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When a patient has to pay a set amount before his or her insurance benefits become effective, it is known as which of the following? A.Deductible B.Plan limitation C.Co-payment D.Prior authorization
A. Deductible Explanation: A deductible is when a patient has to pay a set amount before his or her insurance benefits become effective. A prior authorization is when an insurance company requires a prescriber to state why they ordered a particular drug for a patient before the insurance company will cover the drug. A co-payment is when a patient is required to pay a portion of their prescription drug expense. A plan limitation is when an insurance company will only allow a set quantity of medication per month.
Which of the following would be considered a valid DEA number for Dr. Clyde Watson? A.BW2869874 B.AW8119324 C.DW7789129 D.CW3421936
A.BW2869874 When checking a DEA number, you can quickly tell if a physician's DEA is valid by the first two letters, as the first letter should always be an A, B, or F, and the second letter should always be the first letter of the prescriber's last name. If the alpha characters do not eliminate any answers, then you will need to verify the numeric characters. To do this, you will start by adding the first, third, and fifth number (2 + 6 + 8 = 16). Then, you will add the second, fourth, and sixth number and multiply the sum by 2 (8 + 9 + 7 = 24; 24 × 2 = 48). Next, you will add the two sums (16 + 48 = 64), and the last digit (4) should be the last number of the DEA number.
f an individual is suffering from nasal congestion, which drug will he or she most likely take? A.Pseudoephedrine B.Divalproex C.Amoxapine D.Fluvoxamine
A.Pseudoephedrine Explanation: Pseudoephedrine is an example of a decongestant and is used to relieve nasal congestion. Amoxapine is an example of an antianxiety agent and is used to treat anxiety and panic disorders. Fluvoxamine is an example of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and is used to treat depression and obsessive-compulsive disorders. Divalproex is an example of a bipolar agent and is used to treat bipolar disease.
There are five categories of stocked pharmacy drugs. Which category of stocked pharmacy drugs are the drugs that must be checked periodically to make sure that they are not close to expiring? A.Slow mover B.Time of year C.Formulary D.Fast mover
A.Slow mover Explanation: Slow mover is the category of stocked pharmacy drugs that must be checked periodically to make sure that they are not close to expiring. Slow movers are the drugs that are rarely prescribed. Formulary is the category of stocked pharmacy drugs that are stocked based on a hospital's pharmacy and therapeutics committee's approval. Fast mover is the category of stocked pharmacy drugs that are generally kept separate in a pharmacy due to their high volume of use. Time of year is the category of stocked pharmacy drugs that are ordered more frequently during particular time periods.
Which pharmacy reference book is available in electronic, mobile application, and online formats to provide information on parenteral agents such as products, administration, stability, and compatibility with infusion solutions? A.Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs B.American Drug Index C.Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics D.Martindale's The Complete Drug Reference
A.Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs explanation: Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs is the pharmacy reference book that is available in electronic, mobile application, and online formats to provide information on parenteral agents, such as products, administration, stability, and compatibility with infusion solutions. Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics is the pharmacy reference book that is available in an electronic format and a mobile application to provide information on pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, drug transport and drug transporters, drug metabolism pharmacogenomics, and principles of therapeutics in all areas of the body system. American Drug Index is the pharmacy reference book that is available in an electronic format to provide information on the manufacturer's names, pronunciation of drug names, active ingredients, dosage forms, strengths, packaging and uses, drugs that should not be crushed or chewed, look-alike or sound-alike drugs, storage requirements for USP drugs, trademark glossary, and normal laboratory values. Martindale's The Complete Drug Reference is the pharmacy reference book that is available in an electronic format to provide information on selected investigational and veterinary drugs, herbal and complementary medicines, pharmaceutical excipients, vitamins and nutritional agents, vaccines, radiopharmaceuticals, contrast media and diagnostic agents, medicinal gases, drugs of abuse and recreational drugs, toxic substances, disinfectants, and pesticides.
Which piece of community pharmacy automation uses bar codes to read prescription labels in order to pull and dispense the appropriate drug from its cassettes? A.MedCarousel B.Baker Cell C.Robot-Rx D.Kirby Lester
B. Baker Cell Explanation: Baker Cell is a piece of community pharmacy automation that uses bar codes to read prescription labels in order to pull and dispense the appropriate drug from its cassettes. Robot-Rx is a piece of hospital pharmacy automation that reads a patient's medication record using a bar code reader, pulls the appropriate medication using a bar code reader, and packages the medication to be delivered to the appropriate floor. MedCarousel is a piece of hospital pharmacy automation that uses rotating shelves, pick-to-light technology, and bar code scanning to dispense medications and control inventory. Kirby Lester is a piece of community pharmacy automation that uses a touch screen and a scanning system to count and verify every medication order
Which of the following is the type of result for a Category C medication error? A.Error, death B.Error, no harm C.No error D.Error, harm
B. Error, no harm Explanation: ategory C medication error results in "Error, no harm," along with Categories B and D. Category C medication error occurs when the patient received the medication but was not harmed. Category A results in "No error." Categories E, F, G, and H result in "Error, harm." Category I results in "Error, death."
The FDA approves drugs once they go through the four clinical trial phases and proves to be safe and effective. Which phase analyzes and collects data on the side effects experienced by those taking the drug? A.Phase 3 B.Phase 2 C.Phase 1 D.Post-marketing surveillance
B. Phase 2 Explanation: Phase 2 of the clinical trials analyzes and collects data on the side effects experienced by those taking the drug. Phase 2 is conducted on 40 to 300 individuals who have the indications that the drug is made to treat. Phase 1 of the clinical trials analyzes and collects data on the bioavailability of the drug and the dose required to produce a response. Phase 3 of the clinical trials analyzes the risks and benefits associated with taking the drug. The post-marketing surveillance phase of the clinical trials determines if drugs should remain on the market or removed.
Which of the following best describes a prime vendor? A.Manufacturer B. Wholesaler C.Pharmacy D.Hospital
B. Wholesaler explanation: A prime vendor, or primary vendor, is a wholesaler. The wholesaler stocks drugs from various manufacturers, and the pharmacy or the hospital purchases their inventory from the wholesaler.
Workers' compensation is an insurance plan for which of the following? A.Senior citizens B.Individuals injured on the job C.Military personnel and their families D.Families of veterans who are disabled due to service-related injuries
B. individuals injured on the job Explanation: Workers' compensation is an insurance plan for individuals injured on the job. Workers' compensation is paid by employers and is required by federal law. CHAMPVA is for families of veterans who are disabled due to service-related injuries. TRICARE is an insurance plan for military personnel and their families. Medicare is for senior citizens.
Which potassium-sparing diuretic drugs increase one's urinary sodium and decrease the urinary potassium by blocking the individual's sodium-potassium exchange? A.Eplerenone and amiloride B.Triamterene and amiloride C.Triamterene and spironolactone D.Eplerenone and spironolactone
B.Triamterene and amiloride Explanation: Triamterene and amiloride are potassium-sparing diuretic drugs that increase one's urinary sodium and decrease the urinary potassium by blocking the individual's sodium-potassium exchange. Potassium-sparing diuretics are used to treat hypertension and heart failure. Eplerenone and spironolactone are potassium-sparing diuretic drugs that antagonize an individual's aldosterone receptors.
Medicaid is funded by which of the following? A. State government B. Federal and Country government C. Federal and state government D. Federal government
C. Federal and state government Explanation: federal and state government fund Medicaid. The state is responsible for payment to providers. Medicaid provides with limited financial resources.
Which statement is false in regard to the schedule II controlled substance methadone (Dolophine or Methadose)? A. Pharmacy may only fill one day supplies B. It is used to treat opiate addiction C. Physician must have an X DEA number to write for methadone D. Must be administered at a doctor office or a drug treatment center
C. Physician must have an X DEA number ro write for methadone
Auxiliary labels are placed on prescription medications to help ensure proper and safe administration, use, or storage. Which dosage form would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads "SHAKE WELL"? A. Lotions B.Otic preparations C.Suspensions D.Creams
C. Suspensions Explanation: Suspension dosage forms would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads "SHAKE WELL." Creams, lotions, and ointment dosage forms would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads "FOR TOPICAL USE" or "FOR EXTERNAL USE ONLY." Otic preparations would most likely have an auxiliary label that reads "FOR THE EAR."
A pharmacy information system is a software program used by pharmacies to accomplish all except which of the following? A.Generate reports B.Manage drug inventory C.Track employee time D.Set drug prices
C. Track employee time explanation: A pharmacy information system cannot track employee time, as that would require a human resource or payroll software system. A pharmacy information system helps a pharmacy accomplish the following: Dispense orders Verify orders Maintain patient drug profiles Receive orders Facilitate bar-code drug administration Access patient charts Identify potential drug-related issues Perform drug dose checking Manage drug inventory Purchase drugs from a distributor Set drug prices Bill for drugs Generate reports Maintain compliance with HIPAA
If a drug's dose is 250 mcg/kg of body weight, how many milligrams should a 40-pound child receive? A.25 mg B.7.25 mg C.4.55 mg D.10 mg
C.4.55 mg Explanation:To solve, start by converting weight in pounds to kilograms: 40 lb x 1 kg / 2.2 lb = 18.18 kg Next, multiply the weight in kg by 250 mcg/kg to obtain the appropriate dose in micrograms: 18.18 kg x 250 mcg/kg = 4,545 mcg Then, convert mcg to mg by multiplying: 4,545 mcg x 1 mg / 1000 mcg = 4.55 mg
When making molded tablets, which ingredient can be added as a diluent base to increase the tablet's firmness when the drug does not chemically react with sugars? A.Calcium carbonate B.Bentonite C.Dextrose D.Kaolin
C.Dextrose Explanation: When making molded tablets, dextrose can be added as a diluent base to increase the tablet's firmness when the drug does not chemically react with sugars. Other diluent bases that would increase the tablet's firmness for drugs that do not chemically react to sugars are lactose, mannitol, and sucrose. Molded tablets are made using a base, an additive, and an active drug. Bentonite, kaolin, and calcium carbonate are additives that can be added to drugs that do chemically react to sugars.
All except which of the following pieces of information are required on a medication order label? A.Patient's name B.Drug's trade or generic name C.Pharmacy's address D.Route of administration
C.Pharmacy's address Explanation: The pharmacy's address is a piece of information required on a prescription label, but it is not required on a medication order label. The following information is required on a medication order label: Patient's name, medical record number, and room number Drug's trade or generic name Drug's strength Dosage form Route of administration Dose Quantity of drug (if it is for an outpatient) Dosing interval
If you wanted to make 5,000 terbinafine tablets, each containing 250 mcg of terbinafine, how many grams of terbinafine would you need? A.25.0 g B.2.5 g C.12.5 g D.1.25 g
D. 1.25g Explanation: In order to solve this problem, you would multiply 250 mcg/tablet by 5,000 tablets: 250 × 5,000 = 1,250,000 Then, you would need to divide 1,250,000 by 1,000,000 mcg/g: 1,250,000/1,000,000 = 1.25 g
f you have 1 L of a 1:150 solution, how many grams do you have? A.666.7 g B.0.67 g C.66.7 g D.6.67 g
D. 6.67 g To solve, start by converting the 1:150 ratio to a fraction (1/150) and convert it to a decimal (0.00667). Knowing that 1 L is equivalent to 1,000 mL, you will use the weight/volume equation to solve: 1.FV x % (decimal) = Amount of AI (g) 2.1,000 mL x 0.00667 = 6.67 g
In order for the pharmacy information system to keep track of inventory, it needs all except which of the following information? A.Received quantity B.Dispensed quantity C.Returned quantity D.Ordered quantity
D. Ordered quantity The pharmacy information system does not need the quantity ordered in order to keep track of inventory, as the ordered quantity is not inventory until it is received. In order for the pharmacy information system to keep track of inventory, all received, dispensed, and returned quantities need to be entered correctly into it.
Which of the following best describes pregnancy Category A? A.The benefits of taking the medication outweighs its risks B.The risk of taking the medication outweighs its benefits C.The medication's benefits may outweigh its risks D.The medication's use does not show any risk
D. The medication's use does not show any risk Pregnancy Category A is best described as the medication's use does not show any risk. Pregnancy Category X is best described as the risk of taking the medication outweighs its benefits. Pregnancy Category C is best described as the medication's benefits may outweigh its risks. Pregnancy Category D is best described as the benefits of taking the medication outweighs its risks.
Which of the following indications would be treated with cetirizine? A.ADHD B.Ulcers C.Phobias D.Allergies
D.Allergies Cetirizine is the generic name for Zyrtec, which is classified as an antihistamine. Antihistamines are used to treat allergies, rashes, insomnia, dizziness, and hay fever. Other drugs used to treat allergies include azelastine, budesonide, chlorpheniramine, ciclesonide, fexofenadine, and promethazine. Cetirizine is not used to treat phobias, ADHD, or ulcers
How should a frozen parenteral product be thawed? A.By placing it in a cool bath B.By placing it in an oven C.By placing it in a hot bath D.By placing it in the microwave
a. By placing it in a cool bath Explanation :A frozen parenteral product should be thawed by placing it in a cool bath. The frozen product can also be thawed by placing it on a thawing platform. Once the product is thawed, it should be marked with a new expiration date. Frozen parenteral products should never be thawed by placing them in a hot bath, in a microwave, or in an oven.
If the capsule's size is 3, what is the capsule's weight capacity? A.100 mg B.200 mg C.500 mg D.1,000 mg
b.200 explanation: A size-3 capsule has a weight capacity of 200 mg and a volume capacity of 0.3 mL. A size-5 capsule has a weight capacity of 100 mg and a volume capacity of 0.13 mL. A size-0 capsule has a weight capacity of 500 mg and a volume capacity of 0.68 mL. A size-000 capsule has a weight capacity of 1,000 mg and a volume capacity of 1.37 mL.
If an individual is having difficulty composing his or her speech, which cerebral cortex component is being affected? A.Temporal lobe B. occipital lobe C.Frontal lobe D.Parietal lobe
c. frontal lobe Explanation: The frontal lobe is the cerebral cortex component that controls an individual's speech along with his or her motor skills, emotions, and reasoning skills. The parietal lobe is the cerebral cortex component responsible for comprehending language along with one's orientation, sensation, and recognition. The occipital lobe is the cerebral cortex component related to one's perception and interpretation of vision. The temporal lobe is the cerebral cortex component responsible for one's behavior, long-term memory, and auditory stimuli.