Rad Review Mock Test
In the context of a trauma situation, order the following in highest to lowest priority for evaluation when a patient reaches a trauma center. Unordered List Open fracture Cardiac arrest Vertebral fracture Respiratory arrest
Respiratory arrest Cardiac arrest Vertebral fracture Open fracture
What suture separates the two parietal bones from the occipital bone? A Coronal B Lambdoidal C Sagittal D Squamosal
B Lambdoidal
The division process of genetic cells is termed A Metaphase B Mitosis C Meiosis D Synthesis
C Meiosis
Which of the following types of patient consent can lead to charges of negligence against a radiographer? A Implied consent B No consent obtained C Express consent D Written consent E Inadequate consent
E Inadequate consent
What is the attenuation percentage for 0.25 mm Pb equivalent aprons at 75 kVp? A 51% B 66% C 88% D 94%
B 66%
Which of the following projections demonstrates the pisiform free of superimposition? 1. AP oblique of the wrist 2. Carpal tunnel projection of the wrist 3. Carpal bridge projection of the wrist A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A 1 and 2 only
Select the 3 correct statements regarding molecular effects of ionizing radiation A The direct effect involves radiolysis of water B Potential molecular effects include impaired function and cell death C Most interactions between ionizing radiation and tissue cells involve direct interaction with a DNA molecule D Cell death or impaired function occurs as a result of damage to chemical bonds E The indirect effect usually occurs with low LET radiations
B Potential molecular effects include impaired function and cell death D Cell death or impaired function occurs as a result of damage to chemical bonds E The indirect effect usually occurs with low LET radiations
Which of the following are associated with high frequencies and short wavelengths? 1. X-rays 2. Microwaves 3. Gamma rays A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
Which of the following is/are considered long-term somatic effect(s) of radiation exposure? 1. Carcinogenesis 2. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 3. Cataractogenesis A 1 only B 1, 2, and 3 C 1 and 3 only D 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
Which of the following combination of factors will cause the anode heel effect to be more pronounced? A Smaller anode angle, longer SID, and larger field size B Smaller anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size C Larger anode angle, longer SID, and smaller field size D Larger anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size
B Smaller anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size
Low-pass filtering is another name for which processing function? A Edge enhancement B Smoothing C Quantization D Equalization
B Smoothing
Which of the following is a low-pass filtering function that can make images appear more blurry? A Equalization B Smoothing C Quantization D Subtraction
B Smoothing
What is the correct pixel size for a 17-inch FOV and a matrix size of 1024? A 0.016 mm B 0.42 mm C 2.4 mm D 60 mm
B 0.42 mm pixel size = FOV/matrix size The 17-inch FOV must first be converted to millimeters by multiplying 17 by 25.4. One inch is equivalent to 2.54 centimeters, which then has to be converted to millimeters by multiplying by 10. A 17-inch FOV is equivalent to 431.8 mm. The numbers can be used to calculate the pixel size. Pixel size = FOV / matrix size. Pixel size = 431.8 / 1024, which results in a pixel size of 0.42 mm (B).
It is essential to be certain that the x-ray tube is in the proper detent locks before making an exposure because 1. Improper alignment of the tube and IR could cause incorrect exposure when utilizing AEC 2. Having the tube out of detent could cause anatomy cutoff 3. If the tube is not locked in the transverse position grid cutoff could occur, resulting in overexposure of the part A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
The AP projection of the elbow demonstrates which of the following bony structures? 1. Coronoid process 2. Radial head 3. Styloid process of the radius 4. Coracoid process A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only
B 1 and 2 only
The base of the fifth metatarsal should be well visualized on which of the following projections? 1. AP foot 2. Medial oblique foot 3. AP ankle 4. Mortise oblique ankle A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1 and 2 only
Which of the following images require(s) superimposition of the distal radius and ulna? 1. Lateral hand 2. Lateral forearm 3. Lateral thumb A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is/are considered form(s) of acute radiation syndrome? 1. Hematopoietic Syndrome 2. Gastrointestinal Syndrome 3. Syndrome X A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 3 only
B 1 and 2 only
Which of the following will result if magnification is used in a 20/9/6 inch image intensifier? 1. Spatial resolution improves 2. Patient dose increases 3. Focal point shifts closer to the output phosphor A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
In the scapular Y lateral shoulder projection, which bony structures would be projected medial to the humeral head? 1. Coracoid process 2. Acromion 3. Clavicle A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 3 only
Which of the following methods can be utilized to determine if a patient is pregnant? 1. Posting of signs that advise patients to notify the technologist if pregnancy is possible 2. Utilization of questionnaires that question menstrual cycle dates and chances of pregnancy 3. Visual inspection of the patient to determine if they are pregnant 4. Questioning women of reproductive potential before each exam A 1 and 2 only B 1, 2, and 4 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
B 1, 2, and 4 only
What disadvantages come with the use of TLD personnel monitoring? 1. Loss of information when exposed to heat and moisture 2. Cost compared to film badges when read monthly 3. Decreased sensitivity to film badges A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 2 only
B 2 only
Which of the following examinations is/are likely to increase personnel dose? 1. Remote fluoroscopy 2. Mobile imaging 3. General radiography A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 2 only
How much barium would be required for an 8-month-old patient undergoing a upper GI series? A 1-2 oz B 2-4 oz C 5-6 oz D 6-8 oz
B 2-4 oz
When performing a GI series, which of the following structures is (are) not demonstrated with the use of oral barium? 1. Duodenal bulb 2. Pyloric antrum 3. Splenic flexure 4. C-loop of duodenum A 2 only B 3 only C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 3 only
B 3 only
Which of the following is the guideline for central ray angulation for an AP projection of the knee of a patient with thin thighs and buttocks? A 0-degree central ray angle B 3 to 5 degrees caudal angle C 3 to 5 degrees cephalic angle D 5 to 7 degrees cephalic angle
B 3 to 5 degrees caudal angle
Which of the following is the correct degree of knee flexion for the tangential Merchant method? A 5 to 10 degrees B 40 degrees C 50 to 60 degrees D 90 degrees
B 40 degrees
When imaging the lateral thoracic spine, and using suspended respiration technique, exposure upon full inspiration can be used to A Demonstrate anatomy below the diaphragm B Achieve a more uniform tissue density of the vertebrae above diaphragm C Blur superimposed rib and lung markings D Reduce production of scatter radiation
B Achieve a more uniform tissue density of the vertebrae above diaphragm
Which of the following is visualized in a left posterior oblique position of the cervical spine? A Left intervertebral foramina B Right intervertebral foramina C Left zygapophyseal joint D Right zygapophyseal joint
B Right intervertebral foramina
The main source of radiation exposure for personnel during fluoroscopic exams is A Leakage from the tube B Scatter from the patient C The primary beam D Secondary radiation from tube housin
B Scatter from the patient
Film badges utilize filters composed of which materials? 1. Aluminum 2. Cesium oxide 3. Copper 4. Cobalt A 1 and 2 B 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3
C 1 and 3
All of the following are typical ways to express patient dose except A Bone marrow dose B Gonadal dose C Thyroid equivalent D Entrance skin exposure
C Thyroid equivalent
Why would the Swimmer's position be used during an esophagram study to replace the lateral position? A To reduce motion B To reduce OID C To better demonstrate upper esophagus D To better demonstrate lower esophagus
C To better demonstrate upper esophagus
What carpal bone is located in the distal row, second bone in from the radial side? A Trapezium B Triquetrum C Trapezoid D Lunate
C Trapezoid
Which of the following is the first step to be taken in the performance of a radiographic examination? A Obtain clinical history B Provide appropriate patient assistance C Verify patient identity D Use appropriate infection control
C Verify patient identity
Which of the following is the post-processing function responsible for adjusting the contrast of a digital image? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window width D Window level
C Window width
Tilting of the head during positioning for the lateral skull would result in 1. Superior and inferior separation of orbital roofs 2. Anterior and posterior separation of EAM 3. Superior and inferior separation of sphenoid wings 4. Anterior and posterior separation of mandibular rami A 1 only B 4 only C 3 and 4 only D 1 and 3 only
D 1 and 3 only
Which elbow projection demonstrates the radial head free of superimposition? A AP neutral B AP internal rotation C AP partial flexion D Coyle
D Coyle
Which of the following abdomen projections will best demonstrate an umbilical hernia? A AP supine B AP upright C Lateral decubitus D Dorsal decubitus
D Dorsal decubitus
All of the following statements regarding SNR are true, except A SNR is directly related to image quality B SNR is directly related to patient dose C Insufficient SNR results in quantum noise D Excessive SNR is associated with underexposure
D Excessive SNR is associated with underexposure
Which of the following describes the amount of the detector element that is dedicated to absorbing x-ray photons? A Pixel size B Pixel density C Pixel pitch D Fill factor
D Fill factor
Which of the following combinations will provide better visibility of detail and the least amount of noise in a digital image? A Low SNR and low CNR B Low SNR and high CNR C High SNR and low CNR D High SNR and high CNR
D High SNR (signal-to-noise ratio) and high CNR (contrast-to-noise ratio)
Without changing any other factors, which of the following best describes the impact on the final image when SID is increased? A Image receptor exposure increases and spatial resolution decreases B Image receptor exposure increases and spatial resolution increases C Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution decreases D Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution increases
D Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution increases
The mathematical expression below relates to which law of electrostatics? I1/I2 = (D1)²/(D2)² A Distribution B Concentration C Repulsion-attraction D Inverse square
D Inverse square
Due to the utilization of low kVp techniques, which of the following examinations result in reduced personnel exposure? 1. Mammogram 2. Chest x-ray 3. PA abdomen A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 3 only
D 1 and 3 only
Which of the following projections show the ribs closest to the IR? 1. RPO 2. LPO 3. RAO 4. LAO A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only
A 1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements is/are false regarding occupational exposure during fluoroscopy? 1. Radiation exposure to the radiologist is higher when the tube is positioned below the patient 2. Beam-on time is directly proportional to occupational exposure 3. Remote fluoroscopy is preferable to reduce occupational exposure A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1 and 3 only
A 1 only
In scoliosis imaging, breast tissue dose for PA imaging is approximately ____ of the dose for AP imaging A 1% B 5% C 10% D 50%
A 1%
What is the correct angulation for an AP axial sacroiliac image on a male patient? A 30-degrees cephalad B 35-degrees cephalad C 30-degrees caudal D 35-degrees caudal
A 30-degrees cephalad
Federal law requires that all patients have access to effective communication, regardless of language or communication barriers. Which 3 of the following situations would require a certified interpreter? A A 22-year-old deaf patient presents in the emergency room with her mother, who is fluent in American Sign Language. B A Spanish speaking only patient is being transported from the emergency room to radiology and no one on staff speaks Spanish. C A patient who speaks only Vietnamese is being given discharge instructions without a family member present. D A radiographer must obtain informed consent from a patient, but only speaks a little of the patient's preferred language.
A A 22-year-old deaf patient presents in the emergency room with her mother, who is fluent in American Sign Language. C A patient who speaks only Vietnamese is being given discharge instructions without a family member present. D A radiographer must obtain informed consent from a patient, but only speaks a little of the patient's preferred language.
Which 3 of the following represent therapeutic nonverbal communication on the part of the radiographer? A A facial expression or gesture that adds emphasis to the spoken word B Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient is speaking C A facial expression that contradicts the spoken word D Using "I" statements E Using humor to lighten every difficult situation F Wearing professional attire
A A facial expression or gesture that adds emphasis to the spoken word B Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient is speaking F Wearing professional attire
Injection of iodinated contrast media may be contraindicated when a patient's creatinine level is A Above 2.0 mg/dl B Below 2.0 mg/dl C Above 0.6 mg/dl D Below 0.6 mg/dl
A Above 2.0 mg/dl
There are several types of DR image receptors used in digital imaging. All of the following use indirect capture except A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors B Gadolinium amorphous silicon flat panel detectors C Cesium iodide amorphous silicon flat panel detectors D A charge coupled device
A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors
Which of the following types of DR image receptors uses a photoconductor? A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors B Gadolinium amorphous silicon flat panel detectors C Cesium iodide amorphous silicon flat panel detectors D A charge coupled device
A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors
Which of the following best describes the relationship between bit depth and contrast resolution? A As bit depth increases, contrast resolution increases. B As bit depth increases, contrast resolution decreases. C As bit depth decreases, contrast resolution increases. D Bit depth does not affect contrast resolution.
A As bit depth increases, contrast resolution increases.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between frequency and wavelength? A As frequency increases, wavelength decreases B As frequency increases, wavelength increases C As frequency decreases, wavelength decreases D Frequency and wavelength do not affect one another
A As frequency increases, wavelength decreases
Select 3 body mechanics practices used to reduce possibility of injury. A Bend from the knees and lower back instead of from the waist B Push heavy objects, rather than pulling C Change foot position, rather than twisting the body D Moving heavy objects is safer when objects are held closer to center of gravity E Standing with feet closer together improves stability
A Bend from the knees and lower back instead of from the waist C Change foot position, rather than twisting the body D Moving heavy objects is safer when objects are held closer to center of gravity
Sources of natural background radiation include the following (choose the 3 correct answers) A Building materials B Nuclear medicine C Internal sources D Thoron and radon gases E Occupational sources
A Building materials C Internal sources D Thoron and radon gases
Clostridium difficile, a spore-forming bacterium that can cause sepsis in susceptible patients, is spread by what mode of transmission? A Contact B Droplet C Airborne D Vector
A Contact
Which of the following is increased when image latitude is decreased during post-processing? A Contrast B Window width C Overall grays D Long-scale contrast
A Contrast
Which imaging informatics system is a universal standard regarding how images are communicated between PACS and imaging modalities? A DICOM B HIS C RIS D HL7
A DICOM
Which of the following processing functions increases the sharpness of the details in an image? A Edge enhancement B Smoothing C Look-up table D Equalization
A Edge enhancement
What may occur if a high-pass filtering function is used on an image with high contrast? A Excess noise B Decreased noise C Long-scale contrast D Increase in overall grays
A Excess noise
Which 3 of the following instructions are a part of patient education following myelography? A Increase fluid intake B Avoid bending for a couple of days C Notify a physician if unable to urinate D Seizures are a possible complication and are not concerning E Monoamine oxidase inhibitors must be discontinued for 2 weeks after the procedure
A Increase fluid intake B Avoid bending for a couple of days C Notify a physician if unable to urinate
Which of the following are parenteral routes of drug administration? (select the 4 correct responses) A Intradermal B Subcutaneous C Oral D Intra-arterial E Rectal F Intrathecal
A Intradermal B Subcutaneous D Intra-arterial F Intrathecal
Which 4 of the following topics are covered in the AHA Patient's Bill of Rights? A Involvement in your care B Protection of your privacy C Death with dignity D Discussing your treatment plan E Understanding your healthcare goals and values F Civil and criminal penalties for HIPAA violation
A Involvement in your care B Protection of your privacy D Discussing your treatment plan E Understanding your healthcare goals and values
A patient arrives at the emergency room by ambulance with a possible left humeral fracture. Due to the patient's condition, a transthoracic lateral projection will be performed to assess the proximal humerus. Which of the following is the correct position of the patient's left arm? A Left arm in a neutral position B Left arm in an internal rotation C Left arm in an external rotation D Left arm is elevated above the patient's head
A Left arm in a neutral position
Which of the following indicates bradypnea? A Less than 12 breaths per minute B Less than 18 breaths per minute C More than 20 breaths per minute D More than 25 breaths per minute
A Less than 12 breaths per minute
In which setting would the use of microfocus tubes be most appropriate? A Mammography B Fluoroscopy C CT D General radiography
A Mammography
The usual patient preparation for a UGI examination is A NPO 8 hour before the examination B light breakfast only the morning of the examination C clear fluids only the morning of the examination D two ounces of castor oil and enemas until clear
A NPO 8 hour before the examination
Stochastic effects of ionizing radiation are associated with the following (select the 5 correct answers) A No threshold B All early effects C Nonlinear D Genetic effects E Cancer F Most late effects G No safe dose
A No threshold D Genetic effects E Cancer F Most late effects G No safe dose
Which of the following conditions presents as reduced bone mass? A Osteopenia B Osteomyelitis C Osteoarthritis D Osteomalacia
A Osteopenia
Radiographers must have an awareness of cultural groups in order to achieve professional and effective communication. Select the three cultural groups identified below: A Perceived gender B Generational C Skin and hair color D Religious
A Perceived gender B Generational D Religious
The energy of the incident photon is completely absorbed during which of the following x-ray interactions with matter? A Photoelectric absorption B Bremsstrahlung C Compton interaction D Coherent scattering
A Photoelectric absorption
All of the following can be used in image intensification systems except A Photostimulable phosphor plate B Flat panel detectors C Charge coupled device D Complementary metal oxide semiconductor
A Photostimulable phosphor plate
Which of the following describes the distance from the side of one pixel to the opposite side of that same pixel? A Pixel size B Pixel density C Pixel pitch D Fill factor
A Pixel size
A condition, often resulting from chest trauma by motor vehicle accident or falling, in which the pleural space is filled with air, is called A Pneumothorax B Hemothorax C Atelectasis D Cardiac tamponade
A Pneumothorax
Compton Scatter characteristics (select 3) A Recoil electron B Coherent scatter C Total transfer of x-ray photon energy D Interaction with a loosely bound electron E Incident photon energy approximately 100kV F Leakage radiation
A Recoil electron D Interaction with a loosely bound electron E Incident photon energy approximately 100kV
Which difference may be present in a semi-erect AP chest projection if the patient cannot stand for PA chest imaging? A Reduced number of ribs visualized due to inspiration limitations B The heart will appear smaller due to reduced OID C Less risk of chin superimposition over apices D Better visualization of bony thorax
A Reduced number of ribs visualized due to inspiration limitations
Which of the following digital imaging post-processing functions provides quantitative information of the pixels in a defined area? A Region of interest B Values of interest C Dynamic range D Window level
A Region of interest
Which of the following is responsible for producing the diagnostic portion of the image on the image receptor? A Remnant radiation B Scatter radiation C Primary radiation D Penumbra
A Remnant radiation
Which of the following is responsible for correcting the brightness and contrast of an image, regardless of the technique used? A Rescaling B Smoothing C Edge Enhancement D Quantization
A Rescaling
Which of the following will result if OID is increased? A Size distortion B Shape distortion C Increased spatial resolution D Increased receptor exposure
A Size distortion
Along with complete information on the potential risks and benefits of the procedure, valid informed consent is not complete without the following (select the 2 correct responses) A Suggested alternatives B Warning that consent is not revocable C Blanket disclaimer for any deviations from customary protocol D An offer to answer question about the procedure E Documentation of prescription for narcotics if the patient signs the consent under the influence of narcotic medication
A Suggested alternatives D An offer to answer question about the procedure
For the AP axial projection of the skull, if the patient extends their neck, how would the dorsum sellae appear in the radiograph? A Superior to the foramen magnum B Superimposed over the arch of C1 C Inferior to the petrous ridge D Foreshortened
A Superior to the foramen magnum
How does the use of beam filtration affect the quantity and quality of the x-ray beam? A The number of x-rays is decreased and the quality of the x-ray beam is increased. B The number of x-rays is decreased and the quality of the x-ray beam is decreased. C The number of x-rays is increased and the quality of the x-ray beam is increased. D The number of x-rays is increased and the quality of the x-ray beam is decreased.
A The number of x-rays is decreased and the quality of the x-ray beam is increased.
The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitor can be literally interpreted as A The thing speaks for itself B Let the master respond C Reckless disregard for life and limb D Borrowed servant
A The thing speaks for itself
Which of the following methods of radiation dosimetry is most commonly used for patients and personnel? A Thermoluminescence dosimetry (TLD) B Geiger-Muller counter C Photographic emulsion D Scintillation detector
A Thermoluminescence dosimetry (TLD)
If a structure having less tissue density than the part of interest is positioned over the AEC detector, which of the following will result? A Underexposure B Overexposure C distorted image D correct exposure
A Underexposure
What is the correct central ray direction for a PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses? A horizontal beam B 15 degrees caudad C 15 degrees cephalad D 25 degrees caudad
A horizontal beam
The AEC will provide an exposure that produces a diagnostic image when the tissue of interest A is placed directly over the photocell. B is placed directly under the photocell. C is partially over the photocell. D is partially under the photocell.
A is placed directly over the photocell.
Which three of the following diseases are spread by vector transmission? A malaria B bubonic plague C gonorrhea D Lyme disease E syphillis F athletes foot
A malaria B bubonic plague D Lyme disease
Which of the following is an acceptable form of electronic data manipulation? A Shuttering or masking out areas of the acquired image B Adding annotation when the lead marker is collimated out of the image field C Overwriting an image acquired under the correct processing algorithm with an image reprocessed under an alternative processing algorithm that improves the grayscale D Applying smoothing to an image that demonstrates quantum mottle if it produces an image that appears acceptable
B Adding annotation when the lead marker is collimated out of the image field
Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between pixel size, pixel pitch, and spatial resolution? A As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch increases, and spatial resolution increases B As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution increases C As pixel size increases, pixel pitch increases, and spatial resolution increases D As pixel size increases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution decreases
B As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution increases
Which 2 of the following communication techniques should be employed by a radiographer? A Using medical terms instead of lay terms to demonstrate that the radiographer is a knowledgeable medical professional. B Asking the patient to verbally summarize the consent form, to ensure that the patient understands what he or she is signing. C Using familiar terms, such as "sweetie," to put a patient at ease and establish a comfortable relationship. D Speaking more clearly and slowly to improve understanding when the situation is urgent or stressful.
B Asking the patient to verbally summarize the consent form, to ensure that the patient understands what he or she is signing. D Speaking more clearly and slowly to improve understanding when the situation is urgent or stressful.
A patient arrives at the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident and is complaining of pain in the mid-chest region. The emergency room physician orders a sternum x-ray but the patient must remain supine on the cart due to a possible spinal injury. What is the correct angle for the central ray to obtain the equivalent of an RAO sternum projection? A CR angled 15 to 20 degrees across the left side of the patient B CR angled 15 to 20 degrees across the right side of the patient C CR angled 30 to 40 degrees across the left side of the patient D CR angled 30 to 40 degrees across the right side of the patient
B CR angled 15 to 20 degrees across the right side of the patient
Late effects of ionizing radiation include the following (select the 4 correct responses) A Erythema B Cataracts C Leukemia D Epilation E Carcinogenesis F Genetic mutations
B Cataracts C Leukemia E Carcinogenesis F Genetic mutations
The process by which a contaminated object, such as a portable x-ray machine, is cleaned, first by mechanical means and then by wiping or soaking in chemical solutions is called what? A Antisepsis B Disinfection C Sterilization D Asepsis
B Disinfection
Which pulse point would a radiographer use to take a pulse when there is questionable compromised peripheral circulation following catherization of the femoral artery or casting of a lower extremity? A Apical B Dorsalis pedis C Carotid D Brachial
B Dorsalis pedis
What form of filtering amplifies high frequencies to increase contrast of large structures? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window level D Window width
B Edge enhancement
All of the following describe the placement of organs in an asthenic body habitus except A Low diaphragm B Gallbladder centered on the right, upper abdominal region C Heart is near midline and vertical D Stomach is low and medial
B Gallbladder centered on the right, upper abdominal region
Which of the following conditions can be possibly corrected with a contrast enema procedure? A Ulcerative colitis B Intussusception C Adenocarcinoma D Diverticulitis
B Intussusception
When irradiated in an oxygenated (aerobic) state, biologic tissue _______________to radiation compared to when it is exposed to radiation under anoxic or hypoxic conditions. A Is less sensitive B Is more sensitive C Has the same sensitivity D Becomes more immune
B Is more sensitive
Why is lithium fluoride the most widely used material for TLD? A It is relatively resistant and can therefore prevent detection of background radiation B It can measure doses as low as 50µGyt C It has attenuation properties similar to bone D It emits heat in response to light stimulation
B It can measure doses as low as 50µGyt
Compared to centering for the lateral cervical spine, centering for the lateral upper airway is A Lower and more posterior B Lower and more anterior C Higher and more posterior D Higher and more anterior
B Lower and more anterior
When performing the parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones, which of the following is the correct patient position and exit point for the central ray (CR)? A OML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion B MML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion C LML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion D OML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the nasion
B MML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion
Which of the following is considered a safe gonadal radiation dose? A 4 mrem B No dose C 5 rem D 0.5 rem
B No dose
For the posterior oblique pelvis, during the Judet method, when the anatomy of interest is the anterior rim of the acetabulum, proper positioning requires the CR to enter A Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches directly above the upside ASIS B Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches distal and 2 inches medial to the downside ASIS C Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches above and 1 inch medial to the downside ASIS D Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches directly distal to the upside ASIS
B Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches distal and 2 inches medial to the downside ASIS
For oblique positioning of the cervical spine, why are anterior oblique positions preferred over posterior oblique positions? A Better visualization of intervertebral foramina on the side furthest from the IR B Reduced thyroid dose C Better visualization of pedicles furthest from IR D Less rotation needed
B Reduced thyroid dose
When performing a portable AP chest projection on a patient who is semi-upright, what is the correct angle for the central ray? A No central ray angle is necessary B Tube is angled and CR directed perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum C Tube is angled ad CR directed parallel to the long axis of the sternum D Tube is angled and CR directed 60 degrees to the long axis of the sternum
B Tube is angled and CR directed perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum
Which of the following describes the section of the histogram that will be included in the displayed image? A Region of interest B Values of interest C Dynamic range D Window level
B Values of interest
What is the first technical factor to consider adjusting if quantum mottle is visible with a direct relationship exposure indicator x-ray system? A decrease mAs B increase mAs C decrease kVp D increase kVp
B increase mAs
A dose of 0.25 Gy to the fetus during the early part of the first trimester of pregnancy can potentially cause A spontaneous abortion B skeletal anomalies C neurologic anomalies D gastrointestinal anomalies
B skeletal anomalies
Select the three correct statements below regarding fixed vs. variable kV technique charts A mAs is variable when using a variable kV chart B the fixed kV chart is most commonly used C each body part has a specific kV when using a variable kV chart D kV is increased by 2 for each cm increase in thickness when using a variable kV chart E accurate caliper measurement is required when using a variable kV chart F mAs compensates for patient size and condition variation in a variable kV chart
B the fixed kV chart is most commonly used D kV is increased by 2 for each cm increase in thickness when using a variable kV chart E accurate caliper measurement is required when using a variable kV chart
When performing an AP projection of the tibia and fibula, if the entire part cannot fit on one IR 1. Take two projections to include all anatomy 2. Take a second smaller projection at the joint opposite from the injury site 3. Take a second smaller projection at the joint closest to the injury site A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
Ionizing radiation doses, and its associated risks, are related in the following way(s) 1. Directly 2. Inversely proportional 3. Inversely 4. Linearly A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1 and 4 D 1, 2, and 3 E 1, 2, and 4
C 1 and 4
Which of the following conditions warrant an acute abdominal series? 1. Ascites 2. Abdominal neoplasms 3. Calcifications of the aorta 4. Ileus A 1 only B 3 only C 1, 2, & 4 only D 2, 3, & 4 only
C 1, 2, & 4 only
If a radiologic examination must be performed during pregnancy, what safeguards can be used for both patient and fetal protection? 1. Accurate collimation 2. Double-shielding 3. Use of low kVp techniques 4. Limited protocols A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 4 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 2, 3, and 4 only
C 1, 2, and 4 only
Which of the following help(s) to reduce patient dose? 1. Tube filtration 2. Proper beam alignment 3. Operator shield 4. Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 3, and 4 only
C 1, 2, and 4 only
X-rays that possess energy levels below 10 keV can interact with matter through classic coherent scattering. Classic coherent scattering is also known as which of the following? 1. Thompson 2. Compton 3. Unmodified 4. Coherent A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 1, 3, and 4 D 2 only
C 1, 3, and 4
In what ways can a radiographer reduce patient dose? 1. Improve technical factor selection through observation of patient habitus, positioning, and department protocols 2. Increase positioning accuracy with use of radiopaque sponges under the area of interest to reduce motion 3. Properly dress-down the patient for the exam, including removal of any jewelry or clothing items that could cause an artifact 4. Use clear breathing instructions to improve patient compliance and decrease motion A 1, 2, and 4 only B 1, 2, and 3 only C 1, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
C 1, 3, and 4 only
Glandular dose is what percentage of the entrance skin exposure (ESE)? A 5% B 10% C 15% D 20%
C 15%
To visualize the sesamoid bones of the toes free of superimposition, the tangential projection requires the foot to be dorsiflexed how many degrees from vertical? A 5-10 degrees B 10-15 degrees C 15-20 degrees D 20-25 degrees
C 15-20 degrees
An increase in technical factors is likely to be required for the following condition(s) 1. Emphysema 2. Atelectasis 3. Ascites A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
Personnel dose is increased during which examination(s)? 1. CT 2. Fluoroscopy 3. Mobile imaging A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
What advantages do film badges present for personnel monitoring? 1. They can be worn for up to 3 months 2. Inexpensive for production and utilization 3. Simple processing methods A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
Which of the following will result as subject tissue thickness increases? 1. Beam attenuation decreases 2. Absorption increases 3. Transmission decreases A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
Positioning of the cervicothoracic (Swimmer's) lateral for the cervical spine requires: 1. Placement of patient's arm furthest from IR above their head 2. Placement of patient's arm closest to IR above their head 3. Slight cephalic angulation of the CR to separate shoulders 4. CR placement directed at T1 A 1 only B 3 only C 2 and 4 only D 1, 2, and 4 only
C 2 and 4 only
Which of the following are true regarding bone marrow dose? 1. Bone marrow dose can be directly measured 2. It is relevant for measurement due to the association between bone marrow and radiation-induced leukemia 3. Bone marrow dose is estimated utilizing the ESE 4. The mean marrow dose is typically lower in children A 2 and 4 only B 1 and 4 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, and 4 only
C 2, 3, and 4 only
Compared to the trunk, the collar region is exposed to radiation levels A 5 times greater B 10 times less C 20 times greater D 50 times less
C 20 times greater
What is the correct central ray placement for the AP projection of the thoracic spine? A At the jugular notch B 1 to 2 inches below the jugular notch C 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch D 5 to 6 inches below the jugular notch
C 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch
When positioning for a lateral coccyx image, what is the correct placement of the central ray? A 2 inches posterior to the ASIS B 3 to 4 inches posterior to the ASIS C 3 to 4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the ASIS D 3 to 4 inches posterior and inferior to the ASIS
C 3 to 4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the ASIS
What is the LD 50/30 for adult humans without medical support? A 1-2 Gyt B 2-3 Gyt C 3-4 Gyt D 4-5 Gyt
C 3-4 Gyt
For the PA axial projection of the knee, Camp Coventry method, which CR angulation is utilized? A 25-30 degrees caudal B 15-20 degrees cephalic C 40-50 degrees caudal D 25-30 degrees cephalic
C 40-50 degrees caudal
Which of the following projections does not demonstrate the olecranon process free of superimposition? A Acute flexion elbow projection for the distal humerus B Lateral elbow C Acute flexion of the elbow for the proximal forearm D Radial head laterals of the elbow
C Acute flexion of the elbow for the proximal forearm
Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between matrix size and spatial resolution? A As matrix size decreases, spatial resolution increases. B As matrix size increases, spatial resolution decreases. C As matrix size increases, spatial resolution increases. D Spatial resolution is not affected by the size of the matrix.
C As matrix size increases, spatial resolution increases.
Which of the following types of compensating filters would primarily be used for shoulder images? A Wedge filter B Trough filter C Boomerang filter D Bowtie filter
C Boomerang filter
An emergency room physician has ordered ankle and lower leg images on a patient with an obvious lower leg deformity. What is the best way to obtain the mortise image? A Internally rotate the patient's lower leg 15 to 20 degrees B Internally rotate the patient's lower leg 45 degrees C Central ray is angled 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial D Central ray is angled 45 degrees lateromedial
C Central ray is angled 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial
Which of the following is used to express the effectiveness of a detector to absorb x-ray photons? A FPD B PPI C DQE D DXA
C DQE
Which of the following responses is most likely to occur if the fetus is exposed to at least 250 mGy of radiation during the first two weeks of the first trimester? A Malignant disease in childhood B Skeletal deformities C Embryo resorption D Neurologic deficiencies
C Embryo resorption
A source of free electrons required for x-ray production are made available from the A Glass envelope B Focal track C Filament D Focusing cup
C Filament
There are many terms related to grids used in radiography. Which term describes the relationship of the lead lines being parallel or angled to each other? A Grid ratio B Grid pattern C Grid focus D Grid conversion factor
C Grid focus
Administration of food or fluid high in sugar content and administration of glucagon is the treatment for which diabetic emergency condition? A Hyperglycemia B Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome C Insulin reaction D Ketoacidosis
C Insulin reaction
What is the purpose of flexing the fingers in a PA projection of the wrist? A It ensures no rotation of the distal radius and ulna B It ensures no rotation of the carpal bones C It brings the carpals in closer contact with the image receptor D It brings the metacarpals in closer contact with the image receptor
C It brings the carpals in closer contact with the image receptor
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the extent of a small left-sided pleural effusion? A PA chest B Left lateral chest C Left lateral decubitus chest D Right lateral decubitus chest
C Left lateral decubitus chest
Quality control tests monitor the radiation output of x-ray equipment. Which quality control test confirms that when exposure time is adjusted to produce the same mAs at different mA stations, the same radiation intensity will be produced? A Reproducibility B Positive Beam Limitation (PBL) C Linearity D Exposure timer
C Linearity
Which of the following is used to modify the brightness and contrast of the original pixel values? A Edge enhancement B Smoothing C Look-up table D Automatic rescaling
C Look-up table
Which of the following modalities has, in many cases, replaced the need for post arthrogram images? A Sonography B CT C MRI D Nuclear medicine
C MRI
Which of the following are enteral routes of drug administration? (select the 2 correct responses) A Transdermal B Sublingual C Oral D Rectal E Subcutaneous F Intramuscular
C Oral D Rectal
Which of the following cells do not undergo cell division, are mature bone cells, and maintain the metabolism of bone tissue? A Osteoblasts B Chondroblasts C Osteocytes D Osteoclasts
C Osteocytes
Which of the following skeletal pathologies requires a decrease in technical factors? A Acromegaly B Osteoarthritis C Osteoporosis D Osteopetrosis
C Osteoporosis
Failing to properly identify the patient before an exam could put the radiographer in violation of A HIPAA B OSHA C Patient's Bill of Rights and Patient Care Partnership D Good Samaritan laws
C Patient's Bill of Rights and Patient Care Partnership
Which of the following describes the distance from the middle of one pixel to the middle of the adjacent pixel? A Pixel size B Pixel density C Pixel pitch D Fill factor
C Pixel pitch
In a contrast study of the esophagus, which patient position is recommended to best visualize the esophagus projected between the thoracic vertebrae and cardiac anatomy? A AP or PA B LAO C RAO D RPO
C RAO
Technologists must be able to schedule medical imaging exams, view orders, track patients, and store imaging reports. Which imaging informatics system is responsible for these tasks? A DICOM B PACS C RIS D HL7
C RIS
Which of the following is a nonfunctional examination used to demonstrate the urinary system? A Voiding cystourethrography B Retrograde urethrography C Retrograde urography D Retrograde cystography
C Retrograde urography
All of the following terms can be defined as the removal of the most extreme shades from the grayscale of an image except A Tissue equalization B Contrast equalization C Smoothing D Dynamic range compression (DCR)
C Smoothing
Which of the following factors is the only thing affected by changing the focal spot size? A Receptor exposure B Contrast C Spatial resolution D Distortion
C Spatial resolution
When positioning for the lateral upper airway projection, where should the CR enter if the area of interest is the distal larynx and trachea? A C3-4 B C5-6 C T1-2 D T3-4
C T1-2
The xiphoid tip of the sternum is located at approximately what corresponding vertebral level? A T5-T6 B T7-T8 C T9-T10 D T11-T12
C T9-T10
Which of the following statements is false regarding TLD? A When badges are monitored quarterly, the pricing is equivalent to film badges B They are durable and hold up to heat and humidity exposure without loss of information C They are more accurate than OSL, measuring exposures as low as 10 µGya D They utilize lithium fluoride crystals
C They are more accurate than OSL, measuring exposures as low as 10 µGya
Which of the following is an advantage of crossed grids? A There is low risk of grid cutoff B They are easily utilized in exams requiring tube angulations C They have a higher contrast improvement factor than parallel grids D They require lower patient dose
C They have a higher contrast improvement factor than parallel grids
The erect abdomen position is utilized to visualize air/fluid levels in the abdomen. Which other body position(s) could be utilized to demonstrate air/fluid levels if the patient is too weak or is unable to stand for longer than 5 to 10 minutes? 1. Left lateral decubitus 2. Right lateral decubitus 3. Lateral 4. Supine A 1 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
When patient dose cannot be estimated using patient radiation monitors, what other resources are available for ESE estimations? 1. Nomograms 2. Output intensity of the x-ray equipment in use 3. kVp used during the examination 4. mAs used during the examination A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
Which of the following are tools that can be used for kVp calibration? 1. Filtered ion chambers 2. Filtered photodiodes 3. Voltage diodes 4. Oscilloscopes A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
Which of the following examinations of the abdomen require the image to be taken with suspended breathing on expiration? 1. Dorsal decubitus 2. Lateral 3. AP erect 4. Lateral decubitus A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 4 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
Which of the following factors can affect patient ESE (entrance skin exposure)? 1. Efficiency of x-ray production 2. Technical factors 3. OID 4. SID A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 3 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
Which of the following materials would make an acceptable secondary barrier? 1. Lead acrylic 2. Glass 3. Gypsum board 4. Concrete A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
In the PA oblique projection of the wrist, which of the carpals will be demonstrated distal and lateral to the lunate? 1. Scaphoid 2. Trapezium 3. Trapezoid 4. Triquetrum A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1, 3, and 4 D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
The degree of x-ray beam attenuation is affected by 1. Muscle development 2. Z number of tissue 3. Tissue pathology A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are functions of the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP)? 1. To provide the public with data involving radiation measurement and protection methods 2. To organize and support studies surrounding radiation protection 3. To create guidelines in which radiation protection should be applied A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is (are) shown in both the right and left dorsal decubitus positions of the abdomen? 1. Diaphragm 2. Posterior border of iliac wings 3. Air-fluid levels A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following shoulder projections is/are contraindicated when a fracture or dislocation is suspected? 1. AP Projection-External Rotation 2. AP Projection-Internal Rotation 3. Inferiosuperior Axial Projection-Lawrence Method A 1 and 3 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following situations could arise from over-flexing the knee in the lateral projection? 1. Obscured soft tissue 2. Fat pad displacement 3. Patellar fracture separation 4. Increased joint space visualization A 2 and 3 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 4 only D 1, 2, and 3 only
D 1, 2, and 3 only
Methods that can be used to reduce patient exposure include increased (select the 3 correct completions) 1. beam restriction 2. kV 3. exposure time 4. mAs 5. SID 6. filtration A 1, 3, and 6 B 2, 3, and 5 C 3, 4, and 5 D 1, 2, and 6
D 1, 2, and 6
Which of the following statements regarding pregnant radiographers are true? 1. Due to back problems associated with pregnancy, aprons using 0.5 mm Pb equivalent are more desirable than 1 mm Pb equivalent despite lower attenuation percentages 2. A second dosimeter can be worn outside of a lead apron at waist level 3. A dose limit of 0.5 mSv per month is established for the length of pregnancy 4. The pregnancy should be declared as soon as possible A 1 and 4 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 3, and 4 only
D 1, 3, and 4 only
Which of the following is the correct angle for an intradermal injection? A 90 degrees B 45 degrees C 30 degrees D 15 degrees
D 15 degrees
When performing radiographic exams on a patient after pacemaker placement, the radiographer should avoid abducting or elevating the left arm for how many hours after the pacemaker placement procedure? A 12 B 48 C 8 D 24
D 24
The weight of a full-body protective apron with 1 mm lead equivalent is approximately A 5 lbs B 12 lbs C 18 lbs D 25 lbs
D 25 lbs
For the AP axial projection of the skull, when utilizing the IOML as a landmark instead of the OML for positioning, what difference exists in the CR angulation? A 5 degrees cephalic B 5 degrees caudal C 7 degrees cephalic D 7 degrees caudal
D 7 degrees caudal
What is the percentage of occupational exposure for personnel resulting from fluoroscopy and mobile imaging? A 25% B 50% C 80% D 95%
D 95%
Which element of the transmission cycle of infection is a person with a chronic disease such as diabetes mellitus? A A reservoir B A portal of exit C A means of transmission D A susceptible host
D A susceptible host
Which of the following functions to round values of inputted data into allowable digits of a computer system? A DQE B CNR C CCD D ADC
D ADC
Which of the following additional projections may be performed to assess the early structural changes of scoliosis, herniated disks, and motion after a spinal fusion? A LPO and RPO lumbar spine B LAO and RAO lumbar spine C Lateral lumbar spine D AP right and left bending lumbar spine
D AP right and left bending lumbar spine
Which of the following is an SI quantity that can be used for radiation concentration transferred to a point that may be at the surface of a patient's or radiographer's body? A Absorbed dose B Dose equivalent C Effect dose D Air kerma
D Air kerma
A 57-year old male arrives in the emergency department after falling off a ladder at a construction site. The emergency room physician has ordered a CT of the head, chest x-ray, cervical spine x-ray, shoulder x-ray, and femur x-ray. Which of the following procedures should be the first procedure to be completed? A AP chest B AP femur C AP cervical spine D Lateral cervical spine
D Lateral cervical spine
Consider the following scenario and determine which would apply. The radiographer receives an order for a chest x-ray on a patient whose name he remembers from high school. He is curious about his former acquaintance's condition and decides to examine the patient's medical history. On discovering that the patient was diagnosed with hepatitis C, he immediately sends a text message to another friend who knows the patient. A HIPAA violation and slander B Assault and battery C Assault and HIPAA violation D Libel and HIPAA violation
D Libel and HIPAA violation
Which of the following is necessary to perform digital image stitching? A Multiple plates B Special wire alignment grid C Single exposure D Multiple exposures
D Multiple exposures
Which of the following rib positions are recommended for a patient who complains of left-sided anterior rib pain? A AP and LPO B AP and RPO C PA and LAO D PA and RAO
D PA and RAO
Which of the following projections will free a majority of the clavicle from superimposition and decrease the OID? A AP B AP axial C PA D PA axial
D PA axial
What does the abbreviation PBL represent? A Positive-Barrier Limit B Proactive-Beam Limitation C Positive-Beam Lighting D Positive-Beam Limitation
D Positive-Beam Limitation
What is the method of infection control that is used for immunocompromised patients, such as a patient receiving chemotherapy or immunosuppressant medications? A Standard precautions B Isolation precautions C Contact precautions D Reverse isolation precautions
D Reverse isolation precautions
Which of the following is visualized in a right posterior oblique projection of the lumbar spine? A Left intervertebral foramina B Right intervertebral foramina C Left zygapophyseal joints D Right zygapophyseal joints
D Right zygapophyseal joints
Centering for the AP projection of the upper airway is at the level of A C3-4 B C5-6 C C7-T1 D T1-2
D T1-2
Disclosure of radiography examination content using significantly similar language would result in sanctions against the offending party for violation of A The ARRT Code of Ethics B Laws of copyright infringement C State licensing laws D The ARRT Rules of Ethics
D The ARRT Rules of Ethics
Which type of seizure is sometimes preceded by an aura? A Focal seizure B Petite mal seizure C Absence seizure D Tonic-clonic seizure
D Tonic-clonic seizure
Which of the following is the post-processing function responsible for adjusting the brightness of a digital image? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window width D Window level
D Window level
Select the 4 statements below that are NOT correct regarding x-ray characteristics A X-rays produce fluorescence in certain phosphors B X-rays have a photographic effect on film emulsion C X-rays have an ionizing effect on air D X-rays are focused using collimators E X-rays have a physiological effect on living tissue F The x-ray beam is monoenergetic G X-rays have a penetrating effect on all matter H X-rays are negatively charged I X-rays travel at the speed of sound J X-rays travel in straight lines K X-rays are not perceptible by the senses
D X-rays are focused using collimators F The x-ray beam is monoenergetic H X-rays are negatively charged I X-rays travel at the speed of sound
The AP projection of C1-C2 (dens) Fuchs method requires a CR angulation A 15-20 degrees cephalic B to be parallel IOML C 15-20 degrees caudal D to be parallel to MML
D to be parallel to MML
Organize the steps in a patient transfer from a radiographic exam table to a wheelchair in order from start to finish. Unordered List Place the chair close enough to the exam table that the patient can be moved in one pivot Ensure that the patient is wearing non-skid slippers Move the patient to a sitting position on the edge of the exam Move the exam table to its lowest position Lock both wheels on the wheelchair
Ensure that the patient is wearing non-skid slippers Move the exam table to its lowest position Place the chair close enough to the exam table that the patient can be moved in one pivot Lock both wheels on the wheelchair Move the patient to a sitting position on the edge of the exam