PT#16 - LESSON 16 - FUNCTIONAL MOVEMENT AND RESISTANCE TRAINING QU

Question: 20 of 25 What is the first progression made when utilizing the double-progressive training protocol?

Adding repetitions to the set

Question: 17 of 25 Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that might be addressed in a client's exercise program?

Balance

Question: 5 of 25 Which stretching technique is MOST appropriate for deconditioned clients to perform DURING a workout

Dynamic stretching

Question: 7 of 25 A skilled performance athlete who has established good flexibility would like to address functional flexibility during his pre-exercise stretching routine. What two types of stretching would be the BEST choices for this client?

Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching

Question: 10 of 25 A key role of the serratus anterior during open kinetic chain movement is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae.

FALSE Why? Because During open kinetic chain (OKC) movements, a key role of the serratus anterior is to control movement of the scapulae against a more fixed ribcage. During closed kinetic chain movements, however, where the distal segment is more fixed, a key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae.

Question: 22 of 25 After progressing to the load-training phase of the ACE IFT® Model, a client has mastered the stability and mobility exercises from the previous phases and no longer needs to include them in each workout.

FALSE Why? Because Regardless of the specific objective of the load-training program, it is recommended that stability and mobility exercises be included in the warm-up and cool-down activities.

Question: 11 of 25 The center of mass is generally slightly lower in men due to their increased body mass and narrower stance.

FALSE Why?Because The location of the center of mass varies in individuals by body shape, size, and gender, being slightly higher in males due to greater quantities of musculature in the upper body.

Question: 25 of 25 Which of the following types of plyometric drills provides the highest intensity?

Hops and bounds

Question: 1 of 25 Which joints favors stability over mobility?

Knee

Question: 8 of 25 Which of the following muscles is part of the outer layer of the core?

Latissimus dorsi

Question: 12 of 25 Which of the following techniques will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise?

Lowering the center of mass

Question: 3 of 25 When trying to meet the objective of the stability and mobility training phase by reestablishing appropriate levels of stability and mobility through the kinetic chain, a personal trainer should begin by targeting which region of the body?

Lumbar spine

Question: 4 of 25 After proximal stability is established in the lumbar spine, the focus of the stability and mobility training phase shifts to establishing _______________.

Mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine

Question: 23 of 25 What aspect of muscular fitness is BEST addressed by a client adhering to the following regimen? Frequency: Provide at least 72 hours recovery time between exercises for the same muscle groups Intensity: Between 70 and 80% of maximum resistance, reaching fatigue between 50 and 70 seconds Repetitions: Eight to 12 Three to four sets with 30 to 60 seconds rest between successive training sets Type: A combination of multijoint and single-joint exercises using various techniques, including breakdown training and assisted training

Muscular hypertrophy

Question: 16 of 25 Which of the following terms is defined as the product of muscular strength and movement speed

Muscular power

Question: 24 of 25 A plyometric exercise program BEST addresses which aspect of muscular fitness?

Muscular power

Question: 19 of 25 A client's resistance-training regimen involves performing four sets of each exercise, with each set containing four repetitions. This training volume BEST addresses which training goal?

Muscular strength

Question: 21 of 25 According to the principle of reversibility, a client who stops performing resistance exercise will lose strength at about __________ that it was gained

One-half the rate

Question: 13 of 25 Standing on a single leg and taking a step mandates stability in each of the following regions EXCEPT the __________.

Raised leg

Question: 2 of 25 Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the anterior, inferior surface of the pelvis in an effort to maintain a neutral pelvic position?

Rectus abdominis

Question: 14 of 25 Which type of movement has the GREATEST need for thoracic mobility?

Rotational movements

Question: 6 of 25 Which stretching technique involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for 15 to 60 seconds?

Static stretching

Question: 9 of 25 The strengthening of weakened muscles should begin with the performance of two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of maximal voluntary contraction in a supported, isolated environment.

TRUE Why? Because The strengthening of weakened muscles follows a progression model beginning with two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of MVC in a supported, more isolated environment. The next progression is to dynamic, controlled ROM exercises incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 15 repetitions.

Question: 18 of 25 Training frequency is inversely related to both training __________ and training __________.

Volume; intensity

Question: 15 of 25 Which of the following exercises BEST addresses the rotational movement pattern during the movement-training phase?

Wood-chop