog, smoke, and other restrictions into low levels of the atmosphere. The air is stable, with little or no turbulence.
What are isobars?
An isobar is a line on a weather chart which connects areas of equal or constant barometric pressure.
What is angle of attack?
Angle between chord line and relative wind
What are the required tests and inspections to be performed on an aircraft? Include inspections for IFR.
Annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months (14 CFR §91.409) Airworthiness directives and life-limited parts complied with, as required (14 CFR §91.403, §91.417) VOR equipment check every 30 days (for IFR ops) (14 CFR §91.171) 100-hour inspection, if used for hire or flight instruction in aircraft CFI provides (14 CFR Altimeter, altitude reporting equipment, and static pressure systems tested and inspected (for IFR ops) every 24 calendar months (14 CFR §91.411) Transponder tests and inspections, every 24 calendar months (14 CFR §91.413) Emergency locator transmitter, operation and battery condition inspected every 12 calendar months (14 CFR §91.207)
Define the terms "anti-icing equipment" and "deicing equipment" and state several examples of each.
Anti-icing equipment: prevents ice from forming on certain protected surfaces. Examples are heated pitot tubes and static ports, carburetor heat, heated fuel vents, propeller blades with electrothermal boots, and heated windshields Deicing equipment: removes ice that has already formed on protected surfaces. i tis generally limited to pneumatic boots on the wing and tail leading edges
What instruments and equipment are required for VFR day flight?
Anticollision light system—aviation red or white for small airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996 Tachometer for each engine Oil pressure gauge for each engine Manifold pressure gauge (for each altitude engine, i.e. turbocharged) Altimeter Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine Fuel gauge indicating the quantity in each tank Flotation gear—if operated for hire over water beyond power-off gliding distance from shore Landing gear position indicator, if the airplane has retractable gear Airspeed indicator Magnetic direction indicator Emergency locator transmitter (if required by 14 CFR §91.207) Safety belts (and shoulder harnesses for each front seat in aircraft manufactured after 1978)
What are constant pressure analysis charts?
Any surface of equal pressure in the atmosphere is a constant pressure surface. A Constant Pressure Analysis chart is an upper air weather map where all information depicted is at the specified pressure of the chart. From these charts, a pilot can approximate the observed air temperature, wind, and ternperature/dewpoint spread along a proposed route. They also depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft by the height contour patterns resembling isobars on a surface map. Twice daily, six computer prepared constant pressure charts are transmitted by facsimile for six pressure levels: 850mb 5,000 ft 700mb 10,000 ft 500mb 18,000 ft 300mb 30,000 ft 250mb 34,000 ft 200mb 39,000 ft
What are the errors of attitude indicator?
Are free from most errors , they may be a slight nose up indication during rapid acceleration and a nose down indication during a rapid deceleration.
What action should be taken if detonation is suspected?
Avoided if: a. ensure that the proper grade of fuel is used b. keep the cowl flaps (if available) in the full-open position while on the ground to provide the maximum airflow through the cowling c. use an enriched fuel mixture, as well as a shallow climb angle, to increase cylinder cooling during takeoff and initial climb d. avoid extended, high power, steep climbs e. develop the habit of monitoring the engine instruments to verify proper operation according to procedures established by the manufacturer
What is the order of right-of-way as applied to the different categories of a/c?
BGAAR "BIG R" Balloons Gliders Airships Airplanes Rotor aircraft a/c towing or refueling have ROW over all engine drive a/c
What are the limitations of the heading indicator?
Bank and pitch limits. 55 pitch 55 bank.
When flying below 18,000 feet MSL, cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure?
Barometric pressure 31.00" Hg or less: maintain cruising altitude (altimeter set to station within 100NM) If no station in area, set to available station. If pressure exceeds 31" consult AIM
What is an aircraft registration certificate?
Before an aircraft can be flown legally, it must be registered with the FAA Aircraft Registry. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration, which is issued to the owner as evidence of the registration, must be carried in the aircraft at all times.
Explain the difference between being "current" and being "proficient."
Being "current" means that a pilot has accomplished the minimum FAA regulatory requirements within a specific time period so he or she can exercise the privileges of their certificate. means that you're "legal" to make a flight, but does not necessarily mean that you're proficient or competent to make that flight. Being "proficient" means that a pilot is capable of conducting a flight with a high degree of competence; it requires that the pilot must have a wide range of knowledge and skills. Being proficient is not about just being "legal" in terms of the regulations, but is about being "smart" and "safe" in terms of pilot experience and proficiency.
what minimum visibility flight and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in the following situations?
CDE: less than 10,000ft MSL: 3SM, 500 below/1,000above/2000horizontal above 10,000ft: 5SM, 1,000below/1,000above/1SM horizontal G: 1,200ft or less above the surface: DAY - 1SM, clear of clouds. NIGHT - 3SM, 500below/1000above/2000horizontal more than 1,200 above, less than 10,000: DAY - 1SM 500below/1000above/2000horizontal. NIGHT - 3SM, 500below/1000above/2000horizontal more 1,200 at or above 10,000 5SM, 1000below/1000above/1SMhorizontal
What conditions are favorable for carburetor icing?
Carburetor ice is most likely to occur when temperatures are below 70F (21C) and the relative humidity is above 80 percent. However, due to the sudden cooling that takes place in the carburetor, icing can occur even with temperatures as high as 100F (38C) and humidity as low as 50 percent. This temperature drop can be as much as 60 to 70F
With respect to certification, privileges, and limitations of airmen, define the terms: category, class, and type.
Category—a broad classification of aircraft; i.e., airplane, rotorcraft, glider, Class—a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics; i.e., single-engine land, multi-engine land; etc. Type—a specific make and basic model of aircraft including modifications that do not change its handling or flight characteristics; i.e., DC-9, B-737, C-150, etc.
what is the definition of class g airspace?
Class G or uncontrolled airspace is that portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. It is airspace in which air traffic control has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic, however, pilots should remember there are VFR minimums that apply to this airspace.
Name the three types of structural icing that may occur in flight.
Clear ice—forms after initial impact when the remaining liquid portion of the drop flows out over the aircraft surface, gradually freezing as a smooth sheet of solid ice. Rime ice—forms when drops are small, such as those in stratified clouds or light drizzle. The liquid portion remaining after initial impact freezes rapidly before the drop has time to spread out over aircraft surface. Mixed ice—forms when drops vary in size or when liquid drops are intermingled with snow or ice particles. The ice particles become imbedded in clear ice, building a very rough accumulation.
If becomes apparent you cannot locate position, what action is recommended? (4 Cs)
Climb (better comms) Communication (121.5) Confess Comply
What are the general characteristics of the weather a pilot would encounter when operating near a cold front? A warm front?
Cold front—As the front passes, expected weather can include towering cumulus or cumulonimbus, heavy rain accompanied by lightning, thunder and/or hail; tornadoes possible; Warm front—As the front passes, expected weather can include stratiform clouds, drizzle, low ceilings and poor visibility; variable winds; rise in temperature.
Describe the different types of fronts.
Cold front—occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air. Occluded front—A frontal occlusion occurs when a fast-moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front. Two types: cold front occlusion and warm front occlusion. Warm front—The boundary area formed when a warm air mass contacts and flows over a colder air mass. Stationery front—When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences the local weather for days. The weather is typically a mixture of both warm and cold fronts.
What procedures should be followed if an engine fire develops on the ground during starting?
Continue to attempt an engine start as a start will cause flames and excess fuel to be sucked back through the carburetor a. if engine starts: increase power to higher RPM, shut down engine and inspect b. if engine doesn't start: set throttle to "full", set mixture control to "idle cutoff", continue to try an engine start in an attempt to put out the fire by vacuum c. if the fire continues: turn the ignition switch to "off", turn the master switch to "off", set the fuel selector to "off" in all cases, evacuate the aircraft and obtain a fire extinguisher and/or assitance
state required action for converging/approaching head on/overtaking
Converging: a/c on right has ROW head on: alter course to starboard overtaking: a/c overtaken has ROW. overtaking alter course to starboard
What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?
Cumulus stage—Updrafts cause raindrops to increase in size. Mature stage—Rain at earth's surface; it falls through or immediately beside the updrafts; lightning; perhaps roll clouds. Dissipating stage—Downdrafts and rain begin to dissipate.
What is a VOR radial?
Defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending from a VOR. Projects 360 radials from the station
Define "loss-of-control-inflight" (LOC-I) and describe several situations that might increase the risk of an LOC-I accident occurring.
Defined as a significant deviation of an aircraft from the intended flight path and it often results from a plane upset
Define the term density altitude
Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
What is a convective outlook chart?
Depicts areas of forecast to have potential for severe tornado, wind gusts greater than 50 knots, or hail 3/4-inch diamter size or great), and non severe convection and specific wx threats for the following three days. defines slight risk (SLGT), moderate risk (MDT), or high risk (HIGH)
Name several important airspeed limitations not marked on the face of the airspeed indicator.
Design maneuvering speed (VA): max speed at which structural design's limit load can be imposed without causing structural damage. Landing gear operating speed (VLO): max speed for extending or retracting the landing gear if using aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear Best of angle of climb speed (VX): important when short-field takeoff to clear an obstacle is required Best rate of climb speed (VY): airspeed that will give the pilot the most altitude in a given period of time
What does dew point mean?
Dew point is the temperature to which a sample of air must be cooled to attain the state of saturation.
Define empty weight, gross weight, useful load, arm, moment, center of gravity, datum
Empty weight: weight of airframe, engines all permanently installed equipment and usable fuel. Gross weight: max allowable weight of both airplane and contents Useful load: weight of pilot, copilot, passengers, baggage, usable fuel and drainable oil Arm: horizontal distance in inches from the reference datum line to the center of gravity of the item Moment: product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm. moments are expressed in pound-inches Center of gravity: point which a/c would balance if it were possible to suspend it at that point Datum: imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements of arm are taken
If an airplane has anti-icing and or/ deicing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions?
Even though it may appear elaborate and complete, the presence of anti-icing and deicing equipment doesn't mean that an airplane is approved for flight in icing conditions. The AFM/POH, placards, and even the manufacturer should be consulted for specific determination of approvals and limitations
Define aviation area forecasts
FAs are issued for gulf of mexico, carribean sea, and alaska. FA is abbreivated plain language forecast concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified enroute weather pheonomea. cover an 18 to 24 hour period, depending on region
while enroute how can pilot obtain updated weather info
FSS 122.2 appropriate RCO (remote communication outlet) frequences ATIS, ASOS, AWS ARTCC. convective sigmat, sigmat, airmet, datalink weather, cockpit display of FIS-B ATC
what actions should be taken if you become disoriented or lost on a cross-country flight (no GPS avail) plenty of fuel and weather conditions good
Fly heading in direction you believe is correct if flying steady compass heading and keeping accurate log, it's not likely you'll have a problem location position use VORs use last known position draw semi circle head of last known position Look for land marks
How does fog form?
Fog forms when the temperature and dewpoint of the air become identical (or nearly so). This may occur through cooling of the air to a little beyond its dewpoint (producing radiation fog, advection fog, or upslope fog), or by adding moisture and thereby elevating the dewpoint (producing frontal fog or steam fog).
Why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy-lined box?
Frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies
How does the aircraft cabin heat work?
Fresh air, heated by an exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through a series of ducts
What purpose do fuel tank vents have?
Fuel system venting provides a way of replacing fuel with outside air, preventing formation of a vacuum. Tanks may be vented through the filler cap or through a tube extending through the surface of the wing.
What instruments and equipment are required for VFR night flight?
Fuses—one spare set or three fuses of each kind required accessible to the pilot in flight Landing light—if the aircraft is operated for hire Anticollision light system—approved aviation red or white Position lights—(navigation lights) Source of electrical energy—adequate for all installed electrical and radio equipment
What are the standard weights assumed for the following when calculating weight and balance problems?
Gasoline: 6lbs/US gal Oil: 7.5lbs/US gal Water: 8.35lbs/US gal
What are four factors that contribute to torque effect?
Gyroscopic effect on propeller Corkscrewing effect of the propeller slipstream Asymmetrical loading of the propeller (Pfactor) Torque reaction of engine and propeller
Other than high-performance and complex aircraft, what other types of aircraft (ASEL) require specific training and logbook endorsements from an appropriately rated flight instructor?
High-altitude airplane Tailwheel airplane
What procedures should be followed concerning a partial loss of power in flight?
If a partial loss of power occurs, the first priority is to establish and maintain a suitable airspeed. Then, select an emergency landing area and remain within gliding distance. As time allows, attempt to determine the cause and correct it. Complete checklist: a. check the carburetor heat b. check the amount of fuel in each tank and switch fuel tanks if necessary c. check the fuel selector valve's current position d. check the mixture control e. check that the primer control is all the way in and locked f. check the operation of the magnetos in all three positions; both, left or right
How are "Special Flight Permits" obtained?
If a special flight permit is needed, assistance and the necessary forms may be obtained from the local FSDO or Designated Airworthiness Representative (DAR).
What are the various power sources that may be used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an airplane?
In some planes, gyrs are vacuum pressure. In others vaccum provide power to heading and attiude indicators while electrical system provides power for turn coordinator. Most planes have two source of power to ensure at least one source of bank information if one pwer source fails
What flight condition will result in the sum of the opposing forces being equal?
In steady-state, straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, the sum of the opposing forces id equal to zero. There can be no unbalanced forces in steady, straight flight. This is true whether flying level or when climbing or descending. It does not mean the four forces are equal. It means the opposing forces are equal to, and thereby cancel the effects of each other
what are the four types of inflight aviation weather advisories
Inflight aviation weather advisories are forecasts to advise enroute aircraft of the development of potentially hazardous weather in four types: SIGMET (WS), convective SIGMET (WST), AIRMET(WA)
What four strokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four-stroke engine in order for it to produce full power?
Intake, compression, power, exhaust suck, squeeze, bang, blow
define aerobatic flight
Intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight
What does the ammeter indicate?
It shows if the alternator/ generator is producing an adequate supply of electrical power to the system by measuring the amperes of electricity, and also indicates whether the battery is receiving an electrical charge
What major problems can be caused by ground effect?
Landing: height of 1/10 of wing span. Any excess speed during landing phase may result in significant float distance. If care is not exercised by pilot, he/she may not run out of runway and options at the same time. Takeoff: reduced drag in ground effect, the aircraft may seem capable of takeoff well below recommended speed. In extreme conditions, such as high temps, high gross weight, and high-density altitude, the airplane may become airborne with a deficiency of speed
What situations may result in load factors reaching the maximum or being exceeded?
Level turns Turbulence Speed
What is load factor?
Lift divided by total weight. Total load supported by airplane's wing o the actual weight of the airplane and its contents
What are the four dynamic forces that act on an airplane during all maneuvers?
Lift: upward acting force Gravity: weight, the downward acting force Thrust: forward acting force Drag: backward acting force
How is steering accomplished on the ground
Light airplanes are generally provided with nosewheel steering capabilities through a simple system of mechanical linkage connected to the rudder pedals.
What is an isogonic line?
Line of equal magnetic variation
State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere.
Low pressure—inward, upward, and counterclockwise. High pressure—outward, downward, and clockwise.
What effect does a rearward center of gravity have on an a/c flight characteristics?
Lower stall speed - less wing loading high cruise speed - reduced drag; smaller angle of attack is required to maintain altitude less stable - stall and spin recover more difficult; the center of gravity is closer to the center of pressure, causing longitudinal instability
How does the magnetic compass work?
Magnetized needles fastened to a float assembly , around which is mounted a compass card, aligned themselves parallel to the earths lines of magnetic force. In a bowl filled with white-kerosene
How does the airspeed indicator operate?
Measures the difference between ram pressure from the pitot head and atmospheric pressure from the static source
What does carburetor do?
Mixes fuel and air to create a combustible mixture
What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol?
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of civil aircraft: a. within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage b. while under influence of alcohol c. while using any drug that affects that person's faculties in any way contrary to safety d. while having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 percent or more in blood or breath specimen
What regulations apply concerning the operation of an aircraft that has had alterations or repairs which may have substantially affected its operation in flight?
No person may operate or carry passengers in any aircraft that has undergone maintenance, preventative, etc. until an appropriately-rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate a. Flies the aircraft; b. Makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made; and c. Logs the flight in the aircraft records.
Can a flight under VFR be conducted within Class A airspace?
No, must operate IFR
Does an airworthiness certificate have an expiration date?
No.
The annual inspection for your aircraft is now due and you ask several friends that fly with you regularly to contribute money to help you pay for the inspection. Do the regulations allow for these contributions?
No. A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata (proportional)
The rental a/c you normally fly has just returned from the avionics shop with newer, lighter-weight avionics. When reviewing a/c weight and balance record, you don't see an A&P entry reflecting this change. Is this normal?
No. Changes of fixed equipment may have a major effect upon weight of a/c. Weight change can cause CG to shift.
You have not kept up with logging each of your recent flights. Are you in violation of any regulation?
No. You're only required to document and record the training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review, and the aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements.
During a preflight briefing, will the FSS briefer automatically provide a pilot with GPS NOTAMS?
No. you must specifically request GPS/WAAS NOTAMs.
What are the limitations of a pressure altimeter?
Nonstandard pressure and temperature; temperature variations expand or contract the atmosphere and raise or lower pressure levels that the altimeter senses. On a warm day - the pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude. On a cold day - The pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude. Remember: High to low or hot to cold, look out below!
What are the different operational categories for aircraft and within which category does your aircraft fall?
Normal: +3.8 to -1.52 Utility: +4.4 to -1.76 Aerobatic: +6.0--3.00
The electrical system provides power for what equipment in an airplane
Normally: radio equipment turn coordinator fuel gauges pitot heat landing light taxi light strobe lights interior lights instrument lights position lights flaps (maybe) stall warning system (maybe) oil temperature gauge electrical fuel pump (maybe)
what procedures should be used when attempting communications with a tower when a/c transmitter or receiver or both are inoperative?
OHRECEIVER inoperative: a. remain outside or above class D surface area b. determine direction and flow of traffic c. advise tower of a/c type, position, altitude, and intention to land. request t be controlled by light signals d. at 3 to 5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern e. watch tower for light gun signals TRANSMITTER inoperative a. remain outside or above class D surface area b. determine direction and flow of traffic c. monitor frequency for landing or traffic information d. join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals e. daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights BOTH inoperative: a. remain outside or above class D surface are b. determine direction and flow of traffic c. join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals d. acknowledge light signals as noted above
What are the various compass errors?
Oscillation Error - Erratic Movement Caused by Turbulence Deviation Error - Due to Electrical or Magnetic Disturbances Variation Error - Angular Differences Between True and Magnetic North acceleration error: E or W headings. ANDS (accelerate north, decelerate south) Northerly turning error: compass leads in south half of a turn, lags in north half of turn. UNOS (undershoot north, overshoot south)
What responsibility does the pilot-in-command have concerning passengers and their use of seatbelts?
PIC ensures each person is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten safety belt. Ensure safety shoulder harness knoweldge of how to fasten is known
it becomes apparent that wake turbulence may be encountered while ATC is providing sequencing and separation services in class b airspace. whose responsibility is it to avoid this turbulence?
PIC.
what is minimum pilot certification for operations conducted within class A airspace?
PPL with instrument
Where can you find a list of the medical conditions that may disqualify you from obtaining a medical certificate?
Part 67 medical certificates can be found in Part 61.
The airplane you normally rent has been grounded due to an intermittent electrical problem. You ask to be scheduled in another airplane. During preflight of the new airplane, you discover that it has avionics you're unfamiliar with. Should you go ahead and depart on your VFR flight?
Pilot familiarity with all equipment is critical in optimizing both safety and efficiency. As a result, pilots should not look upon unfamiliarity with the aircraft and its systems as a risk control measure, but instead as a hazard with high risk potential. Discipline is the key to success.
What are three common ways to navigate?
Pilotage - reference to land marks dead reckoning - computing direction and distance from a known position radio navigation - by use of radio aids
What are the errors of the airspeed indicator?
Position Error - Caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing actual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude and configuration, and may be a plus or minus value. Density Error - Changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for by the instrument. Compressibility Error - Caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It is usually not a factor at slower speeds.
5. How will establishing a personal minimums checklist reduce risk?
Pre-established numbers can make it a lot easier to come to a smart go/no-go or diversion decision. A written set of personal minimums also make it easier to explain tough cancelation or diversion decisions to passengers who are, after all, trusting their lives to your aeronautical skill and judgment.
What is preignition?
Preignition is defined as ignition of the fuel prior to normal ignition, or ignition before the electrical arcing occurs at the spark plugs. Preignition may be caused by excessively hot exhaust valves, carbon particles or spark plug electrodes heated to an incandescent or glowing state. In most cases these local "hot spots" are caused by the high temperatures encountered during detonation.
Define preventive maintenance.
Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. Certificated pilots, excluding student pilots, sport pilots, and recreational pilots, may perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft
What type of aviation forecasts are available when selecting "forecast" tab of the GFA?
Provide gridded displays of various weather parameters as well as NWS textual weather observations, forecasts, and warnings out to 15 hours. -TAF (terminal aerodrome forecast) -CIG/VIS (ceiling and visibility) -Clouds -PCPN/WX (precip and weather) -TS (thunderstorm) -Winds -turb (turbulence) -ice
Describe a ceiling and visibility analysis (CVA)
Real-time analysis of current ceiling and vis conditions across the continental US. followed by further examination of METARs, TAFs, AIRMETs, GFAs, FAs and other weather info.
What is the purpose of RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) verifies integrity/usability of the signals received from the GPS constellation. Needs at least 5 satellites in view or 4 satellites and barometric altimeter (baro-aiding) to detect integrity anomaly).
What is an RCO? (AIM Glossary)
Remote communications outlet (RCO) is an unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel. purpose to provide ground-to-ground communications between ATC and pilots located at satellite airports Used for advisory purposes whenever the aircraft is below the coverage of the primary air/ground frequency
Interpret ammeter indications (right deflection positive after starting and during flight) (left deflection negative)
Right deflection: after starting: power from battery used for starting is being replenished by the alternator; if full-scale charge is indicated for more than 1 minute, the start is still engaged and a shutdown is indicated during flight: a faulty voltage regulator is causing the alternator to overcharge the battery. Reset the system and if the condition continues, terminate the flight as soon as possible Left deflection: after starting: normal during start. other times indicates alternator is not functioning or an overload condition exists in the system. Battery is not receiving a charge during flight: the alternator is not functioning or an overload exists in the system. the battery is not receiving a charge. Possible causes: the master switch was accidentally shut off, or the alternator circuit breaker tripped
What are two fundamental properties of a gyroscope?
Rigidity in space: gyroscope remains in fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning Precession: tilting or turning of gyro in response to deflective force. Rection to force does not occur at point where it was applied; rather, it occurs at point that is 90 degrees later in the direction of rotation.
What type of aeronautical charts are available for use in VFR navigation?
Sectional charts: visual navigation slow to medium a/c. 1" equals 6.86nm. revised semiannually, alskan charts revised annually VFR terminal area (TAC): depict class B airspace. more detail, scale is larger. revised semiannually, puerto rico and virgin islands annually VFR Flyway planning charts - printed on reverse side of selected TAC charts. coverage is same as TAC. They depict flight paths and altitudes recommended for use to bypass high traffic areas.
When significant precipitation is occurring at the surface, how thick can you expect the clouds to be?
Significant precipitation usually requires clouds to be at least 4,000 feet thick. The heavier the precipitation, the thicker the clouds are likely to be.
What limitations does the magnetic compass have?
Steeper than 18 Degrees of Bank = Errors
Does an aircraft have to remain stationary during AHRS system initialization?
Some AHRS must be on the ground prior to departure. Others are capable of doing it in taxiing and in flight.
What are the three functional elements of GPS?
Space element - consists of 30 satellites Control element - consists of a network of ground-based GPS monitoring and control stations that ensure the accuracy of satellite positions and their clocks. User element - consists of antennas and receiver-processors onboard aircraft that provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing to the user.
What is the difference between standard and special airworthiness certificates?
Standard airworthiness certificates (white paper) are issued for normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category aircraft. Special airworthiness certificates (pink paper) are issued for primary, restricted, or limited category aircraft, and light sport aircraft.
Why do surface winds generally flow across the isobars at an angle?
Surface friction.
What receptions distances can be expected from the various class VORs?
T-12,000' and below. 25 miles L-below 18,000'. 4o miles H-below 18,000'. 40 miles H-14,400-17,999'. 100 (conterminous 48 states only) H-18,000-FL450. 130 miles H-above FL450. 100 miles
What effect does wind have on a/c performance?
Takeoff: effect of headwind is to allow a/c to reach lift-ff speed at lower ground speed, which will increase a/c performance by shortening take off distance. Tailwind, a/c needs greater ground speed to get lift-off speed. Landing: head wind good, tail wind bad Cruise flight: headwind bad, tailwind good
How does the pilot control temperature in the cabin?
Temperature is controlled by mixing outside air (cabin air control) with heated air (cabin heat control) in a manifold near the cabin firewall. This air is then ducted to vents located on the cabin floor
How are VOR NAVAIDs classified?
Terminal, Low, and High
What are Minimum Equipment Lists?
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is a precise listing of instruments, equipment and procedures that allows an aircraft to be operated under specific conditions with inoperative equipment.
What is the centrifugal force?
The "equal and opposite reaction" of the airplane to the change in direction, and it acts "equal and opposite" to the horizontal component of lift.
If an aircraft has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours, under what condition may it continue to operate beyond the 100 hours without a new inspection?
The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.
What is the name of the force that deflects winds to the right in the northern hemisphere and left in the southern hemisphere?
The Coriolis force. It is at a right angle to wind direction and is directly proportional to wind speed.
What is a type certificate data sheet?
The FAA issues a type certificate when a new aircraft, engine, propeller, etc., is found to meet safety standards set forth by the FAA. The type certificate data sheet (TCDS) lists the specifications, conditions and limitations under which airworthiness requirements were met for the specified product, such as engine make and model, fuel type, engine limits, airspeed limits, maximum weight, minimum crew, etc.
What is the limitation of the airspeed indicator?
The airspeed indicator is subject to proper flow of air in the pitot/static system.
What action should be taken if the ammeter indicates a continuous discharge while in flight?
The alternator has quit producing a charge, so the alternator circuit breaker should be checked and reset if necessary. Also: a. the alternator should be turned off; pull the circuit breaker b. all electrical equipment not essential to flight should be turned off c. the flight should be terminated and a landing made as soon as possible
What is the angle of incidence?
The angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord of the wing
While reviewing the aircraft logbooks, you discover that your aircraft is not in compliance with an AD's specified time or date. Are you allowed to continue to operate that aircraft until the next required maintenance inspection? Do the regulations allow any kind of buffer?
The assumption that AD compliance is only required at the time of a required inspection (e.g., at a 100-hour or annual inspection) is not correct. The required compliance time/date is specified in each AD and no person may operate the affected product after expiration of that stated compliance time without an Alternative Method of Compliance (AMOC) approval for a change in compliance time.
Where must the airworthiness certificate be located?
The certificate must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
Why is the generator/alternator voltage output slightly higher than the battery voltage?
The difference in voltage keeps the battery charged. For example, a 12 volt battery would be supplied with 14 volts
What is the definition of the term freezing level and how can you determine where that level is?
The freezing level is the lowest altitude in the atmosphere over a given location at which the air temperature reaches 0°C. It is possible to have multiple freezing layers when a temperature inversion occurs above the defined freezing level. A pilot can use current icing products (CIP) and forecast icing products (FIP), as well as the freezing level graphics chart to determine the approximate freezing level. Other potential sources of icing information are: GFAs, PIREPs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, surface analysis charts, low-level significant weather charts, and winds and temperatures aloft (for air temperature at altitude).
What causes radiation fog to form?
The ground cools the adjacent air to the dew point on calm, clear nights.
How does the attitude indicator work?
The gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon and is fixed to the gyro; it remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.
During the before-takeoff run-up, you switch the magnetos from the "BOTH" position to the "RIGHT" position and notice there is no RPM drop. What condition does this indicate?
The left P-lead is not grounding, or the engine has been running only on the right magneto because the left magneto has totally failed.
How does the heading indicator operate?
The operation of the heading indicator uses the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and the compass card is fixed to the rotor. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading information.
What is relative wind?
The relative wind is the direction of the airflow with respect to the wing. When a wing is moving forward and downward the relative wind moves backward and upward. The flight path and relative wind are always parallel but travel in opposite directions.
If the isobars are relatively close together on a surface weather chart or a constant pressure chart, what information will this provide?
The spacing of isobars on these charts defines how steep or shallow a pressure gradient is. When isobars are spaced very close together, a steep pressure gradient exists which indicates higher wind speeds. A shallow pressure gradient (isobars not close together) usually means wind speeds will be less.
Explain the difference between a stable atmosphere and an unstable atmosphere. Why is the stability of the atmosphere important?
The stability of the atmosphere depends on its ability to resist vertical motion. A stable atmosphere atmosphere makes vertical movement difficult, and small vertical disturbances dampen out and disappear. In an unstable atmosphere, small vertical air movements tend to become larger, resulting in turbulent airflow and convective activity. Instability can lead to significant turbulence, extensive vertical clouds, and severe weather.
What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?
The stability of the atmosphere.
What does the throttle do?
The throttle allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders. This in turn regulates engine manifold pressure.
Explain the limitations that apply to aircraft operations being conducted using an MEL.
The use of an MEL for a small, non-turbine-powered airplane operated under Part 91 allows for the deferral of inoperative items or equipment. Once an operator requests an MEL, and a Letter of Authorization (LOA) is issued by the FAA, then the MEL becomes mandatory for that aircraft.
How does the vertical speed indicator work?
The vertical speed indicator is a pressure differential instrument. Using two aneroids with calibrated leak, one lagging more that the other causing the pressure difference to show and increase or decrease in altitude
What function does the voltage regulator have?
The voltage regulator is a device which monitors system voltage, detects changes, and makes the required adjustments in the output of the alternator to maintain a constant regulated system voltage. It must do this at low RPM, such as during taxi, as well as at high RPM in flight. In a 28-volt system, it will maintain 28 volts +/- 0.5 volts.
What is WAAS?
The wide area augmentation system is a ground and satellite integrate navigation error correction system that provides accuracy enhancements to signals received from GPS.
What are flaps and what is their function?
The wing flaps are movable panels on the inboard trailing edges of the wings They are hinged so that they may be extended downward into the flow of air beneath the wings to increase both lift and drag. Their purpose is to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach. In some cases, they may also be used to shorten the takeoff distance.
What is torque effect?
Torque effect involves Newton's Third Law of Physics - for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. Applied to the airplane, this means that as the internal engine parts and propeller are revolving in one direction, an equal force is trying to rotate the airplane in the opposite direction. It is greatest when at low airspeeds with high power settings and a high angle of attack.
Describe the landing gear system on this airplane
Tricycle-type system using to main wheel sand a steerable nose wheel. The struts are Olio type shocks which use compressed air and hydraulic fluid.
Describe how an aircraft deicing system works
Upon pilot actuation, boots attached to the wing leading edges inflate with air from a pneumatic pump(s) to break off accumulated ice. After a few seconds of inflation, they are deflated back to their normal position with vacuum assistance. The pilot monitors the buildup of ice and cycles the boots as directed in the AFM/POH.
What is upslope fog?
Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. Upslope fog is often quite dense and extends to high altitudes.
If the altimeter setting is not available before flight, what procedure should be used?
Use same procedure of a/c not equipped with radio. use the elevation
What information does a freezing level graphics chart provide?
Used to assess the lowest freezing level heights and their values relative to flight paths. Chart uses colors to represent the height in hundreds of feet above mean sea level (MSL) the lowest freezing levels. The analysis of 3 hour forecast graphics are updated hourly. updated every three hours
How does the turn coordinator operate?
Uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn
Where can pilot obtain RAIM availability information?
Using manufacturer-supplied RAIM prediction tool, or using the Service Availability Prediction tool (SAPT) on the FAA enroute and terminal RAIM prediction website. Pilots can request GPS RAIM aeronautical information from an FSS during preflight briefings
what minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within class B airspace?
VFR clear 3SM visibility
After takeoff, you attempt to activate your VFR flight plan but are unable to contact the FSS. What will happen to your filed flight plan?
VFR plan filed, held by FSS until 1 hour after proposed departure time and then is canceled
Define the term VFR waypoint
VFR waypoints provide pilots a tool to assist with position awareness while navigating visually in aircraft equipped with area navigation receivers (GPS). VFR way points names consist of a 5 letter identifier beginning with VP and are retrievable form navigation database : should be use only in VFR conditions.
What is the most common type of communication radio equipment installed in general aviation aircraft? how many channels are available?
VHF. 118.0, 136.975 MHz classified as 720 or 760 720-0.025 spacing, range up to 135.975 760 going up to 136.975
What is a VOR or VORTAC?
VORs are VHF radio stations that project radials in all directions (360 degrees). Each radial is denoted by its outbound magnetic direction. Almost all VOR stations will also be VORTACs (VOR-Tactical Air Navigation) which provide the standard bearing info of a VOR plus distance info to pilots of airplanes with DME.
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment?
VOT check-plus or minus 4 degrees Ground checkpoint-plus or minus 4 degrees Airborne checkpoint-plus or minus 6 degrees Dual VOR check- 4 degrees between each other Selected radial over a known ground point - plus or minus 6 degrees
Know the following airspeeds for airplane
VSO-stall speed landing config. 47kts VS1-stall speed clean. 55kts VY-best rate of climb. 77kts VX-best angle of climb. 68kts VLE-max landing gear extended. N/A VLO-max landing gear operating spd N/A VFE-max flap extension speed. 100kts VA-maneuvering speed. 112kts VNO-normal operating sped. 120kts VNE-never exceed speed. 148kts
What conditions are necessary for structural icing to occur?
Visible moisture and below freezing temperatures at the point moisture strikes the aircraft.
When temperature and dew point are close together (within 5°), what type of weather is likely?
Visible moisture in the form of clouds, dew, or fog. Also, these are ideal conditions for carburetor icing.
What airspeed limitations apply to the color-coded marking system of the airspeed indicator?
White Arc: flap operating range. Lower A/S limit white arc VSO stall speed landing configuration. Upper A/S limit white arc VFE max flap extension speed Green Arc: normal operating range. Lower A/S limit green arc VS1 stall speed clean or specified configuration. Upper A/S limit green arc VNO normal operations speed Yellow Arc: caution range (operations in smooth air only) Red line: VNE never exceed speed, structural failure can occur
Why is wind shear an operational concern to pilots?
Wind shear is an operational concern because unexpected changes in wind speed and direction can be potentially very hazardous to aircraft operations at low altitudes on approach to and departing from airports.
Define the term wind shear, and state the areas in which it is likely to occur.
Wind shear is defined as the rate of change of wind velocity (direction and/or speed) per unit distance; conventionally expressed as vertical or horizontal wind shear. It may occur at any level in the atmosphere but three areas are of special concern: a. Wind shear with a low-level temperature inversion. b. Wind shear in a frontal zone or thunderstorm. c. Clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated with a jet stream or strong circulation.
What are several factors which will affect both lift and drag?
Wing area: lift and drag acting on a wing are roughly proportional to the wing area. Pilot can change wing area by using certain types of flaps Shape of the airfoil: upper curvature of an airfoil is increased the lift produced increases Velocity of air: increase in velocity of air passing over the wing increases lift and drag Air density: lift and drag vary directly with the density of the air
If RAIM capability is lost in-flight, can you continue to use GPS for navigation?
Without RAIM, pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. VFR GPS panel-mount receivers and handheld units have no RAIM alerting capability. This prevents pilot from being alerted to the loss of required number of satellites in view, or the detection o a position error.
Does a/c use fuel pump?
Yes
You're flying in a single-engine, high performance, complex airplane. You hold a Private Pilot certificate with an airplane single-engine land rating, but don't have a high-performance or complex airplane endorsement. Your friend, who has those endorsements, is acting as PIC for the flight. Can you log PIC time for the time you act as sole manipulator of the controls? Explain.
Yes, 14 CFR §61.51 governs the logging of pilot-in-command (PIC) time and states that a sport, recreational, private, commercial, or airline transport pilot may log PIC time for the time during which that pilot is "sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated or has privileges."
Does an aircraft's registration certificate have an expiration date?
Yes, 3 yrs after last day of month in which it is issued
Is frost considered to be hazardous to flight? Why?
Yes, because while frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the wing, the roughness of its surface spoils the smooth flow of air, thus causing a slowing of airflow. This slowing of the air causes early airflow separation, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a small amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. It is also possible that, once airborne, an aircraft could have insufficient margin of airspeed above stall so that moderate gusts or turning flight could produce incipient or complete stalling.
If an aircraft is operated for hire, is it required to have a 100-hour inspection as well as an annual inspection?
Yes, if an aircraft is operated for hire it must have a 100-hour inspection as well as an annual inspection when due. If not operated for hire, only an annual inspection is required.
If a non-turbine piston engine powered airplane is accidentally fueled with JET-A fuel, will it start?
Yes, reciprocating engine may run briefly on jet fuel, but detonation and overheating will soon cause power failure
Are electronic flight bags (EFBs) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material (POH & supplements, etc.) in the cockpit? (AC 91-78)
Yes, they can be used during all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper reference material. It's recommended that a secondary or back-up source of aeronautical information necessary for flight be available.
Can a pilot legally conduct flight operations with known inoperative equipment onboard?
Yes, under specific conditions.Part 91. a. Operation of an aircraft with a Minimum Equipment List (MEL), as authorized by 14 CFR §91.213(a); or b. Operation of an aircraft without a MEL under 14 CFR §91.213(d)
While inspecting the engine logbook of the rental aircraft you are planning to fly, you notice that the engine has exceeded its time between overhaul (TBO). Is it legal to fly this aircraft?
Yes. TBO is computed by the engine manufacturer and is a reliable estimate of the number of hours the engine could perform reliably within the established engine parameters and still not exceed the service wear limits for overhaul for major component parts such as the crankshaft, cam shaft, cylinders, connecting rods, and pistons.
are you required to establish communications with a tower located within class g airspace?
Yes; unless otherwise authorized by ATC. comms must be established 4NM from airport up to and including 2,500AGL
To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, what medical certificate is required, and how long is it valid? Hayes, Michael D.. Private Pilot Oral Exam Guide (Oral Exam Guide Series) (p. 19). Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc.. Kindle Edition.
You must hold at least a third-class medical certificate. a. The 60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate, if on the date of your most recent medical examination you were under the age of 40. b. The 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate, if on the date of your most recent medical examination you were over the age of 40.
What is ground effect?
a condition of improved performance the airplane experiences when it is operating near the ground
During a cross-country flight you notice that the oil pressure is low, but the oil temperature is normal. What is the problem and what action should be taken?
a low oil pressure in flight could be the result of any one of the several problems, the most common being that of insufficient oil. If the oil temperature continues to remain normal, a clogged oil pressure relief valve or an oil pressure gauge malfunction could be the culprit. In any case, a landing at the nearest airport is advisable to check for the cause of trouble
What is the meaning of a thin-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency?
a plan box without frequencies on top indicates that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. these NAVAIDs will have a "no voice" symbol (underline under frequency)
To act as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft, what must a pilot have in his/her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
a. A pilot certificate (or special purpose pilot authorization). b. A photo identification. c. A medical certificate (with certain exceptions as provided in 14 CFR §61.3).
What are the operating rules and pilot/equipment requirements to operate within class E airspace?
a. pilot cert: student pilot certificate b. equipment: operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability and operable ADS-B out equipment are required at and above 10,000 MSL within 48 contiguous states and DC, excluding airspace at and below 2,500ft above surface. c. equipment: operable ADSB out equip at and above 3,000 ft ML over gulf of mexico from coastline of US out to 12 NM offshore
What aircraft are required to have 100-hour inspections?
a. All aircraft under 12,500 pounds (except turbojet/turbopropeller-powered multi-engine airplanes and turbine powered rotorcraft), used to carry passengers for hire. b. Aircraft used for flight instruction for hire, when provided by the person giving the flight instruction.
What are several good reasons for aircraft owners to comply with TBO times recommended by the manufacturer?
a. An overhaul at TBO will ensure safety and reliability. b. An engine overhaul at TBO is usually less expensive than an engine that has been run an additional 200 or 300 hours. c. Running the engine past TBO usually accelerates the overall wear of the engine due to bigger bearing tolerances, loss of protective materials such as plating or nitrating on the cylinder walls, and vibration caused by engine reciprocating parts that have worn unevenly and are now out of balance.
During the preflight inspection in an aircraft that doesn't have a MEL, you notice that an instrument or equipment item is inoperative. Describe how you will determine if the aircraft is still airworthy for flight.
a. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment part of the VFR-day type certification? b. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment listed as "Required" on the aircraft's equipment list or "Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL)" for the type of flight operation being conducted? c. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required by 14 CFR §91.205, §91.207 or any other rule of Part 91 for the specific kind of flight operation being conducted? (For example, VFR, IFR, day, night.) d. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required to be operational by an AD? If the answer is "Yes" to any of these questions, the aircraft is not airworthy and maintenance is required before I can fly. If the answer is "No" to any of these questions, then the inoperative instruments or equipment must be removed (by an A&P) from the aircraft, or deactivated and placarded "Inoperative."
What is required to maintain BasicMed privileges? Hayes, Michael D.. Private Pilot Oral Exam Guide (Oral Exam Guide Series) (p. 21). Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc.. Kindle Edition.
a. Be sure you have a CMEC that shows that your most recent physical examination was within the past 48 months. Keep the completed, signed CMEC in a safe place. b. Be sure you are being treated by a physician for medical conditions that may affect safety of flight. c. Be sure you have a course completion certificate that was issued by a BasicMed medical training course provider within the past 24 calendar months.
what type of air traffic control services are provided when operating in class c airspace?
a. sequenced to primary airport b. provided class c service within class c airspace and the outer area c. provided basic radar services beyond the outer area on workload permitting basis. this can be terminated by the controller if workload dictates
What procedures should be followed if an engine fire develops in flight?
a. set mixture control to "idle cutoff" b. set fuel selector valve to "off" c. turn the master switch "off" d. set cabin heat and air vents "off"; leave overhead vents "on" e. establish airspeed of 100 KIAS and increase the decent, if necessary, to find an airspeed that will provide for an incombustible mixture f. execute a forced landing procedures checklist
What types of weather information will you examine to determine if wind shear conditions might affect your flight?
a. Terminal forecasts—any mention of low level wind shear (LLWS) or the possibility of severe thunderstorms, heavy rain showers, hail, and wind gusts suggest the potential for LLWS and microbursts. b. METARs—inspect for any indication of thunderstorms, rain showers, or blowing dust. Additional signs such as warming trends, gusty winds, cumulonimbus clouds, etc., should be noted.c. Severe weather watch reports, SIGMETS, and convective SIGMETS—severe convective weather is a prime source for wind shear and microbursts. d. LLWAS (low level windshear alert system) reports—installed at 110 airports in the U.S.; designed to detect wind shifts between outlying stations and a reference centerfield station. e. PIREPs—reports of sudden airspeed changes on departure or approach and landing corridors provide a real-time indication of the presence of wind shear.
What privileges and limitations apply when flying under BasicMed?
a. Fly with no more than five passengers. b. Fly an aircraft that has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 6,000 pounds. c. Fly an aircraft that is authorized to carry no more than six occupants (i.e. five passengers plus the pilot). d. Flights within the United States, at an indicated airspeed of 250 knots or less, and at an altitude at or below 18,000 feet MSL. e. You may not fly for compensation or hire.
Careful preflight planning is extremely important. A wise pilot ensures a successful cross-country flight by getting a good preflight briefing, completing a flight log, and filing a flight plan before flight.
a. Get a preflight briefing consisting of the latest or most current weather, airport, and enroute NAVAID information. b. Draw course lines and mark checkpoints on the chart. c. Enter checkpoints on the log. d. Enter NAVAIDs on the log. e. Enter VOR courses on the log. f. Enter altitude on the log. g. Enter the wind (direction/velocity) and temperature on the log. h. Measure the true course on the chart and enter it on the log. i. Compute the true airspeed and enter it on the log. j. Compute the WCA and GS and enter them on the log. k. Determine variation from chart and enter it on the log. l. Determine deviation from compass correction card and enter it on the log. m. Enter compass heading on the log. n. Measure distances on the chart and enter them on the log. o. Figure ETE and ETA and enter them on the log. p. Calculate fuel burn and usage, enter them on the log. q. Compute weight and balance. r. Compute takeoff and landing performance. s. Complete a Flight Plan form. t. File the Flight Plan with FSS.
What requirements must be met to fly under BasicMed?
a. Hold a current and valid U.S. driver's license. b. Hold or have held a medical certificate issued by the FAA at any point after July 14, 2006. c. Answer the health questions on the Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist (CMEC). d. Get your physical examination by any Statelicensed physician, and have that physician complete the CMEC (be sure to keep your copy of the CMEC). e. Take a BasicMed online medical education course. Keep the course completion document issued to you by the course provider.
During your preflight planning, what type of meteorological information should you be aware of with respect to icing?
a. Location of fronts—A front's location, type, speed, and direction of movement. b. Cloud layers—The location of cloud bases and tops, which is valuable when determining if you will be able to climb above icing layers or descend beneath those layers into warmer air; reference PIREPs and area forecasts. c. Freezing level(s)—Important when determining how to avoid icing and how to exit icing conditions if accidentally encountered. d. Air temperature and pressure—Icing tends to be found in low-pressure areas and at temperatures at or around freezing.
For an aircraft to be considered airworthy, what two conditions must be met?
a. The aircraft must conform to its type design (type certificate). b. The aircraft must be in a condition for safe operation, referring to the condition of the aircraft in relation to wear and deterioration.
Explain how a pilot determines if an aircraft conforms to its approved type design and is in a condition for safe operation.
a. The pilot does this by ensuring that all required inspections, maintenance, preventive maintenance, repairs and alterations have been appropriately documented in the aircraft's maintenance records. b. For safe operation, the pilot conducts a thorough preflight inspection of the aircraft for wear and deterioration, structural damage, fluid leaks, tire wear, inoperative instruments and equipment, etc.
What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within class B airspace?
a. PIC holds private pilot b. PIC holds recreational pilot cert and has met requirements of 14CFR; or student pilot seeking recreational pilot cert meet requirements of 14CFR c. PIC holds sport pilot cert and meets 14CFR; student pilot seeking recreational cert 14CFR d. a/c operated by student pilot who has meet 14CFR
If an inflight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, what authority and responsibilities does he/she have?
a. PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft b. in an inflight emergency requiring immediate actions, the PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency c. Each PIC who deviates from Part 91 rule shall, upon request of from the administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the administrator
What limitations should you be aware of when using a panel-mount VFR GPS or hand-held VFR GPS system for navigation?
a. RAIM capability - many VFR GPS and hand-held units have no RAIM alerting, loss of satellites in view or detection of position error can't be displayed b. database currency - updatable database c. antenna location - antenna location is more a matter of convenience than performance.
Name several types of fog.
a. Radiation fog. b. Advection fog. c. Upslope fog. d. Frontal fog or precipitation-induced fog. e. Steam fog.
when operating an a/c under VFR in level cruising flight at an altitude of more than 3,000ft above the surface, what rules apply concerning specific altitudes flown?
above 3,000ft AGL, less than 18,000 MSL magnetic course of 0 to 179 (ODD plus 500). 180 to 359 (EVEN plus 500)
What factors must be present for a thunderstorm to form?
a. Sufficient water vapor. b. An unstable lapse rate. c. An initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion.
where is mode c transponder and ADS-B out equipment required?
a. class a, b, c b. above ceiling within lateral boundaries of class b/c up to 10,000ft MSL c. class e at or above 10,000 MSL within 48 contiguous and DC, excluding airspace below 2,500ft d. within 30 miles of class b primary airport, below 10,000 MSL e. for ADSB-out: class e at and above 3,000MSL over gulf of mexico from coastline of US out to 12 NM f. all a/c flying into within or across USS ADIZ (mode c not adsb-out)
as PIC, what action, is required of you if you deviate from ATC instruction and priority is given?
a. must notify ATC ASAP b. PIC given priority by ATC to detailed report f emergency within 48 hours to manager of ATC facility, if requested by ATC
If operating in aircraft in close proximity to another such as formation flight, what regulations apply?
a. no person may operate an aircraft so close to anther aircraft to create collision hazard b. don't operate a/c in formation except by arrangement with PIC in each aircraft c. don't operate a/c carrying passengers for hire in formation flight
what is minimum equipment required for operations of an aircraft within class b airspace?
a. operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that area b. a mode C altitude encoding transponder c. ADS-B out equipment: operating on UAT 978 MHz or 1090 MHz ES frequency d. if IFR, an operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system
according to regulations where is aerobatic flight f a/c not permitted?
a. over congested area b. over an open air assembly c. within lateral boundaries of class B, C, D, D d. within 4 NM of center line of federal airway e. below altitude of 1,500ft above surface f. when flight visibility is less than 3SM
What are some of the most common operational causes of detonation?
a. Using a lower fuel grade than that specified by the aircraft manufacturer b. Operating with extremely high manifold pressures in conjunction with low RPM c. operating the engine at high power settings with an excessively lean mixture d. extended ground operations or steep climbs where cylinder cooling is reduced
Name several types of navigational aids.
a. VOR (Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range) b. VORTAC (VHF Omnidirectional Range/Tactical Air Navigation) c. DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) d. RNAV (Area Navigation) includes INS, VOR/DME-referenced, and GPS.
What are the requirements to remain current as a private pilot?
a. Within the preceding 24 months, accomplished a flight review b. To carry passengers, a pilot must have made, within the preceding 90 days: • three takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of flight controls of an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type. • if the aircraft is a tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made to a full stop in an airplane with a tailwheel. • if operations are to be conducted during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise, with passengers on board, the PIC must have, within the preceding 90 days, made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during that period in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type is required), of aircraft to be used.
what general rules apply concerning traffic pattern operations at non-tower airports within class E or G airspace?
a. a/c approaching to land: make all turns to the left unless told otherwise b. a/c departing: comply with traffic patterns from part 93
when may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction?
a. amended clearance obtained b. emergency exists c. response to traffic or collision avoidance system
what are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an a/c?
a. cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500ft MSL up to and including 14,000ft MSL more than 30 min, flight crew provided with supplemental oxygen b. above 14,000ft MSL entire flight time at those altitudes the required flight crew is provided with nd use supplemental oxygen c. cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 ft MSL, each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen
state several examples of class e airspace
a. surface area designated for an airport where a control tower is not in operation: extend upward from surface to designated altitude or adjacent r overlying controlled airspace and are configured to contain all instrument procedures b. extension to surface area: may be designated to class b/c/d/e. E extensions begin at surface and extend to overlying controlled airspace c. airspace used for transition: class e airspace areas may be designated for transitioning aircraft to/from the terminal or enroute enironment. extend upward from either 700ft AG to 1200ft AGL d. enroute domestic areas: class e airspace areas that extend upward from specified altitude and provide controlled airspace in those areas where there is requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC service e. federal airways and low-altitude RNAV routes: class e airspace and extend upward from 1200ft AGL but not including 18,000MSL f. offshore airspace areas: class e airspace up to no including 18,000ft MSL. controlled airspace beyond 12 miles from coast of US in those areas g. unless designated at a lower altitude: class e airspace in the US consists of airspace extending upward from 14,500ft MSL to , but not including 18,000 MSL underlying the 48 contiguous states h. airspace above FL 600 is class e airspace
what minimum equipment is required to operate an aircraft within class c airspace?
a. two way radio b. altitude reporting equipment w/ mode C capability c. ADS-B out equipment 978 MHz OR 1090MHz ES frequency
what minimum equipment is required for flight operations within class A airspace?
a. two way radio capable of communicating with TC on frequency assigned b. mod C altitude encoding transponder c. ADS-B and TIS-B equip operating 1090 MHz ES freq d. equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations
Before conducting a flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what basic preflight checks should be made?
a. verify GPS equipment is properly installed and certified for the planned operation b. verify databases have not expired (navigation, terrain, obstacle) c. review GPS NOTAM/RAIM info related to the planned route of flight d. review operational status of ground-based NAVAIDs and related a/c equipment (30 day VOR check) appropriate to route of flight e. determine GPS receiver operation manual or airplane flight manual supplement is onboard and available for use
if a/c radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before a landing may be made at that airport?
a. weather conditions must be at or above basic VFR weather mins b. visual contact w/ tower is maintained c. clearance to land is received
When operating in class D airspace, what procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a visual approach slope indicator?
a/c approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain above or at glide slope
When would an a/c have ROW over all other traffic?
a/c in distress
What ROW rules apply when two or more a/c are approaching an airport for purpose of landing?
a/c on final has ROW. a/c lower altitude has ROW
Define and state h ow you would determine the following altitudes: absolute, indicated, pressure, true, and density.
absolute altitude: vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain indicated altitude: altitude read directly from the altimeter after it is set to the current altimeter setting pressure altitude: altitude when the altimeter setting window is adjusted t o 29.92. Used for computer solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed, etc. True altitude: true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts are true altitudes density altitude: pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. Directly related to an aircraft's takeoff, climb, and landing performance
What error is the heading indicator subject to?
because of precession and friction heading indicator will drift every hour
what is an airmet
advisories of significant weather phenomena that describe conditions at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of SIGMETS, intended for use by all pilots in the preflight and enroute phase of flight to enhance. Each AIRMET bulletin includes an outook for conditions expected after the AIRMET valid period
While en route on cross-country flight, weather has deteriorated and has become necessary to divert to an alternate airport. assume no gps or dme capability, describe how you will navigate to alternate
after selecting alternate, approximate magnetic course to alternate using straight edge and compass rose from nearby VOR or an airway closely parallels direction use straight edge to scale at bottom of chart for distance to alterate if time permits, start diversion over prominent ground feature, divert promptly toward alternate once on course, note time determine ETA and fuel consumption give priority to flying a/c while dividing attention to navigation altitude consider cloud heights, winds, terrain, and radio reception
What effect does an increase in load factor have on stalling speed?
as load factor increases, stalling speed increases. At given airspeed the load factor increases as angle of attack increases, and the wing stalls because the angel of attack has been increased to a certain angle
What des ATIS mean?
automatic terminal information service (ATIS). continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol info
describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft
basic radar service: safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring TRSA: radar sequencing and separation service for VFR a/c in a TRSA class c service: basic radar service and approved separation between IFR and VFR, and sequencing VFR arrivals to primary airports
When must the batteries in an emergency locator transmitter be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
batteries used in ELTs must be replaced a. transmitter has been in use for mor than 1 cumulative hour b. 50 percent of their useful life has expired
how is class e airspace depicted on navigational charts?
below 14,500 ft MSL is charted on sectional, terminal, and IFR enroute low altitude charts. lateral and vertical limits of all class e controlled airspace up to but not including 18,000ft are shown by narrow bands of vingette on section and terminal charts. controlled airspace floors of 700ft AGL are magenta vignette floors other than 700 ft blue vignette if ceiling is less than 18,000 ft MSL, the value is shown along the limits of controlled airspace
Explain difference between best glide speed and minimum sink speed
best glide speed: speed and config giving greatest forward distance for given loss of altitude (between Vx and Vy) 70kts Minimum sink speed: max time airplane remains in flight. Not published be generally few knots less than best glide speed
Why would a frequency be printed on top of a thin-lined blue box?
best to use in immediate vicinity of NAVAID site. Normally be followed by an "R" indicating F can receive only on that frequency
Briefly describe traffic information services-broadcast (TIS-B)
broadcast of ATC derived traffic information to ADS-B equipped aircraft from ground radio stations. Not related to TIS
How is class A airspace depicted on navigational charts?
class a not specifically charted
is an ATC clearance required if flight operations are conducted through a class e surface area arrival extension?
class e airspace must be designated as extensions to class b/c/d/e surface areas. extension begin at surface and extend up to overlying controlled airspace
explain the purpose of class transition areas
class e transition areas extend upward from either 700 ft AGL (magenta vignette) or 1,200 ft AGL (blue vignette) and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. class e transition areas exist to help separate (via cloud clearance) arriving and departing IFR traffic from VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity
What are terminal aerodrome forecasts? (TAFs)
concise statement of the expected meterological conditions significant to aviatio nfor a specified time period within 5 statue miles 1. type of reports 2. ICAO station id 3. Date and time 4. valid period date and time 5. Forecasts
What is a spin?
controlled or uncontrolled maneuver in which the airplane descends in a helical path while flying at an angle of attack greater than the critical AOA. Results from stalls in a slip or skid. One wing will drop below the other and the nose will yaw in the direction of the low wing.
What action should be taken if preignition is suspected?
corrective actions to promote cooling: a. reduce power b. reduce the climb rate for better cooling c. enrich the fuel/air mixture d. open cowl flaps if available
How des temp, altitude, and humidity affect density altitude?
density altitude increases = high air temp, high alt, high humidity Density altitude decreases = low air temp, low altitude, low humidity
Surface analysis chart
depicts distribution of several items including sea level pressure, position of highs, lows, ridges, troughs, the location and character of fronts, and various boundaries such as drylines, out flow boundaries, sea breeze fronts, and convergence lines. produced 8 times daily
Can other types of fuel be used if the specified grade is not available?
designed to operate using specific grade of fuel as recommended by manufacturer. can always use higher grade.
What is magnetic variation?
difference between true north and magnetic north
what are the vertical limits of class g airspace?
does not include, but goes up to 14,500 MSL or where Class E airspace begins, whichever occurs first.
When are flight crewmembers required to keep their seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
during take off and landing,
Describe the electrical system on your a/c
electrical energy is provided by a 28 volt, direct current system powered by an engine-driven 60-amp alternator and 24 volt battery
What are the four main control surfaces and what are their functions?
elevators-lateral axis. Pitch Ailerons-longitudinal axis. Roll Rudder-vertical axis. Yaw Trim tabs-small, adjustable hinged-surfaces on aileron, rudder, or elevator control surfaces.
What are the two types of ADs?
emergency nature less urgent nature requiring compliance within a specified period of time.
when departing a satellite airport without an operative control tower located within class c airspace, what requirement must be met?
establish and maintain two way comms with ATC
when operating an a/c through class c airspace or to an airport within class C airspace, what basic requirement must be met?
establish two way comms with ATC
In areas other than congested areas, what minimum safe altitudes shall be used?
except takeoff/landing: no lower than 500 feet above surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas
What is the minimum safe altitude that n aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city?
except when necessary (takeoff landing), no person may operate a/c over congested area below 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of a/c
what is class d airspace?
extends upward from surface to 2,500ft above airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower
what is the main difference between class g airspace and class A B C D E
flight visibility/cloud clearance requirements necessary to operate within it
what is definition of class b airspace?
from the surface to 10 000 ft surrounding the nation's busiest airports in terms of IFR operations
What type of fuel system does your aircraft have?
fuel pumps
what actions should be taken if you become disoriented or lost on a cross-country flight (no GPS avail) low on fuel, weather deteriorating; inadequate experience; darkness imminent; and or equipment malfunctioning
get on ground
if wind direction is 060, wind speed is 030, true course is 036, and TAS is 140, what will ground speed and true heading be?
ground speed 112, true heading 041
if wind direction is 220, wind speed is 030, true course is 146, TAS is 135, what will ground speed and true heading be?
ground speed 124, true heading 158
if wind direction is 240, wind speed is 025, true course is 283 and TAS is 165, what will ground speed and true heading be?
ground speed is 146, true heading 277
Flight information service - broadcast (FIS-B)
ground-based broadcast service provided through the ADS-B universal access transceiver (UAT) network. enables users of properly equipped aircraft to receive and display suite of broadcast weather and aeronautical info
What frequencies are monitored by most FSS's other than 121.5?
have assigned frequencies for their different functions Alaska 123.6 If in doubt 122.2 is designated as common enroute
How will loss of a magnetometer affect the AHRS operation?
heading info lost
What effect does a forward center of gravity have on an a/c flight characteristics?
higher stall speed-stalling angle of attack is reached at a higher speed due to increased wing loading slower cruise speed-increased drag; great angle of attack is required to maintain altitude more stable-center of gravity is farther forward from center of pressure increases longitudinal great back elevator pressure required-longer takeoff roll; higher approach speeds and problems with landing flare
What action should be taken if the ammeter indicates a continuous charge while in flight (more than two needle widths)
if continuous excessive rate of charge were allowed for any extended period of time, the battery would overheat and evaporate the electrolyte at an excessive rate. a possible explosion of the battery could result a. the alternator should be turned off; pull the circuit breaker b. all electrical equipment not essential to flight should be turned off c. the flight should be terminated and a landing amde as soon as possible
two way radio comms must be established prior to class c airspace. define what is meant by established in this context.
if controller responds with a/c identification
What causes a spin?
inadvertent spin is exceeding the critical angle of attack while applying excessive or insufficient rudder, and to a lesser extent aileron.
What is the meaning of a heavy-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency?
indicates FSS frequencies 121.5, 122.2, 243.0. 255.4 are available
Describe a fuel injection system installed in some aircraft.
injects fuel directly into cylinders, or just ahead of intake valve. 1. engine driven fuel pump-provides fuel under presure from fuel tank to fuel/air control unit 2. fuel/air control unit-meters fuel based on mixture control setting and sends it to the fuel manifold valve at rate controlled by throttle 3. fuel manifold valve-distributes fuel to individual fuel discharge nozzles 4. discharge nozzles-located in each cylinder head, these inject for each cylinder directly into each cylinder intake port 5. aux fuel pump-provides fuel under pressure to fuel/air control unit for engine starting and/or emergency use 6. fuel pressure/flow indicators-measures fuel press
What display information will be affected when an ADC failure occurs?
inoperative airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed indicators, shown with red Xs on the PFD, indicate the failure of the air data computer
What display information will be lost when AHRS failure occurs?
inoperative attitude indicator, shown with a red X in PFD
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
introduction of heated air into carb will result in richer mixture. warm air is less dense, resulting in less air for same amount of fuel. Use of carb heat can cause a decrease in engine power of up to 15%
what is the minimum cloud clearance and visibility required when conducting flight operations in a traffic pattern at night in class g airspace below 1,200ft AGL?
less than 3SM but not less than 1 SM during night hours. airplane may be operated clear of clouds if operated in airport traffic pattern within one-half mile of the runway.
How does air density affect aircraft performance?
lift produced by wings, power output of the engine, propeller efficiency, and drag forces
in the event f radio failure while operating an aircraft to, from, through or on an airport having an operational tower, what are the different types and meanings of light gun signals you must receive from an ATC tower?
light: on ground/air Steady green: cleared for takeoff/cleared t land flashing green: cleared to taxi/return for landing stead red: stop/yield, continue circling flashing red: taxi clear of runway/unsafe, do not land flashing white: return to start/not used alternate red/green: exercise extreme caution/ exercise extreme caution
What are lines latitude and longitude?
longitude measures east and west latitude measures north and south
Describe a U.S. low-level significant weather prog chart
low-level significant weather SIGWX charts provide a forecast of aviation weather hazards primarily intended to be used as guidance products for preflight briefings. Flt level 240 and below. 12hr and 24hr prog
What are the five basic functions of aircraft engine oil?
lubricates, cools, removes (heat from cylinders), seals (between cylinder walls and pistons), cleans
How are Class E surface extension areas depicted on navigational charts?
magenta segmented line
What logbook entry information is required of the person performing preventive maintenance?
make entry in maintenance record of a/c
Discuss the effect on maneuvering speed of an increase or decrease in weight
maneuvering speed increases with an increase in weight and decreases with a decrease in weight. An aircraft operating at a reduced weight is more vulnerable to rapid accelerations encountered during flight through turbulence or gusts.
describe several types of weather observing programs available
manual observations: reports are form airport locations staffed by FAA personnel who manually observe, perform calculations, and enter their observations into the comms system AWOS: automated weather observing system; consists of various sensors, a processor, a computer-generated voice subsystem, and transmitted to boradcast local, minute-by-minute weather data directly to the pilot AWOS boradcasts: computer-generated voice is used to automate the broadcast of minute-by-minute weather observations ASOS/AWOS-automated surface observing system/automated weather observing system. primary US surface weahter observing systems.
What is the function of a magnetometer?
measures the strength of the earth's magnetic field to determine aircraft heading
What type of hydraulic fluid does your aircraft use and what color is it?
mineral based hydraulic fluid. Dyed red, penetrating oil smell
What valuable information can be determined from winds and temps aloft forecasts (FB)
most favorable altitude: based on winds and direction of flight Areas of possible icing: by noting air temperatures of +2C-20C Temp inversions turbulence: by observing abrupt changes in wind direction and speed at different altitudes
How are the circuits for the various electrical accessories within the aircraft protected?
most of the electrical circuits in an airplane are protected from an overload condition by either circuit breakers or fuses or both. circuit breakers perform the same function as fuses except that when an overload occurs, a circuit breaker can be reset
is an emergency locator transmitter required on all aircraft?
must be attached to a/c US registered EXCEPT: a. a/c engaged in training ops conducted within 50NM radius of airport from local flight operations began b. a/c engaged in design testing c. new a/c engaged in manufacture, preparation and delivery d. a/c engaged in agricultural operations
unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
no person may operate an a/c below 10,000 feet MSL at airspeed f more than 250 knots
what type of air traffic control services are provided when operating within class d airspace?
no separation are provided to VFR a/c
will all airports with an operating control tower always have class d airspace surrounding them?
no. typically airports between 700-1200ft AGL
Explain the limitations pilots should be aware of when using TIS-B for situational awareness.
not intended to be used as collision avoidance system and does not relieve pilot's responsibility to "see and avoid" pilot may receive an intermittent TIS-B target of themselves, typically when maneuvering due to radar not tracking the a/c as quickly ADS-B to radar association process within the ground system may at times have difficulty correlating an ADS-B report with corresponding radar returns from the same a/c. When this happens the pilot may see duplicate traffic symbols on the cockpit display Updates of TIS-B traffic reports will occur less often than ADS-B traffic updates. TIS-B every 3-13 seconds. ADS-B 1 per second only uplinks data pertaining to transponder-equipped aircraft
can onboard datalink weather (fis-b) be useful in navigating an a/c safely around an area of thunderstorms?
not real-time info. updates every 5 min but can be up to 15min delay. not appropriate for tactical avoidance
How do you convert a true direction to a magnetic direction?
note variation shown by nearest isogonic line. West is best (add), east is least (subtract)
When a display failure occurs, what other system components will be affected?
partial loss of navigation, communication, GPS capability
What are the limitations of an attitude indicator?
pitch and bank limits depend on make and model. Limits in banking plane are usually 100-110 degrees. Pitch limits 60-70.
If one display fails (PFD or MFD), what information will be presented on the remaining display?
primary flight instruments and engine instruments on the remaining operative display
explain "may not pay less than pro rata share of operating expenses of a flight"
pro rata means proportional. pilot may not payless that proportional share of flights operating expenses with passengers (fuel, oil, airport, rental fees)
What is the function of manual primer, and how does it operate?
provide assistance in starting the engine. draws fuel from fuel strainer and injects directly into the cylinder intake ports
Describe a mid-level significant weather (SIGWX) chart.
provides forecast and overview of significant en route weather pheonmena over a rnage of flight levels from 10,000 feet MSL to FL450. AWC issues the 24 hour mid-level significant weather chart four times daily
what is an emergency locator transmitter? ELT
radio transmitter attached to the aircraft structure which operate from it own power source on 121.5, 243.0 MHz, and the newer 406 MHz it aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward sweeping audio tone, 2-4 times a second designed to function without human action. can be operationally tested during first 5 min after any hour
What is a trough?
relatively low atmospheric pressure. At the surface when air converges into a low, it cannot go outward against the pressure gradient, nor can it go downward into the ground; Therefore, a low or trough is an area of rising air. Rising air is conducive to cloudiness and precipitation; hence the general association of low pressure and bad weather.
Give a brief explanation of global positioning system
satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position anywhere in the world. The receiver tracks multiple satellites and determines a pseudo-range measurement that is then used to determine the user's location.
what basic ATC services are provided to all aircraft operating within class B airspace?
sequencing and separation from other a/c while operating within class b airspace
What are short-range surface prognostic charts?
short range surface prognostic prog charts, provide a forecast of surface pressure systems, fronts and precipitation for a 2.5 day period. Cover a forecast area of 48 contiguous states and costal waters, and are prepared by the NWS weather prediction center
What will the turn indicator indicate when the aircraft is in a "skidding" or a "slipping" turn?
slip: ball inside of turn; nt enough rate of turn for amount of bank skid: ball outside of turn; too much rate of turn for amount of bank
how is class c airspace depicted on navigational charts?
solid magenta line
how is class B airspace depicted on navigational charts?
solid shaded blue line w numbers (100/25, 100/SFC)
If you are uncertain about the status of a restricted area along your route of flight, where you can find the frequency for the controlling agency/contact facility responsible for that restricted area?
special use airspace info can be found on the end panel of a VFR sectional chart. Restricted areas are presented in blue, listed numerically, and supplemented with altitude .
What types of weather briefings are available from an AFSS/FSS briefer?
standard- planning flt you have not received a previous briefing or have nto received preliminary info abbreviated - info to supplement mass disseminated data, update on previous brief, or need only one or two items outlook-proposed tiem of departure is 6+ hrs inflight - need to update preflight
For aircraft with electronic flight instrumentation, what is the function of the standby battery?
standby battery is held in reserve and kept charged in case of a failure of charging system and subsequent exhaustion of the main battery. standby battery must be in ARM position for this to occur but pilots should refer to the aircraft flight manual (AFM) for specifics on aircraft's electrical system
what minimum pilot certification is required to operate within class c airspace?
student pilot
what is class c airspace?
surface to 4,000MSL surrounding airports that have an operational control tower are served by radar approach, and have certain IFR operations or passenger enplanements
What info can you obtain from following charts?
take off-compute take off dist w/ or w/o flaps. over 50ft obstacle fuel,time,dist-fuel amount used during climb, time to climb, ground dist covered Cruise and range performance-true airspeed, fuel consumption, endurance in hurs, rnage in miles at specific cruise config Crosswind and headwind chart-headwind and crosswind component for any given wind direction and velocity Landing charts-normal landing dist as well as landing distance over 50ft obstacle Stall speed performance charts-give understanding of speed at which airplane will stall in a given configuration
Which persons on board an aircraft are required to use seatbelts and when?
taxiing, take of and landing. ages under 2 can be held by an adult. If sport parachuting use floor of airraft as seat
Define the term "maneuvering speed."
the maximum speed at which abrupt control movement can be applied or at which the airplane could be flown in turbulence without exceeding design load factor limits
What is Bernoulli's principle?
the pressure in a fluid decreases as the fluid's velocity increases
when a class c or d surface area is not in effect continuously (where control tower only operates part time), what will happen to surface area airspace when the tower closes?
the surface area airspace will change to either a class e surface area or class g airspace. airspace entry for for the airport in the chart supplement US will state other times class e or other times class g. when a part time surface area change to class e airspace, class e arrival extensions will remain in effect as class e airspace. if part time c/d/e surface area becomes class g airspace, the arrival extensions will change to class g t the time
what is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside class b airspace under 10,000ft and within a class D surface area?
unless granted, no a/c at or below 2,500ft above surface within 4NM of primary airport of class c or class d more than 200 knots. below 10,000ft MSL, no a/c below 10,000MSL should fly more than 250 knots
when are parachute required on board an aircraft?
unless person is wearing approved parachute, no PIC should do : a. bank angle greater than 60 b. pitch greater than 30 EXCEPTIONS: a. flt test for pilot cert or rating b. spins and other flight maneuvers required by regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a CFR or ATP instructing in accordance with 14CFR
What is distance measuring equipment? DME
used to measure slant range distance of a/c in nautical miles. A/c equipped with DME are provided with distance and ground speed information when receiving a VORTAC or TACAN facility. 960MHz and 1215MHz
What causes carb icing, and what are the first indications of its presence?
vaporization of fuel, combined with the expansion of air as it passes through the carburetor, causes a sudden cooling of the mixture. Temperature of the air passing through the carb may drop as much as 60F within a fraction of a second. Water vapor is squeezed out by this cooling, and if the temperature in the carburetor reaches 32F or below. the moisture will be deposited as frost or ice inside the carb. For airplanes with fixed-pitch prop, the first indication of carb ice is loss of RPM 9constant speed) props, the first indication is drop in manifold pressure
What are the different types of GPS receivers available for use?
vary from fully integrated IFR/VFR installation used to support VFR operations to handheld devices.
If operating into an airport without an operating control tower, FSS or UNICOM, what procedure should be followed?
where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures MULTICOM is mobile service not open to public use, used to provide communications essential to conduct the activities being performed by or directed from private aircraft
Describe the winds and temperature aloft forecasts (FB). [AC 00-45]
winds and temperature aloft forecasts are computer prepared forecasts of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times. Some of the features of FBs are: -product header includes date and time observations collected, forecast valid date and time, and time period during which the forecast is to be used -altitudes up to 15,000 feet referenced to MSL, altitudes at or above 18,000 are references to flight levels -Temp indicated in degrees C for levels from 6,000 through 24,000 feet. Above 24,000 feet minus sign is omitted since temperatures are always negative at those altitudes. -Wind direction indicated in tens of degrees with reference to true north and wind speed is given in knots. Light and variable wind or wind speeds of less than 5 knots are expressed by 9900.
What information does the turn coordinator provide?
yaw and roll of aircraft around vertical and longitudinal axes.
are you required to establish communications with a tower located within class e airspace?
yes; unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on airport having an operational control tower unless two-way comms are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. comms must be established prior to 4NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500ft AGL
What is a common traffic advisory frequency? CTAF
•Used for aircraft to self-report position for separation at untowered airports •Should make first position report and begin monitoring no less than 10nm from airport •Report positions, maneuvering, takeoff, crosswind, downwind, base, final, when clear of runway, and taxiing
