Quiz 6

A RAID 5 configuration requires a minimum of two hard disks to operate. True False

False

A hot site consists of computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, but without appropriate configuration. True False

False

A system with an availability of 99.999% can be down for a maximum of 52 minutes per year. True False

False

An 802.11ac signal can travel for approximately 2 miles from the source. True False

False

CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) is an open standard that is accepted and used worldwide. True False

False

DSL services require many subscribers to share the same local line, causing potential security concerns. True False

False

Setting a NIC to run in promiscuous mode will allow it to see all network traffic passing through a network switch. True False

False

WANs connect nodes, such as workstations, servers, printers, and other devices, in a small geographical area on a single network. True False

False

Class of Service utilizes 8 levels of priority, and modifies the PCP field in an 802.1Q tag. True False

True

DSL signals travel over telephone lines using the 300 to 3300 Hz frequency range. True False

True

In a frame relay WAN, the ISP typically has the data circuit terminating equipment (DCE). True False

True

In a public switched telephone network, lines are terminated at the central office. True False

True

Most UNIX and Linux desktop operating systems provide a GUI application for easily viewing and filtering the information in system logs. True False

True

Most satellites circle the Earth 22,300 miles above the equator in a geosynchronous orbit. True False

True

The SNMP version 3 protocol introduces authentication, validation, and encryption for messages exchanged between devices and the network management console. True False

True

The word "synchronous" as used in the name of Synchronous Optical Network means that data being transmitted and received by nodes must conform to a timing scheme. True False

True

Wireshark or any other monitoring software running on a single computer connected to a switch doesn't see all the traffic on a network, but only the traffic the switch sends to it, which includes broadcast traffic and traffic specifically addressed to the computer. True False

True

You can find out where various logs are kept on some UNIX and Linux systems by viewing the /etc/syslog.conf or /etc/rsyslog.conf files. True False

True

What is the size of an ATM cell, including the header? a. 48 bytes b. 84 bytes c. 64 bytes d. 53 bytes

d. 53 bytes

In an ISDN connection, what amount of throughput did a single B channel provide? a. 96 Kbps b. 48 Kbps c. 32 Kbps d. 64 Kbps

d. 64 Kbps

If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day? a. .4 seconds b. 1 minute, 26 seconds c. 14 minutes, 23 seconds d. 8 seconds

d. 8 seconds

What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate? a. A NAS can typically only support RAID-0 configurations. b. A NAS reads and writes from its disks significantly slower than other types of servers. c. A NAS does not contain its own file system, rather it relies on the host file system provided by individual clients. d. A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.

d. A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.

What makes up the first 6 bits of the 8-bit DiffServ field? a. Priority Code Point (PCP) b. Class of Service (CoS) c. Forward Error Correction (FEC) d. Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)

d. Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)

A brownout is a momentary decrease in voltage; also known as a sag. True False

True

Although MPLS can operate over Ethernet frames, it is more often used with other Layer 2 protocols, like those designed for WANs. True False

True

Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels? a. 12 b. 64 c. 1 d. 24

d. 24

When using SNMP with TLS, what port do agents receive requests on? a. 10161 b. 162 c. 10162 d. 161

a. 10161

How many transponders are contained within a typical satellite? a. 24 to 32 b. 32 to 48 c. 8 to 16 d. 16 to 24

a. 24 to 32

A fractional T1's bandwidth can be leased multiples of what data rate? a. 64 Kbps b. 28 Kbps c. 32 Kbps d. 48 Kbps

a. 64 Kbps

Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today? a. ADSL b. G.Lite c. SDSL d. VDSL

a. ADSL

The DTE or endpoint device for a leased line is known as which device below? a. CSU/DSU b. ISDN modem c. cable modem d. DSL modem

a. CSU/DSU

When Comcast was found to be interfering with BitTorrent traffic, what method was being used? a. Comcast was interjecting TCP segments with the RST (reset) field set. b. Comcast used DNS poisoning to prevent clients from talking to other BitTorrent users. c. Comcast used IP spoofing to impersonate other BitTorrent clients, then dropped traffic. d. Comcast was creating access lists that blocked known BitTorrent trackers.

a. Comcast was interjecting TCP segments with the RST (reset) field set.

A differential backup covers what data on a system? a. It includes data that has changed since the last full backup. b. It includes only data that has changed since the last backup. c. It includes data that has changed since the last incremental backup. d. It includes all data every time it is performed.

a. It includes data that has changed since the last full backup.

Which type of DSL technology has equal download and upload speeds maxing out at around 2 Mbps? a. SDSL b. HDSL c. VDSL d. ADSL2+

a. SDSL

What is the maximum throughput of a DS3 connection? a. 3.152 Mbps b. 1.544 Mbps c. 44.736 Mbps d. 274.176 Mbps

c. 44.736 Mbps

What happens when an NMS uses the SNMP walk command? a. The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database. b. The NMS requests a list of all active SNMP traps on the system. c. The NMS sends a request for data to the agent on a managed device. d. The NMS walks through a list of given SNMP hosts.

a. The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database.

When viewing a syslog message, what does a level of 0 indicate? a. The message is an emergency situation on the system. b. The message is an error condition on the system. c. The message represents debug information. d. The message is a warning condition on the system.

a. The message is an emergency situation on the system.

In a cellular network, where does each wireless base station connect to? a. They connect to a mobile switching center. b. They connect to a wireless station repeater. c. They connect directly to the central office. d. They connect to other wireless base stations, then to the central office.

a. They connect to a mobile switching center.

The grouping of multiple servers so that they appear as a single device to the rest of the network is known as which term? a. clustering b. server overloading c. link aggregating d. load balancing

a. clustering

Each managed object on a managed device using SNMP is assigned which of the following? a. object identifier (OID) b. TCP/UDP port c. inode number d. process ID

a. object identifier (OID)

Which type of uninterruptible power supply uses AC power to continuously charge its battery, while also providing power to devices through the battery? a. online UPS b. line conditioning UPS c. surge UPS d. standby UPS

a. online UPS

Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below? a. runts b. ghosts c. giants d. jabbers

a. runts

What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit, then terminated after the transmission is complete? a. switched virtual circuit (SVC) b. permanent virtual circuit (PVC) c. dynamic virtual circuit (DVC) d. looping virtual circuit (LVC)

a. switched virtual circuit (SVC)

You are attempting to determine how available your Linux systems are, and need to find the current system uptime. What command should you use? a. uptime b. display stats c. lastboot d. show runtime

a. uptime

The C-Band utilized by satellites consists of what frequency range? a. 1.5 - 2.7 GHz b. 3.4 - 6.7 GHz c. 2.7 - 3.5 GHz d. 12 - 18 GHz

b. 3.4 - 6.7 GHz

A highly available server is available what percentage of the time? a. 90% b. 99.999% c. 99.99% d. 99%

b. 99.999%

Which statement regarding the Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) technology is accurate? a. ATM is highly dependent on predetermined schemes that specify the timing of data transmissions. b. ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission. c. In ATM, a message is called a frame and always consists of 1500 bytes of data. d. ATM is a point-to-multipoint WAN access technology that uses packet switching.

b. ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission.

In North America, what ISDN connection type used two B channels and one D channel? a. Bearer Rate Interface (BRI) b. Basic Rate Interface (BRI) c. Primary Rate Interface (PRI) d. Dedicated Rate Interface (DRI)

b. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol? a. Intra-city Ethernet b. Carrier Ethernet Transport c. Metro Carrier Transport d. Ethernet SONET

b. Carrier Ethernet Transport

Which of the following statements describes a RAID 0 configuration? a. In a RAID 0, data is mirrored on multiple disks to provide fault tolerance. b. In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance. c. In a RAID 0, data is striped across three or more drives, with parity information added to the data. d. In a RAID 0, four or more disks are used to mirror data within each pair of disks, and then striped to multiple pairs of disks.

b. In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance.

What Storage Area Network (SAN) protocol runs on top of TCP, and can be used on an existing twisted-pair Ethernet network, while maintaining low cost? a. InfiniBand (IB) b. Internet SCSI (iSCSI) c. Fibre Channel (FC) d. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)

b. Internet SCSI (iSCSI)

In a public switched telephone network, what portion of the network is known as the local loop? a. It is the inside wire within the residence or business that connects to the NIU. b. It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office. c. It is the portion of the network between the NIU and the remote switching facility. d. It is the portion of the network from the remote switching facility to the central office.

b. It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office.

What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone, and occasionally by very large hospitals, universities, or other major enterprises? a. OC-3 b. OC-48 c. OC-12 d. OC-96

b. OC-48

With a SIP trunk, what is the only limitation on the number of calls that can run at any one time? a. The total number of SIP bearer channels provisioned on the SIP switch. b. The amount of available bandwidth. c. The maximum number of channels available on the transmission medium. d. The total number of time division slots allocated to the SIP client organization.

b. The amount of available bandwidth.

In planning for disaster recovery, what is the ultimate goal? a. The protection of infrastructure. b. The continuation of business. c. The preservation of critical data. d. The management of damage.

b. The continuation of business.

Which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit? a. You are guaranteed to receive the maximum amount of bandwidth specified in the circuit contract b. You pay only for the bandwidth you require. c. The paths that your data will take are always known. d. Frame relay is a newly established network technology with more features than other technology.

b. You pay only for the bandwidth you require.

Which type of backup scheme only covers data that has changed since the last backup? a. full backup b. incremental backup c. differential backup d. snapshot backup

b. incremental backup

The T-carrier standards, also called T-CXR standards, utilize what type of multiplexing over two wire pairs to create multiple channels? a. orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) b. time division multiplexing (TDM) c. frequency division multiplexing (FDM) d. wavelength division multiplexing (WDM)

b. time division multiplexing (TDM)

When using DOCSIS 3.0, what is the minimum number of channels that can be used? a. 16 b. 2 c. 4 d. 1

c. 4

Which statement regarding the use of cable modems is NOT accurate? a. DOCSIS 3.1 allows for full duplex speeds up to 10 Gbps. b. Cable broadband provides a dedicated and continuous connection. c. Cable modems only operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model. d. Modems that utilize the DOCSIS 3.0 or 3.1 standard are backward compatible with older DOCSIS networks.

c. Cable modems only operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model.

The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard? a. IEEE 802.3af b. IEEE 802.1cd c. IEEE 802.3ad d. IEEE 802.3bd

c. IEEE 802.3ad

At what point is a packet considered to be a giant? a. It becomes a giant only when fragmented pieces are reassembled and the packet size is too large. b. It becomes a giant once a VLAN tag is added. c. It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size. d. It becomes a giant when it exceeds 1500 bytes.

c. It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size.

How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment? a. It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage. b. It protects against electrical surges. c. It filters line noise from incoming power. d. It shields equipment from lightning damage.

c. It filters line noise from incoming power.

What is distributed switching? a. It is multiple switches that provide redundancy switching for all switches in the group. b. It is when multiple physical switches are configured to act as a single switch. c. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts. d. It is a single physical switch that is partitioned in software to perform as multiple switches.

c. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts.

What is a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) utilized for? a. It is a locally significant ID used to send connectionless information. b. It is used by routers to establish a packet-switched path to the destination. c. It is used by routers to determine which circuit to forward a frame to in a frame relay network. d. It is used by ATM switches to determine how to create a switched virtual circuit.

c. It is used by routers to determine which circuit to forward a frame to in a frame relay network.

Which SONET OC level is a popular choice for large businesses, and is equivalent to 100 T1s? a. OC-1 b. OC-24 c. OC-3 d. OC-12

c. OC-3

What 3-bit field in a 802.1Q tag is modified to set a frame's Class of Service (CoS)? a. Tag Protocol Identifier (TPID) b. EtherType c. Priority Code Point (PCP) d. CRC checksum

c. Priority Code Point (PCP)

When using satellite services for your WAN connection, what statement is accurate? a. Satellite services are only available for fixed location clients. b. Satellite downlink rates range from 50 to 100 Mbps. c. Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues. d. Satellite uplink rates range from 5 to 10 Mbps.

c. Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues.

Considering that multiple users occupy the same channel when using CDMA, how are various calls using this technology kept separate? a. The transmissions are encrypted, such that only the appropriate device can decrypt its own call. b. The sending and receiving of data is performed on different frequencies. Users hop between these frequencies to avoid interference. c. The packets are coded such that individual calls can be distinguished. d. The packets include the end user's SIM IMEI in each packet.

c. The packets are coded such that individual calls can be distinguished.

Where are MPLS labels placed within a frame? a. between the data payload and the layer 2 trailer b. between the layer 3 header and the data payload c. between the layer 2 header and the layer 3 header d. at the end of the layer 2 trailer

c. between the layer 2 header and the layer 3 header

A snapshot is most similar to which type of backup scheme? a. full backup b. versioned backup c. incremental backup d. differential backup

c. incremental backup

When a device handles electrical signals improperly, usually resulting from a bad NIC, it is referred to by what term below? a. ghost b. talker c. jabber d. blabber

c. jabber

Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair? a. mean time to restore (MTTR) b. mean field replacement time (MFRT) c. mean time to repair (MTTR) d. mean restoration time (MRT)

c. mean time to repair (MTTR)

What does the Common Address Redundancy Protocol do? a. It allows multiple devices to share hardware resources. b. It allows multiple devices to share the same fully qualified domain name. c. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same MAC address. d. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address.

d. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address.

A network TAP serves what purpose on a network? a. It provides wireless monitoring capabilities, as well as spectrum analysis. b. It serves as a miniature firewall that can be placed in front of any connection. c. It monitors network throughput at a specific point in the network. d. It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports.

d. It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports.

Which of the following Layer 1 WAN technologies is not normally used as last mile service, but rather traverses multiple ISP networks, connecting these networks to the Internet backbone? a. T-carrier (T1s, fractional T1s, and T3s) b. digital subscriber line (DSL) c. Carrier-Ethernet Transport (CET) d. SONET (Synchronous Optical Network)

d. SONET (Synchronous Optical Network)

On an ATM network, how is the path that data will take determined? a. When data is ready to be transmitted, an ATM participating router will contact the destination ATM router, establish a tunnel, then pass the data. b. A frame relay route table establishes each hop that will be taken to a single destination. c. Data is transmitted, and then the path taken will vary depending on the load encountered at each ATM participant node. d. Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before transmission.

d. Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before transmission.

When using DiffServ, what type of forwarding utilizes a minimum departure rate from a given node, which is then assigned to each data stream? a. scaled forwarding b. assured forwarding c. prioritized forwarding d. expedited forwarding

d. expedited forwarding

What term is used to describe the average amount of time that will pass for a device before a failure is expected to occur? a. product cycle lifetime (PCL) b. maximum time available (MTA) c. estimated time to failure (ETTF) d. mean time between failures (MTBF)

d. mean time between failures (MTBF)

The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) utilizes what technology to create timeslots on a channel? a. wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) b. dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) c. frequency division multiplexing (FDM) d. time division multiple access (TDMA)

d. time division multiple access (TDMA)