Project 320 Mid-Term
You are a project manager for Move It Now trucking company. Your company specializes in moving household goods across the city or across the country. Your project involves upgrading the nationwide computer network for the company. Your lead engineer has given you the following estimates for a critical path activity: 60 days most likely, 72 days pessimistic, 48 days optimistic. What is the standard deviation? A. 22 B. 20 C. 2 D. 4
4
A project is considered successful when... A. the project achieves its objectives and meets the expectations of its stakeholders B. the project sponsor announces the completion of the project C. the product of the project is turned over to the operations area to handle the ongoing aspects of the project D. the product of the project has been manufactured
A
According to the PMBOK® Guide, all of the following options concerning the benefits management plan are true except for which one? A. Commercial databases B. Timeframe in which the benefits will be realized C. Strategic alignment of benefits to the organizational goals D. Tangible and intangible benefits
A
All of the following are true regarding the stakeholder engagement plan except for which one? A. The stakeholder engagement plan helps define and manage the flow of information to the stakeholders. B. The stakeholder engagement plan is developed by analyzing needs, interests, and potential impacts of the stakeholders. C. The stakeholder engagement plan includes details regarding the distribution of information, reasons for distributing information, and timing of the information. D. The stakeholder engagement plan is created using tools and techniques such as expert judgment, meetings, and analytical techniques.
A
What are the inputs to the Develop Project Charter process? A. Agreements, business documents, EEFs, and OPAs B. Business case, benefits management plan, and OPAs C. Agreements, EEFs, and OPAs D. Business case, benefits management plan, EEFs
A
What limits the options of the project team? A. Constraints B. Deliverables C. Assumptions D. Technology
A
Which of the following ensures that information is distributed but does not acknowledge or certify that it was understood by the intended receivers? A. Push communication B. Interactive communication C. Transmit D. Message and feedback message
A
Which of the following is not a major step of decomposition? A. Identify resources. B. Identify components. C. No answer text provided. D. Identify major deliverables.
A
Which of the following is not true regarding the purpose of a business case? A. It describes how the benefits of the project will be measured and obtained. B. It contains the results of the benefit measurement methods that will assist in project selection. C. It describes the need or demand that brought about the project. D. It is an economic feasibility study that helps determine whether the investment in the project is worthwhile.
A
Which of the following statements is not true regarding EEFs and OPAs? A. OPAs are external to the organization. B. EEFs are outside the control of the project team. C. Resource availability is an example of internal EEF. D. Change control processes are an example of an OPA.
A
Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming and lateral thinking? A. They are types of alternatives analysis techniques, which are a tool and technique of the Define Scope process. B. They are decision-making techniques, which are a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process. C. They are tools and techniques used to elaborate the product scope description. D. They are forms of expert judgment used to help define and develop requirements and develop the project scope statement.
A
You are the project manager for an upcoming outdoor concert event. You're working on the procurement plan for the computer software program that will control the lighting and screen projections during the concert. You're comparing the cost of purchasing a software product to the cost of your company programmers writing a custom software program. You are engaged in which of the following? A. Make-or-buy analysis B. Using expert judgment C. Creating the procurement management plan D. Procurement planning
A
You are the project manager for the Heart of Texas casual clothing company. Your company is introducing a new line of clothing called Black Sheep Ranch Wear. You will outsource the production of this clothing line to a vendor. Your legal department has recommended you to use a contract that reimburses the seller's allowable costs and builds in a bonus based on the vendor achieving the performance criteria they've outlined in their memo. Which of the following contract types will you use? A. CPIF B. FPIF C. CPF D. CPFF
A
You have been hired as a contract project manager for Grapevine Vineyards. Grapevine wants you to design an Internet wine club for its customers. One of the activities for this project is the installation and testing of several new servers. You know from past experience it takes about 16 hours per server to accomplish this task. Since you're installing 10 new servers, you estimate this activity to take 160 hours. Which of the estimating techniques have you used? A. Parametric estimating B. Analogous estimating C. Bottom-up estimating D. Reserve analysis
A
You've decided to try your hand at project management in the entertainment industry. You're working on a movie production and the phases are performed sequentially. The team has just completed the storyboard phase of the project. Which of the following is true? A. The storyboard is a deliverable that marks the end of the phase. B. The storyboard phase marks the end of the Initiating process group, and the next phase of the project should begin. C. The writing phase can begin once the majority of the storyboard phase is complete. D. The division of phases and determining which processes to use in each phase is called tailoring.
A
You've identified a risk event on your current project that could save $100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following is true based on this statement? A. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited. B. This is a risk event that should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings. C. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings. D. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.
A
Your hardware vendor left you a voicemail saying that a snowstorm in the Midwest might prevent your equipment from arriving on time. She wanted to give you a heads-up and asked that you return the call. Which of the following statements is true? A. This is a trigger. B. This is a contingency plan. C. This is a residual risk. D. This is a secondary risk.
A
Your hardware vendor left you a voicemail saying that a snowstorm in the Midwest will prevent your equipment from arriving on time. You identified a risk response strategy for this risk and have arranged for a local company to lease you the needed equipment until yours arrives. This is an example of which risk response strategy? A. Mitigate B. Acceptance C. Avoid D. Transfer
A
Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project on which you're working. The project is similar in scope to a project you worked on last year. She would like to get the cost estimates as soon as possible. Accuracy is not her primary concern right now. She needs a ballpark figure by tomorrow. You decide to use______. A. Analogous estimating techniques B. Bottom-up estimating techniques C. Parametric estimating techniques D. Three-point estimating techniques
A
Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project A has a payback period of 18 months. Project B has a cost of $125,000, with expected cash inflows of $50,000 the first year and $25,000 per quarter after that. Which project should you recommend? A. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 21 months B. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 20 months C. Either Project A or Project B, because the payback periods are equal. D. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 24 months.
A
Your team has identified the risks on the project and determined their risk score. The team is in the midst of determining what strategies to put in place should the risk of losing their network administrator is a risk they'll just deal with if and when it occurs. Although they think it's a possibility and the impact would be significant, they've decided to simply deal with it after the fact. Which of the following is true regarding this question? A. This is a response strategy for either positive or negative risks known as passive acceptance. B. This is a response strategy for either positive or negative risk known as contingency planning. C. This is a negative response strategy. D. This is a positive response strategy.
A
You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to expand three miles of the north-to-south highway through your city by two lanes in each direction. You are in charge of the demolition phase of this project, and you report to the project manager in charge of this project. This project is producing deliverables in short periods of time. You work with the product owner. Your project team holds daily standup meetings and they hold retrospective meetings at the end of the working period. What methodology does this describe? A. Adaptive B. Iterative C. Incremental D. Agile
Agile
All of the following are true regarding multiphased relationships except for which one? A. Planning for an iterative phase begins while the work of other phases is progressing. B. Overlapping phases occur when more than one phase is being performed at the same time. C. During sequentially phased projects, the previous phase must finish before the next phase can begin. D. Phase reviews should occur at the end of every phase.
B
If your expected value is 110 and the standard deviation is 12, which of the following is true? A. There is approximately a 99 percent chance of completing this activity in 86 to 134. B. There is approximately a 68 percent chance of completing this activity in 98 to 122 days. C. There is approximately a 95 percent chance of completing this activity in 98 to 122 days. D. There is approximately a 75 percent chance of completing this activity in 86 to 134 days.
B
The VP of marketing approaches you and requests that you change the visitor logon screen on the company's website to include a username with at least six characters. This is considered which of the following? A. Project initiation B. Ongoing operations C A project D. Project execution
B
The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to all of the following except which one? A. The organizational structure B. The key stakeholder's influence on the project C. The interaction with various levels of management D. The project management maturity level of the organization
B
Which of the following describes the cost of quality associated with scrapping, rework, and downtime? A. Prevention costs B. Internal failure costs C. External failure costs D. Appraisal costs
B
Which of the following is displayed as an S-curve? A. Funding requirements B. Cost baseline C. Cost estimates D. Expenditures to date
B
You are a project manager for Zippy Tees. Your selection committee has just chosen a project you recommended for implementation. Your project is to manufacture a line of miniature stuffed bears that will be attached to your company's trendy T-shirts. The bears will be wearing the same T-shirt design as the shirt to which they're attached. Your project sponsor thinks you've impressed the big boss and wants you to skip to the manufacturing process right away. What is your response? A. Suggest that a preliminary business case be written to outline the objectives of the project. B. Require that a project charter be written and signed off on by all stakeholders before proceeding. C. Agree with the project sponsor because that person is your boss and has a lot of authority and power in the company. D. Require that a preliminary budget be established and a resource list be put together to alert other managers of the requirements of this project. This should be published and signed by the other managers who are impacted by this project.
B
You are managing a project to install a new postage software system that will automatically print labels and administer postage for certified mailings, overnight packages, and other special mailing needs. You've attempted to gain the cooperation of the business analyst working on this project, and you need some answers. She is elusive and tells you that this project is not her top priority. What should you do to avoid situations like this in the future? A. Establish the business analyst's duties well ahead of the due dates, and tell her you'll be reporting on her performance to her functional manager. B. Negotiate with the business analyst's functional manager during the planning process to establish expectations and request to participate in the business analyst's annual performance review. C. Negotiate with the business analyst's functional manager during the planning process to establish expectations, and inform the functional manager of the requirements for the project. Agreement from the functional manager will ensure the cooperation of the business analyst. D. Establish the business analyst's duties well ahead of due dates, and tell her you are expecting her to meet these expectations because the customer is counting on the project meeting due dates to save significant costs on their annual meetings.
B
You are the project manager for BB Tops, a nationwide toy store chain. Your new project involves creating a prototype display at several stores across the country. You are hiring a contractor for portions of the project. The contract stipulates that you'll pay all allowable costs and a 6 percent fee over and above the allowable costs at the end of the contract. Which of the following describes this contract type? A. CPPF B. CPPC C. CPF D. CPIF
B
You are the project manager for Changing Tides video games. You have produced a project schedule network diagram and have updated the activity list. Which process have you just finished? A. The Define Activities process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project. B. The Sequence Activities process, which identifies all the activity dependencies. C. The Develop Schedule process, which diagrams project network time estimates. D. The Estimate Activity Durations process, which estimates activity durations.
B
You are the project manager for Fountain of Youth Spring Water bottles. Your project involves installing a new accounting system, and you're performing the risk-planning processes. You have identified a variability risk and ambiguity risk. Which of the following is not true regarding these risks? A. Variability risk is uncertainty about the event or activity. B. Ambiguity risk is addressed using data analysis. C. These are types of non-event risks. D. Unexpected weather or unexpected resource availability is a type of ambiguity risk.
B
You are the project manager for Fun Days Vacation Resorts. Your new project assignment is to head up the Fun Days resort opening in Austin, Texas. You are estimating the duration of the project management plan activities, devising the project schedule, and monitoring and controlling deviations from the schedule. Which of the Project Management Knowledge Areas are you working in? A. Project Integration Management B. Project Schedule Management C. Project Scope Management D. Project Quality Management
B
You are the project manager for a new website for the local zoo. You need to perform the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. When you've completed this process, you'll produce all of the following as part of the project documents updates output except which one? A. Risk priority level B. Forecasted results of the project schedule and costs. C. Risk grouped by categories. D. Watch list of low-priority risks.
B
You are the project manager for an outdoor concert event scheduled for one year from today. You're working on the procurement documents for the computer software program that will control the lighting and screen projections during the concert. You've decided to contract with a professional services company that specializes in writing custom software programs. You want to minimize the risk to the organization, so you'll opt for which contract type? A. CPIF B. FFP C. CPFF D. FPIF
B
You are the project manager for the Late Night Smooth Jazz Club chain, with stores in 12 states. Smooth Jazz is considering opening a new club in Arizona or Nevada. You have derived the following information: Project Arizona: The payback period is 18 months, and the NPV is (250). Project Nevada: The payback period is 24 months, and the NPV is 300. Which project would you recommend to the selection committee? A. Project Arizona, because the payback period is shorter than the payback period for Project Nevada B. Project Nevada, because its NPV is a positive number. C. Project Nevada, because its NPV is a higher number than Project Arizona's NPV. D> Project Arizona, because its NPV is a negative number.
B
You are using a defined set of risk categories to determine both individual risks and overall project risks. You will also use PESTLE, a strategic analysis tool to assist in determining overall project risk. You are also using the lowest level of the RBS to help in constructing which of the following based on the information in this question? A. Decision tree analysis B. Prompt list C. Checklist D. RCA
B
You are working on a project that requires resources with expertise in the areas of hospitality, management, and entertainment. You are preparing your project schedule network diagram and know that you will use only finish-to-start dependencies. Which of the following diagramming methods does this describe? A. PDM B. ADM C. AON D. Network template
B
You need to communicate information in a multidirectional fashion with several stakeholders. Which of the following is true? A. This describes push communication, which is a communication model. B. This describes interactive communication, which is a communication method. C. This describes communication requirements analysis, which is a communication model. D. This describes pull communication, which is a communication method.
B
You work for a furniture manufacturer. Your project is going to design and produce a new office chair. The chair will have the ability to function as a regular chair and also the ability to move its occupant into an upright, kneeling position. The design team is trying to determine the combination of comfort and ease of transformation to the new position that will give the chair the best characteristics while keeping the costs reasonable. Several different combinations have been tested. This is an example of which of the following tools and techniques of Plan Quality Management? A. COQ B. DOE C. Quality metrics D. Benchmarking
B
You work for a large manufacturing plant. You are working on a new project to release an overseas product line. This is the company's first experience in the overseas market, and it wants to make a big splash with the introduction of this product. The stakeholders are a bit nervous about the project and historically proceed cautiously and take a considerable amount of time to examine information before making a final decision. The project entails producing your product in a concentrated formula and packaging it in smaller containers than the US product uses. A new machine is needed to mix the ingredients into a concentrated formula . After speaking with one of your stakeholders, you discover this will be the first machine your organization has purchased from your new supplier. Which of the following statements is true given the information in this question? A. This question describes the interviewing tool and technique used during the Identify Risks process. B. The question describes risk threshold levels of the stakeholders, which should be considered when performing the Plan Risk Management process. C. This question describes a risk that requires a response strategy from the positive risk category. D. This question describes risk triggers that are derived using interviewing techniques and recorded in the risk register during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process.
B
All of the following statements are true except for which one? A. Project life cycles are collections of sequential, iterative, and overlapping project phases B. Programs are groups of related projects C. Portfolios are collections of interdependent projects or programs D. A project may or may not be part of a program
C
All of the following statements describe the activity list except which one? A. The activity list is an output of the Define Activities process. B. The activity list includes all activities of the project. C. The activity list is an extension of and a component of the WBS. D. The activity list includes an identifier and description of the activity.
C
During which project management process group are risk and stakeholder's ability to influence project outcomes the highest? A. Planning B. Executing C. Initiating D. Monitoring and Controlling
C
Each of the following statements is true regarding the risk management plan except for which one? A. The risk management plan is an output of the Plan Risk Management process. B. The risk management plan includes thresholds, scoring and interpretation methods, responsible parties, and budgets. C. The risk management plan includes a description of the responses to risks and triggers. D. The risk management plan is an input to all the remaining risk-planning processes.
C
Four people are responsible for establishing cost of quality theories. Crosby and Juran are two them, and their theories are _____________, respectively. A. cost of quality and zero defects B. fitness for use and zero defects C. zero defects and fitness for use D. grades of quality and fitness for use
C
The VP of customer service has expressed concern over a project in which you're involved. HIs specific concern is that if the project is implemented as planned, he'll have to purchase additional equipment to staff his customer service center. The cost was not taken into consideration in the project budget. The project sponsor insists that the project must go forward as originally planned or the customer will suffer. Which of the following is true? A. The VP of customer service is correct. Since the cost was not taken into account at the beginning of the project, the project should not go forward as planned. Project initiation should be revisited to examine the project plan and determine how changes can be made to accommodate customer service. B. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the project sponsor. C. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the customer. D. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the VP of customer service.
C
The quality management plan documents how the project team will implement the quality policy. It should address at least all of the following except which one? A. The responsibilities the project team has in implementing the project B. The resources needed to carry out the quality plan C. The quality metrics and tolerances and what will be measured D. The processes to use to satisfy quality requirements
C
What are the five project management process groups, in order? A. Initiating, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, Executing, and Closing B. Initiating, Executing, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing C. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing D. Initiating, Monitoring and Controlling, Planning, Executing, and Closing
C
What is one of the advantages of a functional organization? A. All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to functional managers. B. Teams are co-located C. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command. D. The organization is focused on projects and project work.
C
Which of the following applies a set of tools and techniques used to describe, organize, and monitor the work of project activities to meet the project requirements? A. Project managers B. The PMBOK guide C. Project management D. Stakeholders
C
Which of the following lists of processes belong to the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area? A. Define Scope, Close Project or Phase, and Manage Project Knowledge. B. Define Scope, Direct and Manage Project Work, and Manage Stakeholders Expectations. C. Develop Project Management Plan, Direct and Manage Project Work, and Perform Integrated Change Control. D. Define Project Charter, Collect Requirements, and Close Project or Phase.
C
Which process has the greatest ability to directly influence the project schedule? A. Plan Quality Management B. Plan Resource Management C. Plan Procurement Management D. Plan Communications Management
C
You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You've recently taken over for a project manager who lied about his PMI® certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a poor job of defining the scope. Which of the following could happen if you don't correct this? A. The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule. B. The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure, and costs will increase. C. The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result. D. The project management plan's process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition.
C
You are a project manager for Picture Shades, Inc. Your company manufactures window shades that have replicas of Renaissance-era paintings for hotel chains. Picture Shades is taking its product to the home market, and you're managing the new project. It will offer its products at retail stores as well as on its website. You're developing the project schedule for this undertaking and have determined the critical path. Which of the following statements is true? A. You calculated the most likely start date and most likely finish dates, float time, and weighted average estimates. B. You calculated the activity dependency and the optimistic and pessimistic activity duration estimates. C. You calculated the early and late start dates, and the early and late finish dates, and float times for all activities. D. You calculated the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration times and the float times for all activities.
C
You are a project manager for a large software development project. You are using an Agile approach to manage this project. The product owner has prioritized the backlog. How will team members be assigned this work? A. They will choose items from the backlog list at the daily standup B. The project manager will assign work according to skill and availability C. They will choose items from the backlog list at the sprint planning meeting. D. The Scrum master will assign work according to skill and availability.
C
You are a project manager responsible for the construction of a new office complex. You are taking over for a project manager who recently left the company. The prior project manager completed the scope statement and scope management plan for this project. In your interviews with some key team members, you conclude which of the following? A. The project scope statement describes how the high-level deliverables will be defined and verified. They understand that product scope is measured against the project management plan and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project charter. B. The project scope statement assesses the stability of the project scope and outlines how scope will be verified and used to control changes. The team members know that project scope is measured against the product requirements and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project scope. C. The scope management plan describes how project scope will be managed and controlled and how the WBS will be created and defined. They know that product scope is measured against the product requirements and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project scope. D. The scope management plan is deliverables-oriented and includes cost estimates and stakeholder needs and expectations. They understand that project scope is measured against the project management plan and that scope management plan is based on the approved project charter.
C
You are preparing your communications management plan and know that all of the following are true except for which one? A. Decode means to translate thoughts or ideas so they can be understood by others. B. Transmit concerns the method used to covey the message. C. Acknowledgment means the receiver has received and agrees with the message. D. Encoding and decoding are the responsibility of both the sender and receiver.
C
You are the project manager for the Late Night Smooth Jazz Club chain, with stores in 12 states. Smooth Jazz is considering opening a new club in Kansas City or Spokane. You have derived the following information: Project Kansas City: The payback period is 27 months, and the IRR is 6 percent. Project Spokane: The payback period is 25 months, and the IRR is 5 percent. Which project should you recommend to the selection committee? A. Project Spokane, because the payback period is the shortest B. Project Kansas City, because the payback period is the longest C. Project Kansas City, because the IRR is the highest D. Project Spokane, because the IRR is the lowest
C
You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to expand three miles of the north-to-south highway through your city by two lanes in each direction. You are interested in implementing a new project process called Design-Build in order to speed up the project schedule. The idea is that the construction team will work on the first mile of the highway reconstruction at the same time the design team is coming up with plans for the third mile of the reconstruction rather than completing all design before any construction begins. This is an example of which of the following? A. Progressive elaboration B. Handoffs C. An iterative phase relationship D. Managing the projects as a program
C
You have received the following estimates for a complex activity that is critical to the success of your project. The three-point estimates are as follows: The most likely estimate is $42, the optimistic estimate is $35, and the pessimistic estimate is $54. What is the expected activity cost of this activity using the beta distribution formula (rounded to the nearest dollar)? A. 49 B. 39 C. 43 D. 44
C
You work for a large manufacturing plant. Your firm is thinking of initiating a new project to release an overseas product line. This is the company's first experience in the overseas market, and it wants to make a big splash with the introduction of this product. The project entails producing your product in a concentrated formula and packaging it in smaller containers than the U.S. product uses. A new machine is needed in order to mix the first set of ingredients in the concentrated formula. Which of the following actions is the next best step the project manager should take? A. The project manager should document the project's high-level requirements in a project charter document and recommend that the project proceed. B. The project manager knows the project is a go and should document the description of the product in the statement of work. C. The project manager should document the business need for the project and recommend that a feasibility study be performed to determine the viability of the project. D. The project manager should document the needs and demands that are driving the project in a business case document.
C
You've been hired as a manager for the adjustments department of a nationwide bank based in your city. The adjustments department is responsible for making corrections to customer accounts. This is a large department, with several smaller sections that deal with specific accounts, such as personal checking or commercial checking. You've received your first set of management reports and can't make heads or tails of the information. Each section appears to use a different methodology to audit their work and record the data for the management report. You request that a project manager from the PMO come down and get started right away on a project to streamline this process and make the data and reports consistent. This project came about as a result of which of the following? A. Customer request B. Technological advance C. Organizational need D. Legal requirement
C
Your company manufactures small kitchen appliances. It is introducing a new product line of appliances in designer colors with distinctive features for kitchens in small spaces. These new products will be offered indefinitely staring with the spring catalog release. Which of the following is true? A. This is not a project or an ongoing operation. This is a new product introduction not affecting ongoing operations. B. This is an ongoing operation because the new product line will be sold indefinitely. It's not temporary. C. This is a project because this new product line has never been manufactured and sold by this company before. D. This is an ongoing operation because the company is in the business of manufacturing kitchen appliances. Introducing designer colors and features is simply a new twist on an existing process.
C
Your company, Kick That Ball Sports, has appointed you as project manager for its new Cricket product line introduction. This is a national effort, and all the retail stores across the country need to have the new products on the shelves before the media advertising blitz begins. The product line involves three new products, two of which will be introduced together and a third one that will follow within two years. You are ready to create the WBS. All of the following are true except for which one? A. The WBS should be elaborated to a level where costs and schedule are easily estimated. This is known as the work package level. B. The WBS may be structured using each product as a level one entry. C. Rolling wave refers to how all levels of the WBS collectively roll up to reflect the work of the project and only the work of the project. D. Each level of the WBS represents verifiable products or results.
C
Your stakeholders have asked for an analysis of the cost risk. All of the following are true except for which one? A. Monte Carlo analysis is the preferred method to use to determine the cost risk. B. A traditional work breakdown structure can be used as an input variable for the cost analysis. C. Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that computes project costs one time. D. Monte Carlo usually expresses its results as probability distributions of possible costs.
C
All of the following are true regarding Plan Communications Management except for which one? A. The communications management plan is a component plan of the project management plan. B. The process should be completed as early in the project as possible. It is used to define and manage the flow of project information. C. It's tightly linked with enterprise environmental factors, and all organizational process assets are used as inputs for this process. D. Data gathering, communication technology, communication methods, and expert judgment are some of the tools and techniques of this process.
D
All of the following are true regarding a PMO except for which one? A. There are three types of PMOs: supportive, controlling, and collaborative. B. The PMO is often responsible for implementing the OPM. C. The key purpose of the PMO is to provide support to project managers. D. The PMO facilitates communication within and across projects.
D
This document is used to establish the criteria for planning, estimating, budgeting, and controlling costs. A. Cost baseline, an output of the Determine Budget process. The cost baseline is based on the approved project charter, project scope, schedule, resources, and human resource management plan in order to manage project costs. B. Performance management baseline, an output of the Plan Cost Management process. The performance management baseline is based on the project scope, schedule, resources, and human resource management plan to manage project costs. C. Project funding requirements, an output of the Determine Budget process. Project funding is based on the project scope, schedule, resources, and other information in order to manage project costs. D. Cost management plan, an output of the Plan Cost Management process. The cost management plan is based on the approved project charter, schedule, and risk management plan in order to manage project costs.
D
Unanimity, majority, plurality, and autocratic are four examples of which of the following techniques? A. Interviews, which is a tool and technique of the Define Scope process. B. Interpersonal and team skills, which is a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process. C. Facilitated workshops technique, which is a tool and technique of the Define Scope process. D. Decision-making techniques, which is a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process.
D
Which of the following are constraints that you might find during the Plan Human Resource Management process? A. Organizational structures, technical interfaces, and interpersonal interfaces B. Organizational interfaces, technical interfaces, and interpersonal interfaces C. Organizational interfaces, collective bargaining agreements, and economic conditions D. Organizational structures, collective bargaining agreements, and economic conditions
D
Which of the following is true regarding IRR? A. IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital. B. IRR is not difficult to calculate. C. IRR is a constrained optimization method. D. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.
D
Which of the following statements about decomposition is the least true? A. Decomposition is a tool and technique used to create a WBS B. Decomposition subdivides the major deliverables into smaller components until the work package level is reached. C. Decomposition requires a degree of expert judgment and also requires close analysis of the project scope statement. D. Decomposition involves structuring and organizing the WBS so that deliverables are always listed at level one.
D
You are a project manager working on a large, complex project. You've constructed the WBS for this project and all of the work package levels are subprojects of this project. You've requested that the subproject managers report to you in three weeks with their individual WBSs constructed. Which statement is not true regarding your WBS? A. The work package level is the lowest level in the WBS. B. The work package level facilitates cost and time estimates C. The work package level facilitates resource assignments. D. The work package level is decomposed to create the activity list.
D
You are in the process of translating project objectives into tangible deliverables and requirements. All of the following are techniques used in the product analysis tool and technique of the Define Scope process except which one? A. Systems analysis and systems engineering B. Value engineering and value analysis C. Product breakdown and functional analysis D. Product configuration and specification analysis
D
You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to direct customer calls to an interactive voice response system before they are connected to a live agent. You are in charge of the media communications for this project. You report to the project manager in charge of this project and the VP of marketing, who share responsibility for this project. Which organizational structure do you work in? A. Functional organization B. Weak matrix organization C. Project-oriented organization D. Balanced matrix organization
D
You have been hired as a contract project manager for Grapevine Vineyards. Grapevine wants you to design an Internet wine club for its customers. Customers must register before being allowed to order wine over the Internet so that legal age can be established. You know that the module to verify registration must be written and tested using data from Grapevine's existing database. This new module cannot be tested until the data from the existing system is loaded. This is an example of which of the following? A. Preferential logic B. Soft logic C. Discretionary dependency D. Hard logic
D
You have eight key stakeholders (plus yourself) to communicate with on your project. Which of the following is true? A. There are 36 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications technology tool and technique. B. There are 28 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications requirements analysis tool and technique. C. There are 28 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications technology tool and technique. D. There are 36 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications requirements analysis tool and technique.
D