Radiology position: Chapter 15 Self Test
A- 7 degrees
A battery-powered, battery-operated mobile x-ray unit can climb a maximum incline of: A- 7 degrees B- 10 degrees C- 12 degrees D- 15 degrees
Pelvicalyceal
A retrograde pyelogram is a specific radiographic examination of the __________ system.
Fracture (orthopedic) table
A special OR table is used for hip pinning and other orthopedic procedures to provide traction to the involved limb is termed ____________.
Kirschner wire
An unthreaded (smooth) or threaded metallic wire, ised to reduce fractures of the wrist (carpals), is called ___________.
Certified Surgical Technologist
CST is the acronym for ______________.
Dynamic Hip Screw
DHS is an abbreviation for __________.
D- Anesthesiologist
For successful surgical radiographic exposures, clear communication must be established among the surgeon, technologist, and: A- Scrub B- CST C- Circulator D- Anesthesiologist
A- Spiral fx B- Compound fx C- Comminuted fx D- Greenstick fx E- Colles' fx F- Impacted fx G- Compression fx H- Stellate fx I- Pott's fx
From the list of possible fracture types listed here, indicate which fracture is represented on each drawing or radiograph (A through H): -Single (closed) fx - Compound (open) fx - Torus fx - Greenstick fx - Plastic fx - Transverse fx - Oblique fx - Spiral fx - Comminuted fx - Impacted fx - Baseball (mallet) fx - Barton fx - Bennett's fx - Colles' fx - Monteggia fx - Nursemaids' elbow fx - Pott's fx - Avulsion fx - Chip fx - Compression fx - Stellate fx - Tuft fx
Parallel to the interepicondylar plane
How is the CR aligned for a trauma lateral projection of the elbow?
Approximately 25-to-30 degree away from IR, or until the CR can be projected parallel to the scapular blade (wing)
How much rotation of the body, from a supine position, is generally required for a lateromedial scapula projection with a trauma patient who can be turned partially on her side?
D- Weekly
Imaging equipment permanently stored in surgery must be cleaned at least: A- Daily B- Bimonthly C- Monthly D- Weekly
G- Stress or Fatigue
Match each of the following fracture types to its correct definition: Also called a March fracture A- Nursemaids' elbow B- Bennett's C- Baseball D- Pathologic E- Hangman's F- Hutchinson's G- Stress or Fatigue H- Chip I- Monteggia
F- Hutchinson's
Match each of the following fracture types to its correct definition: Also called a chauffeur's fracture A- Nursemaids' elbow B- Bennett's C- Baseball D- Pathologic E- Hangman's F- Hutchinson's G- Stress or Fatigue H- Chip I- Monteggia
B- Bennett's
Match each of the following fracture types to its correct definition: Fracture along the base of the first metacarpal A- Nursemaids' elbow B- Bennett's C- Baseball D- Pathologic E- Hangman's F- Hutchinson's G- Stress or Fatigue H- Chip I- Monteggia
I- Monteggia
Match each of the following fracture types to its correct definition: Fracture of proximal half of the ulna with dislocation of radial head A- Nursemaids' elbow B- Bennett's C- Baseball D- Pathologic E- Hangman's F- Hutchinson's G- Stress or Fatigue H- Chip I- Monteggia
C- Baseball
Match each of the following fracture types to its correct definition: Fracture of the distal phalanx with finger extended A- Nursemaids' elbow B- Bennett's C- Baseball D- Pathologic E- Hangman's F- Hutchinson's G- Stress or Fatigue H- Chip I- Monteggia
D- Pathologic
Match each of the following fracture types to its correct definition: Fracture resulting from a disease process A- Nursemaids' elbow B- Bennett's C- Baseball D- Pathologic E- Hangman's F- Hutchinson's G- Stress or Fatigue H- Chip I- Monteggia
H- Chip
Match each of the following fracture types to its correct definition: Fracture resulting in an isolated bone fragment A- Nursemaids' elbow B- Bennett's C- Baseball D- Pathologic E- Hangman's F- Hutchinson's G- Stress or Fatigue H- Chip I- Monteggia
E- Hangman's
Match each of the following fracture types to its correct definition: Fracture through the pedicles of C2 A- Nursemaids' elbow B- Bennett's C- Baseball D- Pathologic E- Hangman's F- Hutchinson's G- Stress or Fatigue H- Chip I- Monteggia
A- Nursemaids' elbow
Match each of the following fracture types to its correct definition: Subluxation o the radial head on a child A- Nursemaids' elbow B- Bennett's C- Baseball D- Pathologic E- Hangman's F- Hutchinson's G- Stress or Fatigue H- Chip I- Monteggia
Open Reduction with Internal Fixation
ORIF is the abbreviation for _________.
Landscape
On a horizontal beam lateral trauma skull projection, should the IR be placed in portrait or landscape to the patient?
D- Epiphyseal
Radiologist often use the Salter-Harris system to classify __________ fractures. A- Pathologic B- Trimalleolar C- Stellate D- Epiphyseal
nonfunctional
Retrograde urography is a ___________ (nonfunctional or functional) examination of the urinary system.
B- Trauma axiolateral projection
Situation: A patient enters the ER with a possible radial head dislocation. The arm is immobilized with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees. Which of the following projections best demonstrates the radial head free or superimposition of the ulna without having to extend the elbow? A- AP partial flexion B- Trauma axiolateral projection C- Jones method D- Lateromedial projection
15° to 20° mediolateral angle and horizontal beam lateral projections
Situation: A patient with a crushing injury to the thorax enters the emergency room. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. What position would best demonstrate this condition?
A- AP or PA and lateral wrist
Situation: A patient with a possible Barton fracture comes to the radiology department. Which of the following positioning routines would best demonstrate this? A- AP or PA and lateral wrist B- AP, mortise, and lateral ankle C- AP and lateral foot D- AP and lateral lower leg
C- Lateral
Situation: A patient with a possible compression fracture of the lumbar spine enters the emergency room. Which specific projection of the lumbar series would best demonstrate this fracture? A- AP B- LPO and RPO C- Lateral D-AP L5-S1 projection
Perform a cross-angle CR projection of the ankle, with CR 15° to 20° lateromedial from the long axis of the foot
Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the ankle enters the emergency room. The patient cannot rotate the lower limb. What can be done to provide the orthopedic surgeon with a mortise projection of the ankle?
D- Perform an AP axial trauma oblique projections
Situation: A patient with a possible fracture of the cervical spine pedicles enters the emergency. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate this region of the spine without moving the patient? A- Perform a Swimmer's lateral B- Perform an articular pillar projection C- Perform a Fuchs method D- Perform an AP axial trauma oblique projections
A- Right lateral decubitus **For possible fluid in the pleural cavity (pleural effusion), the suspected side should be down.
Situation: A patient with a possible pleural effusion in the right lung enters the emergency room. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. What position would best demonstrate this condition? A- Right lateral decubitus B- AP supine C- Dorsal decubitus D- Semierect AP
C- Left lateral decubitus
Situation: A patient with possible ascites enters the emergecy room. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate this condition? A- AP supine KUV B- Dorsal decubitus C- Left lateral decubitus D- Prone KUB
4 mR ***30 mR/60 minutes x 8 minutes = 4 mR
Situation: A technologist receives 30 mR/hour during a C-arm fluoroscopic procedure. What is the total exposure dose if the procedure takes 8 minutes of fluoroscopy time?
A- <10 mR/hour
Situation: A technologist using a C-arm fluoroscope recieves 125 mR/hour exposure standing 2 feet (0.6 m) from the patient. What is the exposure rate if the technologist moves to a distance of 6 feet (1.8 m)? A- <10 mR/hour B- 15 to 30 mR/hour C- 30 to 50 mR/hour D- 50 to 75 mR/hour
A- Shallow RPO
Situation: An image is taken during an operative cholangiogram shows that the biliary ducts are superimposed over the spine. The surgeon wants the ducts projected away from the spine. Which of the following positions may eliminate this problem during exposure? A- Shallow RPO B- Shallow LPO C- AP D- Horizontal beam lateral
3 to 4 kV
Situation: Following a postreduction of a fractured tibia/fibula, a postreduction study is ordered. A fiberglass cast was placed on the fractured leg. The original technique was 70 kV at 4 mAs (analog system). How much should the technologist increase their factors from the original technique?
C- Surgical assistant
Suctioning, tying, and clamping of blood vessels, as well as assisting in cutting and suturing tissues, are the general duties of the: A- CST B- Circulator C- Surgical assistant D- Scrub
False **Studies have shown that even a 30-degree C-arm tilt will increase the dose to the face and neck region of an operator of average height who stands next to the C-arm by a factor of 4.
T/F: A 30-degree tilt of the C-arm from the vertical perspective increases the dose by a factor of three to the head and neck region.
True
T/F: Any trauma study requires at least two projections as close as possible to 90 degrees opposite from each other.
False
T/F: C-arms are most generally stationary fluoroscopy units used in surgery.
False
T/F: Collimation on trauma cases can lead to cutoff of key anatomy and pathology, therefore it should be limited to the size of the IR.
True
T/F: Digital C-arm units can store images on videotape or computer hard disk memory.
True
T/F: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is not suited for every patient and condition.
True
T/F: On an initial study of a long bone, both joints should be included for each projection.
True
T/F: Scrub covers must be removed before entering the surgical site.
False **The C-arm can be rotated 180 degrees to place the tube on top and the intensifier on the bottom; however, this is not recommended because of the increase in OID, which decreases image resolution and increases scatter radiation.
T/F: The AP projection with the x-ray tube placed directly above the anatomy during a C-arm procedure is recommended to minimize OID.
True **however, this is not recommended because of the increase in OID, which decreases image resolution and increases scatter radiatio
T/F: The C-arm fluoroscopy unit can be rotated a minimum of 180 degrees.
False **The exposure region on the x-ray tube side of the patient is significantly larger than that in the region near the intensifier tower.
T/F: The exposure dose is greater on the image intensifier side than on the x-ray tube side with the C-arm in the horizontal configuration.
True
T/F: The number if angiographies of the aortic arch for the trauma patient has declined because of the increased use of CT angiography.
True
T/F: The technologist can wear nonsterile gloves when handling the IR and surgical cover following a procedure.
False **The operator and all persons who remain in the room during the exposure should always wear a lead apron.
T/F: Wearing a protective lead apron is optional if the technologist is at least 8 feet (2.4 m) from both the x-ray tube and the patient during a mobile radiographic procedure.
False
T/F:Scrubs worn in radiology may also be worn in surgery.
C- Asepsis
The absence of infectious organisms is the definition for: A- Surgical cleanliness B- Sepsis C- Asepsis D- Surgical sterility
C- 6 feet (1.8 m)
The technologist must be at least ________ from the x-ray tube during a mobile radiographic procedure. A- 2 feet (o.6 m) B- 4 feet (1.3 m) C- 6 feet (1.8 m) D- 8 feet (2.4 m)
10° posteriorly from perpendicular to the plantar surface of the foot
To ensure that the CR is aligned properly for an AP trauma projection of the foot, the CR is angled:
D- Ensure side rails are up on the patient cart
What final step should the technologist take before returning a trauma patient to the ER following a radiographic procedure? A- Review patient history B- Review examination requisition C- Check patient armband/identification D- Ensure side rails are up on the patient cart
Subluxation
What is the correct term for a partial displacement?
Dislocation
What is the correct term for the displacement of a bone from a joint?
Two projections taken at 90 degree to each other
What is the minimum number of projections required for a postreduction study of the wrist?
B- Trunnion
What is the name of the device on the x-ray tube mount that permits compound angles of the x-ray tube? A- C-arm B- Trunnion C- Angle brace D- Tube angle stop
To reduce exposure
What is the primary benefit of the "pulse mode" on a digital C-arm unit?
Roadmapping
What is the term for the process of holding one image on the C-arm monitor while also providing continuous fluoroscopy?
A- Only the level of the tabletop
What portion(s) of the OR table is (are) considered sterile: A- Only the level of the tabletop B- Entire table C- Tabletop and half of the base D- None of the table
3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch, level of T7
Where is the CR centered for an AP semierect projection of the chest?
2 inches superior to EAM
Where should the CR be centered for a horizontal beam lateral skull projection?
A horizontal beam lateromedial projection
Which lateral projection would best demonstrate the mid-to-distal humerus without rotating the limb?
D- Interbody fusion cage
Which of the following devices can be used for spinal fusion surgery rather than the use of a pedicle screw? A- Austin-Moore prosthesis B- Cannulated screw C- Dynamic compression plate D- Interbody fusion cage
A- Shower curtain
Which of the following devices helps maintain the sterile environment in surgery during a C-arm-guided hip pinning? A- Shower curtain B- Mylar shield C- Cassette cover D- Good cleaning of equipment before procedure
D- Ilizarov device
Which of the following devices is an example of an external fixator? A- Interbody fusion cage B- Thompson prosthesis C- Modular bipolar prosthesis D- Ilizarov device
B- Trauma, horizontal beam lateral
Which of the following facial bone projections will best demonstrate air-fluid levels in the maxillary sinuses for a patient unable to stand or sit erect? A- AP acanthioparietal B- Trauma, horizontal beam lateral C- AP modified acanthioparietal D- AP axial
B- Lack of apposition (distraction)
Which of the following fracture terms describes a situation in which the ends of fragments are aligned but are pulled apart and are not making contact with each other? A- Dislocation B- Lack of apposition C- Apex angulation D- Anatomic apposition
A- Valgus deformity
Which of the following fracture terms describes an angulation of a distal fracture end away from the midline? A- Valgus deformity B- Varus deformity C- Apex angulation D- Anatomic apposition
B- Intramedullary rod
Which of the following orthopedic devices is used to stabilize a midfemoral shaft fracture? A- Austin-Moore prosthesis B- Intramedullary rod C- Interbody fusion cages D- Cannulated screw
D- All of the above require fluoroscopic guidance
Which of the following procedures does not require the use of mobile fluoroscopy? A- Hip pinning B- Intramedullary rod insertion C- Open reduction of tibia D- All of the above require fluoroscopic guidance
A- 35 to 40 degrees cephalad, AP axial projection
Which of the following projections demonstrate the C1-C2 vertebra if the patient cannot open his mouth? A- 35 to 40 degrees cephalad, AP axial projection B- Swimmer's lateral C- 15 to 20 degrees cephalad, AP axial projection D- Articular pillar projection
C- Use intermittent fluoroscopy
Which of the following techniques best reduces the dose to the surgical team during a C-arm procedure? A- Use boost function whenever possible B- Place tube in vertical position above patient C- Use intermittent fluoroscopy D- Lower kV as low as possible
A- Scoliosis corrective surgery
Which spinal procedure may require the use of Harrington or Luque rods? A- Scoliosis corrective surgery B- Microdiscectomy C- Spinal fusion D- All of the above
Battery-driven, Battery-operated
Which type of mobile x-ray radiography x-ray unit is self-propelled?
Standard Power Source, Capacitor-Discharge, Non Motor-Driven Units
Which type of mobile x-ray unit is lighter weight?