PTA 272 Final Exam

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In a patient with a spinal cord injury, what are two factors that determine the level of the spinal cord injury? A. ASIA scale and last spinal nerve root segment in which innervation is present B. Rancho Los Amigos Scale and amount of blood loss C. The Glasgow Coma Scale and pin prick test D. The Neurological Impairment Scale and manual muscle testing

A. ASIA scale and last spinal nerve root segment in which innervation is present

Which of the following statements is true regarding suctioning an airway: A. Complications may include hypotenstion, hypoxemia, and/or cardiac arrest B. The patient is often provided with less oxygen to make suctioning easier and more effective C. Suctioning removes secretions from patients with non-artificial airways D. The catheter must be held still

A. Complications may include hypotenstion, hypoxemia, and/or cardiac arrest

Identify the sequence below in which the muscle contraction types are listed in order from ability to produce the greatest force to ability to produce the least force. A. Eccentric, isometric, concentric B. Isotonic, isokinetic, isometric C. Concentric, eccentric, isometric D. Isokinetic, isotonic, isometric

A. Eccentric, isometric, concentric

When reviewing a patient's chart, which of the following would not be indicative of metabolic syndrome? A. Fasting blood sugar of 90 B. A waist measurement of 45 inches around. C. Blood pressure of 155/85. D. Triglyceride levels in the blood of 225

A. Fasting blood sugar of 90

During mid-swing the knee is moving from 60° flexion to 30° flexion. Which muscles are active during this phase and how are they contracting? A. Hamstrings working eccentrically B. Hamstrings working concentrically C. Quadriceps working eccentrically D. Quadriceps working concentrically

A. Hamstrings working eccentrically

A 60-year-old female is referred to rehabilitation for evaluation and assessment after several recent falls. Which of the following describes indications that are suspicious of tertiary osteoporosis? A. History of spinal cord compression fractures and a height loss of 3 inches B. Transient joint and bone pain C. Family history of osteoporosis, personal history of smoking and alcohol abuse D. Sedentary life-style, obesity, kyphotic posture

A. History of spinal cord compression fractures and a height loss of 3 inches

Abnormally diminished muscular function or mobility experienced by many older adults is defined as: A. Hypokinesis B. Secondary aging C. Senescence D. Sarcopenia

A. Hypokinesis

What are three intervention procedures to assist in respiratory capacity improvement and reduce risk of pneumonia in a client with spinal cord injury? A. Incentive spirometry, diaphragmatic strengthening, instruction in assisted cough techniques B. Use of cervical collar, lying in the Trendelenburg position, and instruction in range of motion to the UE's C. Use of intermittent pneumatic compression to calves, high frequency chest wall oscillation vest, postural drainage D. Use of support stocking, range of motion, and IASTM technique

A. Incentive spirometry, diaphragmatic strengthening, instruction in assisted cough techniques

Which of the following statements is most accurate for comparing or contrasting the developmental postures of all fours and kneeling? A. Kneeling is more advanced/challenging. B. Kneeling is more symmetrical. C. All fours raises the center of gravity. D. Kneeling increases the base of support.

A. Kneeling is more advanced/challenging.

The PTA is working with a patient who has progressed to "refining" his diaphragmatic breathing. Which of the following activities describes components of a patient's most advanced level of implementation of diaphragmatic breathing? A. Limited neck and shoulder muscle activity and increased circumference of the trunk below the rib on inspiration. B. Pursed lip breathing on inspiration C. Feedback from the PTA through PTA's hand placement on the patient's abdomen. D. Posterior movement of abdomen (depression) on inspiration.

A. Limited neck and shoulder muscle activity and increased circumference of the trunk below the rib on inspiration.

Initial intervention procedures for a patient with symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia include: A. Look for noxious stimulus, if source not identified immediately sit/stand patient to lower the blood pressure B. Complete 10 reps of knee flexion/extension C. Have the patient lie down immediately D. Complete range of motion to bilateral lower extremities to increase the blood pressure

A. Look for noxious stimulus, if source not identified immediately sit/stand patient to lower the blood pressure

You are treating a patient with iontophoresis using Dexamethasone. Dexamethasone is a negatively charged medication. Which electrode should you use to drive the medication into the area? A. Negative B. Positive C. No charge D. We don't' use dexamethasone with iontophoresis

A. Negative

Which of the following is an example of a closed chain exercise of the upper extremity? A. Push-up B. Bicep curl using bar bells C. Spring-loaded grip strengthener D. Using the wall pulley to simulate a tennis serve

A. Push-up

List two characteristics or application principles related to interferential electrotherapy as described in lecture or in the course's texts. A. Results in cloverleaf/crossing pattern treatment area and utilizes two different medium frequencies B. Penetrates deeply and is also known as "burst" C. Penetrates superficially and is also known as "beat" D. Utilized to deliver ionic medication

A. Results in cloverleaf/crossing pattern treatment area and utilizes two different medium frequencies

The semicircular canals of the vestibular system would contribute the most to balance control during which of the following activities? A. Standing and quickly turning the head to look at a person B. Sitting in a chair reading a newspaper C. Standing on a bus that suddenly accelerates forward D. Standing on an elevator that suddenly accelerates downward

A. Standing and quickly turning the head to look at a person

Which of the following PNF bilateral upper extremity pattern activities most effectively facilitates sagittal plane trunk flexion and extension? A. Symmetrical B. Asymmetrical C. Reciprocal D. Crossed Diagonal

A. Symmetrical

The physical therapist assistant is utilizing NMES with a patient that has hemiplegia. Wrist extension with finger extension is the desired response. The electrodes (both 1" x 1") are placed on the dorsal surface of the forearm; one at the muscle belly and one at the wrist. When the intensity for NMES is increased enough to observe a response, the wrist extends and the fist clenches tightly. What is the most likely reason the finger flexors were stimulated? A. The depth of current penetration beyond the desired amount. B. There is increased tissue impedance. C. The use of same-sized electrodes. D. The placement of electrodes too close to each other.

A. The depth of current penetration beyond the desired amount.

What is one primary benefit of using the rate of perceived exertion (RPE)? A. The patient monitors his own exercise intensity level. B. There is no need to use other methods of monitoring the patient. C. By adding "10" to the rating, the number will approximate measured heart rate. D. Manual resistance strengthening exercise can be progressed appropriately.

A. The patient monitors his own exercise intensity level.

Which of the following is not part of the "Sternal Precautions" for patients who've had a CABG? A. The patient should log roll and push themselves up with their arms to get out of bed. B. The patient should avoid holding their breath C. The patient should use a pillow to "brace" their chest when coughing/sneezing. D. Avoid any overhead motions with the arms requiring greater than 90 degrees of movement.

A. The patient should log roll and push themselves up with their arms to get out of bed.

Which of the following is a correct statement about the rehabilitation guidelines of a patient who is receiving conservative treatment following an MI? A. Their heart may not be as responsive as normal to aerobic exercise because they're on a beta blocker. B. The patient should be taught to use a pillow to brace their chest while coughing. C. A rolling walker should not be used with this patient population. D. Exercise in the acute care setting should include isometric exercises of the small muscle groups

A. Their heart may not be as responsive as normal to aerobic exercise because they're on a beta blocker.

Which of the following conditions is not identified as a contraindication or precaution to TENS? A. Treatment before wound debridement. B. Pregnancy C. Cardiac disease D. Treatment of the anterior neck.

A. Treatment before wound debridement.

The treatment plan for a patient using iontophoresis states that the patient will receive 12 treatments of iontophoresis for 30 milliamp minutes. Which one of the following treatment set-ups would most closely fit this plan? (Number of minutes x milliamps = milliamp minutes) A. Twenty minutes of iontophoresis at 1.5milliamps B. Thirty minutes of iontophoresis at 2 milliamps C. Fifteen minutes of iontophoresis at 1.75 milliamps D. Twenty minutes of iontophoresis at 3 milliamps

A. Twenty minutes of iontophoresis at 1.5milliamps

You are treating a child with developmental delays. The child is currently crawling. The next developmental step is: A. Kneeling B. Creeping C. Half-kneeling D. Cruising

B. Creeping

When a patient exhibits an antalgic gait due to right hip pain, which of the following pair of gait deviations are most likely to occur? A. Decreased stance time on the right and decreased step length on the right B. Decreased stance time on the right and decreased step length on the left C. Increased stance time on the right and increased step length on the right D. Increased stance time on the right and increased step length on the left

B. Decreased stance time on the right and decreased step length on the left

One of the takeaways from our Turnstone tour was: A. People with disabilities are very limited regarding participation in therapies, sports and recreation, and community activities B. Don't prejudge that people with disabilities can't participate as you can almost always find an activity for anyone despite their disability C. Always use "disability first" language so that the first thing you know about someone is what type of disability they have. D. You should always separate students with and without a disability in early education classes for a more inclusive environment

B. Don't prejudge that people with disabilities can't participate as you can almost always find an activity for anyone despite their disability

Which of the following does not use electrical stimulation, but allows the patient to monitor the muscle activity and learn to recognize the desired response? A. Russian stimulation for quadriceps strengthening B. EMG biofeedback to reduce upper trapezius activity in shoulder flexion C. Shortwave diathermy for increased lumbar extensor flexibility D. Iontophoresis to decrease plantar fasciitis

B. EMG biofeedback to reduce upper trapezius activity in shoulder flexion

Galvanotaxis is the movement of cells in response to the electrical field. With regard to wound healing, the following types of cells move to an injured healing area because they carry a charge EXCEPT for? A. Neutrophils B. Fat Cells C. Macrophages D. Fibroblasts

B. Fat Cells

Why would a "ramp time" be utilized in electrotherapy treatment? A. Allows for instantaneous increase and decrease of force B. Greatly assists in patient comfort C. Allows for decreased stimulation of muscle fibers D. Allows for the needed response of accumulation

B. Greatly assists in patient comfort

You are designing an exercise program for a patient with a history of hypertension. Which of the following types of exercise is associated with the highest risk of causing an increase in blood pressure during exercise? A. Isokinetic exercise at medium to fast velocities B. High-effort isometric exercise C. Muscle setting exercises D. Low-effort dynamic resistance exercise

B. High-effort isometric exercise

For a patient with Trendelenburg sign, which of the following exercises needs to be part of the home exercise program? A. Bridging performed in supine B. Hip abduction with hip and knee extended in side lying C. Closed chain terminal knee extension on each leg D. All fours and lifting each arm with opposite leg

B. Hip abduction with hip and knee extended in side lying

Which two muscle groups tend to be shortened if a patient has weak abdominals and an increased anterior tilt in standing? A. Obliques and lumbar extensors B. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors C. Hip extensors and hip abductors D. Hip abductors and hip external rotators

B. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

Many TENS units provide a modulation mode. What is the purpose of the modulation mode in TENS units? A. It provide bursts of intense electrical nerve stimulation in order to perform painful procedures like debridement. B. It alters one or two parameters of the treatment in order to decrease adaptation/accommodation. C. It uses a high amplitude in order to produce a muscle contraction. D. It introduces an intense noxious stimulus for a very brief, tolerable period of time.

B. It alters one or two parameters of the treatment in order to decrease adaptation/accommodation.

Which of the following is true of IFC? A. It is produced by the interference of two frequencies running parallel to each other B. It is produced by the interference of two medium frequency alternating currents with slightly different frequencies C. It is delivered from one set of electrodes from the same channel in a different stimulator D. It is used in iontophoresis

B. It is produced by the interference of two medium frequency alternating currents with slightly different frequencies

Which of the following terms is defined as "the sway boundaries in which an individual can maintain equilibrium without changing his/her base of support"? A. Center of Mass B. Limits of Stability C. Limits of Pressure D. Center of Gravity

B. Limits of Stability

The closed loop model of feedback is all of the following EXCEPT: A. Where sensory information influences future motor actions B. Movement is performed without feedback - errors are detected after the fact (i.e. baseball pitch) C. Sensory information is used as feedback to the nervous systems to provide assistance with the next action D. Performance can be improved with practice

B. Movement is performed without feedback - errors are detected after the fact (i.e. baseball pitch)

What is the primary goal for the use of "Russian" current? A. Pain control B. Muscle Strengthening C. Edema control D. Tissue repair

B. Muscle Strengthening

Tom C. experienced multiple fractures of both upper and lower extremities in a MVA 1 week ago. Which type of exercises could most be easily implemented at bedside? A. Closed chain exercises B. Open chain exercises C. Isokinetic exercises D. DAPRE method

B. Open chain exercises

What level of prevention is being practiced if the objective is to decrease the duration and/or severity of the illness/disease while limiting the number sequent issues due to prompt recognition and intervention? A. Primary Prevention B. Secondary Prevention C. Tertiary Prevention D. Rehabilitation

B. Secondary Prevention

You are treating a patient with pulmonary issues. The plan of care includes postural drainage to the anterior segments of the upper lobes. What is the best position to place this patient in for postural drainage? A. Prone B. Supine C. Sidelying D. Sitting

B. Supine

With set-up of iontophoresis at a specific site, which of the following needs to be considered? A. Whether to use one or four electrodes B. The polarity of the medication C. Use of high amplitude AC current D. The fact that the drug/medication will penetrate up to 2 centimeters

B. The polarity of the medication

What is the Oxford Technique in resistive training? A. A variation of the DAPRE technique B. The reverse DeLorme technique C. An isometric strengthening technique D. An approach that includes "Russian" electrotherapy current

B. The reverse DeLorme technique

Which statement is true about D1 extension and D2 flexion? A. The wrist is flexed for both components B. The wrist is extended for both components. C. The wrist is extended with the shoulder adducted D. The wrist is flexed with the shoulder abducted

B. The wrist is extended for both components.

When working with a patient that you feel may be suffering from depression, which of the following is not a common physical sign or symptom, that you may observe. A. Persistent joint pain B. Unilateral neurologic symptoms of unknown cause C. Significantly increased muscular tension D. Limited trunk rotation

B. Unilateral neurologic symptoms of unknown cause

In neurodevelopmental treatment (NDT), Key Points of Control are A. The heel, knee, hip, and shoulder B. Where therapists lay their hands from which movement can be facilitated or inhibited C. Places designated in the therapy gym in which the client transitions D. Parts of the clients' body that control the majority of their movement in a synergistic pattern

B. Where therapists lay their hands from which movement can be facilitated or inhibited

Which of the following statements is true about a normal response to exercise? A. Cardiac Index is calculated by multiplying stroke volume x HR and can increase up to 5-6 times more than normal. B. With increasing workload, systolic BP should rise proportionally, while diastolic remains relatively constant. C. Coronary blood flow can double and is calculated by utilizing the Rate Pressure Product D. Heart rate will increase proportionally with workload while respirations remain relatively constant

B. With increasing workload, systolic BP should rise proportionally, while diastolic remains relatively constant.

The PTA is to create an exercise program using the DeLorme Technique and the 10 RM is 4 lbs. What would be the proper sequence of weight use with 10 repetitions with each weight? A. 4 lbs, 3 lbs, and 2 lbs B. 1 lb, 2 lbs, and 4 lbs C. 2 lbs, 3 lbs, and 4 lbs D. 2 lbs, 4 lbsd, and 6 lbs

C. 2 lbs, 3 lbs, and 4 lbs

When assessing pelvic and lumbar position in relation to the length and tension of the hamstrings, hip flexors/extensors, and core musculature, the PTA will often find muscle imbalances. Which of the following option correctly combines the bony alignment with the muscle imbalances that create the problem? A. Anterior pelvic tilt caused by tight lumbar extensors and tight hamstrings. B. Posterior pelvic tilt caused by tight hamstrings and tight iliopsoas. C. Anterior pelvic tilt caused by tight iliopsoas and long hamstrings D. Posterior pelvic tilt caused by tight rectus abdominus and long gluteus maximum

C. Anterior pelvic tilt caused by tight iliopsoas and long hamstrings

In addition to the center of gravity between the hands and the feet, what else accurately describes the plantigrade position? A. Both hands WB on a tabletop or counter; both feet WB on the floor. B. Half-kneel with one hand WB through contact with the floor. C. Both hands WB on the floor; both feet WB on the floor. D. Half-kneel with both hands WB on the raised (forward) knee

C. Both hands WB on the floor; both feet WB on the floor.

You work in a local physical therapy clinic. You are providing services to a 14 year old male who recently broke his leg. During the course of treatment, you notice the patient rubbing his back and noting that it is sore. You ask him what happened. He states "Oh, my Dad and I got in another fight". You check his back and he has two large bruises, one at the base of his spine and one near his right scapula. What do you do? Choose the best answer. A. Ignore it. All families have issues and family issues are not the concern of the therapist. B. Call the patients father and ask him what happened C. Call a social worker to help determine the next steps D. Call the police as it's obvious that abuse has taken place

C. Call a social worker to help determine the next steps

Which of the following are PNF techniques designed to increase range of motion? A. Slow reversal and slow reversal hold B. Alternating isometrics and rhythmic stabilization C. Contract-relax and hold relax D. Quick stretch and manual contacts

C. Contract-relax and hold relax

Which two upper extremity diagonal components include forearm supination? A. D1 flexion and D1 extension B. D2 flexion and D2 extension C. D1 flexion and D2 flexion D. D1 extension and D2 extension

C. D1 flexion and D2 flexion

Which modality uses pulsed electrostatic energy to create a field between the therapists hands (or applicator the therapist uses) and the affected area? A. Interferential Current B. NMES C. HIVAMAT D. HVPC

C. HIVAMAT

A physical therapist is establishing a treatment plan for a patient including iontophoresis. Which of the following statements is based on the washing principle (or wash-out concept)? A. Alcohol should not be used to clean and prep the electrode sites. B. Alcohol should be used to clean and prep the electrode sites. C. Modalities and ionto intensity that increases circulation should be avoided. D. Analgesic medication should be used in conjunction with the therapeutic medication.

C. Modalities and ionto intensity that increases circulation should be avoided.

Which of the following PNF bilateral upper extremity activities most effectively facilitates normal arm swing? A. Symmetrical B. Asymmetrical C. Reciprocal D. Crossed Diagonal

C. Reciprocal

The action potential for a motor neuron has the same amplitude regardless of the strength of the stimulus. A clinician increases the strength of the electrical current in order to observe a greater response from the muscle. What principle is the clinician using in order to get a better contraction? A. Absolute refractory period B. Local excitatory response C. Recruitment of additional motor units D. Resting membrane potential

C. Recruitment of additional motor units

Which of the following is a correct statement about the rehabilitation guidelines of a patient who is receiving conservative treatment following an CABG? A. The blood flow to the heart has been reestablished so warm-up and cool-down periods are not necessary with aerobic exercise. B. The patient should be taught to use a log rolling technique to get out of bed. C. Right after surgery, Hand Hold Assistance (HHA) and use of a gait belt placed above the chest tubes is the preferred method of gait training. D. During cardiac rehabilitation, intensity of an exercise should be increased before the duration of an exercise.

C. Right after surgery, Hand Hold Assistance (HHA) and use of a gait belt placed above the chest tubes is the preferred method of gait training.

While working in an acute care hospital, you have been schedule to work on the bariatric unit. Your first patient of the day has a short term goal of transferring bed to chair minA with a bariatric FWW. Before beginning the transfer training, you have been instructed by the PT to complete an Egress Test. This test includes? A. Blood pressure, Pulse, and Respiration B. Rolling, Supine to Sit, and Scooting C. Sit to stands, March in Place, and Step forward and back D. Sit steady, Stand steady and sway steady

C. Sit to stands, March in Place, and Step forward and back

The Romberg Test measures: A. Anticipatory balance control. B. Reactive balance control. C. Static balance control. D. Dynamic balance control.

C. Static balance control.

Compare and contrast muscle activity in a standard push-up beginning in the "down" position with muscle activity in a bench-press beginning with the bar in the down position Which of the following statements is most correct? A. The push-up begins with an eccentric contraction and the bench-press begins with an eccentric contraction. B. Both exercises can strengthen using the DeLorme technique. C. The push-up requires an isometric contraction of the trunk and lower extremities D. The push- up begins and ends with an isokinetic contraction

C. The push-up requires an isometric contraction of the trunk and lower extremities

Compare and contrast muscle activity in a standard push-up beginning in the "down" position with muscle activity in a bench-press beginning with the bar in the down position. Which of the following statements is most correct? A. The push-up begins with an eccentric contraction and the bench-press begins with an eccentric contraction B. Both exercises can strengthen using the DeLorme technique C. The push-up requires an isometric contraction of the trunk and lower extremities D. The push-up begins and ends with an isokinetic contraction

C. The push-up requires an isometric contraction of the trunk and lower extremities

In reference to "accommodation" with electrical stimulation all of the following statements are true EXCEPT...? A. A nerve gradually becomes less responsive to stimulation​ B. Stimulus of sufficient amplitude and duration that usually produces a response no longer does so C. Occurs with a slow rate of current rise D. A nerve becomes more responsive to stimulation

D. A nerve becomes more responsive to stimulation

PNF elements/sensory components include: A. Slow reversal, agonistic reversal and hold relax B. D1, D2, flexion, extension, UE, LE C. Symmetrical, asymmetrical, crossed diagonals, reciprocal D. Approximation, manual contacts, and resistance

D. Approximation, manual contacts, and resistance

The body systems react, adapt, and develop in response to forces and physical stresses placed on them. All the following stresses help the body to develop and maintain a functional level of strength except: A. Gravity B. Weight-bearing C. Therapeutic exercise D. Bed Rest

D. Bed Rest

Two major theories presented in the introduction to electrotherapy lecture on why pain suppression through transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) occurs are: A. Open Loop and Closed Loop Theories B. Electrically Induced Morphine and Opiate Theory C. Low Rate Versus High-Rate Theories D. Gate Control and Opioid Release Theories

D. Gate Control and Opioid Release Theories

Which of the following is a true statement about the core? A. The core is comprised of the respiratory diaphragm, internal/external intercostals, and the pelvic floor. B. The desired firing pattern of muscles is peripheral first, followed by core. C. Because humans are upright most of the day, it's good to begin training the pelvic floor muscles in sitting upright and then progress to standing. D. Gluteal and abdominal contractions should be avoided when practicing pelvic floor strengthening because they increase intra abdominal pressure.

D. Gluteal and abdominal contractions should be avoided when practicing pelvic floor strengthening because they increase intra abdominal pressure.

Which two muscle groups are most at risk for becoming shortened due to prolonged w/c sitting with both feet placed on footrests? A. Hip flexors and knee extensors B. Knee flexors and ankle plantar flexors C. Hip extensors and knee extensors D. Hip flexors and knee flexors

D. Hip flexors and knee flexors

Each of the following is characteristic of DOMS except: A. Tends to peak 48-72 hours after the conclusion of high-intensity exercise. B. Tends to peak 48-72 hours after the conclusion of high-intensity exercise. C. Occurs more frequently after eccentric exercise than isometric exercise. D. Is believed to be caused by post exercise muscle spasm.

D. Is believed to be caused by post exercise muscle spasm.

Which of the following therapeutic interventions were listed in the Manske text, for use in the "Day 3 - 14" period of recovery for Total Knee Arthroplasty rehab guidelines? A. Progressive advanced isokinetic and isotonic exercise B. Stair climbing C. Closed kinetic chain and plyometric exercise D. NMES and isometrics

D. NMES and isometrics

After evaluating an in-patient who was referred for cardiac rehab, the physical therapist asks you to perform exercises with this patient at a 2-3 MET level on the cardiac floor where the patient is on telemetry. Which of the following activities is the most appropriate for a 2-3 MET level? A. Walking down the hall 60 ft.at 2 mph and climbing one flight of stairs using hand rail. B. Isometric exercises of arms and legs x 10 reps in sitting and cycling at 8 mph. C. Walking down the hall 60 ft. (4 mph) and performing exercise with theraband to arms/legs. D. Performing isotonic exercises of the legs in sitting and walking down hall 60 ft at 2 mph

D. Performing isotonic exercises of the legs in sitting and walking down hall 60 ft at 2 mph

The primary goal in utilizing postural drainage techniques is: A. Prevent patient muscle wasting and pulmonary airway opening B. Improve patient circulation and ability to utilize suctioning C. Improve patient functional independence and mobility D. Prevent accumulation of secretions and remove accumulated secretions

D. Prevent accumulation of secretions and remove accumulated secretions

Which of the following statements accurately describes the response elicited in plyometric exercises? A. Quick stretch followed by an isometric contraction B. Slow, controlled concentric contraction followed by a slow eccentric contraction C. Concentric contraction followed by a sustained isometric contraction D. Rapid eccentric contraction followed by a rapid concentric contraction

D. Rapid eccentric contraction followed by a rapid concentric contraction

Select the proper progression of fine motor development from early to later. A. Voluntary grasp, hand regard, three jaw chuck B. Inferior pincer, transferring objects, true voluntary release C. Radial digital grasp, superior pincer grasp, inferior pincer grasp D. Reflexive grasp, hand regard, voluntary grasp

D. Reflexive grasp, hand regard, voluntary grasp

What is the best way to ensure that a patient understands and is able to perform his home exercise program? A. Relate the exercises to desired functional outcomes. B. Demonstrate all exercises to the patient. C. Provide the patient with a written copy of the home exercises. D. Require the patient to perform a return demonstration of the exercises.

D. Require the patient to perform a return demonstration of the exercises.

When assisting a patient from supine to sitting, the PTA notes rigidity in the patient's legs which make it difficult to flex his hips and knees. He does not lack hip or knee range of motion. What is the most appropriate combination of PNF interventions to address Mr. Jones' problems and to promote normal tone and movement? A. Soft verbal commands and rhythmic stabilization in LE D1 position. B. Upper extremity crossed diagonal patterns using slow reversals. C. Contract-relax techniques to increase hip flexion range of motion D. Rhythmic rotation and rhythmic initiation in unilateral LE D1 and D2 patterns.

D. Rhythmic rotation and rhythmic initiation in unilateral LE D1 and D2 patterns.

What two main types of automatic reactions are the basis for mature and higher level motor responses (i.e. balance and coordination)? A. Tonic reflexes and righting reactions B. Righting and parachute reactions C. Equilibrium reactions and Landau reaction D. Righting reactions and equilibrium reactions

D. Righting reactions and equilibrium reactions

Secondary to a diagnosis of Muscular Dystrophy, a twenty-year-old patient has poor (2/5) abdominal strength and an impaired cough mechanism. The patient is able to assume and maintain all developmental postures except standing. Which of the following positions will be most effective for facilitating a self-assisted cough? A. Sidelying on either side B. Supine with one or no pillows under the head and shoulders C. Sitting with the back of the chair reclined at a 45* back from vertical D. Sitting with the back of the chair vertical

D. Sitting with the back of the chair vertical

During the swing-through phase of the gait cycle, a person with loss of anterior tibilalis (Trace [1/5] grade) will accommodate by using which of the following deviations to clear the foot? A. Abductor lurch B. Genu recurvatum C. Foot slap D. Steppage Gait

D. Steppage Gait

Which of the following is NOT a key indicator of when a patient with a cardiac history should discontinue exercise? A. Increased HR greater than maximum desired B. Chest pain C. Extreme dyspnea D. Systolic BP over 190 mmHg and diastolic BP over 90 mmHg

D. Systolic BP over 190 mmHg and diastolic BP over 90 mmHg

Select the true statement about TENS. A. If the unit allows one or two channels, both channels are managed with one intensity dial. B. Setting the electrodes up on the back in a cross or "X" pattern results in interferential current. C. Depending on dosage and wave forms available, a TENS unit may be used for iontophoresis. D. TENS is a pain management system and does not address the root cause of the pain.

D. TENS is a pain management system and does not address the root cause of the pain.

For which of the following positive tests would the patient be placed prone in order to target and stretch the shortened tissue? A. The Thompson Test B. The 90:90 or SLR (straight leg raise) Test C. The Ober Test D. The Ely Test

D. The Ely Test

Of the following, which is the best definition of an "8 RM"? A. The number of repetitions of a particular exercise a patient can perform in 8 seconds against a specific load B. The number of sets of a specific exercise a patient can perform for 8 repetitions C. The greatest amount of resistance a patient can lift or lower through the available ROM in 8 seconds D. The greatest amount of resistance a patient can lift or lower through the available ROM for 8 repetitions

D. The greatest amount of resistance a patient can lift or lower through the available ROM for 8 repetitions

What does the term "10 RM" describe or represent? A. The maximum number of repetitions that one can lift 10 pounds B. The maximum number of repetitions that one can lift 10% of their body weight C. The maximum amount of weight that one can lift for three sets of 10 repetitions D. The maximum amount of weight that one can lift 10 times

D. The maximum amount of weight that one can lift 10 times

What is the major disadvantage of any isometric exercise? A. Establishing an isometric program is a complex and time-consuming task. B. During isometric exercise the movement occurs at an equal constant velocity. C. The performance of an isometric exercise program requires the assistance of an additional person. D. The strengthening occurs within a narrow range of the joint angle at which the resistance was applied

D. The strengthening occurs within a narrow range of the joint angle at which the resistance was applied

What term is used to describe "an active process where people become aware of, and make choices toward, a more successful existence? A. Health B. Stability C. Quality of Life D. Wellness

D. Wellness


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