Project+ Practice Questions

Which conflict resolution technique produces a win-lose result for the parties? A. Forcing B. Confronting C. Avoiding D. Attacking

21. A. This is where one party gets their way, and the other party's interest is not represented.

Once risks have been identified and analyzed, this tool helps you determine an overall risk score. A. Probability impact matrix B. Risk list C. Risk register D. Risk template

A . A probability impact matrix multiplies the probability score by the impact score to come up with an overall risk score. The risk list is a list of potential risk events, and the risk register is similar to the risk list but includes more details about the risk events.

This risk analysis technique uses a complex mathematical approach to numerically analyze the probability and impact of risks. A. Quantitative Risk Analysis B. Risk impact analysis C. Risk probability analysis D. Qualitative Risk Analysis

A . Quantitative Risk Analysis uses a complete mathematical approach to determine risk probability and impact. Qualitative Risk Analysis is subjective in nature. Risk impact analysis and risk probability analysis are performed using either Quantitative Risk Analysis or Qualitative Risk Analysis.

Your project is to be performed outdoors. You are only four days from the big event, and there is a hurricane headed for shore. This is an example of which of the following? A. Risk B. Assumption C. Deliverable D. Constraint

A . Risks are potential future events that pose either opportunities or threats to the project. This is a potential event that would have negative consequences to the project if it were to occur.

This person is responsible for authorizing the project to begin and signing the project charter. A. Project sponsor B. Executive in the organization who requested the project C. Project champion D. Project manager

A . The project sponsor authorizes the project to begin and approves and signs the project charter.

Portions of the project will be performed by resources outside the organization. This requires a written document from an outside vendor indicating the type of work that needs to be done and the steps necessary to do them, along with the cost. What is this document called? A. SOW B. RFP C. RFI D. RFQ

A . The statement of work (SOW) is a document that indicates the requirements of the project and outlines the type of work that needs to be completed. All the other options describe procurement documents that notify sellers of the option to bid on the project.

There are four participants in your upcoming meeting. How many lines of communication are there? A. 6 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16

A . There are four participants in the meeting, and six lines of communication. The formula for this is 4(4 - 1) ÷ 2 = 6.

This type of contract assigns a unit rate for work or goods, but the total cost is unknown. A. Time and materials B. Fixed price C. Fixed price plus incentive D. Cost reimbursable

A . Time and materials contracts are a cross between fi xed - price and cost - reimbursable contracts. They assign a unit rate for work, but the total cost isn ' t known until the work is complete.

Which of the following are the types of cost of quality? Choose three. A. Failure costs B. Prevention costs C. Appraisal costs D. Equipment costs E. Resource costs F. Quality Planning costs G. Extended support costs

A, B, C . The three types of cost of quality include prevention costs, appraisal costs, and failure costs. Failure costs include internal cost and external costs.

You ' re undertaking a new project in which users will connect to an application running on a server and post information to a database. At first glance, what types of IT resources do you think you ' ll need? Choose three. A. Database administrator B. Application developer C. Telecommunications specialist D. Server administrator E. Graphic designer

A, B, D. You will need someone who can handle the database, someone to program the application code, and someone who can manage the server for you.

Which of the following are characteristics of an Agile project management approach? (Choose three.) A. Self-organized teams B. Sprint planning C. Upfront, comprehensive requirements gathering D. Formally organized teams E. Continuous requirements gathering F. Feedback based primarily in lessons learned meetings

A, B, E. Agile is characterized by self-organized and selfdirected teams, sprint planning, and continuous requirements gathering. Projects using a waterfall technique would have characteristics of formally organized teams and saving feedback for lessons learned meetings at the end of the project.

What are three of the responsibilities of a project sponsor? A. Develops the business case and justification B. Functions as the approval authority for funding C. Sets the standards and practices a project D. Provides input and requirements E. Helps to control the project's direction F. Manages the risks of the project

A, B, E. Option C is not correct because that is the responsibility of the project management office. Option D is the role of a project stakeholder, and option F is the function of the project manager.

Which of the following would be found in the WBS dictionary? (Choose three.) A. List of scheduled milestones B. Common acronyms used on the project C. Criteria for acceptance D. Description of work component E. Frequency of communications F. Staffing plan

A, C, D. Among items contained in a WBS dictionary are the list of scheduled millstones, criteria for acceptance, and descriptions of the work components.

Of the following, which are considered key activities of the Monitor and Control phase? A. Performance Measuring and Reporting B. Develop the Quality Plan C. Perform Quality Assurance D. Monitor the Budget E. Develop the Change Control Plan F. Develop the Project Charter

A, C, D. Performance Measuring and Reporting, Perform Quality Assurance, and Monitor the Budget are all activities associated with the Monitor and Control phase. In addition to these activities, the Monitor and Control phase includes governance activities, monitoring the risk/issues log, and administering the change control process.

Which of the following are tools and techniques used for developing a project team? (Choose three.) A. Team-building activities B. Project requirements C. Recognition and rewards D. Lessons learned meetings E. Setting the ground rules F. Project kickoff meetings

A, C, E. Using team-building activities, using recognition and rewards, and setting the ground rules are some of the tools that you can use to develop an effective project team.

From the following list of options, select three of the five common stages of development that project teams progress through. Choose three. A. Forming B. Acquiring C. Storming D. Adjourning E. Negotiating F. Norming G. Compromising

A, C, F. The five stages of team development are forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.

You're the project manager on a project where the scope has expanded. The change has been approved by the change control board (CCB). What steps must you take to acknowledge the new scope? Choose two. A. Update the project management plan. B. Update the SOW. C. Communicate the change to stakeholders and team members. D. Submit a change request. E. Log the request on the change request log.

A, C. Any time there's a significant change to the project, the project management plan must be updated and the stakeholders notified of the change. Options D and E would have been done before the approval by the CCB. Options A and C occur after an approval.

What are the defining characteristics of a project? (Choose two.) A. Has a definitive start and end date B. Is assigned to a portfolio C. Creates a unique product or service D. Is a part of ongoing operational activities E. Is part of an organization's strategic plan

A, C. The two most correct answers are that the project has a definitive start and end date and that it creates a unique product or service. Projects are considered a success when the goals they set out to accomplish are fulfilled and the stakeholders are satisfied with the results.

There are three primary constraints on most all projects. Your customer, or project sponsor, will stipulate which of the three is the most important to them. What are these three elements according to CompTIA? Choose three. A. Budget B. Team members C. Scope D. Quality E. Time F. Sponsors and stakeholders G. Scope management plan

A, D, E. They are budget, quality, and time according to CompTIA.

What are the three types of variances that make up common causes of variances? Choose three. A. Random B. Tolerable C. Trends D. Known or predictable E. Acceptable F. Variances that are always present

A, D, F. The three types of variances that make up common causes of variance are random variances, known or predictable variances, and variances that are always present in the process.

In which of the following situations would team-building efforts provide the most impact on a project? (Choose three.) A. Team discord B. Schedule changes C. Missed deliverables D. Project phase completion E. Lessons learned meeting F. Change in project manager

A, D, F. When there is no harmony within the team, teambuilding exercises can assist in restoring morale. When a phase is completed, it can be beneficial to celebrate the progress on the project and recognize the contributions of the team. Any kind of change in the team dynamic can impact the project, especially when the leadership is new.

Which of the following steps are important in the development of the project schedule? (Choose three.) A. Determine tasks B. Set the quality plan C. Set the communication plan D. Sequence the tasks E. Construct a Pareto diagram F. Identify the critical path

A, D, and F. Some of the important steps required in the development of the critical path include determining the tasks, determining task start/finish dates, determining task durations and milestones, putting them in sequential order by identifying predecessors and setting dependencies, and identifying the critical path. Scheduling activities also address the allocation of resources, setting baselines, and quality/governance gates.

Stakeholders have come to you to tell you they want to change the scope. Before agreeing to the scope change, what things should you do? Choose two. A. Determine which project constraint (time, budget, quality) is most important to stakeholders. B. Discuss the proposed scope change with the sponsor. C. Ask team members what they think about the scope change. D. Define alternatives and trade - offs that you can offer the stakeholders

A, D. Determining the constraint that stakeholders think is driving the project will help you determine the kinds of trade - offs or alternatives you can propose to lessen the effect of the proposed scope change.

A well-written change control process should include which of the following components? Choose two. A. A description of the type of change requested B. The amount of time the change will take to implement C. The cost of the change D. How to update the affected project planning documents E. The stages at which changes are accepted

A, D. The amount of time and money a change will require are outcomes of a change control process, not inputs to the process.

The project manager has the following responsibilities (choose two): A. Managing quality assurance B. Setting key performance indicators and parameters C. Estimating task duration D. Managing the team, communication, scope, risk, budget, and time

A, D. The project manager is responsible for managing the team, communication, scope, risk budget, and time of the project, as well as project artifacts and quality assurance.

Identify the items that should not be included in a project charter. Choose two. A. Anticipated budget B. Project objectives C. High - level cost - benefit analysis D. Hardware needed E. Business case F. Project description G. Project title and description

A, E . The project charter includes high - level costs for the project but not an anticipated budget. The business case is its own document and is not part of the project charter.

Your project evolved over time into an ongoing operation. What type of project ending is this, and what are your next steps? Choose two. A. The project ending is because of addition. B. The next step is to inform the project sponsor and stakeholders the project has ended. C. The project ending is because of integration. D. The next step is to write the project close report. E. The next step is to perform a post - mortem analysis.

A, E. Addition occurs when the project evolves into ongoing operations. Integration occurs when the resources on the project are reassigned to other projects or activities. When a project fails, is canceled, or otherwise ends before completion, the next step is performing a post - mortem review.

What does a change control board (CCB) do to support the project? A. Helps vet and manage changes to the scope B. Provides an accounting structure for tasks C. Sets the standards and templates for the project D. Sets the costs of quality for the project

A. A change control board (CCB), in conjunction with the change control process, will approve or reject changes to the scope of the project.

Obtaining a sign-off on the design of a product would be an example of which type of dependency? A. Discretionary B. Mandatory C. External D. Financial

A. A discretionary dependency is defined by the project management team, and they are normally process or procedure driven.

What are governance gates? A. A checkpoint between project phases where approval is obtained to move forward B. A checkpoint where quality is checked against a previously established criterion C. Checkpoints at the beginning and end of the project only D. After a project governor is appointed, unplanned interruptions from this project sponsor

A. A governance gate is a checkpoint between project phases where approval is obtained to move forward. Usually, project reports are sent to a steering committee to help ensure accountability on the project for time, money, and scope.

How does a high-level scope definition help the planning of a project? A. It creates a shared understanding of what is included and excluded from the project. B. It sets exactly what a product or service will do. C. It is so high level that it ensures that multiple changes can be accommodated by the project. D. It helps to shift the blame to the project sponsor if the project is unsuccessful.

A. A high-level scope definition creates a shared understanding of what is included and excluded from the project. This information will serve as the basis for the development of the project charter.

An organization that has a fixed budget and offers a stable environment would be best suited for which type of project management approach? A. Traditional, or waterfall B. Projectized environment C. Agile approach D. Functional environment

A. A more solid organization that is working with a fixed budget or other constraints would be best suited for more traditional project management approaches.

Your $5,000,000 application development project includes the purchase of two new servers, which are currently listed in the cost baseline as $50,000 each for a total of $100,000. Between the time the estimate was made and the time the equipment was purchased, there was a 10 percent price increase. The bill for the servers will be a total of $110,000. What action should you take? Choose the best answer. A. Use the new figure to revise your cost estimate, and communicate the change to the project team and other stakeholders as part of your ongoing performance reporting. B. Add the server costs as an agenda item for the next project team meeting, and work with the project team to develop a recommendation to take to the sponsor on scope reduction to cover the increased cost of the server. C. Review the scope statement and the schedule baseline for adjustments to make because of the impact of the server cost. D. Schedule a performance review meeting with the project team member responsible for the estimate.

A. A price increase of that magnitude has a negligible impact on a project with a $5,000,000 budget. The change needs to be documented and communicated, but it does not warrant a scope reduction. The estimate was made with the best information available at the time, so the project team member who provided the estimate did nothing wrong.An equipment cost increase alone will not impact the scope or the schedule baseline.

A project manager has the most authority under which organizational structure? A. Project-based B. Functional C. Balanced matrix D. Strong matrix

A. A project - based organization is designed around project work, and project managers have the most authority in this type of structure. Project managers have the least amount of authority in a functional organization, they have some authority in a balanced matrix, and, a little more authority in a strong matrix, but not as much authority as they have in a project-based organization.

You receive a request from customer service to develop and implement a desktop management system for the customer-support staff. What type of project request is this? A. Business need B. Market demand C. Legal requirement D. Technological advance

A. A request to develop a product for use by an internal department is a business need. Market demands are driven by the needs of the market, legal requirements come about because of rules or regulations that must be complied with, and technological advances are because of improvements in expertise or equipment.

You are a project manager for a major movie studio. You need to schedule a shoot in Denver during ski season. This is an example of which of the following? A. External dependency B. Finish - to - start relationship C. Mandatory depen dency D. Discretionary dependency

A. A requirement such as weather conditions or a specifi c season that drives the scheduling of a task is an example of an external dependency.

The designer for your project is also assigned to several other projects. The other projects have similar targets for their milestones. What type of situation does this describe? A. Interproject resource contention B. Forcing C. Task sequencing D. Resource shortage

A. A resource shortage might be a tempting answer here, but the key is the involvement of multiple projects. Hence, resource contention exists between projects.

This tool is often used in the vendor selection process to pick a winning bidder. A. Weighted scoring model B. Bidder conference C. RFQ D. SOW

A. A weighted scoring model is a tool that weights evaluation criteria and provides a way to score vendor responses. Bidder conferences, IFB, and SOW are all used during vendor solicitation.

This describes how you will know the completed deliverables are satisfactory. A. Acceptance criteria B. KPIs C. Metrics D. EVM

A. Acceptance criteria describe how to determine whether the deliverables are complete and meet the requirements of the project.

Centralizing documents, archiving project documents, performing post - project reviews, writing the final closeout report, and distributing the notice of project acceptance occur during which process? A. Administrative Closure B. Project close C. Close Procurements D. Post - mortem Review

A. Administrative Closure involves centralizing and archiving documents, performing post - project reviews, and writing the fi nal project close report.

You ' re in the process of developing a project schedule for a new project for which you ' ve just completed the WBS. What would be the smart next step in figuring out what tasks go into the project schedule? A. Develop an activity list. B. Determine the critical path tasks. C. Develop a network diagram. D. Estimate activity duration.

A. After the WBS is developed, the next step involves creating an activity list that describes the activities required to complete each work package on the WBS.

All projects are constrained by which three elements as they affect quality? A. Time, budget, scope B. Time, risks, budget C. Cost, benefits, scope D. Cost, risks, scope

A. All projects are constrained by what is typically referred to as the "triple constraints," which include time, budget, and scope as they pertain to quality. Typically, you can manipulate two elements and will have to live with how they constrain the third element. You can have cheap, feature rich, or fast: pick two of three.

Developing the project team involves all of the following, EXCEPT A. Developing a team that lasts longer than the project B. Creating a positive environment for team members C. Creating an effective, functioning, and coordinated group D. Increasing the team's competency levels

A. Although this would be a nice outcome, it is not the purpose of developing a project team.

Which of these statements describes an assumption? A. Our senior web developer will be available to work on this project. B. The electrical capacity at the site of the project event may not be adequate. C. The project's due date is June 27. D. There's a potential for the server administrator to receive a promotion during the course of this project.

A. Assumptions are those things we believe to be true for planning purposes. Options B and D describe risks, while option C describes a constraint.

What is the focus of the lessons learned report resulting from the comprehensive project review session? A. The report should cover both the positive and negative aspects of the project, with suggestions for improvement. B. The report should primarily summarize the results of the project schedule, the budget, and any approved scope changes. C. The report should focus on the IT deliverables and any issues that were created by the customer. D. The report should cover what went well during the project. If the project was canceled, blame for the failure needs to be established.

A. Both the successes and failures of a project need to be documented in the lessons learned report. Successes will provide blueprints to follow on future projects, and failures will alert teams on what to avoid. A good lessons learned document covers all aspects of the project from all participants. It should include all project information, not just schedule, budget, and changes, and it should never place blame for the things that went wrong.

Which of the following is considered the most critical EVM metric? A. CPI B. CV C. SPI D. SP

A. CPI is considered the most critical EVM metric. It measures the cost effi ciency of the project work completed at the measuring date.

You are working on a project that was proceeding well until a manufacturing glitch occurred that requires corrective action. It turns out the glitch was an unintentional enhancement to the product, and the marketing people are enthused about its potential. The corrective action is canceled, and you continue to produce the product with the newly discovered enhancement. As the project manager, you know that a variance has occurred. Which of the following is not true? A. Common causes of variance are situations that are unique and not easily controlled at the operational level. B. Random variances, known or predictable variances, and variances that are always present in the process are known as common causes of variance. C. Inspection determines whether measurements fall within tolerable results. D. Scatter diagrams display the relationships between an independent variable and a dependent variable to show variations in the process over time.

A. Common causes of variance are situations that are common to the process you ' re using and are easily controlled at the operational level.

Your project is underway, and some conflict has arisen among the team members. It seems they were all anticipating that Tony, a genius regarding technology issues, was going to be assigned to the team. He was retained by the functional manager on another project, and your team was given someone else who is considered a junior - level player. Which of the following causes of conflict describes this situation? A. This describes competing resource demands. B. The team members are in the norming stage of development, which is causing this conflict. C. This describes expert - judgment conflicts. D. The varying work styles of the project team are causing this conflict.

A. Competing resource demands are a common cause of confl ict, and it ' s the one this question describes. The team thought they were getting an expert and instead got a junior team member, which caused confl ict. Norming stages of development don ' t typically have confl icts; expert judgment and varying work styles are causes of confl ict but don ' t describe this situation.

building project requires the following steps: construction, purchasing the build site, blueprinting, and inspection. Construction has what relationship to blueprinting? A. It is a successor task. B. It is a mandatory task. C. It is a predecessor task. D. It is a discretionary task.

A. Construction would come after the blueprinting is approved.

In the development of project schedule, the need to set governance gates is important. All of the following are examples of governance gates, EXCEPT A. Daily standup meetings B. Client sign-off C. Management approval D. Legislative approval

A. Daily standup meetings are typically used with an Agile methodology. As such, a daily standup meeting would not have a governance body in attendance and would normally be attended by project team members.

What are critical elements that need to be included in the project schedule? A. Define activities, sequence activities, estimate resources, estimate duration B. Define activities, budget activities, estimate resources, estimate completion C. Budget activities, estimate resources, determine milestones, estimate completion D. Develop schedule, determine completion date, check stakeholder assumptions, conduct feasibility assessment

A. Define activities, sequence activities, estimate resources, and estimate duration are all key activities that must occur in order to develop the project schedule.

In terms of resource assignments, which best describes how resources are assigned in a projectized environment? A. Resources are assigned on an ad hoc basis. B. Resources are assigned from a functional area to the project. C. Resources must be outsourced. D. Resources must not be collocated.

A. Due to the temporary nature of projects, resources are not permanently assigned to any one project or function.

What are the crashing and fast track techniques used for? A. Duration compression B. Activity sequencing C. Precedence diagramming D. Activity Definition

A. Duration compression involves either crashing the schedule by adding more resources or by creating a fast track by working activities in parallel that would normally be done in sequence.

Which of the following should be established as part of the change control system in the event the change control board (CCB) cannot meet in a timely manner? A. Emergency change request procedures B. Procedures for analyzing the impacts of change and preestablished criteria for determining which changes can be implemented C. Process for documenting the change in the change request log D. Coordination and communication with stakeholders

A. Emergency change request procedures should be documented so that changes that must be made on an emergency basis prior to the next CCB meeting can be made. All changes should be documented and reported at the next CCB meeting.

Which of the following is the " best " type of project ending? A. Extinction B. Addition C. Integration D. Starvation

A. Extinction occurs when the project work is completed and is accepted by the stakeholders. This is the best type of project ending. Starvation is a project ending caused by resources being cut off from the project. Addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations, and integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of the organization.

Fast-tracking a project is a technique involving which of the following? A. Performing two tasks in parallel that were previously scheduled to start sequentially B. Looking at cost and schedule trade-offs such as adding more resources C. Moving later deliverables to earlier phases to appease stakeholders D. Removing critical path activities that are unnecessary

A. Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique that involves completing two tasks in parallel that were previously scheduled to start sequentially. This can come with a higher cost and with increased risk, but it will help the project be completed faster.

Which is the most commonly used logical relationship? A. Finish-to-start B. Start-to-finish C. Start-to-start D. Finish-to-finish

A. Finish-to-start is the most commonly used logical relationship in network and schedule diagrams.

Which of the following is not true for critical path activities? A. The early start is always less than the late start. B. These activities are on the longest path on the network diagram. C. The float is zero. D. The late finish is always the same as the early finish.

A. Float is always zero for the critical path activities, so early start and late start are the same date.

The Scope Control process is responsible for all of the following except which one? A. Formally accepting completed deliverables B. Monitoring the status of the project scope C. Monitoring changes to project scope D. Ensuring work results match expected outcomes

A. Formally accepting the completed deliverables is the primary purpose for the Scope Verifi cation process.

Jenny works for a company undertaking a project. She will ultimately benefit from the service created and would like to share her thoughts and input on how it should be created. She is also a subject-matter expert in the product area. Jenny is most likely which of the following? A. Project stakeholder B. Project champion C. Project sponsor D. Member of the PMO

A. In this case, Jenny is considered to be a project stakeholder. Remember that a team member is also a form of a stakeholder.

A project has a key contributor who is absent from meetings, not meeting deadlines, and affecting the morale of other individuals on a team. There is no other person within the company with the expertise needed to perform the tasks assigned to this team member. Which of the following would be the appropriate action for the project manager? A. Bring the team member in for a counseling session. B. Leave the employee alone and distribute work to other team members. C. Remove the team member from the project and seek a replacement. D. Relocate the team member to a different facility.

A. In this scenario, working with the team member to get the desired result is the best course of action. Removing or replacing a team member is not always an option, and thus is incorrect.

Benched resources is when the project has which of the following issues? A. Individuals who are finished with the project but haven't yet started a new assignment B. Individuals who have too much work for them to be able to complete the project C. A lack of talent in the industry, which leads to a shortage of qualified personnel on the project D. Individuals ordered to the sidelines because of their performance

A. Individuals who are finished with the project but haven't started a new assignment represent benched resources whose skills are not being utilized. This is costly for an organization because team members are being paid, but revenue is not being generated.

The network communication model is a visual depiction of what? A. Lines of communication B. Participant model C. Communication model D. Participant communication model

A. Lines of communication describe how many lines of communication exist between participants. The network communication model is a visual depiction of the lines of communication.

You are in the process of aggregating the cost baseline. All the following are used during the creation of this baseline except for which one? A. Management reserves B. Chart of accounts C. Human resource cost estimates D. Materials and equipment estimates

A. Management reserves are not part of the project cost budget or cost baseline.

You have been assigned as project manager for a major software development project. Andy is the functional manager who will be providing the resources for your development team. Andy is being asked to supply resources to several projects concurrently. You have a list of the people you want assigned to your team, but you fear other project managers may want these same people. How should you approach Andy regarding the assignment of his people to the project? A. Schedule a meeting with Andy to discuss resources. Explain your project deliverables and the skill sets you need. Negotiate with Andy for your most critical resources first. B. Send Andy a memo listing the resources you need and the start date for each resource. C. Catch up with Andy just before a meeting both of you need to attend so that he will not have time to think up reasons to turn down part of your request. D. Meet with Andy ' s boss to let her know that your project is critical, and provide her with the list of resources you need from Andy.

A. Obtaining the right resources for your project requires good planning and skillful negotiation. An individual meeting with each functional manager who will be providing resources is the best approach. Although you identify all the ideal resources you need, do not expect that you will get everyone you want. Negotiate for your most critical resources fi rst, and be willing to compromise. An assumption that the functional manager just needs your list or an attempt to obtain resources by circumventing the functional manager provides a perception that you do not value the functional manager, and can create a poor working relationship.

This is the cost of work that has been authorized and budgeted for a schedule activity or WBS component during a given time period or phase. A. PV B. EV C. AC D. EVM

A. PV is the planned value or the cost of work that has been authorized and budgeted for a given time period or phase. EV is the earned value: the value of the work completed to date because it compares the budgeted amount assigned to the work component. AC is the actual cost, and EVM is the earned value measurement.

The following deliverables/activities all occur in the Initiation phase, EXCEPT A. Project sign-off B. Project charter C. Business case D. High-level risks

A. Project sign-off occurs in the Closing phase, not the Initiation phase.

The project team is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT A. Providing governance on the project B. Contributing to the deliverables according to the schedule C. Contributing expertise to the project D. Estimating costs and dependencies

A. Providing governance on the project is the responsibility of a project management office, not the project team. The project team is responsible for contributing expertise to the project, contributing deliverables according to the schedule, estimating task duration, and estimating costs and dependencies.

When substantial changes to the project schedule have occurred, which of the following might you perform to provide a new means of measuring performance? A. Rebaselining B. Schedule revision C. Schedule update D. Schedule change

A. Rebaselining may occur when a schedule change is substantial and impacts dates for multiple milestones or for major deliverables. Schedule updates occur as part of the ongoing work involved in managing the project, and schedule revision is an update to the approved start or end date of the schedule baseline.

What are the EVM measurements for schedule variances? A. SV = (EV - PV) and SPI = (EV / PV) B. SV = (EV - AC) and SPI = (EV / AC) C. SV = (EV - BAC) and SPI = (EV / BAC) D. SV = (PV - EV) and SPI = (PV / EV)

A. Schedule variance is (EV - PV), and schedule performance index is (EV / PV).

This is a temporary way of resolving conflict and is considered a lose-lose technique. It emphasizes the areas of agreement over the areas of disagreement. A. Smoothing B. Forcing C. Avoiding D. Confronting

A. Smoothing is a lose-lose conflict-resolution technique. It is a temporary way to resolve conflict. Avoiding can also be a lose-lose conflict technique, but it isn't temporary in nature and doesn't emphasize anything because one of the parties leaves the discussions.

When is a project considered to be a success? A. Stakeholder expectations have been met. B. The phase completion has been approved. C. All project phases have been completed. D. The vendor has been released from the project.

A. Stakeholder expectations having been met is the most critical factor involved when determining whether a project is a success.

In what stage of team development are team members brought together and introduced to each other? A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing E. Adjourning

A. Team members are brought together and told why they're working together. Individuals tend to be the most reserved and formal during this stage.

All of the following are true regarding the release of team members except for which one? A. Team members are released after lessons learned are documented. B. The project manager should perform a final performance appraisal for team members when they ' re released from the project. C. The project manager should inform the functional managers well in advance of the team members ' release date. D. The project manager should communicate with the team members about their upcoming release date.

A. Team members can be released prior to the lessons learned session. If your team members are leaving the organization or are located at a different geographical location, you could perform a lessons learned session with them before they leave, or you could include them in the fi nal lessons learned session using video conferencing or similar technology.

Which project role helps to market the need and success of the project and provides a level of control for funding? A. Project sponsor or champion B. Project manager C. Project coordinator D. Project scheduler

A. The "champion" role of the sponsor is really important both initially and as the project commences in order to keep the energy and focus of the whole organization committed to its success.

What is the best way to prevent scope creep? A. Make sure the requirements are thoroughly defined and documented. B. Put a statement in the charter that no additions to the project will be allowed once it's underway. C. Alert the sponsor that you will not be taking any change requests after the project starts. D. Inform stakeholders when they sign the project scope statement that no changes will be accepted after the scope statement is published.

A. The best way to avoid scope creep is to make sure the project's requirements have been thoroughly defined and documented.

Your project sponsor has expressed their need to have real-time project information at their fingertips. Which of the following is the best way to meet this need? A. By creating a project dashboard with scope, cost, and time elements B. By updating the project status report on a daily basis C. By sending an email every morning to the sponsor describing the current project status D. By meeting face to face with the sponsor every day to update them on status

A. The best way to provide this information is to create a dashboard that provides real-time, updated information in a succinct and easy-to-read format.

The EV for a project is 900 and AC is 1100. The CPI for the project would be which of the following? A. .82 B. 1.22 C. -200 D. 200

A. The cost performance index (CPI) is EV/AC. Therefore, 900 / 1100 = .84.

Your project has expected cash inflows of $7.8 million in today ' s dollars. Which cash flow technique was used to determine this? A. Discounted cash flow B. IRR C. NPV D. Cost - benefit analysis

A. The discounted cash fl ow technique compares the total value of each year ' s expected cash infl ow to today ' s dollar. IRR calculates the internal rate of return, NPV determines the net present value, and cost - benefi t analysis determines the cost of the project versus the benefi ts received.

What is the lowest level of the WBS? A. Work package B. Level 10 C. Milestone D. Activities

A. The lowest level of a WBS is the work package. The number of levels will vary by project and complexity.

The Closing phase of a project serves what critical purpose? A. Formal acceptance and turnover to ongoing maintenance and support B. Performing governance activities and turnover to ongoing maintenance and support C. Formal acceptance and producing deliverables D. Performing governance activities and producing deliverables

A. The primary purpose of the Closing phase is to document the formal acceptance of the project work and to hand off the completed product to the organization for ongoing maintenance and support.

Which component of the project charter describes the characteristics of the product produced by the project? A. Project description B. Business case C. Deliverables D. Quality plan

A. The project description explains the attributes of the product, service, or result of the project.

What key meeting is held after the project charter is signed and/or at the beginning of the Executing process? A. Project kickoff B. Project review C. Project overview D. Project status meeting

A. The project kickoff meeting is held after the project charter is signed and at the beginning of the Executing process. It serves to introduce team members, review the goals and objectives of the project, review stakeholder expectations, and review roles and responsibilities for team members.

When should employee performance expectations be set on a project? A. Lessons learned meeting B. Employee performance review C. Stakeholder identification meeting D. First meeting with a new team member

A. The project manager is attempting to make the conflict appear less important than it really is by implying that they would have to work on the upcoming weekend if they didn't stay that night. No attempt is made to see if there was another solution, like coming in early the next day.

All of the following are ways to determine whether a project is completed, EXCEPT A. When the project manager declares the project is complete B. When the project is canceled C. When it has been determined that the goals and objectives of the project cannot be accomplished D. When the objectives are accomplished and stakeholders are satisfied

A. The project manager is not the critical role in this answer. Unless it falls into one of the other three phases, this does not hold true.

All the following describe a kickoff meeting except for which one? A. The roles and responsibilities overview describes how each team member will be interacting on the project, and the project manager will describe their role on the project at the first team meeting rather than the kickoff meeting. B. It ' s ideal if the project sponsor can attend the meeting and describe their goals and expectations first hand. C. The project overview includes a review of the project goals and objectives, a summary of key deliverables for each phase, a high - level schedule, and a high - level budget. D. Questions and answers help clarify the project objectives and expectations of the stakeholders and are a good opportunity to engage team members on the project.

A. The project manager should start the roles and responsibilities overview by describing their role on the project. It wouldn ' t hurt to review this and team member roles and responsibilities again at the fi rst team meeting, but it should be covered in the kickoff meeting as well.

Judy is a program manager and is monitoring the work done on several projects. On the telecom project, she needs more information on when certain activities and milestones will occur. Who on the telecom project should Judy reach out to for this information? A. Project scheduler B. Project coordinator C. PMO D. Project manager

A. The project scheduler is responsible for communicating the timeline and any changes.

What is the primary function of the project sponsor regarding the scope document? A. Signs off on the project scope document B. Has input into the project scope document C. Does not interact with the project scope document D. Authors the project scope document

A. The project sponsor, along with other key stakeholders, signs off on the project scope document. Project sponsors may have some input to scope, but the project manager is the author of the document, and the stakeholders are primary contributors to the scope document.

Which of the following responsibilities of the project manager is not part of the project Executing process group? A. Setting the schedule baseline B. Tracking issues C. Tracking risks D. Reporting project status

A. The schedule baseline is set during the project Planning process group. Issue tracking, risk tracking, and reporting project status are all Executing tasks.

This is the final, approved version of the project schedule. All of the following are true regarding this term except for which of the following? A. It will prevent future schedule risk. B. It's approved by the stakeholders, sponsor, and functional managers. C. It's used to monitor project progress throughout the remainder of the project. D. This describes a schedule baseline.

A. The schedule baseline is the final, approved version of the schedule and is signed by the stakeholders, sponsor, and functional managers. Having a schedule baseline will not prevent future schedule risk.

Which element is not a component or function of the scope management plan? A. Describes the deliverables ' acceptance criteria B. Describes how scope changes will be handled C. Describes the procedures for preparing the scope statement D. Describes the procedures for preparing the WBS

A. The scope management plan contains a defi nition of how the deliverables will be verifi ed, but the acceptance criteria are documented in the project scope statement.

The scope statement provides which of the following? A. A basis for a common understanding of the project and for making future decisions regarding the project B. A detailed list of all resources required for project completion C. A schedule of all the key project activities D. A process for managing change control

A. The scope statement serves as a basis for understanding the work of the project and for future decision making.

Which calculation will show you the ratio of remaining work compared to the remaining budget and is represented as a percentage? A. TCPI B. EVM C. SPI D. CPI

A. The to - complete performance index measures remaining work to remaining budget and is the projected performance level that the remaining work of the project must achieve in order to meet the stated objectives.

A project manager listens to the concerns of two team members who are upset with each other. After asking questions, listening, and getting them to talk with each other, the project manager gains agreement on a vested interest for all parties and work resumes. The team members agree to start behaving accordingly. This is an example of which of the following? A. Negotiating B. Compromising C. Confronting D. Avoiding

A. The use of a third party, like the project manager in the question, can help in producing a positive outcome and the third party's neutrality can assist in reaching an agreement.

Determining the burn rate and measuring costs to the baseline are elements of what activity? A. Expenditure tracking B. Spending plan C. Parametric estimating D. Cost accounting

A. This activity also includes measuring the project spending to date.

Your project sponsor told you that the due date for the project is a key to its success and there is no chance of the date changing. What is this known as? A. A constraint B. An influence C. A deliverable D. A management directive

A. This describes a constraint. Constraints dictate or restrict the actions of the project team.

In this organizational structure, you report to the director of project management, and your team members report to their areas of responsibility (accounting, human resources, and IT). You will have complete control of the project team members' time and assignments once the project is underway. Which type of organization does this describe? A. Projectized B. Functional C. Hierarchical D. Matrix

A. This describes a projectized organization because the project manager works in a division whose sole responsibility is project management, and once the team members are assigned to the project, the project manager has the authority to hold them accountable to their tasks and activities.

You would expect the WBS dictionary to contain all of the following information, EXCEPT A. Explanations of team member's roles and responsibilities B. Description of the work of the component C. Quality requirements D. Required resources

A. This information would generally be found in a responsibility assignment matrix instead of the WBS dictionary.

All of the following are characteristics of an Agile project management approach, EXCEPT A. Strict adherence to a change control process B. Uses a flexible approach to requirements C. Team members work in short bursts, or sprints D. Each release is tested against the customers' needs

A. This is indicative of a more traditional waterfall approach where the scope is controlled with a more rigid change process.

The scope baseline allows project managers to perform all of the following activities, EXCEPT A. Set the approach to conflict resolution B. Document schedules C. Assign resources D. Monitor and control project work

A. This is not an element of the scope baseline but a management skill used to help get teams unstuck.

This is the formula for the forecast of the total cost of the project based on current project performance and the remaining work. A. AC + ETC B. ETC C. (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC) D. BAC - EAC

A. This question is asking about the estimate at completion (EAC) formula, which is AC + ETC. Option B is the ETC formula, option C is the TCPI formula, and option D is the VAC formula.

Analogous estimating is also referred to as which of the following? A. Top-down estimating B. Bottom-up estimating C. Parametric estimating D. Three-point estimating

A. Top-down estimating, or analogous estimating, is when high-level project cost estimates are used by comparing to a similar project from the past.

This vendor selection method weighs various criteria from the RFP and SOW, scores each vendor on each of the criteria, and determines an overall score for each vendor. A. Weighted scoring model B. Screening system C. Seller rating system D. Independent estimates

A. Weighted scoring models weigh various criteria from the RFP and SOW, which allows you to score each vendor on each of the criteria and determine an overall score for each vendor.

A startup company is attempting to compete in an emerging product market. There are constant disruptive technology changes, and the market is shifting in their product tastes. This type of situation would be best served by which of the following? A. Agile approach B. Projectized environment C. Functional environment D. Traditional, or waterfall

A. When requirements are changing, an Agile approach allows an organization to be readily able to adapt to the environment.

Which project role is responsible for coordinating resources between projects? A. Project management office (PMO) B. Project coordinator C. Project manager D. Project scheduler

A. While not listed, this function could also be done by a program or portfolio within those units only. The PMO performs this function across the organization.

You ' re working on a project in which the time to complete the project has been heavily restricted and funds are short. You have one resource working on preparing six servers for use in a balanced web array. The servers will all look basically alike. What technique can you use to slim down some of the time required to perform this task in the project? A. Fast tracking B. Crashing C. Reducing the number of servers D. Purchasing a server that runs a number of virtual machines simultaneously

A. You have only one resource and funds are limited, so crashing the project isn't the solution. The fast tracking option allows you to start more than one task at the same time. Previously, each server was scheduled to start and complete sequentially. You could start two or three servers at once, thereby fast tracking the schedule.

You receive a confusing request from the marketing department to develop a new billing system. What is the first step you should take? A. You meet with the marketing person to identify and clarify the request. B. You write the project charter. C. You submit a request to the project selection committee. D. You request the finance department to do a cost - benefit analysis.

A. You must clarify the project request to determine exactly what the marketing person needs. You need to understand the problem that needs to be addressed so that you can defi ne the high - level requirements and write the project charter.

You ' re the project manager for a large IT project that ' s going to take a year to complete and requires input from many different IT technicians. Recently you ' ve discovered that some fighting is going on between the person who ' s developing and implementing your security policies and a senior developer. You ' ve found both to be highly credible, valuable players on your team. What ' s the best way to handle this situation? A. Call both to a meeting. Specify exactly what you ' re seeing happening between them. Ask for a plan from both to work out the differences. Stress the importance each of them contributes to the project. B. Ask the HR office to put together a meeting between you and the two fighting team members. Ask HR to work out the differences between the team members. Stress the importance each of them contributes to the project. C. Call both to a meeting with you and the project sponsor. Specify to the sponsor exactly what you ' re seeing happening between the two. Allow the sponsor to lead the group toward an amicable solution. Stress the importance each of them contributes to the project. D. Replace the security specialist with someone else.

A. Your primary goal is to bring the two team members together to try to air the differences in a way that ' s constructive. If possible, don ' t meet with them in your offi ce; instead, choose a place that ' s neutral to all of you. Point out that you notice some friction going on and that you ' re wondering what the elements of that friction might be, because it ' s having an effect on the outcome of the project. Stress how valuable each of them are to the project. Ask questions that don ' t give either person an opportunity to blame the other. Try to fi nd creative solutions to the problems. If this fails, the next step might be to consider asking HR to take a more active role.

A primary role of the project manager includes informing this person of changes, status, conflicts, and issues on the project. A. The project requestor B. The project sponsor C. The project champion D. The most influential project stakeholder

B . A key role of the project manager is informing the sponsor of changes, status, issues, and conflicts on the project. The project requestor and stakeholders should be informed as well, but the primary role of the project manager involves informing the sponsor and keeping them updated.

This type of chart depicts the WBS identifier, the type of resource required, and the number of resources required. A. RACI B. RAM C. RAMI D. RAC

B . A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) chart depicts the WBS identifi er, types of resources needed, and number of resources for the task.

Randy is a key technical resource for your project. You ' ve worked with Randy on past projects and have identified him in the project charter as one of the team members who will work on the project. The charter has been published, and there is great excitement about this project. You ' ve scheduled a meeting to talk to Randy ' s functional manager next week. Which of the following conditions does this describe? A. Risk B. Assumption C. Deliverable D. Constraint

B . Assumptions are things believed to be true. In this case, you have not verifi ed Randy ' s availability and are assuming the functional manager will agree to assign him to the project.

Risk Identification is the process of which of the following? A. Quantifying the impact to the project of a potential risk event B. Determining and documenting potential risk events on the project C. Assigning a probability that a particular risk event will occur D. Defining the action to take in response to a risk event

B . Risk Identifi cation is the process of determining and documenting the potential risk events that could occur on the project. Quantifying the impacts and assigning a probability both occur during the risk analysis process, and risk responses are developed during the risk response process.

Which stakeholder assigns employees to the project? A. Project manager B. Functional manager C. Customer D. Sponsor

B . The functional manager provides the employees performing the work of the project. The project manager is accountable for overseeing the work required to complete the project. The customer is the person or group that is the recipient of the product or service created by the project. The project sponsor champions the project throughout the organization and acts as an advisor to the project manager.

Jack is a stakeholder on the project. He ' s quite enamored with the project and serves to provide enthusiasm, critiques, energy, communication, and motivation for your project. What is Jack ' s role? A. Project sponsor B. Project champion C. Project team member D. Business analyst

B . The project champion is someone who understands the goals of the project and serves as a voice of enthusiasm throughout the organization regarding the benefi ts of the project.

The work effort multiplied by which of the following will bring about the total estimate for each task? A. Duration B. Rate C. Number of resources D. Number of hours

B . The rate that is established for a given resource times the work effort (usually expressed in hours) will yield the total estimate for the task.

A scope management plan contains which of the following elements? (Choose three.) A. Process for creating the schedule B. Process for creating the scope statement C. Definition of how the deliverables will be validated D. Process for creating, maintaining, and approving the WBS E. Process for creating the budget

B, C, D. The scope management includes the process for creating the scope statement, the definitions of how the deliverables will be validated, and the process for creating, maintaining, and approving the WBS. It also will define the process for controlling scope change requests, including the procedure for requesting changes.

Which of the following are components of a scope statement? Choose three. A. General project approach B. Product description C. KPIs D. Exclusions E. Stakeholder list F. High - level milestones G. Change request process

B, C, D. The sections of a project scope statement are product description, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, time and cost estimates, assumptions, and constraints.

Which of the following are the requirements to complete a pre - project setup? Choose three. A. Conduct a feasibility analysis. B. Identify the project. C. Validate the project. D. Validate the business case. E. Prepare a project charter and obtain approval of the charter. F. Identify and analyze stakeholders.

B, C, E. identifying the project validating the project preparing a project charter, and obtaining approval of the charter.

Which of the following project documents are created during the Planning phase of a project? (Choose three.) A. Status reports B. Communication plan C. Organizational chart D. Lessons learned E. Project schedule F. Action items

B, C, E. The communication plan, organizational chart, and project schedule are all created in the Planning phase. Status reports and action items are developed and communicated during the Monitor and Control phase. Other examples of activities that are a result of the Planning phase are identifying resources, capturing detailed risks and requirements, documenting the change management plan and procurement plan, and developing the budget.

The types of organizational structures include which of the following? (Choose three.) A. Agile B. Functional C. Matrix D. Colocation E. Projectized

B, C, E. The three types of organizational structures are functional, matrix, and projectized. In a functional organization, decisions and control are driven by the specialized function (IT, accounting, HR, and so on). With a projectized organization, the project manager has decision-making authority and control over resources. A matrixed organization is a blended model between functional and projectized.

Which of the following are ways to organize the WBS? (Choose three.) A. Critical path B. Subprojects C. Project phases D. Prioritized by risk E. Major deliverables

B, C, E. The ways to organize the WBS are by subprojects (where the project managers of the subprojects each create a WBS), by project phases, or by major deliverables.

Wigitcom has a group of projects all related to security widgets. They want to add a new product for security cameras and sell them to customers. The effort must be completed within the next three months to beat the competition to market. There is an established group of resources that work on security efforts. Which of the following is true about this effort? (Choose three.) A. This effort is not a project because security is already done. B. This effort is a project because the product being developed is unique. C. This effort is a project and will be a part of a program. D. There is no reason to make this effort because they already do security. E. This meets the requirements for a project because it creates a unique product and is temporary in nature.

B, C, E. This meets the requirements for a project because Wigitcom is creating a new product or service, and the effort is temporary in nature. It would also be a part of a program, or related projects, that share resources. In this case, the security team's resources would be shared with this project.

From the following options, select those that best describe the definition of a deliverable. (Choose three.) A. Marks the completion of a project phase B. Has measurable outcomes or results C. Is a specific item that must be produced to consider the project complete D. Describes the characteristics of the product of the project E. Is documented in the project charter F. Is tangible and easily verified

B, C, F . Deliverables are measurable outcomes or results or are specifi c items that must be produced in order to consider the project complete. Deliverables are tangible and are easily measured and verifi ed. It ' s possible that key deliverables may mark the completion of a project phase and that deliverables are documented in the project charter, but these options do not describe the defi nition of a deliverable.

Which three of the following options are process groups in the project management process groups? A. Risk B. Initiating C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Procurement E. Scope F. Planning

B, C, F . The fi ve process groups are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. Options A, D, and E are Knowledge Areas.

Which of the following are project management phases? Choose three. A. Scheduling B. Planning C. Executing D. Communicating E. Documenting F. Budgeting G. Closing

B, C, G. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing are the five project management phases or process groups.

A project coordinator has which of the following responsibilities? (Choose two.) A. Approval authority for funding B. Support for the project manager C. Time and resource scheduling D. Contribution of expertise to the project E. Coordination of resources between projects

B, C. A project coordinator supports the project manager and performs time and resource scheduling. This individual also provides cross-functional coordination and documentation and administrative support, and checks for quality.

What are the two types of charts that you might utilize to display the project schedule? Choose two. A. Run chart B. Gantt chart C. Milestone chart D. CPM E. Histigram

B, C. Gantt charts and milestone charts are the most commonly used formats to display a project schedule.

You ' re a project manager for a large, complex IT project. You ' re in the middle of the executing phase. The project sponsor has decided to cancel the project because of unexpected cost overruns and resource shortages. What are your next steps? Choose two. A. Change vendors to obtain a lower bid for hardware and software components. B. Prepare project closure documents, including lessons learned. C. Perform a post - mortem analysis, and release resources. D. Ask the sponsor to allow you to redesign the project with fewer deliverables. E. Ask for a new sponsor.

B, C. If you have a sponsor who opts to cancel the project, you will still perform project closing procedures. During this process, you ' ll assemble the closure documents, perform a post - mortem analysis, and release any resources working on the project.

A project management office (PMO) has which of the following responsibilities? (Choose three.) A. Markets the project across the business B. Provides governance for projects C. Manages the team, communication, scope, risk, budget, and time of the project D. Maintains standard documentation and templates E. Establishes key performance indicators and parameters F. Develops and maintains the project schedule

B, D, E. The PMO provides guidance to project managers and helps present a consistent, reliable approach to managing projects across the organization. Responsibilities include providing governance for projects, maintaining standard documentation and templates, and establishing key performance indicators and parameters.

Which of the following are conflict - resolution techniques? Choose three. A. Adjourning B. Negotiating C. Norming D. Avoiding E. Compromise F. Storming

B, D, E. The confl ict - resolutions techniques are smoothing, forcing, compromise, avoiding, and negotiating. Adjourning, norming, and storming are stages of team development.

Which of the following are reasons for bringing about a project? Choose three. A. Feasibility study B. Market demand C. Business case justification D. Strategic opportunity E. Stakeholder needs F. Social needs

B, D, F. The needs or demands that bring about a project include the following: market demand, strategic opportunity/business need, customer request, technological advances, legal requirements, ecological impacts, and social needs. A feasibility study is conducted to determine the viability of a project, and the business case documents the reasons for the project and the justifi cation for the project. Stakeholder needs may bring about a project, but their needs will fall more specifi cally into one of the seven needs or demands that bring about a project.

Wigitcom has a mobile geolocation application that was released last year. They are now working on the latest quarterly release of the application, which has minor updates and bug fixes. Which of the following statements is true regarding the geolocation application effort? (Pick all of the answers that are true.) A. This is a project because there are minor changes to the application. B. This not a project because the regular releases are a continuing effort. C. This is a project because this effort is temporary in nature. D. This is not a project because the product being produced is not unique.

B, D. This is an example of ongoing operations that are not temporary in nature and do not have an end date. Additionally, the work effort does not produce a unique product.

Elements of the project that are not listed on the WBS are considered what? Choose two. A. Work that will be completed in a future phase of the project. B. Exclusions from scope. C. They are considered scope creep. D. They are not considered part of the project.

B, D. Work that is not included in the WBS is not part of the project. Exclusions from scope are work components that are not included in the project and should not appear on the WBS.

Frederico, the director of the marketing department, has approached you with an idea for a project. What are the steps you ' ll take for the pre - project setup of this project? Choose three. A. Write a business - case analysis. B. Identify the project. C. Determine the strategic opportunity/business need that brought about the project. D. Determine the project selection methods you ' ll use to justify the project. E. Validate the project. F. Write a project charter and obtain approval for the charter.

B, E, F. The steps in pre - project approval are identifying the project, validating the project, and writing the project charter and obtaining approval of the project charter. A business case is part of the project validation process, the strategic opportunity or business need is typically documented in the business case, and project selection methods are used after pre - project setup, not as part of the pre - project setup.

You are working in a matrix organization. Choose two responses that describe this type of structure. A. Project resources are members of another business unit and may or may not be able to help you full - time. B. Matrix organizations can be structured as strong, weak, or balanced. C. Project managers have the majority of power in this type of structure. D. This organizational structure is similar to a functional organization. E. Employees are assigned project tasks by their project manager in this type of structure.

B, E. A matrix organization can be structured as a strong, weak, or balanced matrix. Employees are assigned to projects by their functional managers, and the project tasks are assigned to them by the project manager. The project manager has the majority of power in a project - based organization.

What are the defining characteristics of a project? (Choose two.) A. A group of related tasks B. Temporary in nature C. Operational activities D. Reworking of an existing project E. Creation of a unique product or service

B, E. A project can be summarized as having the following properties: It is temporary in nature, it creates a unique product or service, it has a definite start and finish, it contains a reason/purpose, and it may be part of a program or portfolio. A group of related tasks is not necessarily a project but could be a to-do list of any kind. Operational activities are activities that take place after a project has been completed. Reworking an existing project is not creating a new product or service, and it doesn't meet the properties of a project.

Which of the following are conflict resolution techniques? (Choose two.) A. Threatening B. Smoothing C. Storming D. Norming E. Negotiating

B, E. Smoothing and negotiating are conflict resolution techniques. Storming and norming are stages of group development that were first proposed by Bruce Tuckman. Threatening is an interpersonal response that typically leads to conflict.

What is a list of all things to be completed, whether technical or user-centric in nature, which are in the form of user stories, known as? A. Requirements B. Backlog C. Risk register D. Stakeholders

B. A backlog is the artifact that is used within an Agile methodology to keep track of all the elements that need to be included in a project but may not be a part of this sprint.

Which of the following in an example of a deliverable? A. The date work on the project begins B. The design for a new product C. Time and materials applied to the project D. PMO

B. A deliverable can be any tangible or intangible product or service produced as the result of a project.

software company has a project team working to establish a new platform. What mechanism would the company use to protect their intellectual property? A. OBS B. NDA C. IMS D. COQ

B. A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) helps protect an organization's intellectual property when the project is completed or if there is turnover on the project.

Which of the following describes a portfolio? A. A collection of the sample work a project manager has done that should be brought to an interview B. A collection of programs, subportfolios, and projects that support strategic business goals or objectives C. A group of related projects that are managed together using shared resources and similar techniques D. A group of project investments that are maintained to help finance projects

B. A portfolio is a collection of programs, sub-portfolios, and projects that support strategic business goals or objective. Programs and projects within a portfolio are not necessarily related to one another in a direct way, and projects may independently exist within the portfolio.

You are gathering documents to work on your comprehensive post - project review. What aspects of the project should you focus on? A. The review should focus on the technical aspects of the project. B. All phases of the project, from planning through execution, should be included in the review. C. The review should focus on the project schedule with an emphasis on the accuracy of the original estimates. D. The review should be limited to the positive aspects of the project. This will help all the team members get better assignments in the future.

B. A post-project review is most benefi cial to future projects if it covers all aspects of the project and includes both the negative and the positive of each phase.

Mitch is a project manager working in the Planning phase of the project. After completing a skills matrix to understand what kind of talent the project will need, he is screening the résumés of talent already employed by the company. What activity is Mitch performing at this stage of the project? A. Team building B. Team selection C. Conflict resolution D. Trust building

B. A project is represented by the individuals on the team, and ensuring the correct skills, level of experience, availability, and interest are all part of the team selection process.

This is often added to the project schedule to determine whether the work is correct. A. Approval gate B. Quality gate C. Milestone gate D. Governance gate

B. A quality gate is added to the schedule as a checkpoint to determine whether the work meets quality standards.

When does an item move from the risk register to the issue log? A. As soon as the risk as identified B. When the risk is triggered C. Never D. In the creation of the project plan

B. A risk becomes an active issue when it is triggered. For instance, if the cost of materials starts to rise, it might trigger a budget risk that gets moved to the issue log to be actively managed.

This change is the type of change made to the project schedule that ' s part of the ongoing work involved with managing the project. A. Schedule revision B. Schedule update C. Rebaselining D. Schedule change

B. A schedule update is any change made to the project schedule as part of the ongoing work involved with managing the project. A revision is an update to the approved start or end date of the schedule baseline.

The total time it will take for one person to complete a task from beginning to end without taking into account holidays, time off, or other project work is known as this. A. Duration estimate B. Work effort estimate C. Bottom - up estimate D. Parametric estimate

B. A work effort estimate or person - hour estimate is used to develop the cost estimates. This is the amount of time it will take to complete the task from beginning to end without accounting for work breaks, holidays, and so on. Duration estimates account for holidays, work breaks, and so on. Bottom - up estimates are estimates for individual components of work that are rolled up into the overall estimate, and parametric estimates are usually derived by multiplying quantity times rate.

Which type of cost estimating is done by assigning a cost estimate to each work package in the project? A. Top-down estimating B. Bottom-up estimating C. Parametric estimating D. Three-point estimating

B. A work package represents the lowest level of decomposition within the work breakdown structure (WBS). By beginning at the work package level of the WBS, the cost for each activity is calculated and assigned to that work package.

Marcus works for Wigitcom, and he has been assigned to work on a project. Marcus's regular boss pulls him back to work on assignments and will conduct his performance review. What type of organizational structure is Wigitcom using? A. Agile B. Functional C. Matrix D. Projectized

B. All of the authority in this example rests with the functional manager who is pulling Marcus back to work on other assignments rather than the project. In a functional organizational structure, resources typically report to a functional manager and the project manager has limited or no authority.

When a dependency is directly related to the type of work on which it is being performed, it is what type of dependency? A. Discretionary B. Mandatory C. External D. Financial

B. An example of a mandatory dependency might be pouring the concrete foundation and letting it cure prior to framing a building.

You have just received the latest status updates from the team. Based on the progress to date, system testing is projected to take three weeks longer than planned. If this happens, user acceptance testing will have to start three weeks late, and the project will not complete on the planned finish date. The customer scheduled the user acceptance testing participants weeks in advance. What is the best course of action? A. Explain to the test team that system test will end on the scheduled date, and they are accountable for the accuracy of the testing results. B. Meet with the test team to determine the cause of the delay. If you determine that there are not enough testers to complete all of the scenarios in the time allotted, work with the sponsor to secure additional testers to complete the system test as planned. C. Write a memo to the customer stating that you have a new date when the project will be ready for the end user testers. D. Escalate the issue of the system test delay to the sponsor, and let her decide what action to take.

B. Any time you have a projected delay in a major deliverable, you want to immediately determine what is causing the delay, because you may determine steps to bring the deliverable back on track. If you determine that there are no options to prevent the delay, you should meet with the customer to develop a workable solution to providing testing resources at a later time. Setting an arbitrary fi nish date for a deliverable that is already behind will almost assure incomplete testing and a potentially poor-quality product. Given the magnitude of the impact to the customer, this is not a situation that should be communicated in a memo. You need to be part of the solution.

A project manager is having problems with one team member who is being insubordinate. The project manager does not approach the team member and just tries to carry on as business as usual. This is an example of A. Forcing B. Avoiding C. Confronting D. Smoothing

B. Avoiding never results in problem resolution, and it is potentially the least effective technique.

You have just posted an RFP and have invited the vendors to participate in a meeting to ask questions about the work of the project. What is this meeting called? A. RFP conference B. Bidders conference C. Procurement communication conference D. Sellers conference

B. Bidders conferences are usually set up shortly after the RFP is posted and allow vendors the opportunity to ask questions about the project.

What is the most accurate estimate? A. Analogous estimate B. Bottom - up estimate C. Estimates based on expert judgment D. Parametric estimate

B. Bottom - up estimates are the most accurate estimates, and analogous estimates are the least accurate. Estimates based on expert judgment are analogous estimates. Parametric estimates are only as accurate as the data you ' re using for the parametric model.

What are project requirements? A. A measure of the distance traveled on a project B. Characteristics of deliverables that must be met C. Checkpoints on a project to determine Go/No-Go D. Major events in a project used to measure progress

B. Characteristics of deliverables that must be met are known as requirements. Distance traveled on a project is good information for expense tracking and reporting. Checkpoints are gate checks on a project. Major events to track progress are milestones.

What is a visual representation of how quickly requirements are being completed with each iteration called? A. Fishbone diagram B. Burndown chart C. Gantt chart D. Pareto diagram

B. Commonly a bar chart, the burndown chart depicts the progress made with each iteration approaching the completion of the project.

A project manager meets with upset team members to listen to their concerns. After hearing their concerns, the project manager makes some of the team members' recommendations in exchange for the team members accepting other rules. This is an example of which of the following? A. Forcing B. Compromising C. Confronting D. Smoothing

B. Compromising is when each party gives up something to reach a solution in a conflict.

Several actions occur during the Executing processes, such as managing project quality, managing risks, preparing performance reports and information, and more. All of the following describe other actions that start in earnest during the Executing process group except which one? A. Scheduling meetings B. Approving corrective actions C. Managing costs within the budget D. Following communications plan

B. Corrective actions are approved during the Monitoring and Controlling phase but are implemented in Executing. This describes the iterative nature of project management because actions may be approved in one process group but actually get implemented in another.

A project has an earned value of $2,500 and an actual cost of $2,275. The cost variance for this project would be which of the following? A. $2,275 B. $225 C. $2,500 D. $−225

B. Cost Variance is Earned Value − Actual Cost, or $2,500 − $2,275 = $225.

Crashing is a project management technique involving which of the following? A. Performing two tasks in parallel that were previously scheduled to start sequentially B. Looking at cost and schedule trade-offs such as adding more resources C. Moving later deliverables to earlier phases to appease stakeholders D. Removing critical path activities that are unnecessary

B. Crashing is a schedule compression technique that typically allocates additional resources to complete tasks quicker. Adding more resources will increase the costs of the project.

Which of the following is the main activity of the Execution phase? A. Performance measuring and reporting B. Creating and verifying deliverables C. Key stakeholder identification D. Determining needed project resources

B. Creating and verifying deliverables is the key output of the Execution phase. Performance measuring and reporting occurs during Monitor and Control, whereas key stakeholder identification and determining project resources occur during planning.

A WBS is created using a technique called decomposition . What is decomposition? A. Matching resources with deliverables B. Breaking down the project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components C. Estimating the cost of each individual deliverable D. Creating a detailed to - do list for each work package

B. Decomposition breaks the major deliverables down into smaller, more manageable units of work that can be used estimate cost and time and perform resource planning.

In project management, the process of taking high-level project requirements and breaking them down into the tasks that will generate the deliverables is called what? A. Analyzing B. Decomposing C. Process flow diagram D. Documenting

B. Decomposition is the process of analyzing the requirements of the project in such a way that you reduce the requirements down to the steps and tasks needed to produce them.

During a review of unit test results, two of your programmers disagree on the correctness of the deliverable from one of the units of code. How should you resolve this dispute? A. The programmers should take the issue to the test manager. B. You should ask clarifying questions to determine the specific issue surrounding the deliverable. Ask the team member disputing the deliverable to reference a specific requirement that is not being met. C. A separate meeting should be scheduled to conduct a detailed analysis of the code in question. The programming team and the test team should both be involved in this session. D. The project team members should decide who is correct. This item can be added to the agenda for the next regularly scheduled team meeting.

B. Disputes over project deliverables should always be resolved by referring to the project plan. If a deliverable does not meet the documented project requirements, you have an issue that needs resolution. If you are dealing with a matter of personal preference, the person or group responsible for delivery chooses how to complete the tasks.

This is the value of the work completed to date as it compares to the budgeted amount assigned to the work component. A. PV B. EV C. AC D. EVM

B. EV is the earned value: the value of the work completed to date, as it compares to the budgeted amount assigned to the work component. PV is the planned value, AC is the actual cost, and EVM is the earned value measurement.

What is the mechanism used to communicate on the status of the project budget? A. Expenditure tracking B. Expenditure reporting C. Budget baseline D. Work breakdown structure

B. Expenditure reporting includes a breakdown of expenditures to date, and it will compare the financial outcome with the budget projections and remaining budget on the project.

"Install an Interactive Voice Response System that will increase customer response time by an average of 15 seconds and decrease the number of customer service interactions by 30 percent" is an example of which of the following elements of the project charter? A. High-level requirements B. Goals and objectives C. Project description D. Milestone

B. Goals and objectives are specific and measurable. Project descriptions describe the key characteristics of the product, service, or result of the project. These are characteristics, but the clue in this question is the quantifiable results you're looking for at the conclusion of the project. The project description describes the project as a whole, and milestones describe major deliverables or accomplishments for the project.

The characteristics of the lower-level WBS include all of the following, EXCEPT A. WBS components are a further decomposition of project deliverables. B. WBS components should always happen concurrently with determining major deliverables. C. WBS components should be tangible and verifiable. D. WBS components should be organized in terms of project organization.

B. Identification of lower-level WBS components occurs after the major deliverables have been identified.

Your task requires 4 miles of paving, and it will take 30 hours to complete a mile. On a past project similar to this one, it took 150 hours to complete. Which of the following is true regarding this estimate? A. The total estimate for this task is 120 hours, which was derived using expert judgment. B. The total estimate for this task is 120 hours, which was derived using parametric estimating. C. The total estimate for this task is 150 hours, which was derived using analogous estimating. D. The total estimate for this task is 150 hours, which was derived using expert judgment.

B. If you didn't know the quantity and rate, option C or D would be acceptable. In this case, you'd use the parametric estimating technique because you do know the quantity and rate; 30 hours times 4 miles is a total duration of 120 hours.

In what type of organizational structure would resources report solely to the project manager? A. Weak-matrix B. Projectized C. Strong-matrix D. Functional

B. In a projectized organizational structure, the project manager has the most authority, and resources report directly to the project manager.

April works for Wigitcom and has recently been assigned to a project. She was given assignments from both her functional manager and the project manager, but was directed to do the project work. When April requested leave, it was granted by her functional manager, but then denied by the project manager. What type of organizational structure is Wigitcom using? A. Projectized B. Strong-matrix C. Balanced-matrix D. Weak-matrix

B. In this scenario, all of the power and authority are present with the project manager and not the functional manager, which is indicative of a strong-matrix organizational structure.

This element of the project scope statement helps you incrementally monitor project performance: A. Success criteria B. KPIs C. Exclusions D. Key deliverables

B. KPIs are key performance indicators that help you incrementally monitor project performance.

Which soft skills are important for a project manager? A. Time management, earned value calculation, listening, critical path diagrams B. Leadership, time management, team building, listening C. Time management, earned value calculation, leadership, critical path diagrams D. Leadership, following, independence, listening

B. Leadership, time management, team building, and listening are soft skills that are important for a project manager. Critical path diagrams are an artifact, and the creation of them would be considered a hard skill, so answers A and C are incorrect. Following and independence are soft skills, but not typically associated with project management, so D is also incorrect.

You are working on a project that is being implemented in a country different from your country of origin. You also have team members in several locations around the globe. You should consider all of the following specifically in regard to managing teams in this situation except for which one? A. Time zones B. Project presentation methods C. Cultural differences D. Communication styles

B. Managing team members in geographically dispersed areas can be challenging. You ' ll need to consider several factors, including time zones, cultural differences, communication styles, technological barriers, and hierarchical structures when managing teams like this. Project presentations are part of the Distribute Information process and don ' t really have an impact on the way you manage a team.

Which of these can convey that you've achieved the completion of an interim key deliverable? A. Completion criteria B. Milestone C. Gantt chart D. Project sign-off document

B. Milestones often signal that you've completed one of the key deliverables on the project.

A company decides to bring in a team from outside the organization to assist on the project, instead of using company employees. This is an example of which of the following? A. Insourcing B. Outsourcing C. Layoffs D. Collocation

B. Outsourcing is where work is transferred from employees within the organization to contractors or vendors.

During the Closing phase of the project, what two activities are conducted? A. Accept project deliverables and perform quality assurance. B. Finalize project work and close all vendor contracts. C. Manage stakeholder expectations and close all vendor contracts. D. Finalize project work and perform quality assurance.

B. Performing quality assurance would take place during Monitor and Control, and managing stakeholder expectations should occur throughout the project. The Closing phase is responsible for transition/integration plan, project sign-off, archiving project documents, lessons learned, releasing of resources, and closing of contracts.

What is the most commonly used form of network diagramming? A. ADM B. Precedence diagramming C. CPM D. PERT

B. Precedence diagramming is the most commonly used diagramming method. The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a less-used diagramming method that uses arrows to represent the tasks. CPM is a schedule development technique. PERT is a schedule development technique that uses weighted averages.

Acceptance criteria reviews that are used across the project are known as which of the following? A. Critical to quality B. Quality gates C. Kanban boards D. Deliverables

B. Predefined acceptance criteria help ensure quality and minimize work. They can be used in both the Agile and waterfall methods.

When performing Close Procurements, this procedure determines whether the work performed on contract was accurate and satisfactory. A. Post - project review B. Product verification C. Post - mortem D. Closeout report

B. Product verifi cation ensures the work performed on contract was completed accurately and satisfactoril

All of the following are cost-estimating techniques, EXCEPT A. Bottom-up estimating B. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) C. Parametric estimating D. Analogous estimating

B. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is a statistical tool used to analyze and represent tasks, not costs.

Which of the following general management skills does a project manager employ up to 90 percent of their time? A. Programming B. Communications C. Leadership D. Problem solving

B. Project managers can spend up to 90 percent of their time communicating. The other skills listed here are important as well, but the clue in this question is the 90 percent fi gure that relates to the amount of time project managers may spend communicating.

This term describes a characteristic of the planning processes: A. Looping B. Iterative C. Ongoing D. Repetitive

B. Project planning processes are iterative, meaning you'll defi ne the scope statement and other planning documents, and as you create these documents, more information may come to light or you may discover an element you missed. So, you'll go back through processes you've already started and modify them with the new information.

Predecessor and successor tasks can have four possible logical relationships. Which of the following is not one of them? A. Finish-to-finish B. Start-to-deferred C. Finish-to-start D. Start-to-finish

B. Rather than start-to-deferred, the missing relationship is start-to-start, meaning that one task must wait for a different task to start for work to begin.

A stakeholder has asked to add a change to a project, but the request is rejected by the project manager. What is the likely reason the scope was rejected? A. There is interaction between constraints. B. Scope creep is occurring on the project. C. The request can be handled without the formality. D. The sponsor is on vacation.

B. Remember that a project is temporary in nature, and at times adding too much to the scope changes the temporary aspect of the endeavor. Adding unapproved scope to the project is considered to be scope creep.

Resource management concepts include several categories of resources. All of the following are a type of resource except for which one? A. Shared resource B. Remote and in-house C. Dedicated resources D. Benched resources

B. Remote and in-house resources are categorized as personnel management activities in the CompTIA objectives.

This is an action taken as a result of quality activities to correct a defect. A. Process adjustments B. Rework C. Acceptance D. Prevention

B. Rework is an action that is taken as a result of quality activities to correct a defect. Process adjustments are made when there are quality problems as a result of a bad process, acceptance accepts the quality results, and prevention keeps errors from getting into the hands of the customers.

You ' ve defined a task in a project schedule in which your team members will develop an XML application that uses a MySQL back end. Although the data base administrator (DBA) has plenty of experience with Oracle and Microsoft SQL Server, he has never been exposed to MySQL. Which of the following elements will most likely be affected? A. Resource allocation B. Task estimation C. Activity definitions D. Determining critical path tasks

B. Since the question states this DBA is unfamiliar with MySQL, the task estimation process is the most likely affected by all the options. You should use a three-point estimate or have another expert verify the estimate for this task since the DBA doesn't know this software well.

You have just left a meeting with the project sponsor where you were advised that your project has been canceled because of budget cuts. You have called the project team together to fill them in and to review the remaining activities to close out the project. Which of the following describes the type of project ending this project experienced? A. Extinction B. Starvation C. Addition D. Integration

B. Starvation is a project ending caused by resources being cut off from the project. Extinction occurs when the project work is completed and is accepted by the stakeholders. Addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations, and integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of the organization.

Which of these terms describes a critical path task? A. Hammock B. Zero float C. Critical task D. Mandatory task

B. Tasks with zero float are critical path tasks, and if delayed, they will cause the delay of the project completion date.

Which role of the project is responsible for working to create the deliverables according to the project schedule? A. Project stakeholders B. Project team members C. Project scheduler D. Project coordinator

B. Team members are responsible for producing the deliverables spelled out in the project charter and scope statement.

In what project phase are the majority of the processes and project documents created? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitor and Control E. Closing

B. The Planning phase is where the majority of the project documents get created. This is where the project goals, objectives, and deliverables are refined and broken down into manageable units of work, such as within the work breakdown structure.

You ' re developing the scope document and project plan for a new project. What process group are you in? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Controlling

B. The Planning process group is where you begin to defi ne important documents such as the scope document and project plan.

What organization is recognized worldwide for setting project management standards? A. PMC B. PMI C. PMP D. CompTIA

B. The Project Management Institute (PMI) is the leading professional project management association, with more than 400,000 members worldwide.

This person is responsible for removing obstacles so the team can perform their work, assisting the product owner in defining backlog items, and educating the team on Agile processes. A. Project manager B. Scrum master C. Functional manager D. Subject-matter expert

B. The Scrum master is responsible for removing obstacles that are getting in the way of the team performing the work. They work with the product owner to help define backlog items, and they educate team members on the Agile process.

This is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines the work of the project. A. Scope document B. Work breakdown structure C. Scope management plan D. Project plan

B. The WBS is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines all the project work and is completed after the scope management plan and scope statement are completed.

The work breakdown structure is created during which project phase? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitoring and Control E. Closing

B. The WBS is developed during the Planning phase. The WBS is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines all of the work of the project.

This entity is responsible for reviewing change requests, reviewing the analysis of the impact of the change, and determining whether the change is approved, denied, or delayed. A. CAB B. CCB C. CRB D. TRB

B. The change control board (CCB) is responsible for reviewing change requests; analyzing the impact the of the change; and approving, denying, or delaying the change request.

A project has task A, which will take 2 days; task B which will take 3 days; task C, which will take 2 days; task D, which will take 2 days; and task E, which will take 3 days. Task A is a predecessor for task B and for task C. Task C is a predecessor for task D. Both task B and task D are predecessors for task E. 63. What is the duration of the critical path? A. 7 days B. 9 days C. 10 days D. 11 days

B. The critical path has A (2 days), C (2 days), D (2 days), and E (3 days), for a total of 9 days.

Which of the following is not true for the critical path? A. It has zero float. B. It ' s the shortest activity sequence in the network. C. You can determine which tasks can start late without impacting the project end date. D. It controls the project finish date.

B. The critical path is the longest activity sequence in the network. It has zero fl oat or slack time, and it controls the project end date. Using critical path, you can determine which tasks can start late or go longer than planned without impacting the project end date.

What are the three types of estimates used in three-point estimates? A. Fastest Schedule, Least Resources, Most Desirable B. Most Likely, Optimistic, Pessimistic C. Most Likely, Least Resources, Fastest Schedule D. Fastest Schedule, Optimistic, Most Desirable

B. The formula is (Most Likely + Optimistic + Pessimistic) / 3.

A company is expanding and has several projects underway. One project is building a new wing on the headquarters building, and the other is installing a new high-speed fiber network. The framing of the new building must begin before the installation of the new network can begin. This is an example of what type of logical relationship? A. Finish-to-finish B. Start-to-start C. Finish-to-start D. Start-to-finish

B. The framing of the walls must begin before the installation of the network cabling can begin, leading to a startto- start relationship. The wiring must be in place before dry walling and insulation can begin.

This meeting, held during the Executing process group, formally introduces the team members and stakeholders. A. Project status meeting B. Kickoff meeting C. Project introductory meeting D. Steering - committee meeting

B. The kickoff meeting is where the project team members and stakeholders are introduced to each other, and it ' s held at the beginning of the Executing process group.

The primary purpose of this activity is to collect and document lessons learned. A. Post - mortem analysis B. Post - project review C. Project closeout review D. Administrative Closure

B. The primary purpose of the post - project review is to collect and document lessons learned. A post - mortem analysis occurs when a project is canceled or ends prematurely. Lessons learned are part of the Administrative Closure process, but other activities are involved in this process besides lessons learned.

In what step would the make-or-buy decision occur? A. During the design of the product or service B. In the creation of the procurement plan C. In the execution of the project plan D. During the kickoff meeting

B. The procurement plan explains the decisions made on what will be made and what will be purchased by the organization.

Work produced in the high-level risk assessment should be documented in which of the following? A. Work breakdown structure B. Project charter C. Risk register D. Quality control plan

B. The project charter is where high-level risks should be documented, which occurs in the Initiation phase.

Nestor is a project manager assigned to build a new branch office for a bank. The branch office will be of a similar size and design as another branch office. He has been asked to create cost and schedule estimates and to follow the bank's best practices for projects. Whose responsibility is it to help Nestor with this effort? A. Project sponsor B. Project management office C. Project team D. Project scheduler

B. The project management office's responsibilities include setting standards and practices for an organization, providing tools such as previous project documentation, and delivering standardized documentation and templates.

As a project manager, a dedicated resource would be the ideal situation because A. The team member will continue to share time with his or her functional work. B. The project manager has full authority and controls time and tasks. C. The dedicated resource won't have to be paid overtime. D. Low-quality resources aren't assigned to a project.

B. The project manager has full authority and controls time and tasks. As a project manager, you need to be wary of having low-quality resources assigned to a project, because sometimes functional managers will try to give you their lowest-caliber individuals.

You're the project manager for a small project that is in the Closing phase. You prepare closure documents and take them to the project sponsor for sign-off. The project sponsor says that the documents are not needed because the project is so small. What should you tell the sponsor? A. You're sorry to have bothered them and will close the project without sign-off. B. The sponsor is the one who needs to sign off on the documents, showing that the project is officially closed. C. You offer to have a stakeholder sign off in the sponsor's place. D. You offer to sign off on the documents yourself.

B. The sponsor is the one who must sign off on the completion of the project, whether successful or unsuccessful. Just as the sponsor is authorized to expend resources to bring forth the project's deliverables, the sponsor must also close the project and sign off.

This process performed within the Human Resources Planning process addresses various factors that may impact how you manage your project team, how you ' ll define roles and responsibilities for team members, and how the team will be organized; it also documents your staffing management plan. A. Organizational planning B. Staff acquisition C. Staff management planning D. Environmental factors planning

B. The staffi ng management plan documents when and how human resources will be added to and released from the project.

This plan documents when and how human resources will be added to and released from the project. A. Staff acquisition plan B. Staffing management plan C. Communications plan D. Human resources plan

B. The staffing management plan documents when and how human resources will be added to and released from the project.

All of the following are stages of team development except for which one? A. Adjourning B. Negotiating C. Performing D. Storming

B. The stages of team development are forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Negotiating is a confl ict - resolution technique.

You are the project manager for a new software application that will provide online help to sales consultants regarding the features of the products they sell. You are putting together your human resources plan and realize that all but which of the following is a Human Resources Planning constraint? A. Labor-union agreements B. Legal requirements C. Organizational structure D. Economic conditions

B. The three constraints associated with Human Resources Planning include labor-union agreements, organizational structure, and economic conditions.

Fishbone diagrams, Pareto diagrams, process diagrams, Gantt charts, and run charts are examples of which of the following? A. Examples of various project management tools used to plan the work of the project B. Examples of various project management tools used to monitor and control project work C. Examples of various scope management tools to control the quality of deliverables D. Examples of various scope management tools used to manage and control scope creep

B. The tools described in this question are used during the Monitoring and Controlling phase of the project to monitor project work and assure it meets expectations. It also helps in determining corrective actions needed to get the project back on track.

Which of the following is not a tool used to determine a project ' s critical path? A. Forward pass B. Mandatory dependency C. Float calculation D. Backward pass

B. The tools used to calculate critical path are forward pass, backward pass, and fl oat calculation.

In an Agile methodology, what is a user story? A. Key information about stakeholders and their jobs B. Short stories about someone using the product or service C. Customer survey results after product release D. Visual representation of product burndown

B. The user story helps focus on how the product is going to be used to help shape how it is designed.

What is a work breakdown structure? A. A task-oriented decomposition of a project B. A deliverable-oriented decomposition of a project C. A graphic representation of tasks and their sequence D. A high-level outline of milestones on a project

B. The work breakdown structure is a deliverable-oriented decomposition of a project. It is one of the fundamental building blocks of project planning, such as scheduling activities, and it is used as an input to numerous other planning processes.

All of the following are used in an Agile approach to project management, EXCEPT A. Burndown charts B. WBS C. Continuous requirements gathering D. Sprint planning

B. The work breakdown structure is characteristic of a more deliberate, up-front requirements gathering, when many of the requirements are identified early in the project.

What does a resource shortage mean? A. There is a shortage of things for team members to work on. B. Not enough resources are available for the task, leading to over allocation. C. There are too many resources, leading to underallocation. D. There is an abundancy of things for team members to work on.

B. There are not enough resources for the task, leading to overallocation. An individual's workload becomes more severe, leading to longer hours and a higher potential for burnout.

You are working on your network diagram. Activity A is a predecessor to Activity B. Activity B cannot begin until Activity A is completed. What is this telling you? A. There is a mandatory dependency between Activity A and Activity B. B. There is a finish - to - start dependency relationship between Activity A and Activity B. C. Activity A and Activity B are both on the critical path. D. Activity B is a successor to multiple tasks.

B. There is a fi nish-to-start dependency relationship between Activity A and Activity B. You do not have enough information to determine whether the dependency between the two activities is mandatory, discretionary, or external or if they are critical path activities.

In an Agile approach to project management, what is a backlog? A. Delayed work that is cause by bottlenecks B. Customer prioritized functionality list that still needs to be added to the product C. Inventory not added to the project because of shipping delays D. A daily meeting focusing on three questions

B. This can be recorded through the use of user stories or short descriptions of the functionality.

This meeting is held so that team members can answer three questions: what work they completed yesterday, what work they will complete today, and what obstacles stand in their way. A. This describes a sprint planning meeting, which is part of the Agile methodology. B. This describes a Scrum meeting, which is part of the Agile methodology. C. This describes a daily standup, which is part of the waterfall methodology. D. This describes a retrospective meeting, which is part of the PMI® methodology.

B. This describes a Scrum meeting, also known as a daily standup meeting, which is part of the Agile methodology.

Where would the following information be found: types of contracts the project will use, authority of the project team, and information on how multiple vendors will be managed? A. Budget B. Procurement plan C. WBS D. Detailed risks

B. This document details how the procurement process will be managed.

What is rolling wave planning? A. Planning for areas of intense activity to allocate team members according to the resource plan B. The process of elaborating deliverables or project chases into differing levels of the WBS C. A design technique used to ensure the structural integrity for earthquake-proof buildings D. A quick-start technique of where to begin a project with little planning or sign-off to generate momentum

B. This helps depict the differing levels of decomposition depending on the expected date of work.

Resource allocation, including assigned equipment, team members, and money to support a project, occurs in which project phase? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitor and Control E. Closing

B. This includes identifying both what resources are needed and when they will be needed.

The system test results of your address verification system have uncovered a problem with the screen flow that is presented to the end user. Fixing the problem will involve a major rewrite of a portion of the screen flow logic. The end user can still access the " missing " screens, but this involves additional user training on commands to manually request a specific screen. What is the best course of action? A. You should send a memo to the customer and copy the stakeholder team explaining both the problem and the action required of the end user. Ask the customer to determine whether there are any schedule changes related to end user training. B. You should review the test results with the stakeholder team and provide estimates on the impact to the schedule and the budget if the rework is done. This information should be compared with the cost of additional user training and the impact of the manual override on productivity of the customer experience. C. You should escalate the problem to your sponsor for resolution. D. You should call an emergency meeting with the team that developed the screen flow logic. Let them know that the problem must be fixed without any impact to the schedule regardless of the hours they must put in. They are salaried employees and are not eligible for overtime, so there will not be any impact to the budget.

B. This is a classic case of the need to evaluate trade - offs with the stakeholder. There is no perfect solution in this case. Making unreasonable demands on the project team will not resolve the situation; it may even make it worse. This is not an issue that should be decided in a vacuum by the project manager or even the sponsor; it requires input and consensus from the stakeholder team, particularly the customer, regarding the best course of action.

Teams normally go through a similar development cycle. Which is the correct order of those stages? A. Norming, Forming, Storming, Adjourning, Performing B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning term-340C. Forming, Norming, Performing, Storming, Adjourning D. Norming, Storming, Forming, Adjourning, Performing

B. This is the model that was developed by Dr. Bruce Tuckman, and it is known as the stages of team development.

The executives in your organization typically choose which projects to perform first by reviewing the business case and then determining, based on their experience with similar projects, which will likely perform well and which will not. What form of project selection method is this? A. Business case analysis B. Expert judgment C. Feasibility analysis D. Decision model technique

B. This question describes the expert judgment form of project selection. The question states the executives already read the business case analysis. The feasibility study is a study conducted to determine the risks and potential benefi ts to the project, and decision models are mathematical models that use differing variables to determine a decision.

In what stage of team development do team members begin to confront each other and vie for position and control? A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing E. Adjourning

B. This stage is a process of establishing who is the most influential, and there is jostling for position.

Top - down estimating is another name for which type of estimating technique? A. Parametric estimating B. Analogous estimating C. Three - point estimating D. Expert judgment

B. Top - down estimating is another name for analogous estimating.

You are comparing planned project results with actual project results. Which formula will you use? A. BAC B. VAC C. EAC D. ETC

B. Variance at completion (VAC) compares the planned project results with actual project results. BAC is the budget at completion, EAC is the estimate at completion, and ETC is the estimate to complete.

A project stakeholder has which of the following responsibilities? A. Documentation and administrative support, estimation of task duration, soliciting task status from resources, expertise B. Vested interest, providing input and requirements, project steering, expertise C. Documentation and administrative support, providing input and requirements, project steering, expertise D. Vested interest, providing input and requirements, crossfunctional coordination, expertise

B. Vested interest, providing input and requirements, project steering, and expertise are examples of stakeholder responsibilities. Stakeholder expectation setting and engagement are key elements to project success.

Amber is a new team member who has joined the project. An expectation-setting meeting has been held, and Amber is getting settled. The first deliverables that have been turned in by Amber have been a couple of days late. When should Amber be notified of a performance discrepancy? A. At the lessons-learned meeting at the end of the project or phase B. As soon as possible so a correction can occur or help can be provided C. During the first performance review meeting, even if it is months away D. The project manager should wait for someone else to correct Amber's behavior

B. When an employee is not meeting expectations, it is important for the project manager to intervene, making sure that the expectations are clear, inquire if there is a problem, and enforce the expectations.

Wigitcom has a project where quality is the most important consideration for the sponsor. Which personnel model would make the most sense for this project? A. Outsourcing B. Collocation C. Virtual teams D. Videoconferencing

B. When quality is a key concern, it means that it is more important than cost. Therefore, it would be beneficial to have the team collocated so that the communication is quicker, corrections are more timely, and the team is not disrupted by time-zone differences.

With an Agile methodology, all of the following are true with an adaptive life cycle, EXCEPT A. Requires a high degree of stakeholder involvement B. All requirements must be gathered up front C. Rapid iterations D. Fixed time and resources

B. With an Agile approach, the result is that requirements can be adjusted as results are developed during the iterations.

Beginning one phase of a project before another has finished is an example of what? A. Sequencing B. Compression C. Fast tracking D. Constricting

C . Fast tracking involves starting the next phase of the project before the prior phase is completed in order to shorten the project schedule.

This process involves determining the human, equipment, and material resources needed for the project. A. Human Resources Planning B. Organizational Planning C. Resource Planning D. Procurement Planning

C . Resource Planning involves determining all the resources needed for the project, including human, material, and equipment needs.

All of the following are strategies for dealing with negative risks, except for which one? A. Accept B. Transfer C. Share D. Mitigate

C . Sharing is a positive risk strategy. The negative risk strategies are avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept.

The Initiating process includes which task? A. Assigning work to project team members B. Sequencing project activities C. Approving a project and authorizing work to begin D. Coordinating resources to complete the project work

C . The Initiating process concerns the formal acceptance of the project and authorizes the project manager to start the project work. Assigning work to project team members, sequencing project activities, and coordinating resources occur in the Planning process.

Which of the following is true concerning the project charter? A. Describes the project schedule B. Contains cost estimates for each task C. Authorizes the start of the project work D. Lists the responsibilities of the project selection committee

C . The project charter formally approves the project and authorizes work to begin. The project schedule and cost estimates are developed later in the planning process.

This component of the project charter describes the characteristics of the product of the project. A. Milestones B. High - level deliverables C. Project description D. Goals and objectives

C . The project description describes the characteristics of the product, service, or result of the project.

Who is responsible for approving the project budget? A. Project manager B. Project team C. Project sponsor D. CEO

C . The project sponsor is the one who grants the authority to expend the resources required to create the deliverables of the project. Hence, the sponsor is the one who approves the budget.

What types of corrective actions might you consider when trying to shorten the project schedule? Choose two. A. Request additional budget B. Implement contingency plan C. Fast tracking D. Crashing

C, D. Fast tracking and crashing are two examples of schedule compression techniques. Schedule compression techniques are a type of corrective action. Fast-tracking starts two tasks in parallel that were originally scheduled to start sequentially. Crashing is adding resources to the critical path tasks in order to shorten duration.

What are the processes that you use for Human Resources Planning? Choose two. A. Performance reporting B. Contract administration C. Organizational planning D. Staff acquisition

C, D. Organizational planning is the process used to defi ne roles and responsibilities for project team members and the plan to manage the project team. Staff acquisition is the actual acquisition of people and assignment of those people to the project team.

Which two elements should always be included in a business case analysis? Choose two. A. Feasibility study B. Project selection methodology C. Alignment to the strategic plan D. Justification E. Cash flow techniques to determine financial viability .

C, D. The business case analysis may include the feasibility study but should always include the justifi cation for the project and the alignment to the strategic plan. It ' s a good idea to also include high - level timelines and estimated budgets.

Why should you spend time developing a solid communications plan? Choose three. A. To set stakeholder expectations B. To set aside time for your own needs C. To keep vendors informed D. To understand where the blame lies when something goes wrong E. To keep stakeholders updated on your progress F. To keep team members informed of project progress

C, E, F . A communication plan is developed to determine who needs communication, when, and in what format, and the frequency of the communications. Once the plan is developed, it ' s used to update stakeholders, team members, vendors, and others who need information on the project. Expectations are set in the project charter

Of the situations listed, which would team-building efforts have the greatest impact? Choose three. A. Schedule changes B. Low morale C. Personality clashes D. Budget changes E. Staff changes F. Organizational changes G. Project phase completion

C, E, F. Personality clashes and staff changes are situations where team - building activities can assist in solving problems. Organizational changes require immediate communication from the project manager. As a rule, most people are generally sensitive to change and are asking, " What does this mean for me? " This has a tendency to disrupt working patterns and decrease effi ciencies, and it requires that you act as a change agent — getting people through the change while continuing the work of your project. Additionally, it ' s quite possible that an organizational change may directly affect your project, in which case you, too, need to ask, " What does this mean for the project? "

What is the definition of a project? Choose two. A. A group of interrelated activities that create a unique benefit to the organization B. Through the use of project management techniques, which are repeatable processes, a series of actions that are performed to produce the same result multiple times C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result D. A process used to generate profit, improve market share, or adhere to legal requirements E. A time-constrained endeavor with assigned resources responsible for meeting the goals of the project according to the quality standards

C, E. A project creates a unique product, service, or result and has defined start and finish dates. Projects must have resources in order to bring about their results, and they must meet the quality standards outlined in the project plan. Interrelated activities are not projects because they don ' t meet the criteria for a project. Project management processes are a means to manage projects, and processes used to generate profits or increase market share do not fit the definition of a project. Processes are typically ongoing; projects start and stop.

Changes to project scope require changes to these as well. Choose two. A. Budget B. Quality C. Schedule D. Resources E. Product scope

C, E. Changes to project scope require a change to both the product scope and the project schedule.

Which of the following project documents are created during the Execution phase? (Choose two.) A. Project charter B. Communication plan C. Issues log D. Lessons learned E. Action items

C, E. The issues log and action items are created during the Execution phase. The project charter is created during the Initiation phase. The communication plan is created during the Planning phase. Lessons learned are generally done in the Closing phase, but some projects may choose to do them during Monitor and Control.

A team member has come to your office to complain that a fellow team member is never available for meetings before noon and seems to ignore her requests to follow proper processes. Which of the following does this describe? Choose two. A. This describes a situation where the forcing conflict technique should be used. B. This describes an expert judgment conflict. C. This describes a common cause of conflict. D. This describes a situation where the negotiating conflict technique should be used. E. This describes varying work styles.

C, E. This situation describes varying work styles, which are a common cause of confl ict. The forcing and negotiating confl ict - resolution techniques are not appropriate in this situation.

Which of the following describe components of a transition plan? Choose three. A. Resource availability B. Assumptions C. Ownership D. Transition approach E. Communication methods F. Training G. Warranties

C, F, G . The components of a transition plan include ownership, transition dates, training, extended support, and warranties. Resource availability, assumptions, and communication methods are all part of the project management plan. Describing the transition approach is the purpose of the transition plan, not an individual component of the plan.

A construction company is working on a new building. The CPI for the project is 1.25, which means: A. The project is over budget. B. The project is behind schedule. C. The project is under budget. D. The project is ahead of schedule.

C. A CPI over 1 means that the project is spending below the budget forecast at the measurement date.

A discretionary fund used by the project manager to cover the cost of possible adverse events during the project is known as which of the following? A. Management reserve B. Chart of accounts C. Contingency fund D. Cost baseline

C. A contingency fund is an amount allocated to cover the cost of possible adverse events, and the project manager generally has the ability to use this fund. The project manager does not usually have the authority to spend money from the management reserve. The chart of accounts is a description of the accounts listed in the accounting ledger, and the cost baseline is the total expected cost for the project.

You are a project manager for a telecommunications company assigned to a project to deploy a new wireless network using a technology that does not have a proven track record. You have requested vendor bids for portions of the development that will include researching various scenarios. What type of contract is most likely in this situation? A. Fixed - price contract B. Time and materials contract C. Cost - reimbursable contract D. A procurement method other than a contract

C. A cost - reimbursable contract is often the only option if you do not have a well - defi ned product or if the vendor is being asked to provide something that has not been done before.

In terms of project management, what is a program? A. A listing of all individuals involved in the project, including key stakeholders B. The software package used to enter and track project management aspects C. Related projects that are coordinated and managed with similar techniques D. A collection of projects and subportfolios that support the strategic goals of the business

C. A program is a group of related projects that are managed together with coordinated processes and techniques. Make sure that you know the difference between a project and a portfolio.

What aspect of project management is shared with Agile and other approaches? A. Sprint planning B. Self-organized and self-directed teams C. Iterative approach D. Adaptive to new/changing requirements

C. A traditional waterfall methodology will be progressively iterative, similar to the iterative approach used with the Agile methodology.

This is the cost of completing the work component in a given time period. A. PV B. EV C. AC D. EVM

C. AC is the actual cost of completing the work component in a given time period. EV is the earned value: the value of the work completed to date as it compares the budgeted amount assigned to the work component. PV is the planned value, and EVM is the earned value measurement.

Your project is winding down, and you are eager to get started on your next project. An outside company was responsible for completing several of your deliverables. There are acceptance test activities for each of these deliverables on the project schedule. The procurement manager wants to know whether the project deliverables have been accepted or rejected. This information must be provided in writing to the vendor in four days according to the terms of the contract. What action should you take? A. You should forward the procurement manager ' s message to the person assigned to the vendor acceptance test. B. You need more time to complete testing, so tell the procurement manager there are problems with some of the test results. C. You should confirm that the vendor acceptance testing included all aspects of the vendor deliverables and that all testing has been completed with satisfactory results. D. You can ignore the procurement manager ' s message for now, because you should have the final test results with a week. Procurement always thinks they need an answer right away.

C. Acceptance of deliverables is a key part of the vendor contract. Failure to accept or reject deliverables according to the terms of the contract could put your company in breach of contract. You should immediately confi rm the status of vendor deliverable acceptance testing and ensure that all results are completed and meet the deadline. This is not something that should be pushed aside or handed off to someone else.

All of the following describe organizational governance considerations or processes you should take into account on the project, except for which one? A. Standards compliance B. Phase gate approval C. Sponsor approvals D. Decision oversight E. Internal process compliance

C. According to CompTIA, the organizational governance components include standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase gate approval.

In what stage of team development do things begin to calm down because the team members become more comfortable with one another? A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing E. Adjourning

C. After the team has formed and stormed, this is where familiarity with one another helps to settle things down and individuals begin to deal with project problems instead of people problems.

Not including time off, holidays, or nonproject work, the total time involved for an individual to complete a task is known as which of the following? A. Analogous estimating B. SWAG C. Work effort estimate D. SPI

C. Also known as a person-hour estimate, this is used in the creation of cost estimates.

When the project team is dependent on an entity outside the organization, like a product vendor delivering equipment, this is known as what type of dependency? A. Discretionary B. Mandatory C. External D. Financial

C. An external dependency is where an entity or condition outside of the project drives the scheduling for that task.

A project assumption can best be described as which of the following? A. Internal or external factors affecting the project team B. Factors that restrict the project C. Factors considered to be true for planning purposes D. Factors considered to be true for control purposes

C. Assumptions are events, actions, or conditions that are believed to be true for planning purposes.

Adric was recently assigned to a project at Wigitcom. He received task assignments from both the project manager and his normal supervisor. He is notified that both the project manager and the supervisor will contribute to his performance review. What type of organizational structure is Wigitcom using? A. Projectized B. Strong-matrix C. Balanced-matrix D. Weak-matrix

C. Authority and power are shared between the functional manager and the project manager.

The Widget Company has a project team located in various cities across the same continent. There is an urgent update that needs to be sent to the entire project team. What would be the most effective way to send the communication? A. Phone calls B. Memo C. Email D. Videoconferencing

C. Because of the varied time zones, a phone call or video conference would require an additional level of coordination. Therefore, email would be the most efficient what to handle the update.

Benched resources are A. Great for an organization since there is always staff to work on project B. Bad for an organization since there is always staff to work on a project C. Costly because individuals are being paid to sit around D. Inexpensive because individuals are not being paid when they sit around

C. Benched resources often occur in projectized organizations where there are resources on the payroll but they are not currently assigned to a project.

You are developing a bottom - up estimate for the first phase of your project. Which of the following is the most important input to complete this task? A. Historic data from a similar project B. Chart of accounts C. The WBS D. The scope statement

C. Bottom - up estimates start at the work package level of the WBS. Each work package on the WBS for the fi rst phase of the project is summed to come up with an overall estimate for this phase. Historical data would be useful if you were using the analogous estimating technique. The chart of accounts don ' t help at all with this exercise, and the scope statement will give you an understanding of what ' s detailed on the WBS, but it won ' t help with estimating.

If CPI is less than one, which of the following is true? A. You are spending less than anticipated at the measurement date. B. You are behind schedule at the measurement date. C. You are spending more than anticipated at the measurement date. D. You are ahead of schedule at the measurement date.

C. CPI is the cost performance index, and it depicts whether spending is ahead or behind at the measurement date. Values less than one indicate you are spending more than anticipated, and values greater than one indicate you are spending less than anticipated.

When should Close Procurements be performed? A. It should be performed for all projects. B. It should be performed for projects that are canceled. C. It should be performed for projects that are carried out on contract. D. It should be performed in conjunction with Administrative Closure for all projects.

C. Close Procurements should be performed for any project that is carried out on contract or any project that has certain deliverables produced on contract.

Communications Planning is the process of which of the following? A. Scheduling a regular meeting for the project team B. Developing a distribution list for the stakeholders C. Identifying the people or groups that need information on your project D. Creating a template to report project status

C. Communications Planning is the process of identifying who needs to receive information on the project, what information they need, and how they will get that information. Scheduling a project team meeting, developing distribution lists, and creating a project status template are all activities that might be a result of the communications plan.

Which of the following is a win - win conflict - resolution technique that is generally the best way to resolve conflict? A. Negotiating B. Smoothing C. Confronting D. Avoiding

C. Confronting, also known as problem solving, is the best way to resolve confl ict. It ' s a win - win confl ict - resolution technique.

Which of the following is not a type of change request? A. Corrective actions B. Defect repairs C. Performance corrections D. Preventive actions

C. Corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions are all types of change requests.

Which of the following is the measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources, expressed as a ratio? A. AC B. EV C. CPI D. SPI

C. Cost Performance Index (CPI). The formula is CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC).

Which of the following is not true regarding cost estimating? A. Cost estimates are provided by team members. B. Cost estimate accuracy depends on the technique used to determine the estimate. C. Cost estimates have a quality factor built into them. D. Cost estimates are inputs to the project budget and used to determine the total project cost.

C. Cost estimates do not have a quality factor built into them. They are provided by team members, and the accuracy of the estimate depends on the estimating technique used. All the estimates are used as inputs to the budget to come up with the total project cost.

Which of these is not an example of a project selection method? A. Cost-benefit analysis B. Expert judgment C. Top-down estimating D. Scoring model

C. Cost-benefit analysis, expert judgment, and scoring model are all project selection techniques. Top-down estimating is a type of cost estimating.

Your project is nearing completion of the first phase. Your key stakeholder for this phase reminds you that she will not accept the deliverable unless it measures 3 centimeters exactly. If the measurements are off, phase 2 will be delayed, and the entire project will be at risk. This is an example of which of the following? A. Delivery acceptance criteria B. Success criteria C. Critical success factor D. KPI

C. Critical success factors are those elements of the project that must be completed accurately to consider the project a success. Without these elements, the project is likely in danger of failing.

All of the following are true regarding dashboards except for which one? A. They are a type of performance report. B. They are a type of status report. C. They document work expected to be completed during the next reporting period. D. They usually have indicators such as red - yellow - green for a quick, at - a - glance status check.

C. Dashboards are a type of performance report and a type of status report that typically use indicators like red - yellow - green to display status for previous period results. Dashboards do not report work expected to be completed during the next reporting period.

Deliverables are an output of which of which phase? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitor and Control E. Closing

C. Deliverables are generated during the Direct and Manage Project Work process, during the Execution phase.

The creation of a peanut butter and jelly sandwich has the following steps: Serve Gather bread, peanut butter, and jelly Place bread on a plate Get a knife Spread peanut butter on one slice of bread Put both slices of bread together Spread jelly on the other slice of bread What is the correct sequence for this project? A. Serve; put both slices of bread together; gather bread, peanut butter, and jelly; get a knife; spread peanut butter on one slice of bread; place bread on a plate; spread jelly on the other slice of bread. B. Gather bread, peanut butter. and jelly; get a knife; spread peanut butter on one slice of bread; place bread on a plate; spread jelly on the other slice of bread; serve; put both slices of bread together. C. Gather bread, peanut butter, and jelly; get a knife; place bread on a plate; spread peanut butter on one slice of bread; spread jelly on the other slice of bread; put both slices of bread together; serve. D. Gather bread, peanut butter, and jelly; get a knife; place bread on a plate; spread peanut butter on one slice of bread; spread jelly on the other slice of bread; serve; put both slices of bread together.

C. Determining activity sequence is an important part of project management, and you will probably see a question like this on the test. For this question, the correct order is: gather bread, peanut butter, and jelly; get a knife; place bread on a plate; spread peanut butter on one slice of bread; spread jelly on the other slice of bread; put both slices of bread together; serve.

Risk analysis includes all of the following except for which one? A. Identifying risk B. Determining a risk response plan C. Determining an order-of-magnitude estimate for responses D. Determining probability and impact and assigning a risk score

C. Determining an order-of-magnitude estimate is used for cost or duration estimating, not risk analysis.

During the initiation phase, what are two activities that should be performed? A. Developing the project charter and project kickoff meeting B. Holding the project kickoff meeting and identifying the stakeholders C. Developing the project charter and stakeholder identification D. Creating the project plan and develop the project charter

C. Developing the project charter and stakeholder identification are the two activities that occur during the initiation phase. Other activities, like holding a project kickoff meeting and creating the project plan, will take place during the planning and execution phases.

project manager is seeking to boost the morale of the team through a meeting that includes both social and business attributes. The project manager is engaged in what type of activity? A. Trust building B. Forming C. Team building D. Management skills

C. Effective team building can help create efficient and effective groups focused on getting the work done, oftentimes with team members enjoying the work immensely.

You are the project manager for a new address verification system. The development phase has experienced some delays, and you are meeting with the development team to look at alternatives to get back on schedule. A suggestion is made by the development manager to skip unit testing and go right to the system test. What is the best response to this suggestion? A. The development lead has the most information about the complexity of the individual modules. You decide to accept the suggestion, because you already have three weeks scheduled for the system test. That should be more than enough time to find any problems. B. You agree to accept the suggestion but make it clear to the development lead that she is accountable if this decision leads to rework or problems as a result of the system test. C. You need to request more information from both the development lead and the test manager regarding the complexity of the unit tests and the potential impacts to the system test if this step is omitted. D. You should explain to the development lead that no quality activities can be removed from the schedule, but you can agree to a scaled - back version of what is reviewed during testing.

C. Even reducing the number of planned quality activities or the scope of an activity can be risky. Leaving out the unit test could result in defects that could have been corrected early on not being found until the system is being tested end to end. You do not have enough information at this point to assess the impact of that suggestion, and you need to involve the test manager. Regardless of what you may say to the development lead, you are accountable for the entire project and would take the blame if this approach backfi res.

Which of the following is true for float or slack time? A. It ' s calculated by adding the durations of all activities and dividing by the number of activities. B. It ' s time that you add to the project schedule to provide a buffer or contingency. C. It's the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion. D. It is only calculated on the longest path of the network diagram.

C. Float or slack time is the length of time a task may be started late or the additional duration a task may take without impacting project completion.

What factors should be considered when scheduling a video or telephone conference? A. Ensure meeting room has sufficient seating. B. Check whether team members are introverted or extroverted. C. Recognize the different time zones/schedules being used. D. Make writing materials available in the room.

C. If your project spans multiple time zones and/or there are a variety of schedules being used, take these factors into consideration when scheduling the meeting.

A government agency is working to launch a new service. Members of the project team are required to report to both the project manager and their functional manager, who share authority for the resources. What type of organizational structure is this? A. Projectized B. Strong-matrix C. Balanced-matrix D. Weak-matrix

C. In a balanced-matrix organization, the project manager and the functional manager both control the budget and share power and authority.

What are the standard project phases? A. Discovery, Planning, Building, Quality Check, Closing B. Initiation, Preparing, Building, Monitor and Control, Wrap-up C. Initiation, Planning, Execution, Monitor and Control, Closing D. Discovery, Preparing, Execution, Quality Check, Wrap-up

C. Initiation, Planning, Execution, Monitor and Control, and Closing are the standard project phases. The project phases are tightly linked, and outputs from one phase usually become inputs of another phase.

Your project concerns producing a product that must meet a specific quality standard. You are periodically pulling completed components of the product and determining whether the components have tolerable results. What tool and technique are you using? A. Prevention B. Histogram C. Inspection D. Module testing

C. Inspection involves physically looking at the product results to determine whether the results are tolerable. Prevention keeps errors from reaching the customers or occurring in the fi rst place, histograms plot information on a bar chart, and module testing is used in the information - technology industry to test programming code.

This tool and technique is used primarily for monitoring quality and is also known as a cause - and - effect diagram. A. Control chart B. Flowcharting C. Ishikawa diagram D. Pareto diagram

C. Ishikawa diagrams show the relationship between cause and effect and are also known as cause - and - effect diagrams or fi shbone diagrams. Control charts display the variance of several samples of the same process over time. Flowcharts depict the logical steps that must be performed to accomplish an objective. Pareto diagrams rank the importance of problems based on their frequency of occurrence over time.

Which of the following project documents created in the project Closing process group describes what went well and what didn't go well on the project? A. Project close report B. Postmortem C. Lessons learned D. Post-project review

C. Lessons learned describe what went well and what didn't go well on the project. Lessons learned are included in the project close report, the postmortem report, and the post-project review.

All of the following are created during the Planning phase of a project, EXCEPT A. Project schedule B. Communications plan C. Lessons learned D. Change management plan

C. Lessons learned occurs during the Closing phase of the project.

Level 1 of the WBS always represents which of the following? A. Critical path B. Prioritized tasks C. Project D. Sponsor

C. Level 1 of the WBS is the project level. The first level of decomposition can commonly be the second level of the WBS (deliverables, phases, projects).

A project team is assigned two individuals directly out of college with no experience working in advanced electronics. The two team members cannot be assigned work without a more senior team member working alongside them. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Shared resources B. Resource shortage C. Low-quality resources D. Benched resources

C. Low-quality resources do not have the required experience, are not accomplished with the skill set, have poor passion for the project, or carry a bad attitude to work. Lowquality resources can sometimes be replaced, but they will always need to be managed in some form.

Your project has expected cash inflows of $7.8 million in today ' s dollars. The project ' s initial investment is $9.2 million. Which of the following is true? A. The discounted cash flows are lower than the initial investment, so this project should be rejected. B. The discounted cash flows are lower than the initial investment, so this project should be accepted. C. NPV is less than zero, so this project should be rejected. D. NPV is greater than zero, so this project should be accepted.

C. NPV is calculated by subtracting the total of the expected cash infl ows stated in today ' s dollars from the initial investment. In this question, the initial investment is higher than the cash fl ows, so the resulting NPV is less than zero, and the project should be rejected. Discounted cash fl ows tell you the value of the cash fl ows in today ' s dollars.

This general management skill concerns obtaining mutually acceptable agreements with individuals or groups. A. Leadership B. Problem solving C. Negotiating D. Communicating

C. Negotiating involves obtaining mutually acceptable agreements with individuals or groups. Leadership involves imparting a vision and motivating others to achieve the goal. Problem-solving involves working together to reach a solution. Communicating involves exchanging information.

What does PMP stand for? A. Preferred master project B. Preferred management plan C. Project management plan D. Project management practice

C. PMP is common shorthand for the project management plan. In the project management world, it can also stand for Project Management Professional, an individual certified from the Project Management Institute (PMI®).

Which type of cost estimating uses a mathematical model to compute costs? A. Top-down estimating B. Bottom-up estimating C. Parametric estimating D. Three-point estimating

C. Parametric estimating often uses a quantity of work multiplied by the rate formula for computing costs.

Which type of cost estimation uses a mathematical model to compute costs? A. Top-down estimating B. Bottom-up estimating C. Parametric estimating D. Three-point estimating

C. Parametric estimating often uses a quantity of work multiplied by the rate formula for computing costs.

This process involves obtaining responses from vendors to complete the work of the project as documented in the SOW. A. Procurement planning B. Bidder conference C. Solicitation D. Vendor selection

C. Solicitation is the process of obtaining responses from vendors on the work of the project.

You ' re working on a project that you and your team have estimated takes 15 business days to complete. Your team does not work on Saturday, Sunday, or holidays. Given the work calendar shown here and a start date of Tuesday, November 1, what is the scheduled completion date for this task? A. 21 B. 15 C. 22 D. 23

C. Starting with November 1 and counting it as the fi rst full workday, the completion date for this task is November 22.

The following exhibit shows a series of steps in a network diagram. Which path represents the critical path? A. A - E - F - G B. A - C - D - G C. A - B - D - G D. A - B - D - F - G

C. Tasks A, B, D, and G represent the longest dependent path through the network diagram at 41 days.

This project management methodology uses self-organized, self-directed teams; it uses an iterative approach, and it is highly interactive. A. PRINCE2 B. PMI® C. Agile D. Waterfall

C. The Agile project management methodology uses selforganized and self-directed teams. The other options don't use these types of teams.

Status reports, project meetings, and review meetings are examples of which of the following? A. Managing Stakeholder Expectations, which puts the communication management plan into action B. Distribute Information, which uses the stakeholder distribution matrix C. Distribute Information, which puts the communication management plan into action D. Managing Stakeholder Expectations, which uses the stakeholder distribution matrix

C. The Distribute Information process uses status reports, project meetings, review meetings, and more to communicate with the stakeholders. The Distribute Information process puts the communication management plan into action.

When evaluating the project phases, in which phase will project costs be the highest? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitor and Control E. Closing

C. The Execution phase is where most of the expenditures on materials and labor will occur.

Which of the following is the form in which project schedules are typically displayed? A. PERT B. Calendar C. Gantt chart D. Pareto chart

C. The Gantt chart is a type of bar chart that shows task duration and dependencies.

All of the following are examples of project resources, EXCEPT A. Team members B. Equipment C. WBS D. Materials

C. The WBS is a project artifact, not resources in the resource management context.

Which cost-estimating technique relies on estimating work packages and then rolling up these estimates to come up with a total cost estimate? A. Top-down B. Parametric C. Bottom-up D. Analogous

C. The bottom-up cost-estimating method is the most precise because you begin your estimating at the activities in the work package and roll them up for a total estimate.

You are asked to present and explain your project cost baseline. All the following are true except which one? A. The baseline will be used to track actual spending against the cost estimates. B. The baseline can be used to predict future project costs. C. The baseline is tied to the chart of accounts. D. The baseline is the total expected cost for the project.

C. The chart of accounts is used in creating the cost baseline. The baseline is the total expected cost for the project, and each category of cost is tied to the chart of accounts, not the total estimate for the project.

What key milestone is triggered when the project charter is signed? A. A project sponsor can now be chosen. B. Key stakeholders are freed from project communication. C. The project is authorized to begin. D. Project resources are released from the project.

C. The charter gives formal authorization to begin and to commit resources to the project. Accordingly, project team selection and procurement can begin at this point.

How long is the critical path in days in the graphic shown here? A. 13 days B. 20 days C. 27 days D. 30 days

C. The critical path is longest path through the network diagram, which is path A-B-C-E.

Your team is working on creating a WBS for phase 2 of the ABC software implementation project. Which of the following is an example of what might appear in the second level of your WBS? A. ABC Software implementation project B. Project deliverables C. Project phases D. Activities

C. The fi rst level of the WBS is the project name, in this case ABC software implementation. The second level of the WBS represents major project deliverables, project phases, or subprojects. If the project has phases or subprojects, these are listed at the second level, with deliverables listed at the third level. Since the question asks about phase 2 of the project and option C is project phases, this is the correct second-level entry for the WBS.

In a situation where the end product is uncertain and/or the conditions for developing a product or service are in flux, what would be the best project management approach? A. Traditional, or waterfall B. Projectized environment C. Agile approach D. Functional environment

C. The iterative nature of an Agile approach, which emphasizes continuous feedback and interactions, would be the best approach in this situation.

Which of the following is not a key component of scope planning? A. Work breakdown structure (WBS) B. Scope statement C. Project charter D. Scope management plan

C. The key components of scope planning are the scope management plan, scope statement, and work breakdown structure. The project charter is created during project initiation.

In which project phase is the kickoff meeting typically held? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitor and Control E. Closing

C. The kickoff meeting is where the project team members and stakeholders are introduced, and it's held at the beginning of the Execution phase.

Which element of the project scope statement describes the features, functions, and characteristics of the product of the project? A. Deliverables description B. Milestones description C. Product description D. KPIs

C. The product description describes the features, functions, and characteristics of the product, service, or result of the project.

This document authorizes the project to begin. A. Project request B. Project concept document C. Project charter D. Project scope statement

C. The project charter authorizes the project to begin.

The high-level scope definition should be included in which project document? A. Communication plan B. Project schedule C. Project charter D. Lessons learned

C. The project charter sets the scope, assumptions, budget, and constraints at a high level for the project. As the project advances through the phases, this information will become more precise.

This document is produced at the end of the project and reports the final project outcomes. A. Lessons learned B. Final status report C. Project close report D. Post - mortem analysis

C. The project close report is produced at the end of the project, and it serves as the fi nal status report. It summarizes the project goals, costs, schedule, lessons learned, and historical data.

In which phase is the project kickoff meeting held? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitor and Control E. Closing

C. The project kick-off meeting is held after the project charter is signed and approved. The project kickoff meeting normally introduces the project team. Project team creation doesn't happen until the Execution phase. Note: In the real world, a kickoff meeting can happen in any of the first three phases, but for the test know that it is the Execution phase.

You ' re a project manager working on a software development project. You are working hand in hand with a systems analyst who is considered an expert in her field. She has years of experience working for the organization and understands not only systems development but also the business area the system will support. Which person should make the decisions about the management of the project? A. Project manager B. Systems analyst C. Project manager with input from systems analyst D. Systems analyst with input from project manager

C. The project manager is ultimately responsible for managing the work of the project. That doesn ' t mean that they should work without the benefi t of input from others.

Robert is assigned to work on a project. One of his tasks is to reach out to resources and solicit task status on the progress of the project. Robert is most likely which of the following? A. Project manager B. Project team member C. Project scheduler D. Project coordinator

C. The project scheduler gets status updates on the tasks and then communicates the updated timeline and changes to the project team.

When taking over an incomplete project, what item should be of most interest to the new project manager? A. Project concept statement B. Project charter C. Project scope statement D. Project plan

C. The project's scope statement should be of most interest to the new project manager. The scope statement describes the product description, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints.

A building project requires the following steps: construction, purchasing the build site, blueprinting, and inspection. Purchasing the build site has what relationship to construction? A. It is a successor task. B. It is a mandatory task. C. It is a predecessor task. D. It is a discretionary task.

C. The purchasing of the build site must occur before the construction activity begins.

Which of the following is not a guideline for developing a WBS? A. Define the highest level of deliverables before you move to lower levels. B. Make sure that each item in a lower level is a component of the level above. C. Sequence the work packages. D. Involve project team members in the process.

C. The purpose of a WBS is to identify all the work required to complete a project. Defi ning the order of the tasks will occur during the scheduling process.

You are preparing for a formal monthly project review session with your sponsor and the customer. Which of the following is the best approach for making this an effective meeting? A. The project manager creates an agenda giving each team member an equal amount of time to provide task status. B. The preparation for a formal review takes valuable time that the project manager could put to better use. Assign one of the team members the task of putting together a summary of the meeting minutes from project team meetings for the last month. C. The project manager, with input from the project team, prepares a formal presentation that covers the previous month ' s key achievements, the current month ' s planned deliverables, the actual spending compared to the budget estimate, the overall schedule status, and any issues that could delay the project. The team determines in advance which team member will present each aspect of the review. D. The project manager creates a presentation to put the project in the best possible light. Any delays, overruns, or other issues should be downplayed to avoid making the sponsor look bad in front of the customer.

C. The purpose of a formal project review is to communicate to the sponsor the current progress, planned progress, and any roadblocks the project may be facing. This is the person who can make the hard decisions as to what the priority is between your constraints.

In what project artifact would you find information relating to the quality and availability of resources? A. Project schedule B. Organization chart C. Resource calendar D. Risk register

C. The resource calendar will also let you know the dates resources are active or idle.

You ' re preparing some variance figures for your project, and you want to show the variance between a task ' s estimated progress vs. its actual progress. What variance formula should you use? A. SV = EV / PV B. SV = EV - AC C. SV = EV - PV D. SV = EV / AC

C. The schedule variance (SV) is calculated by subtracting the planned value from the earned value. Option A is the formula for SPI, option B is the formula for CV, and option D is the formula for CPI.

The scope baseline documents consists of all of the following except which one? A. Scope statement B. WBS C. Scope management plan D. WBS dictionary

C. The scope management plan is not part of the scope baseline. The scope baseline consists of the scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary.

Which of the following is the sprint planning meeting used to do? A. Get a head start on the work needed for the project B. Prepare the project charter and kickoff meeting C. Set a realistic backlog of items completed during this iteration D. Set the communication and quality plans for the project

C. The sprint planning meeting establishes what can realistically be accomplished during the sprint.

The sprint planning meeting is used to achieve which of the following? A. Getting a head start on the work needed for the project B. Preparing the project charter and kickoff meeting C. Setting a realistic backlog of items completed during this iteration D. Establishing the communication and quality plans for the project

C. The sprint planning meeting sets what can realistically be accomplished during the sprint.

Activity B on your network diagram has a most likely estimate of 8 days, a pessimistic estimate of 11 days, and an optimistic estimate of 6 days. What is the three - point estimate for this task rounded to the nearest whole number? A. 11 days B. 25 days C. 8 days D. 6 days

C. The three-point estimate is calculated by averaging all three estimates. 8 + 11 + 6 = 25. 25/3 = 8.3.

A project has a team member who is absent from meetings, is not meeting deadlines, and is affecting the morale of other individuals on a team. The appropriate action for the project manager would be which of the following? A. Bring the team member in for a counseling session. B. Leave the employee alone and distribute work to other team members. C. Remove the team member from the project and seek a replacement. D. Relocate the team member to a different facility.

C. There are times where the best course of action for the entire project team is to move on without the disgruntled team member.

This role supports the project manager, performs crossfunctional coordination, conducts time and resource scheduling, and checks for quality. What role is it? A. Project sponsor or champion B. Project manager C. Project coordinator D. Project scheduler

C. These are all roles performed by a project coordinator.

One of your senior network engineers, Marty, is absolutely insistent that the vendor who ' s supplying your routers is " all wet " when it comes to a facet of a router that he ' s been tasked to install. However, when you consult with the systems engineers who work for the vendor, they tell you that Marty has misunderstood the way the product works and that it works the way they ' ve advertised it. How do you handle this problem? A. Call the vendor and Marty to a meeting. Sit back and watch them hash it out. B. Call the vendor and Marty to a meeting. Act as arbitrator in an effort to get at the root of what the problem might be. C. Arrange to have some of the vendor ' s engineers meet Marty on - site to work through a sample configuration on one of the routers. That way, if he ' s right, they can see what he ' s talking about; if he ' s wrong, he ' ll see why. D. Tell Marty to listen to what the vendor has to say — after all, they invented it.

C. This is similar to team member disputes only it involves a vendor in this scenario. Getting the vendor experts in a room with your engineer and letting them work through a sample confi guration is the best way to handle this situation. You don ' t have enough information to know who is right. If the vendor is wrong, you ' ll be able to address it.

As a project approaches a critical deadline, Ed contacts the project manager about taking a few days off. The project manager needs Ed's skills to meet the deadline but can see how exhausted Ed has become. They agree that Ed will work through the deadline, and then get a couple of days off after that. Ed accepts this plan and goes back to work. This is an example of what type of conflict resolution? A. Smoothing B. Confronting C. Compromising D. Avoiding E. Forcing

C. This is where both parties give up something to help reach a workable solution. The commitment to meeting the deadline and the agreement to allow for time off, while adjusting the timing, are the key decision points.

After the project charter is signed, what meeting is held to introduce the project team and stakeholders as well as outlining the goals for the project? A. Lessons learned meeting B. Project introductory meeting C. Kickoff meeting D. Team building lunch

C. This is where the project team members and stakeholders are introduced and the goals for the project are outlined.

When breaking down project deliverables, what is the lowest level that is recorded in a WBS? A. Daily work schedules B. High-level requirements C. Work package D. Major milestones

C. This lowest level recorded in the WBS is the work package. This is the level where resources, time, and cost estimates are determined.

All of the following are phases of a project, EXCEPT A. Planning B. Closing C. Development D. Execution

C. This may be an activity during either the planning or execution phase, depending on the nature of the industry the project is in.

Money actually spent for a specific timeframe for complete work is known as which of the following? A. Cost variance B. Planned value C. Actual cost D. Earned value

C. This may include both direct and indirect costs, but it must correspond to the budget for the activity. Actual cost is an example of project cost control.

Earned value is an indication of which of the following? A. The actual cost of completing work in a specific timeframe B. The cost of work that has been authorized and budgeted C. The value of the work completed to date compared to the budgeted amount D. The total sum of sales earned at project completion

C. This number is expressed as a percentage.

Your project was canceled because of the redeployment of project resources. All of the following are true regarding this situation except for which one? A. All of the steps of project closeout should occur even though the project was canceled. B. A post - mortem should be conducted to determine the cause of the project cancelation and to document any lessons learned. C. This project ended because of addition. D. Any completed deliverables should be turned over to the organization.

C. This project ended because of integration, not addition. All the steps of project closeout should occur for projects that are completed as well as those that are canceled. A post - mortem analysis is conducted for canceled projects to determine the cause of the cancelation or failure and to document lessons learned. Any completed deliverables should be turned over to the organization.

Some team members on your team are driving each other crazy. They have different ways of organizing the tasks they are both assigned to, and the disparity in styles is causing them to bicker. Which of the following describes this situation? A. This is a constraint that's bringing about conflict on the team. B. This should be escalated to the project sponsor. C. This is a common cause of conflict. D. This is a team formation stage that will pass as they get to know each other better.

C. This situation describes varying work styles that are a common cause of conflict. Competing resource demands and constraints are also common causes of conflict. Conflicts are anything that restricts or dictates the actions of the project team. And issues like this should almost never have to be escalated to the project sponsor.

A project manager is having problems with one team member who is being insubordinate. The project manager approaches the team member to find out what is going on and determines that a change can be made now that the facts are known. This is an example of which of the following? A. Forcing B. Avoiding C. Confronting D. Smoothing

C. This technique may also be called problem solving, and it is a superior way to resolve a conflict. The correct solution to a problem can reveal itself, and the facts will contribute to discovering the solution.

Analogous estimating is where the cost-estimate is developed by which of the following? A. Using a mathematical model to compute costs for the project B. Calculating the cost of each activity in the work breakdown structure C. Using a similar, past project to develop a high-level estimate D. Averaging three different estimates of the project cost

C. This type of estimating can also be called an order-ofmagnitude estimate.

A company is expanding and has several projects underway. One project is constructing a new wing on the headquarters building, and the other is installing a new highspeed fiber network. The framing of the new building must be completed before the installation of the new network can begin. This is an example of which of the following? A. Interproject resource contention B. Start-to-Finish relationship C. Interproject resource dependencies D. Dedicated resources

C. When a project, or a portion of a project, must be completed prior to another project beginning, it is an example of an interproject dependency.

Wigitcom has a project where cost is the most important consideration for the sponsor. Which personnel model would make the most sense for the project? A. Premium team assignments B. Collocation C. Virtual teams D. Videoconferencing

C. When cost is the most important element of the project, virtual teams can help keep costs lower. It can come at the cost of communication efficiency and potentially make quality more difficult to realize.

You ' re developing a scope document for a customer request. A couple of the elements that the client wants could be difficult to accomplish, but after consulting with the project team, you think they can be done. These elements are not included in the product description. What should you do? A. Include these elements in the scope document, trusting your project team to deliver. B. Include these elements in the scope document, denoting them as a concern, and document how the issues were resolved. C. Discuss the problem elements with the project sponsor and the customer. Obtain sponsor sign - off. D. Note the elements in the exclusions section of the project scope statement, and state that they ' ll be included in phase 2.

C. Whenever problems arise on a project that are outside the authority or control of the project manager to resolve or when problems have the ability to affect project outcomes, the sponsor should always be informed.

A company is located in multiple cities across a continent, and the project will be staffed with team members from various cities. The decision is made to leave all of the team members in their home locations and use technology to aid in communication. This is an example of which of the following? A. Insourcing B. Outsourcing C. Virtual teams D. Collocation

C. With the aid of email, videoconferencing, and other technologies, providing the ability to communicate with team members all over the globe, projects are able to be completed successfully using virtual teams.

Your client has suddenly produced a list of items that they want fixed prior to final sign - off on the project. You suspect they are attempting to add functionality to the system. What is the best approach to deal with the client ' s request? A. Let the client know that this is too late in the process to be bringing these issues to your attention. Any user issues should have been formally documented during user acceptance testing. B. Advise the client you will forward the list to the operations manager after turnover to provide time and cost estimates for each item. C. Request that the client map the fixes to specific requirements in the project scope document, and explain what the problem is. Review the results of acceptance testing to determine whether any bugs were identified. D. Escalate this to the project sponsor so they can decide whether these new enhancements should be added to the project.

C. You need to determine whether there is a valid issue here. If the system does not perform according to the requirements, the client has every right to expect fi xes to be made. By asking the client to map the fi xes to specifi c requirements, you can both determine whether you are dealing with a fi x or an enhancement. Escalation to the project sponsor would be premature at this point, as would passing the list to operations before you have determined the appropriate category for each item on the list.

Which of the following is not a component of a high - level requirements document or product description? A. Historical data B. Problem statement C. Technical requirements D. Testing scenarios

D . A high - level requirements document contains the problem statement, objectives, strategic value, functional and technical requirements, timing, and historical data. Testing scenarios would not be created at this point in the project.

A quality technique that analyzes similar activities as a means of comparison is known as what? A. Cost - benefit analysis B. Cost of quality C. Flowcharting D. Benchmarking

D . Benchmarking is a technique that uses similar activities as a means of comparison. Cost - benefi t analysis analyzes the costs vs. the benefi ts, cost of quality determines the costs to meet the quality objectives, and fl owcharting is a graphical technique that maps out activities or processes.

From the following options, select the one that does not describe a constraint. A. Project team actions are dictated. B. It may regard budget, resources, or schedule. C. Project team actions are restricted D. Project situations are believed to be true.

D . Constraints restrict or dictate the actions of the project team and may take the form of budget, resources, schedules, or other limitations. Situations believed to be true are assumptions.

These costs are also known as the cost of poor quality. A. Appraisal costs B. Corrective costs C. Prevention costs D. Failure costs

D . Failure costs are also known as the cost of poor quality. Appraisal costs are the costs associated with examining the product for quality; prevention costs are the costs associated with keeping defects out of the hands of customers.

What is the technique of looking at the trade - offs between producing goods or services internally vs. procuring it from outside the organization? A. Cost estimating B. Vendor selection criteria C. Staff augmentation D. Make - or - buy analysis

D . Make - or - buy analysis is the technique of determining the cost-effectiveness of procuring goods or services outside the organization.

This process is where the work of the project is performed. A. Planning B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Initiating D. Executing

D . The Executing process is where the work of the project is performed.

During this process, you ' ll interview prospective team members, negotiate with functional managers, and assign staff to the project. A. Resource Planning B. Staff augmentation C. Human Resource Planning D. Staff acquisition

D . The staff acquisition process is part of the Human Resources Planning process, and it involves interviewing prospective team members, negotiating with functional managers, and assigning staff to the project.

This document describes the goods or services you want to procure from outside the organization. A. Scope statement B. RFP C. RFI D. SOW

D . The statement of work (SOW) describes in detail the goods or services you are purchasing from outside the organization.

You ' re the project manager for a large IT project. At the time you performed your cost estimates, the vendor you ' re working with provided you with the following estimates: Programming estimate = 320 hours at $135/hour. Project management estimate = 320 hours at $155/hour. Testing estimate = 150 hours at $85/hour. What type of estimate are these? A. Analogous B. Bottom-up C. Cost benefit D. Parametric

D . These estimates are parametric estimates. You ' ve been given a quantity and a rate you can use to calculate the total estimate. Analogous estimates are based on expert judgment, and bottom - up estimates are provided for each of the work packages and added together to come up with an estimate. Cost benefi t is not a type of estimating technique.

Which of the following are the steps required to validate a project? Choose two. A. Analyze the feasibility. B. Justify the project. C. Align it to the strategic plan . D. Validate the business case. E. Identify and analyze stakeholders.

D, E. The steps required to validate a project are validating the business case (which encompasses a feasibility analysis, justifi cation for the project, and alignment to the strategic plan) and identifying and analyzing stakeholders. .

A project has task A, which will take 2 days; task B, which will take 3 days, task C, which will take 2 days; task D, which will take 2 days; and task E, which will take 3 days. Task A is a predecessor for task B and for task C. Task C is a predecessor for task D. Both task B and task D are predecessors for task E. What is the task sequence for the critical path? A. A => B => E B. A => B => C => D => E C. A => B => D => E D. A => C => D => E

D. A => C => D => E. The critical path has task A (2 days), task C (2 days), task D (2 days), and task E (3 days) for a total of 9 days.

This chart or diagram is a type of histogram that rank-orders data by frequency over time. A. Run chart B. Scatter diagram C. Fishbone diagram D. Pareto chart

D. A Pareto diagram rank-orders data by frequency over time.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a WBS? A. A cost center structure of the project B. An organization chart of the project team members C. Used primarily on large complex projects involving multiple departments D. A deliverables - oriented structure that defines the work of the project

D. A WBS is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defi nes the work of the project and can be used on projects of any size or complexity.

The Closing process group should be performed for all of the following except for which one? A. When projects are canceled B. When a project phase is concluded C. When projects complete successfully D. When the feasibility study for a project is concluded

D. A feasibility study is conducted to determine whether the project is worth undertaking. A feasibility study is not typically considered a project and does not need to be closed out.

A construction company is in the middle of a project to build a guest room on a house. The EV value for the project is $7,000, and the actual cost for the project is $9,500. Select the CV for the project and its meaning. A. $2,500 and the project is under budget B. −$2,500 and the project is under budget C. $2,500 and the project is over budget D. −$2,500 and the project is over budget

D. A positive cost variance (CV) means that the project is under budget, and a negative CV means that the project is over budget. $7,000 − $9,500 = −$2,500; therefore, the project is over budget.

What is the term for a group of related projects managed in a coordinated fashion? A. Life cycle B. Phase C. Process group D. Program

D. A program is a group of related projects that can benefi t from coordinated management. Life cycles are the various stages a project goes through, and process groups consist of Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

A project schedule serves what function? A. Determines the project cost accounting codes B. Creates a deliverable-based decomposition of the project C. Lists the actions that should be resolved to fulfill deliverables D. Determines start and finish dates for project activities

D. A project schedule determines start and finish dates for project activities and will also have activity durations and order of precedence.

This type of risk occurs as a result of implementing a risk response or of another risk event occurring, and it ' s the responsibility of the risk owner to monitor for this. A. Risk trigger B. Contingency risk C. Residual risk D. Secondary risk

D. A secondary risk can occur after the originally identifi ed risk event occurs or as a direct result of an implemented risk response. The risk owner is responsible for monitoring risk events for this potential. Risk triggers are indicators that a risk is about to occur. Residual risks are leftover risks from a risk event or risk assessment.

What is the primary purpose of a formal sign - off at the conclusion of the project work? A. The sign - off allows the project manager to start a new assignment. B. The sign - off means the project team is no longer accountable for the product of the project. C. The sign - off is the trigger for releasing team members back to their functional organization. D. The sign - off indicates that the project meets the documented requirements and the customer has accepted the project deliverables.

D. A sign - off is the formal acceptance of the project. Its primary purpose is the customer ' s acceptance of the product of the project. Team members are released after sign - off, but this isn ' t the primary purpose of a formal sign - off. Both the project manager and the project team members may continue to be involved in the project until all closure activities are complete.

After a change request is submitted, all of the following steps occur prior to being reviewed by the change control board except for which one? A. The change request is recorded in the change log. B. Analysis of the impacts of the change is performed. C. Specific elements of the project, such as additional equipment needs, resource hours, quality impacts, and more, are analyzed. D. Update the appropriate project planning document to reflect the change.

D. After options A - C are conducted, the change request and analysis are given to the CCB to make a decision. The appropriate project planning document is not updated until the CCB makes a decision regarding the disposition of the change request. If it ' s denied, there ' s no need to update the project plans.

High-level risk identification is the responsibility of which of the following? A. Project sponsor B. Project manager C. Project coordinator D. Project team

D. Although many roles are responsible for identifying risk, the project team plays a key role because they are more likely to recognize risk as subject-matter experts.

What is analogous estimating also referred to as? A. Bottom - up estimating B. Expert judgment C. Parametric estimating D. Top - down estimating

D. Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating. It is used early in the project, when there is not enough detail to do a detailed estimate.

A company is located in multiple cities across a continent, and the project will be staffed with team members from various cities. The decision is made to bring the project team to single location. This is an example of A. Insourcing B. Outsourcing C. Layoffs D. Collocation

D. Collocation is when team members are physically working in the same place. Remember, this is not restricted just to consulting resources. In-house resources, or those who work for the same company, even in the same building, might be collocated to work in the same room or suite for a project.

A project team member is not meeting deadlines, and she is starting to be tardy in showing up for work. The project manager meets with her and inquires as to what is going on. The team member replies that she wants to do good work, but that she doesn't seem to have the skills needed for certain tasks. They agree to get the team member a mentor for those tasks. This is an example of what type of conflict resolution? A. Smoothing B. Forcing C. Compromising D. Confronting E. Avoiding

D. Confronting is also called problem solving, and it is the best way to resolve conflict. By setting out on a fact-finding mission, the correct solution to the problem will present itself to the parties.

This type of contract is the riskiest for the buyer. A. Time and materials B. Fixed price C. Fixed price plus incentive D. Cost reimbursable

D. Cost - reimbursable contracts are the riskiest for buyers, since the buyer is responsible for reimbursing the seller on the costs of producing the goods or services.

This technique, used for monitoring and controlling the costs of the project, compares what was received or produced to what was spent. A. ETC B. EAC C. BAC D. EVM

D. EVM, or earned value measurement, compares what was produced to what was spent. It monitors the planned value, earned value, and actual costs on the project. ETC is the estimate to complete, EAC is the estimate at completion, and BAC is the budget at completion.

In what organizational structure does a project manager have the most limited authority? A. Weak-matrix B. Projectized C. Strong-matrix D. Functional

D. In a functional organization, the authority resides with the functional manager, not the project manager.

The Closing processes include all of the following, EXCEPT A. Archiving of project documents B. Release of project members C. Review of lessons learned D. Monitoring of the risks and issues log

D. In addition to archival of project documents, release of team members, and review of lessons learned, Closing consists of the following: transition/integration plan, training, closing of contracts, and project sign-off. Monitoring the risks and issues log is considered to be a process within the Monitor and Control phase.

All of the following are types of dependencies, EXCEPT A. Mandatory B. Discretionary C. External D. Backlog

D. In the Agile methodology, tasks can get recorded and identified in a backlog, but it is not a dependency important to task sequencing.

This person is responsible for understanding the information correctly and making certain they ' ve received all the information. A. Sender B. Messenger C. Project manager D. Receiver

D. In the sender - message - receiver model, the receiver is responsible for understanding the information correctly and making certain they ' ve received all the information.

You are asked to prepare an estimate for a project business case to install a new group of servers at a new satellite office. There is very little detail about this project. What will you use to compute your estimate? A. The price the client is willing to pay B. A sophisticated modeling technique C. The estimate provided by the project sponsor D. The actual cost of a similar project

D. In this situation you would use an analogous estimate, which is based on historical data from a similar project. There isn ' t a lot of detail about the project at this point, so a sophisticated modeling technique won ' t work. The price the client is willing to pay won ' t refl ect the costs or profi t margin needed for the organization, and the project sponsor is not the most likely person to know the cost estimate.

These performance measurements are defined when you create the project management plan and are monitored and tracked during the Monitoring and Controlling phase to determine whether the project is meeting its goals. A. SPI B. Balanced score card C. CPI D. KPI

D. Key performance indicators (KPIs) are measurable elements of project success defined when you create the project management plan and measured and monitored throughout the Monitoring and Controlling process.

All of the following are true regarding milestone charts except for which one? A. Milestone charts list the major deliverables or phases of a project. B. Milestone charts show the scheduled completion dates. C. Milestone charts show the actual completion dates. D. Milestone charts are commonly displayed in bar chart format.

D. Milestone charts list the major deliverables, key events, or project phases and show the scheduled and actual completion dates of each milestone. They may include other information, but that information would not be displayed as bar charts.

What are milestones? A. A measure of the distance traveled on a project B. Characteristics of deliverables that must be met C. Checkpoints on a project to determine Go/No-Go decisions D. Major events in a project used to measure progress

D. Milestones are major events in a project used to measure progress.

A large, well-established organization that has been in business for many decades would likely have which organizational structures? A. Weak-matrix B. Projectized C. Strong-matrix D. Functional

D. More established organizations with mature processes and tenured staff would most likely have a functional organizational structure centered around specialties.

A project manager meets with team members who are upset. They discuss areas where there is agreement with each other and the situation. Work then resumes on the project. This is an example of which of the following? A. Forcing B. Avoiding C. Confronting D. Smoothing

D. No real or permanent solution is achieved. This can be an example of a lose-lose result as neither side achieves resolution of their issues.

High-level risk assessment includes all of the following, EXCEPT A. Risk identification and rolled-up (or categorized) worktask groups B. Cost-benefit analysis weighing relative risks to potential gains C. High-level responses to mitigate impact D. Risk identification of all potential project alternatives

D. Option D is not correct since this is an example of alternatives identification and analysis. Risk assessment is done on the proposed project, not the alternatives.

of the following techniques can be used to estimate the duration of an activity, except A. Expert judgment B. Three-point estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Pareto diagramming

D. Pareto diagramming, or producing a Pareto chart or diagram, is a tool used to focus attention on the most critical issues. It is not used to estimate activity duration.

This tool, used to help monitor and control quality results, ranks the importance of a problem based on its frequency of occurrence over time. A. Control chart B. Flowcharting C. Ishikawa diagram D. Pareto diagram

D. Pareto diagrams rank the importance of problems based on their frequency of occurrence over time. Control charts display the variance of several samples of the same process over time. Flowcharts depict the logical steps that must be performed to accomplish an objective, and Ishikawa diagrams show the relationship between cause and effect.

Your project has expected cash inflows of $1.2 million in year 1, $2.4 million in year 2, and $4.6 million in year 3. The project pays for itself in 23 months. Which cash flow technique was used to determine this? A. IRR B. NPV C. Discounted cash flow D. Payback period

D. Payback period is a technique that calculates the expected cash inflows over time to determine how many periods it will take to recover the original investment. IRR calculates the internal rate of return, NPV determines the net present value, and discounted cash flows determine the amount of the cash flows in today ' s dollars.

This type of change request is implemented to help reduce the probability of a negative risk event. A. Contingency plan B. Corrective action C. Risk response plan D. Preventive action

D. Preventive actions are implemented to help reduce the probability of a negative risk event. Contingency plans and risk response plans are not change requests. The purpose of a corrective action is to bring the work of the project into alignment with the project plan.

Project managers should spend how much of their time communicating? A. Up to 40% B. Up to 50% C. Up to 75% D. Up to 90%

D. Project managers can spend up to 90% of their time communicating with the stakeholders and the project team.

Project managers may spend up to 90 percent of their time doing which of the following? A. Interacting with the project stakeholders B. Interacting with the project sponsor C. Interacting with the project team members D. Communicating

D. Project managers may spend up to 90 percent of their time communicating.

In this type of organization, the project manager shares responsibility for team member assignments and performance evaluations with the functional manager. A. Functional B. Projectized C. Hierarchical D. Matrix

D. Project managers share authority with functional managers in a matrix organization.

Marion is a project manager working on implementing a new asset management system for an agency. She has encountered problems when trying to get participation from other departments, and it is creating problems. Whose responsibility would it be to help clear the obstacle? A. Project coordinator B. PMO C. Stakeholders D. Project sponsor

D. Project sponsors should use their influence to help remove obstacles like nonparticipation on the project.

Amy has been assigned to a project and reports to Kim, the project manager. John, Amy's functional manager, also requires Amy to report to him. What type of resource is Amy? A. Dedicated B. Physical C. Digital D. Shared

D. Reporting to both the project manager and the functional manager means that Amy is a shared resource.

All of the following are true regarding rewards and recognition except for which one? A. Functional managers may not recognize the work of individual team members. B. Rewards and recognition are a form of motivation. C. Rewards and recognition should be applied consistently to all project team members. D. Rewards and recognition almost always involve money

D. Rewards and recognition do not have to involve money, and many times may include rewards such as a thank - you, a letter to the functional manager, a public mention of the accomplishment at a team meeting, and so on.

This conflict - resolution technique is temporary, and one of its symptoms is emphasizing the areas of agreement and keeping the real issue buried. Which conflict - resolution technique does this describe? A. Avoiding B. Forcing C. Confronting D. Smoothing

D. Smoothing is the confl ict - resolution technique that is temporary in nature because it emphasizes the areas of agreement while keeping the real issues under the surface.

What plan determines the information needs of the stakeholders, format of information delivery, delivery frequency, and the preparer? A. Stakeholder Analysis Plan B. Project Charter C. Human Resources Plan D. Communications Plan

D. The Communications plan is where all of the elements of the who, what, when, where, and why of communication needs are documented.

What is the indication of how fast a project is spending its budget? A. Fast-tracking B. Expenditure tracking C. Crashing D. Burn rate

D. The burn rate is how fast the project is spending its allotted budget, or how fast the rate money is being expended over a period of time.

After establishing the product backlog, what tool would be used to determine the project's velocity? A. Pareto diagram B. Fishbone diagram C. Kanban board D. Burndown chart

D. The burndown chart is a visual representation and measurement tool showing the completed work against a time interval to forecast project completion.

What elements are explained in a business case? A. Justification by identifying the organizational benefits B. Alternative solutions C. Alignment to the strategic plan D. All of the above E. A and C

D. The business case can include justification, alternative solutions, alignment to the strategic plan, recommended solution, and a feasibility study.

What elements are explained in a business case? A. Justification by identifying the organizational benefits B. Alternative solutions C. Alignment to the strategic plan D. All of the above E. A and C

D. The business case is a written document or report that helps executive management and key stakeholders determine the benefits and rewards of the project. It can include justification, alternative solutions, and alignment to the strategic plan.

All of the following are true regarding code of accounts identifiers except for which one? A. These are unique numbers for each component on the WBS. B. They are documented in the WBS dictionary. C. They are tied to the organization ' s chart of accounts. D. They are assigned to the resources who are associated with each work package.

D. The code of accounts identifi er is a unique number assigned to each component of the WBS. It is documented in the WBS dictionary and is tied to the chart of accounts.

Wigitcom is faced with changes to scope and personnel on a project. What is the appropriate method to share this information with the stakeholders? A. Via social media and text messages B. Using memos and email C. Holding a meeting with the project team D. Following the communication plan

D. The communication plan sets out who needs to be informed of what types of project changes, and it will direct which method of communication should be used.

This is the approved, expected cost of the project. A. Expenditure budget B. Expenditure baseline C. Cost budget D. Cost baseline

D. The cost baseline is the approved, expected cost of the project.

You are a project manager for a new software application. You have just learned that one of your programmers is adding several new features to one of the deliverables. What is the best action to take? A. Make any needed adjustments to the schedule and cost baseline, and tell the programmer that any future changes must be approved by you. B. Request that the programmer remove the coding for the new features, because he is outside the boundaries of the original scope statement. C. Contact the appropriate functional manager, and request a replacement for this programmer. D. Determine the source of the request for the new features, and run this change through the scope change process to determine the impact of the changes and obtain formal approval to change the scope.

D. The customer or a stakeholder may have requested the new features. If these are required features that were omitted from the original scope statement, you need to analyze the impact to the project and obtain approval for the change. If you just make adjustments to the budget and schedule without any analysis, not only do you risk being late and over - budget, but there may be impacts to other areas of the plan or risks associated with this change. Removing the new features may add cost and time to the schedule as well as create a potentially hostile relationship with the customer. Unless this is a situation where the programmer has repeatedly changed scope outside of the approval process, requesting a replacement resource is not an appropriate response.

You know that EV = 230, PV = 230, AC = 250, BAC = 260, and ETC is 30. What is the CPI? A. 280 B. 1 C. 3 D. .92

D. The formula for CPI is EV / AC. 230 / 250 = .92

What part of a project request defines the reason for the project, the deliverables at a high level, and the project objectives? A. Work breakdown structure B. High-level risks C. Business case D. High-level scope definition

D. The high-level scope definition documents the reason for the project and the problem you're trying to solve and provides a high-level description of some of the deliverables needed to make the project a success.

The high-level scope definition describes which of the following? A. High-level deliverables of the project B. Objectives of the project C. Reason for the project D. All of the above

D. The high-level scope definition is documented in the project charter, setting the big picture work that the project hopes to complete.

What is one disadvantage of a project - based organization? A. The organization doesn ' t work on anything that isn ' t project-related. B. Costs are high because specialized skills are required to complete projects in this type of structure. C. The functional managers have control over which team members are assigned to projects. D. Once the project is completed, the project team members may not have other projects to work on.

D. The key problem with a project - based organization is that there may not be a new project in place at the conclusion of the one team members were released from. This leaves specialists " sitting on the bench " with no work to do and is costly to the organization. It ' s an advantage to a project-based organization to work on projects. Costs aren ' t necessarily any higher in this type of organization than others. Costs will depend on the type of project you ' re working on, not the organizational structure. And the project managers have control over who works on the projects in a project-based organization.

You ' ve been given an idea for a project by an executive in your organization. After writing the business - case analysis, you submit it to the executive for review. After reading the business case, he determines that the project poses a significant amount of risk to the organization. What do you recommend next? A. Proceed to the project selection committee. B. Reject the project based on the analysis. C. Proceed to writing the project plan. D. Perform a feasibility study.

D. The next best step to take in this situation is to perform a feasibility study. Feasibility studies are typically undertaken for projects that are risky, projects that are new to the organization, or projects that are highly complex. Projects of signifi cant risk to the organization shouldn ' t be taken to the selection committee without having a feasibility study fi rst and writing the project plan doesn ' t make sense at this point because you don ' t know if the project will be chosen or not. You also can ' t reject the project because there isn ' t enough information to determine if it should be rejected until the feasibility study is completed.

When would an Adaptive method be preferable to a more rigid project management style? A. In a mature organization with defined processes B. When the scope can be easily and thoroughly defined C. Where small incremental improvements offer no value to stakeholders D. with a rapidly changing environment

D. The other options would not take advantage of the flexible, easily changing environment of the project.

Your project is winding down, and some of your team members are anxious about their status. What is the best way to deal with their concerns? A. Explain to the team members that they will be released when the project is done. B. Let the team members know that you can only discuss their release date with the functional managers. C. Establish the same release date for all the team members, even if their work is completed. If some people start leaving, others may try to jump ship as well. D. Review the team member release plans from the staffing management plan. Keep team members and functional managers informed based on the status of the project schedule.

D. The procedures for releasing project team members should be documented in your staffi ng management plan. Both team members and functional managers need to know in advance when you think a team member will be released. Team members may roll off the project at different times, so you need to discuss the release with each team member individually.

The project charter is prepared and agreed to in which project phase? A. Planning B. Closing C. Execution D. Initiation

D. The project charter is prepared and agreed to in the Initiation phase of a project. This document provides formal approval for the project to begin and authorizes the project manager to apply resources to the project.

Who is responsible for assembling the project's team members? A. Project sponsor B. Project stakeholders C. Project customer D. Project manager

D. The project manager assembles the team members for the project. The project manager may get input from the sponsor, stakeholders, or customers, but it is the project manager who decides what the formation of the team should be.

Kayla works for Wigitcom, and she has been assigned to work on a project. Kayla's project manager gives her direction, and consistently prevents Kayla's regular supervisor from giving her any assignments. At the end of the project, the project manager will conduct Kayla's performance review. What type of organizational structure is Wigitcom using? A. Agile B. Functional C. Matrix D. Projectized

D. The project manager has the authority to task team resources and conduct performance evaluations, making this a projectized organizational structure.

Which project role is responsible for all project artifacts like project plans, meeting minutes, and project delivery? A. Project coordinator B. Scheduler C. Project team D. Project manager

D. The project manager is responsible for all artifacts produced during the course of doing project work.

A project sponsor would be responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT A. Developing high-level requirements for the project B. Functioning as the approval authority and removing roadblocks C. Marketing the project across the organization D. Estimating the costs and dependencies of the project activities E. Serving to help control the direction of the project

D. The project sponsors' responsibilities include helping define and develop the high-level requirements for the project, functioning as the approval authority, removing roadblocks, marketing the project across the organization, controlling the direction of the project, and defining the business case for the project.

Ashley is a program manager for the construction of several transit projects. She asks the bridge project manager for updated estimates on the bridge's construction. Who has the responsibility for the estimating task duration and costs? A. Project manager B. PMO C. Stakeholders D. Project team

D. The project team contributes their expertise to the project and gives their estimates for task duration, cost estimates, and dependencies.

Which of the following is not a benefit of a WBS? A. A WBS is an excellent tool for team building. B. A WBS helps prevents critical work from being overlooked. C. A WBS can become a template for future projects. D. A WBS can be used to describe how the deliverables will be verified

D. The scope management document, not the WBS, describes how the deliverables will be verifi ed.

An organization needs to add vendor resources to a project, but they do not have the physical space to house the team. What approach should the organization use for their personnel management? A. Deploy projectized teams B. Deploy functional teams C. Use in-house teams D. Use remote teams

D. The space constraints for this organization will force the team to use remote or virtual teams.

Who is responsible for authorizing the closure of the project? A. Stakeholders B. Project manager C. Executive team members D. Sponsor

D. The sponsor is the one who signs off on the closure documents. As the project manager, you create them, providing supporting documentation that illustrates that all deliverables have been successfully completed.

Your subject-matter expert tells you that her most likely estimate to complete her task is 40 hours. The task starts on Thursday, January 20, at 8 a.m. The team works 8-hour days, and they do not work weekends. Which day will the task end? A. January 24 B. January 25 C. January 27 D. January 26

D. The task begins on January 20, which is day 1. The team does not work weekends, so the completion date, based on an eighthour workday, is January 26.

All of the following represent a category of contract most commonly used in procurement except for which one? A. Time-and-materials B. Cost-reimbursable C. Fixed-price D. Requests for proposal

D. The three categories of contracts most often used to procure goods and services are time-and-materials, cost-reimbursable, and fixed-price. Requests for proposal are not contracts.

This estimating technique uses the most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic estimates to come up with an average cost or duration estimate. A. Analogous estimate B. Bottom-up estimate C. Parametric estimate D. Three-point estimate

D. The three-point estimating technique averages the most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic estimates to determine an overall cost or duration estimate.

The project you are currently managing requires a new piece of equipment that has only been available in limited quantity in a beta test mode. The manufacturer has assured you that the device will be in production mode in time to meet the committed delivery on your project schedule. Delivery of this device was identified as a high - priority risk during risk planning. Because you have no authority to impact the production of the device, your team designed a contingency plan that uses a different device that will allow the project to move forward with reduced functionality. Which of the following is the best example of a trigger that indicated that you need to implement the contingency plan? A. A major trade magazine has just printed a story quoting informed sources predicting the resignation of the manufacturer ' s CIO. B. Several of your project team members have come to you to express concern regarding the dependency on this one vendor. C. Rumors are circulating that testing of the device is not progressing as planned and major rework will be required. D. The vendor is scheduled to ship the first set of devices on March 1. It is February 3, and you have not received the required written confirmation from the vendor regarding the shipping date. Written confirmation was due February 1.

D. The vendor has missed a key milestone date — the written confi rmation of the device shipping date. The team member concerns may be valid, but the risk associated with a new device produced by only one vendor was accepted when the project was authorized. The speculation regarding the status of device testing may indicate that the device will not be available, but you need to contact the vendor and ask specifi c questions. The other answers may all warrant further investigation, but you would not want to implement your contingency plan based on unconfi rmed rumors.

All of the following are aspects of an Agile sprint, EXCEPT A. It is limited to a timeframe such as two weeks. B. A planning meeting is held to figure out what the team can accomplish. C. A small feature set is taken to completion. D. The team works at an incredible pace for the entire time.

D. There is no heroic effort that occurs during an Agile sprint, which is a short burst of activity on a project focusing on a few tasks and working them to a completed state.

You have just left a meeting with the project sponsor where you were advised that your project has been canceled because of budget cuts. You have called the project team together to fill them in and to review the remaining activities to close out the project. Several of your team members question the benefit of doing a lessons learned review on a project that has been canceled. What should your response be? A. Advise the team that part of the review time will be spent on documenting the failure of the lack of clear requirements from the customer. B. Tell the team they need to do this to be able to stay on the project payroll another week while they look for a new assignment. C. Inform the team that a final report is a requirement from the PMO, regardless of how the project ends. D. Explain that there is value both to the team and for future projects in analyzing the phases of the project that have been completed to date to document what went right, what went wrong, and what you would change.

D. There is valuable information to be gained from a review of any project, even projects that do not complete. The assessment should focus on those phases of the project that did fi nish, as well as a look at whether anything could have been done differently to make the project a success. The purpose of lessons learned is not to assign blame, even for projects that are canceled.

Where would an organization document the results of their buy versus build analysis? A. WBS B. Budget C. Change management plan D. Procurement plan

D. This document will include the approach to obtaining outside products and services and the rational for choosing whether to insource or outsource the effort.

Which project role outlines the consequences of nonperformance? A. Project manager B. Project coordinator C. Project scheduler D. Project management office

D. This helps keep roles like the project manager and project team accountable from a more strategic standpoint.

the completion of a project sprint, the project team meets to examine what went well, what didn't go well, and what improvements could be made. This is an example of which of the following? A. Governance gates B. Product backlog C. Daily SCRUM D. SCRUM retrospective

D. This is a form of a lessons-learned meeting used in the Agile methodology to help improve future sprints.

Duane is a senior resource assigned to the project, but he has begun to be short-tempered in meetings, rigid in his positions, and argumentative. The project manager approaches Duane, but an argument ensues and Duane walks out. The next day the project manager decides to give Duane space and not discuss his behavior or performance. This is an example of which of the following? A. Negotiating B. Confronting C. Compromising D. Avoiding E. Forcing

D. This is also known as withdrawal, and it never results in a resolution of the problem. It is also an example of a lose-lose conflict resolution technique.

Demonstrating competency, respect, honesty, integrity, openness, and doing what you say you'll do is an example of which of the following? A. Team building B. Managing team resources C. Demonstrating leadership skills D. Trust building

D. This is an example of trust building. As a project manager, you must do what you say you'll do and demonstrate the traits stated in the question.

In what stage of team development are teams the most productive and trust levels the highest among team members? A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing E. Adjourning

D. This is the ideal state teams are shooting for, where the team is productive and effective. Not all teams are able to achieve this stage of development.

You have a project that will be completed in multiple phases and have set up formal reviews at the completion of each phase to determine whether the project should progress. What is this review process called? A. Conversion B. Transition C. Hand - off D. Phase gate

D. This process is known as a phase gate approval process and involves formally reviewing project progress to determine whether the project should progress.

You are working for an organization and just learned that another organization with more power and influence is taking over your organization at the first of the year. What does this describe? A. Business merger B. Business demerger C. Business venture D. Business acquisition

D. This question describes a business acquisition. Companies that are acquiring others have the power and influence to make decisions. A business merger is a mutually agreeable arrangement where power is shared among the entities.

Tiffany is the only digital marketer assigned to the project, but only 60 percent of her time is available to the project. There is enough work for a person assigned 100 percent of the time to the project, so Tiffany is struggling to meet her deadlines. This is an example of which of the following? A. Low-quality resources B. Interdependencies C. Dedicated resources D. Resource overallocation

D. Tiffany is overallocated for the project assignments because there is more work to do than time to work on it.

Your system engineer has started making negative comments during your weekly team meeting. He has had a heated argument with the marketing manager, and you have heard from various team members that he has become difficult to work with. What is the best course of action for you to take? A. You should write a memo to the system engineer ' s functional manager and request a replacement as soon as possible. B. The system engineer is critical to the project, so you should give him some slack and wait to see whether the behavior stops. C. You should confront the system engineer openly at the next team meeting. Let him know that his behavior is unacceptable and that he will be replaced if there is not an immediate change. D. You should schedule an individual meeting with the system engineer to determine whether he has issues with the project that need to be resolved. Get his perspective on how the project is progressing and how he feels about his role.

D. To address the issue, you need to understand what is behind the system engineer ' s current behavior. He may have been given additional work that you are not aware of, or he may misunderstand the project goals, to name just a couple of possibilities. The situation cannot be ignored, no matter how valuable the person is, and it should be handled in private.

During an Agile daily stand-up meeting, what are three questions that are asked and answered? A. What did I accomplish yesterday? What will I do today? What are the necessary next steps? B. What did I accomplish today? Who will I be working with today? What obstacles are preventing progress? C. What did I accomplish yesterday? Who will I be working with today? What obstacles are preventing progress? D. What did I accomplish yesterday? What will I do today? What obstacles are preventing progress?

D. What did I accomplish yesterday? What will I do today? and What obstacles are preventing progress? These are the three questions asked during a stand-up, or SCRUM, meeting.

A team member is upset about having to stay late because he will miss a Scouts meeting with his son. He approaches the project manager, who lets him know that it is a one-time thing, and if they work that night they will not have to come in on the weekend. Though upset, the team member stays and finishes his work. This is an example of what type of conflict resolution? A. Smoothing B. Confronting C. Compromising D. Avoiding E. Forcing

D. Whenever a team member joints the project, or at the beginning of the project when multiple people join, is when expectations should be set, including roles, due dates, norms, and team interactions.

Nyssa works for Wigitcom and has been assigned to a project. She wants to take a week off for a family reunion, which conflicts with a project deadline. The project manager denied her leave request, but her functional manager lets her attend the family reunion. What type of organizational structure is Wigitcom using? A. Projectized B. Strong-matrix C. Balanced-matrix D. Weak-matrix

D. While Nyssa is assigned to the project, it is clear that the power rests with the functional manager, undercutting the project manager's authority.

In what project phase is the influence of stakeholders the least effective? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitor and Control

D. While stakeholders start out with a lot of influence, it decreases as the project advances because the execution of the project solidifies deliverables at the expense of stakeholders being able to change their minds.

An iterative, incremental approach to managing the activities on a project in a highly flexible manner is referred to as A. Waterfall methodology B. Matrixed management C. Projectized D. Agile methodology

D. With values born out of Lean principles, this is an iterative, incremental approach to managing the activities on a project.

The benefits of meeting quality requirements include all of the following except for which one? A. Increased satisfaction B. Less rework C. Higher productivity D. Lower costs E. Improved quality metrics

E . Quality metrics are a standard of measurement that defi nes what will be measured and how it will be measured.

You ' re working on a project to develop a client - server application. Your company ' s collections department will equip their field personnel with wireless tablet PCs that will connect with the server and database. The manager of the collections department brought the request forward. You work for the PMO and are managed by the director of administrative services. The IT department is managed by the director of IT. The telecommunications segments, including wireless, are managed by the director of telecommunications. Who is the project sponsor? A. Manager of collections B. Director of administrative services C. Director of IT D. Director of telecommunications E. Not enough information

E . The project sponsor is an individual who is authorized to expend the resources necessary to bring about the deliverables of the project. In this question, we really don ' t have enough information to make a good decision about identifying the project sponsor.

Which of the following describes the responsibilities of the project sponsor? A. Provides or obtains financial resources B. Monitors the delivery of major milestones C. Runs interference and removes roadblocks D. Provides the project manager with authority to manage the project E. All of the above

E. A project sponsor is responsible for obtaining financial resources for the project, monitoring the progress of the project, and handling escalations from the project manager.

In what stage of team development do the members stop working with one another and return to their functional jobs? A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing E. Adjourning

E. Adjourning refers to the dissolving of the team when work has been completed.

Suppose that you ' re working on a project in which you ' ve established this milestone: " Database servers built and functional. " The following tasks are needed to complete this milestone: Task 1: Build three database servers. Task 2: Install database software on each server. Task 3: Validate that software is running correctly. Task 4: Install database schemas from development environment. Task 5: Test that it ' s 100 percent successful. Which of these tasks would represent the acceptance criteria for this milestone? A. Task 1 B. Task 2 C. Task 3 D. Task 4 E. Task 5

E. Building the servers, installing software on them, validating that the software works, and bringing up the schemas represents work toward the milestone but does not adequately represent that you've reached the milestone. Task 5, which says that you've successfully tested the database servers, indicates that you've reached your goal.

The project team has completed all of the deliverables for the project. They have meetings scheduled to begin the handoff from the project team to the ongoing operations team. In what phase is the project at this point? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitor and Control E. Closing

E. During the transition from the project to normal operations, training of the new specifications will occur.

All of the following describe types of project endings except for which one? A. Integration B. Starvation C. Addition D. Extinction E. Attrition

E. Integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of the organization, and addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations. Starvation is a project ending caused by resources being cut off from the project. Extinction occurs when the project work is completed and is accepted by the stakeholders.

Chase is a project manager, and he has released all of the team members from the project, closed vendor contracts, and archived project documents. In what phase is the project? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Monitor and Control E. Closing

E. Other closing activities would include getting project sign-off, gathering and documenting lessons learned, and conducting training as a part of the transition/integration plan.

All the following are elements of the project kickoff meeting except for which one? A. Introductions B. Overview of goals and objectives C. High - level budget overview D. Roles and responsibilities overview E. WBS overview F. Stakeholder expectations

E. The WBS is too detailed to review at a project kickoff meeting and is better handled during a meeting with project team members only.

Jessie does not like how the assignments are being delegated and confronts the project manager with his complaint. The project manager reinforces that this is the way it is done, and Jessie better start getting on board with the method because it isn't going to change. Jessie acknowledges the situation, goes back to work, and doesn't bring it up again. What type of conflict resolution is this? A. Negotiating B. Confronting C. Compromising D. Avoiding E. Forcing

E. The project manager is asserting his or her will without consideration of Jessie's position. Although this is a permanent solution, it is not a particularly good one.

All of the following are factors that influence communication methods except which one? A. Language barriers B. Technological barriers C. Task completion D. Cultural differences E. Intra organizational differences F. A, B, D G. All of the above

F. Task completion is a communication trigger. The remaining options are examples of factors that influence communications.