RENAL NCLEX, Saunders NCLEX Rena combined with other med surge books
Which of the following represents a positive response to administration of erythropoietin (Epogen, Procrit)? A. Hematocrit of 26.7% B. Potassium within normal range C. Free from spontaneous fractures D. Less fatigue
D. Less fatigue: Treatment of anemia with erythropoietin will result in increased (H&H) and decreased shortness of breath (SOB) and fatigue.
The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with a diagnosis of pyelonephritis. Which disorder, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse identify as a risk factor for this disorder? 1. Hypoglycemia 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Coronary artery disease 4. Orthostatic hypotension
Diabetes mellitus Risk factors associated with pyelonephritis include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, chronic renal calculi, chronic cystitis, structural abnormalities of the urinary tract, presence of urinary stones, and presence of an indwelling urinary catheter or frequent catheterization. The conditions noted in the remaining options are not associated risk factors.
The nurse is reviewing a client's record and notes that the health care provider has documented that the client has chronic renal disease. On review of the laboratory results, the nurse most likely would expect to note which finding? 1. Elevated creatinine level 2. Decreased hemoglobin level 3. Decreased red blood cell count 4. Increased number of white blood cells in the urine
Elevated creatinine level The creatinine level is the most specific laboratory test to determine renal function. The creatinine level increases when at least 50% of renal function is lost. A decreased hemoglobin level and red blood cell count are associated with anemia or blood loss and not specifically with decreased renal function. Increased white blood cells in the urine are noted with urinary tract infection.
A client with a bladder injury has had surgical repair of the injured area with placement of a suprapubic catheter. Which is the most appropriate nursing action to prevent complications of this procedure? 1. Monitor urine output once per shift. 2. Measure specific gravity once per shift. 3. Encourage an excessive intake of oral fluids. 4. Ensure that the catheter tubing is not kinked.
Ensure that the catheter tubing is not kinked. A complication after surgical repair of the bladder is disruption of sutures, caused by tension on them from urine buildup. The nurse prevents this from happening by ensuring that the catheter is able to drain freely. This involves basic catheter care, including keeping the tubing free from kinks, maintaining the tubing at a level below the bladder, and monitoring the flow of urine frequently. Monitoring of urine output every shift is insufficient to detect decreased flow from catheter kinking. Measurement of urine specific gravity and an excessive intake of oral fluids do not prevent complications of bladder surgery.
The client diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is scheduled for a transrectal ultrasound examination and a test to measure the level of prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The client says to the nurse, "I can't remember . . . can you tell me again why I need these tests to be done?" The nurse responds, knowing that these tests are done for which purpose? 1. Specifically to predict the course of BPH 2. Help to rule out the possibility of cancer 3. Pinpoint the likelihood of developing urinary obstruction 4. Give an indication of whether intermittent self-catheterization is needed
Help to rule out the possibility of cancer A transrectal ultrasound examination and PSA level determination help to rule out the possibility of prostate cancer. They do not specifically predict the course of BPH or the development of complications such as urinary obstruction. These tests have nothing to do with determining need for self-catheterization.
A week after kidney transplantation, a client develops a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C), the blood pressure is elevated, and there is tenderness over the transplanted kidney. The serum creatinine is rising and urine output is decreased. The x-ray indicates that the transplanted kidney is enlarged. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse anticipates which treatment? 1. Antibiotic therapy 2. Peritoneal dialysis 3. Removal of the transplanted kidney 4. Increased immunosuppression therapy
Increased immunosuppression therapy Acute rejection most often occurs within 1 week after transplantation but can occur any time posttransplantation. Clinical manifestations include fever, malaise, elevated white blood cell count, acute hypertension, graft tenderness, and manifestations of deteriorating renal function. Treatment consists of increasing immunosuppressive therapy. Antibiotics are used to treat infection. Peritoneal dialysis cannot be used with a newly transplanted kidney due to the recent surgery. Removal of the transplanted kidney is indicated with hyperacute rejection, which occurs within 48 hours of the transplant surgery.
1, 3, 4 The nurse should assess the drain postoperatively. The head of the bed should be lowered and the foot should be elevated to shunt blood to the central circulating system. The surgeon needs to be notified of the change in condition.
The client returned from surgery after having a TURP and has a P 110, R 24, BP90/40, and cool and clammy skin. Which interventions should the nurse implement?Select all that apply. 1.Assess the urine in the continuous irrigation drainage bag. 2.Decrease the irrigation fluid in the continuous irrigation catheter. 3.Lower the head of the bed while raising the foot of the bed. 4.Contact the surgeon to give an update on the client's condition. 5.Check the client's postoperative creatinine and BUN.
4. Clients with acute bacterial prostatitis will frequently experience a sudden onset of fever and chills. Clients with chronic prostatitis have milder symptoms.
Which data support to the nurse the client's diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis? 1.Terminal dribbling. 2.Urinary frequency. 3.Stress incontinence. 4.Sudden fever and chills.
Which of the following problems is expected in a client who is in end-stage renal failure? a) anemia b) thalassemia c) renal calculi d) hypotension
a) anemia
The client has been diagnosed to have glomerulonephritis. What should the nurse observe in the urine? a) blood b) pus c) white blood cells d) glucose
a) blood
The client has been diagnosed to have glomerulonephritis. What should the nurse observe in the urine? a) blood b) pus c) white blood cells d) glucose
a) blood
Which of the following should the nurse include in the nursing care plan of the client who is diagnosed to have renal failure, whose BUN is 32 mg/dl, serum creatinine is 4 mg/dl, hematocrit is 38%. He is complaining of fatigue and edema. a) low protein diet and fluid restriction b) high protein diet and fluid restriction c) low protein diet and increase in fiber d) high protein diet and potassium restriction
a) low protein diet and fluid restriction
Diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis has been established your nursing intervention includes the following except: a) provide health teaching and discharge planning b) administer antibiotic c) measure I and O d) provide adequate comfort and rest
c) measure I and O
In the oliguric phase of renal failure, what is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis? a) fluid volume deficit b) activity intolerance c) ineffective breathing pattern d) fluid volume excess
d) fluid volume excess
The nurse is reviewing the list of components contained in the peritoneal dialysis solution with the client. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the glucose contained in the solution. The nurse bases the response on knowing that the glucose: 1. Decreases the risk of peritonitis. 2. Prevents disequilibrium syndrome. 3. Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration. 4. Prevents excess glucose from being removed from the client.
3. Increasing the glucose concentration makes the solution more hypertonic. The more hypertonic the solution, the higher the osmotic pressure for ultrafiltration and thus the greater the amount of fluid removed from the client during an exchange. Options 1, 2, and 4 do not identify the purpose of the glucose.
The dialysis solution is warmed before use in peritoneal dialysis primarily to: A. Encourage the removal of serum urea B. Force potassium back into the cells C. Add extra warmth into the body D. Promote abdominal muscle relaxation
A The main reason for warming the peritoneal dialysis solution is that the warm solution helps dilate peritoneal vessels, which increases urea clearance. Warmed dialyzing solution also contributes to client comfort by preventing chilly sensations, but this is a secondary reason for warming the solution. The warmed solution does not force potassium into the cells or promote abdominal muscle relaxation.
The nurse instructs a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the menu? a. Cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee b. Sausage and eggs, banana, orange juice. c. Bacon, cantaloupe melon, tomato juice. d. Cured pork, grits, strawberries, orange juice.
A The diet for a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis should include controlled amounts of sodium, phosphorus, calcium, potassium, and fluids. Options 2, 3, and 4 are high in sodium, phosphorus and potassium.
Which client is most at risk for developing a Candida urinary tract infection (UTI)? 1. An obese woman 2. A man with diabetes insipidus 3. A young woman on antibiotic therapy 4. A male paraplegic on intermittent catheterization
A young woman on antibiotic therapy Candida infections, which are fungal infections, develop in persons who are on long-term antibiotic therapy because an alteration of normal flora occurs. These infections also are commonly seen in clients with blood dyscrasias, diabetes mellitus, cancer, or immunosuppression and in those with a drug addiction.
What stimulated the release of Antidiuretic Hormone?
ADH stimulated by: 🔺⬇️ ECF volume 🔺⬆️ Osmolarity of blood 🔺⬇️ In central venous pressure. 🔺Stress 🔺Pain 🔺Surgery 🔺Anesthesia.
The most common early sign of kidney disease is: A. Sodium retention B. Elevated BUN level C. Development of metabolic acidosis D. Inability to dilute or concentrate urine
B Increased BUN is usually an early indicator of decreased renal function.
You expect a patient in the oliguric phase of renal failure to have a 24 hour urine output less than: A. 200ml B. 400ml C. 800ml D. 1000ml
B Oliguria is defined as urine output of less than 400ml/24hours.
A client who has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure has been told that hemodialysis will be required. The client becomes angry and withdrawn, and states, "I'll never be the same now." The nurse formulates which of the following nursing diagnoses for this client? a) disturbed thought processes b) disturbed body image c) anxiety d) noncompliance
B - The client with any renal disorder, such as renal failure, may become angry and depressed because of the permanence of the alteration. Because of the physical change and the change in lifestyle that may be required to manage a severe renal condition, the client may experience Disturbed body image. Options A, C, and D are unrelated to the client's statement.
Renal Osteodystrophy
Bone lesions due to secondary hyperparathyroidism due to chronic renal disease.
A client with severe back pain and hematuria is found to have hydronephrosis due to urolithiasis. The nurse anticipates which treatment will be done to relieve the obstruction? Select all that apply. 1. Peritoneal dialysis 2. Analysis of the urinary stone 3. Intravenous opioid analgesics 4. Insertion of a nephrostomy tube 5. Placement of a ureteral stent with ureteroscopy
4. Insertion of a nephrostomy tube 5. Placement of a ureteral stent with ureteroscopy Urolithiasis is the condition that occurs when a stone forms in the urinary system. Hydronephrosis develops when the stone has blocked the ureter and urine backs up and dilates and damages the kidney. Priority treatment is to allow the urine to drain and relieve the obstruction in the ureter. This is accomplished by placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy tube to drain urine from the kidney and placement of a ureteral stent to keep the ureter open. Peritoneal dialysis is not needed since the kidney is functioning. Stone analysis will be done later when the stone has been retrieved and analyzed. Opioid analgesics are necessary for pain relief but do not treat the obstruction.
A client newly diagnosed with renal failure has just been started on peritoneal dialysis. During the infusion of the dialysate, the client complains of abdominal pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Stop the dialysis. 2. Slow the infusion. 3. Decrease the amount to be infused. 4. Explain that the pain will subside after the first few exchanges.
4. Pain during the inflow of dialysate is common during the first few exchanges because of peritoneal irritation; however, the pain usually disappears after 1 to 2 weeks of treatment. The infusion amount should not be decreased, and the infusion should not be slowed or stopped.
You have a paraplegic patient with renal calculi. Which factor contributes to the development of calculi? A. Increased calcium loss from the bones B. Decreased kidney function C. Decreased calcium intake D. High fluid intake
A Bones lose calcium when a patient can no longer bear weight. The calcium lost from bones form calculi, a concentration of mineral salts also known as a stone, in the renal system.
You're developing a care plan with the nursing diagnosis risk for infection for your patient that received a kidney transplant. A goal for this patient is to: A. Remain afebrile and have negative cultures B. Resume normal fluid intake within 2 to 3 days C. Resume the patient's normal job within 2 to 3 weeks D. Try to discontinue cyclosporine (Neoral) as quickly as possible
A The immunosuppressive activity of cyclosporine places the patient at risk for infection, and steroids can mask the signs of infection. The patient may not be able to resume normal fluid intake or return to work for an extended period of time and the patient may need cyclosporine therapy for life.
The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has chronic renal failure. Which of the following nursing diagnoses are most appropriate for this client? Select all that apply. A. Excess Fluid Volume B. Imbalanced Nutrition; Less than Body Requirements C. Activity Intolerance D. Impaired Gas Exchange E. Pain
A,B,C Appropriate nursing diagnoses for clients with chronic renal failure include excess fluid volume related to fluid and sodium retention; imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting; and activity intolerance related to fatigue. The nursing diagnoses of impaired gas exchange and pain are not commonly related to chronic renal failure
The nurse teaches the client recovering from acute kidney disease to avoid which of these? A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors C. Opiates D. Acetaminophen
A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be nephrotoxic. ACE inhibitors are used for treatment of hypertension and to protect the kidneys, especially in the diabetic client, from progression of kidney disease. Opiates may be used by clients with kidney disease if severe pain is present; however, excretion may be delayed. Acetaminophen is hepatotoxic, not generally nephrotoxic.
The nurse is teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome about managing the disorder. What should the nurse instruct the client to adjust according to the amount of edema present? 1. Salt intake 2. Water intake 3. Activity level 4. Use of diuretics
Activity level The client is taught to adjust the activity level according to the amount of edema. As edema decreases, activity can increase. Correspondingly, as edema increases, the client should increase rest periods and limit activity. Bed rest is recommended during periods of severe edema. The client with nephrotic syndrome usually has a standard limit set on sodium intake. Fluids are not restricted unless the client also is hyponatremic. Diuretics are prescribed on a specific schedule, and doses are not titrated according to the level of edema.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been on dialysis for 3 years. The client is receiving the usual combination of medications for the disease, including aluminum hydroxide as a phosphate-binding agent. The client now presents with mental cloudiness, dementia, and complaints of bone pain. The nurse determines that these assessment data are compatible with which condition? 1. Advancing uremia 2. Phosphate overdose 3. Folic acid deficiency 4. Aluminum intoxication
Aluminum intoxication Aluminum hydroxide may be prescribed as a phosphate-binding agent. Aluminum intoxication can occur when there is an accumulation of aluminum, an ingredient in many phosphate-binding antacids. It results in mental cloudiness, dementia, and bone pain from infiltration of the bone with aluminum. It can be treated with aluminum-chelating agents, which make aluminum available to be dialyzed from the body. It can be prevented by avoiding or limiting the use of phosphate-binding agents that contain aluminum. The data in the question are not specifically associated with the other conditions noted in the options.
A client with end-stage renal disease is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse is monitoring the client for signs of complications associated with peritoneal dialysis. Select all that apply. 1. Pruritus 2. Oliguria 3. Tachycardia 4. Cloudy outflow 5. Abdominal pain
Answer: 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Tachycardia can be caused by peritonitis, a complication of peritoneal dialysis; the heart rate increases to meet the metabolic demands associated with infection. Cloudy or opaque dialysate outflow (effluent) is the earliest sign of peritonitis; it is caused by the constituents associated with an infectious process. Abdominal pain is associated with peritonitis, a complication of peritoneal dialysis; pain results from peritoneal inflammation, abdominal distention, and involuntary muscle spasms. Severe itching (pruritus) is caused by metabolic waste products that are deposited in the skin; dialysis removes metabolic waste products, preventing this adaptation associated with kidney failure. The production of abnormally small amounts of urine (oliguria) is a sign of kidney failure, not a complication of peritoneal dialysis.
A client is having difficulty coughing and deep-breathing because of pain after a nephrectomy. Which action by the nurse is helpful in promoting optimal respiratory function? 1. Administering pain medication just before ambulation 2. Administering pain medication when the client asks for it 3. Encouraging the use of the incentive spirometer every 8 hours 4. Assisting the client to splint the incision during respiratory exercise
Assisting the client to splint the incision during respiratory exercise The client who has had a nephrectomy may have pain with coughing and deep breathing and other respiratory exercises because the location of the incision is so close to the diaphragm. The nurse assists the client by offering opioid analgesics when due, encouraging incentive spirometer use hourly, and assisting the client to splint the incision during coughing. If the client takes pain medication only before ambulation, control of pain may be insufficient, which will not promote optimal respiratory function (pain medication should be offered 30 to 45 minutes before the client ambulates). Laparoscopic nephrectomy can also be performed. Compared to conventional nephrectomy, the laparoscopic approach is less painful and requires no sutures or staples, involves a shorter hospital stay, and has a much faster recovery.
A client passes a urinary stone, and laboratory analysis of the stone indicates that it is composed of calcium oxalate. On the basis of these data, which should the nurse specifically include in the dietary instructions? 1. Increase intake of dairy products. 2. Avoid citrus fruits and citrus juices. 3. Avoid green, leafy vegetables such as spinach. 4. Increase intake of meat, fish, plums, and cranberries.
Avoid green, leafy vegetables such as spinach. Oxalate is found in dark green foods such as spinach. Other foods that raise urinary oxalate are rhubarb, strawberries, chocolate, wheat bran, nuts, beets, and tea. The food items in options 1, 2, and 4 are acceptable to consume.
What is the most important nursing diagnosis for a patient in end-stage renal disease? A. Risk for injury B. Fluid volume excess C. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements D. Activity intolerance
B Kidneys are unable to rid the body of excess fluids which results in fluid volume excess during ESRD.
A client with chronic renal failure has asked to be evaluated for a home continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) program. The nurse should explain that the major advantage of this approach is that it: A. Is relatively low in cost B. Allows the client to be more independent C. Is faster and more efficient than standard peritoneal dialysis D. Has fewer potential complications than standard peritoneal dialysis
B The major benefit of CAPD is that it frees the client from daily dependence on dialysis centers, home health care personnel, and machines for life-sustaining treatment. The independence is a valuable outcome for some people. CAPD is costly and must be done daily. Side effects and complications are similar to those of standard peritoneal dialysis.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving immunosuppressant therapy including corticosteroids following a renal transplant. The nurse would plan to carefully monitor which laboratory result for this client? a) serum albumin b) blood glucose c) magnesium d) potassium
B - Corticosteroid therapy can result in glucose intolerance, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. The nurse monitors these levels to detect this side effect of therapy. With successful transplant, the client's serum electrolyte levels should be better regulated, although corticosteroids could also cause sodium retention.
The nurse in the transplantation unit assesses for which of these signs and symptoms of rejection of the transplanted kidney. Select all that apply. A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 21, creatinine 0.9 B. Crackles in lung fields C. Temperature 98.8 D. Blood pressure 164/98 E. +3 edema of lower extremities
B. Crackles in lung fields, D. Blood pressure 164/98, E. +3 edema of lower extremities
Which statement correctly distinguishes renal failure from prere.nal failure? A. With prerenal failure, vasoactive substances such as dopamine (Intropin) increase blood pressure B. With prerenal failure, there is less response to such diuretics as furosemide (Lasix) C. With prerenal failure, an IV isotonic saline infusion increases urine output D. With prerenal failure, hemodialysis reduces the BUN level
C Prerenal failure is caused by such conditions as hypovolemia that impairs kidney perfusion; giving isotonic fluids improves urine output. Vasoactive substances can increase blood pressure in both conditions.
What is the primary disadvantage of using peritoneal dialysis for long term management of chronic renal failure? A. The danger of hemorrhage is high B. It cannot correct severe imbalances C. It is a time consuming method of treatment D. The risk of contracting hepatitis is high
C The disadvantages of peritoneal dialysis in long-term management of chronic renal failure is that is requires large blocks of time. The risk of hemorrhage or hepatitis is not high with PD. PD is effective in maintaining a client's fluid and electrolyte balance.
A client is being discharged to home while recovering from acute renal failure (ARF). The client indicates an understanding of the therapeutic dietary regimen if the client states the need to eat foods that are lower in: a) fats b) vitamins c) potassium d) carbohydrates
C - Most of the excretion of potassium and the control of potassium balance are normal functions of the kidneys. In the client with renal failure, potassium intake must be restricted as much as possible (30 to 50 mEq/day). The primary mechanism of potassium removal during ARF is dialysis. Options A, B, and D are not normally restricted in the client with ARF unless a secondary health problem warrants the need to do so.
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with an oxalate kidney stone. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which food? 1. Breads 2. Poultry 3. Chocolate 4. Prune juice
Chocolate Clients with oxalate stones should avoid foods high in oxalate, such as tea, instant coffee, cola drinks, beer, rhubarb, beans, asparagus, spinach, cabbage, chocolate, citrus fruits, apples, grapes, cranberries, and peanuts and peanut butter. Large doses of vitamin C may help increase oxalate excretion in the urine.
A client has urinary calculi composed of uric acid. The nurse is teaching the client dietary measures to prevent further development of uric acid calculi. The nurse should inform the client that it is acceptable to consume which item? 1. Steak 2. Shrimp 3. Chicken liver 4. Cottage cheese
Cottage cheese With a uric acid stone, the client should limit intake of foods high in purines. Organ meats, sardines, herring, and other high-purine foods are eliminated from the diet. Intake of foods with moderate levels of purines, such as red and white meats and some seafood, also is limited. Avoiding the consumption of milk and dairy products is a recommended dietary change for calculi composed of calcium stones but is acceptable for the client with a uric acid stone.
A male client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should nurse Olivia assess first? A. Blood pressure B. Respirations C. Temperature D. Pulse
D An elevated serum potassium level may lead to a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia, which the nurse can detect immediately by palpating the pulse. The client's blood pressure may change, but only as a result of the arrhythmia. Therefore, the nurse should assess blood pressure later. The nurse also can delay assessing respirations and temperature because these aren't affected by the serum potassium level.
Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a female client's uremia. Which finding signals a significant problem during this procedure? A. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L B. Hematocrit (HCT) of 35% C. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3
D An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it's readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn't abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.
Your patient with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should you include in this patient's teaching plan? A. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel B. Take frequent baths C. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin D. Keep fingernails short and clean
D Calcium-phosphate deposits in the skin may cause pruritus. Scratching leads to excoriation and breaks in the skin that increase the patient's risk of infection. Keeping fingernails short and clean helps reduce the risk of infection.
Your patient had surgery to form an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis. Which information is important for providing care for the patient? A. The patient shouldn't feel pain during initiation of dialysis B. The patient feels best immediately after the dialysis treatment C. Using a stethoscope for auscultating the fistula is contraindicated D. Taking a blood pressure reading on the affected arm can cause clotting of the fistula
D Pressure on the fistula or the extremity can decrease blood flow and precipitate clotting, so avoid taking blood pressure on the affected arm.
Which instructions do you include in the teaching care plan for a patient with cystitis receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium). A. If the urine turns orange-red, call the doctor. B. Take phenazopyridine just before urination to relieve pain. C. Once painful urination is relieved, discontinue prescribed antibiotics. D. After painful urination is relieved, stop taking phenazopyridine
D Pyridium is taken to relieve dysuria because is provides an analgesic and anesthetic effect on the urinary tract mucosa. The patient can stop taking it after the dysuria is relieved. The urine may temporarily turn red or orange due to the dye in the drug. The drug isn't taken before voiding, and is usually taken 3 times a day for 2 days.
What is the best way to check for patency of the arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis? A. Pinch the fistula and note the speed of filling on release B. Use a needle and syringe to aspirate blood from the fistula C. Check for capillary refill of the nail beds on that extremity D. Palpate the fistula throughout its length to assess for a thrill
D The vibration or thrill felt during palpation ensures that the fistula has the desired turbulent blood flow. Pinching the fistula could cause damage. Aspirating blood is a needless invasive procedure.
The client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. The priority nurse action would be to: a. Check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill. b. Observe the site once as time permits during the shift. c. Check the results of the prothrombin times as they are determined. d. Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing.
D An arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because two ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours.
The client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: a. During dialysis. b. Just before dialysis. c. The day after dialysis. d. On return from dialysis.
D Antihypertensive medications such as enalapril are given to the client following hemodialysis. This prevents the client from becoming hypotensive during dialysis and also from having the medication removed from the bloodstream by dialysis. No rationale exists for waiting an entire day to resume the medication. This would lead to ineffective control of the blood pressure.
After teaching a group of students about how to perform peritoneal dialysis, which statement would indicate to the instructor that the students need additional teaching? a) "The effluent should be allowed to drain by gravity." b) "It is important to use strict aseptic technique." c) "The infusion clamp should be open during infusion." d) "It is appropriate to warm the dialysate in a microwave."
D) It is appropriate to warm the dialysate in a microwave Explanation: The dialysate should be warmed in a commercial warmer and never in a microwave oven. Strict aseptic technique is essential. The infusion clamp is opened during the infusion and clamped after the infusion. When the dwell time is done, the drain clamp is opened and the fluid is allowed to drain by gravity into the drainage bag.
A client with uric acid calculi is placed on a low-purine diet. The nurse instructs the client to restrict the intake of which food? 1. Fish 2. Plum juice 3. Fruit juice 4. Cranberries
Fish Clients who form uric acid calculi should be placed on a low-purine diet. Their intake of fish and meats (especially organ meats) should be restricted. Dietary modifications also may help adjust urinary pH so that stone formation is inhibited. Depending on health care provider prescription, the urine may be alkalinized by increasing the intake of bicarbonates or acidified by drinking cranberry, plum, or prune juice.
The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing metabolic acidosis. When performing an assessment, the nurse should expect to note which breathing pattern? 1. Apnea 2. Kussmaul respirations 3. Decreased respirations 4. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Kussmaul respirations Clinical manifestations associated with AKI occur as a result of metabolic acidosis. The nurse would expect to note Kussmaul respirations as a result of the metabolic acidosis because the bodily response is to exhale excess carbon dioxide. The breathing patterns noted in options 1, 3, and 4 are not characteristic of AKI.
The nurse has given instructions about Kegel exercises to a female client with a cystocele. The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction if she makes which statement? 1. "I should stop and start my stream of urine during a voiding." 2. "I should tighten my perineal muscles for up to 10 seconds several times a day." 3. "I should tighten my perineal muscles for up to 5 minutes 3 or 4 times a day." 4. "I should begin voiding and then stop the stream, holding residual urine for an hour."
"I should begin voiding and then stop the stream, holding residual urine for an hour." Kegel muscles strengthen the perineal floor and are useful in the prevention and management of cystocele, rectocele, and enterocele. Several ways to perform Kegel exercises are acceptable. One method entails starting and stopping the flow of urine during a single voiding for about 5 seconds. Also, these exercises may be done by holding perineal muscles taut for up to 10 seconds several times a day or for 5 minutes 3 or 4 times a day. Residual urine should not be held in the bladder for long periods because this could promote urinary tract infection.
The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with chronic kidney disease and uremia. The nurse is developing interventions to assist in promoting an increased dietary intake while at the same time maintaining necessary dietary restrictions. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Increase the amount of protein in the diet. 2. Increase the amount of potassium in the daily diet. 3. Maintain a diet high in calories with frequent snacks. 4. Encourage the client to eat a large breakfast and smaller meals later in the day.
Maintain a diet high in calories with frequent snacks. Uremia usually is accompanied by nausea, anorexia, and an unpleasant taste in the mouth. Most clients experience more nausea and vomiting in the morning. Therefore, to maintain optimal nutrition, it is best for these clients to eat a diet that is high in calories with frequent snacks and a light breakfast in the morning and larger meals later in the day. Dietary management usually is aimed at restricting protein, sodium, and potassium.
A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse determines that which neurological and psychosocial manifestations, if exhibited by this client, are related to the CKD? Select all that apply. 1. Agitation 2. Euphoria 3. Depression 4. Withdrawal 5. Labile emotions
1. Agitation 3. Depression 4. Withdrawal 5. Labile emotions The client with CKD often experiences a variety of psychosocial changes. These changes are related to uremia and to the stress associated with living with a chronic disease that is life threatening. Euphoria is not part of the clinical picture for the client in renal failure. Clients with CKD may have labile emotions or personality changes and may exhibit withdrawal, depression, or agitation. Delusions and psychosis also can occur.
The nurse is monitoring the urine output of a client with low serum protein level and urinary output less than 30 mL in the last hour. Based on these data, the nurse understands that low urinary output is caused by which force within the kidneys? 1. Oncotic pressure 2. Osmotic pressure 3. Filtration pressure 4. Hydrostatic pressure
Oncotic pressure The pulling pressure within the capillaries that is exerted by the plasma proteins is referred to as the oncotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the movement of water along a pressure gradient. Filtration pressure is the pressure that is exerted with ultrafiltration, in which the pressure within the capillaries is greater than the pressure outside them; this results in fluids being pushed across the membrane into Bowman's capsule. Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries allows fluid to be filtered out of the blood in the glomerulus.
The nurse is analyzing the posthemodialysis laboratory test results for a client with chronic kidney disease. The nurse interprets that the dialysis is having an expected but nontherapeutic effect if which value is decreased? 1. Potassium 2. Creatinine 3. Phosphorus 4. Red blood cell (RBC) count
Red blood cell (RBC) count Hemodialysis typically lowers the amounts of fluid, sodium, potassium, urea nitrogen, creatinine, uric acid, magnesium, and phosphate levels in the blood. Hemodialysis also worsens anemia because RBCs are lost during dialysis from blood sampling and anticoagulation and from residual blood left in the dialyzer. Although all of these results are expected, only the lowered RBC count is nontherapeutic and worsens the anemia already caused by the disease process.
A client diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease has been taught about the treatment plan for this disease. The nurse should determine that the client needs further teaching if the client states that which is included in the treatment plan? 1. Genetic counseling 2. Sodium restriction 3. Increased water intake 4. Antihypertensive medications
Sodium restriction Individuals with polycystic kidney disease seem to waste rather than retain sodium. Unless the client has problems with uncontrolled hypertension, increased sodium and water intake is needed. Antihypertensive medications are prescribed to control hypertension. Genetic counseling is advisable because of the hereditary nature of the disease.
A female client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which problem? 1. Rupture of the bladder 2. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula 3. Extreme stress because of the diagnosis of cancer 4. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy
The development of a vesicovaginal fistula A complication of radiation therapy for bladder cancer is fistula formation. In women, this frequently is manifested as a vesicovaginal fistula, which is an opening between the bladder and the vagina. With this complication the client senses that urine is flowing out of the vagina. In men, a colovesical fistula may develop, which is an opening between the bladder and the colon. This is manifested as voiding urine that contains fecal material. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.
The nurse is caring for an older client. Which finding should the nurse expect to note in this client while evaluating renal function? 1. Tubular reabsorption increases 2. Urine-concentrating ability increases 3. Medications are metabolized in larger amounts 4. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) diminishes
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) diminishes As part of the normal aging process, the GFR decreases, along with each of the other functional abilities of the kidney. Tubular reabsorption and urine-concentrating ability also decrease. The kidneys have decreased ability to metabolize medications.
2. Hypotension, which causes a decreased blood supply to the kidney, is one of the most common causes of pre-renal failure(before the kidney).
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out ARF. Which condition predisposes the client to developing prerenal failure? 1.Diabetes mellitus. 2.Hypotension. 3.Aminoglycosides. 4.Benign prostatic hypertrophy
2. Increasing the irrigation fluid will flush out the clots and blood.
The nurse observes red urine and several large clots in the tubing of the normal saline continuous irrigation catheter for the client who is one (1) day postoperative TURP. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1.Remove the indwelling catheter. 2.Titrate the NS irrigation to run faster. 3.Administer protamine sulfate IVP. 4.Administer vitamin K slowly.
The nurse has administered a dose of meperidine hydrochloride to a client with renal colic as treatment for pain. The nurse carefully monitors this client for which side and adverse effect of this medication? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hypertension 3. Urinary retention 4. Increased respirations
Urinary retention Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Side effects of meperidine hydrochloride include respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, drowsiness and mental clouding, constipation, and urinary retention.
The nurse has performed a nutritional assessment on a client with cystitis. The nurse should tell the client to consume which beverage to minimize recurrence of cystitis? 1. Tea 2. Water 3. Coffee 4. White wine
Water Water helps flush bacteria out of the bladder, and an intake of 6 to 8 glasses per day is encouraged. Caffeine and alcohol can irritate the bladder. Therefore, alcohol- and caffeine-containing beverages such as coffee, tea, and wine are avoided to minimize risk.
The nurse is preparing to care for a client after a renal scan. Which intervention should the nurse include in the postprocedure plan of care? 1. Limit contact with the client to 20 minutes per hour. 2. Place the client on radiation precautions for 18 hours. 3. Save all urine in a radiation-safe container for 18 hours. 4. Wear gloves if contact with the client's urine will occur.
Wear gloves if contact with the client's urine will occur. No specific precautions are necessary after a renal scan. Urination into a commode is acceptable without risk from the small amount of radioactive material to be excreted. The nurse wears gloves to maintain body secretion precautions. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unnecessary.
A client with urolithiasis (struvite stones) has a history of chronic urinary tract infections. What should the nurse plan to teach the client to avoid? 1. Antibiotics 2. Foods that make the urine more acidic 3. Wearing synthetic underwear and pantyhose 4. Fruits such as currants, blueberries, and cranberries
Wearing synthetic underwear and pantyhose Urolithiasis (struvite stones) can result from chronic infections. They form in urine that is alkaline and rich in ammonia, such as with a urinary tract infection. Teaching should focus on preventing infections and ingesting foods to make the urine more acidic. Foods such as currants, blueberries, and cranberries are acidic. The client should wear cotton, not synthetic, underclothing to prevent the accumulation of moisture and to prevent irritation of the perineal area, which can lead to infection. Antibiotics are not associated with chronic urinary tract infections.
Which of the following client responses shows a correct understanding of continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)? a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home b) the procedure lasts for one hour c) I have to sit and raise my legs during the procedure d) I have to go to the hospital for this procedure
a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home
Which of the following client responses shows a correct understanding of continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)? a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home b) the procedure lasts for one hour c) I have to sit and raise my legs during the procedure d) I have to go to the hospital for this procedure
a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home
The client hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale and anxious. The nurse suspects air embolism. The priority action for the nurse is to: a) discontinue dialysis and notify the physician b) monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour c) continue dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air d) bolus the client with 500 ml of normal saline to break up the air embolus
a) discontinue dialysis and notify the physician
Which drugs will be used to treat the patient with CKD for mineral and bone disorder (select all that apply)? a. Cinacalcet (Sensipar) b. Sevelamer (Renagel) c. IV glucose and insulin d. Calcium acetate (PhosLo) e. IV 10% calcium gluconate
a, b, d. Cinacalcet (Sensipar), a calcimimetic agent to control secondary hyperparathyroidism; sevelamer (Renagel), a noncalcium phosphate binder; and calcium acetate (PhosLo), a calcium-based phosphate binder are used to treat mineral and bone disorder in CKD. IV glucose and insulin and IV 10% calcium gluconate along with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) are used to treat the hyperkalemia of CKD.
Which drugs will be used to treat the patient with CKD for mineral and bone disorder (select all that apply)? a. Cinacalcet (Sensipar) b. Sevelamer (Renagel) c. IV glucose and insulin d. Calcium acetate (PhosLo) e. IV 10% calcium gluconate
a, b, d. Cinacalcet (Sensipar), a calcimimetic agent to control secondary hyperparathyroidism; sevelamer (Renagel), a noncalcium phosphate binder; and calcium acetate (PhosLo), a calcium-based phosphate binder are used to treat mineral and bone disorder in CKD. IV glucose and insulin and IV 10% calcium gluconate along with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) are used to treat the hyperkalemia of CKD.
The patient with CKD is receiving dialysis, and the nurse observes excoriations on the patient's skin. What pathophysiologic changes in CKD can contribute to this finding (select all that apply)? a. Dry skin b. Sensory neuropathy c. Vascular calcifications d. Calcium-phosphate skin deposits e. Uremic crystallization from high BUN
a, b, d. Pruritus is common in patients receiving dialysis. It causes scratching from dry skin, sensory neuropathy, and calcium-phosphate deposition in the skin. Vascular calcifications contribute to cardiovascular disease, not to itching skin. Uremic frost rarely occurs without BUN levels greater than 200 mg/dL, which should not occur in a patient on dialysis; urea crystallizes on the skin and also causes pruritis.
The patient with CKD is receiving dialysis, and the nurse observes excoriations on the patient's skin. What pathophysiologic changes in CKD can contribute to this finding (select all that apply)? a. Dry skin b. Sensory neuropathy c. Vascular calcifications d. Calcium-phosphate skin deposits e. Uremic crystallization from high BUN
a, b, d. Pruritus is common in patients receiving dialysis. It causes scratching from dry skin, sensory neuropathy, and calcium-phosphate deposition in the skin. Vascular calcifications contribute to cardiovascular disease, not to itching skin. Uremic frost rarely occurs without BUN levels greater than 200 mg/dL, which should not occur in a patient on dialysis; urea crystallizes on the skin and also causes pruritis.
Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome Prednisone is prescribed for Carlo. The nurse evaluate its effectiveness by a) checking his BP every 4 hours b) checking his urine for protein c) weighing him each morning before breakfast d) observing him for behavioral changes
b) checking his urine for protein Monitor side effect of prolonged steroid therapy Hyperglycemia - test urine monitor growth of child by checking height because steroid has growth suppressing effect by preventing calcium deposition in the bones Gastric Irritation - give milk or meals, test for occult blood, administer with antacids Avoid exposure to infection because child is immunosuppressed
The client with acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. The nurse would plan which of the following as a priority action? a) check the sodium level b) place the client on a cardiac monitor c) encourage increased vegetables in the diet d) allow an extra 500 ml of fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration
b) place the client on a cardiac monitor
The client with chronic renal failure is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. He asks why the nurse monitors his blood glucose levels. Which of the following will be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a) I have to check if you have diabetes mellitus b) the dialysate contains glucose c) the procedure may lower your blood glucose levels d) it is a routine procedure for every client who undergoes the treatment
b) the dialysate contains glucose
What is the primary way that a nurse will evaluate the patency of an AVF? a. Palpate for pulses distal to the graft site. b. Auscultate for the presence of a bruit at the site. c. Evaluate the color and temperature of the extremity. d. Assess for the presence of numbness and tingling distal to the site.
b. A patent arteriovenous fistula (AVF) creates turbulent blood flow that can be assessed by listening for a bruit or palpated for a thrill as the blood passes through the graft. Assessment of neurovascular status in the extremity distal to the graft site is important to determine that the graft does not impair circulation to the extremity but the neurovascular status does not indicate whether the graft is open.
What is the most serious electrolyte disorder associated with kidney disease? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypermagnesemia
b. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Hypocalcemia leads to an accelerated rate of bone remodeling and potentially to tetany. Hyponatremia may lead to confusion. Elevated sodium levels lead to edema, hypertension, and heart failure. Hypermagnesemia may decrease reflexes, mental status, and blood pressure.
To prevent the most common serious complication of PD, what is important for the nurse to do? a. Infuse the dialysate slowly. b. Use strict aseptic technique in the dialysis procedures. c. Have the patient empty the bowel before the inflow phase. d. Reposition the patient frequently and promote deep breathing.
b. Peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis (PD) and may require catheter removal and termination of dialysis. Infection occurs from contamination of the dialysate or tubing or from progression of exit-site or tunnel infections and strict sterile technique must be used by health professionals as well as the patient to prevent contamination. Too-rapid infusion may cause shoulder pain and pain may be caused if the catheter tip touches the bowel. Difficulty breathing, atelectasis, and pneumonia may occur from pressure of the fluid on the diaphragm, which may be prevented by elevating the head of the bed and promoting repositioning and deep breathing.
To prevent the most common serious complication of PD, what is important for the nurse to do? a. Infuse the dialysate slowly. b. Use strict aseptic technique in the dialysis procedures. c. Have the patient empty the bowel before the inflow phase. d. Reposition the patient frequently and promote deep breathing.
b. Peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis (PD) and may require catheter removal and termination of dialysis. Infection occurs from contamination of the dialysate or tubing or from progression of exit-site or tunnel infections and strict sterile technique must be used by health professionals as well as the patient to prevent contamination. Too-rapid infusion may cause shoulder pain and pain may be caused if the catheter tip touches the bowel. Difficulty breathing, atelectasis, and pneumonia may occur from pressure of the fluid on the diaphragm, which may be prevented by elevating the head of the bed and promoting repositioning and deep breathing.
A client who has a renal mass asks the nurse why an ultrasound has been scheduled, as opposed to other diagnostic tests that may be ordered. The nurse formulates a response based on the understanding that: a) all other tests are more invasive than an ultrasound b) all other tests require more elaborate postprocedure care c) an ultrasound can differentiate a solid mass from a fluid-filled cyst d) an ultrasound is much more cost effective than other diagnostic tests
c) an ultrasound can differentiate a solid mass from a fluid-filled cyst
The nurse has completed client teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the best understands the information if the client states to record daily the: a) amount of activity b) pulse and respiratory rate c) intake and output and weight d) blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
c) intake and output and weight
A patient on hemodialysis develops a thrombus of a subcutaneous arteriovenous (AV) graft, requiring its removal. While waiting for a replacement graft or fistula, the patient is most likely to have what done for treatment? a. Peritoneal dialysis b. Peripheral vascular access using radial artery c. Silastic catheter tunneled subcutaneously to the jugular vein d. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line inserted into subclavian vein
c. A more permanent, soft, flexible Silastic double-lumen catheter is used for long-term access when other forms of vascular access have failed. These catheters are tunneled subcutaneously and have Dacron cuffs that prevent infection from tracking along the catheter.
For a patient with CKD the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for injury: fracture related to alterations in calcium and phosphorus metabolism. What is the pathologic process directly related to the increased risk for fractures? a. Loss of aluminum through the impaired kidneys b. Deposition of calcium phosphate in soft tissues of the body c. Impaired vitamin D activation resulting in decreased GI absorption of calcium d. Increased release of parathyroid hormone in response to decreased calcium levels
c. The calcium-phosphorus imbalances that occur in CKD result in hypocalcemia, from a deficiency of active vitamin D and increased phosphorus levels. This leads to an increased rate of bone remodeling with a weakened bone matrix. Aluminum accumulation is also believed to contribute to the osteomalacia. Osteitis fibrosa involves replacement of calcium in the bone with fibrous tissue and is primarily a result of elevated levels of parathyroid hormone resulting from hypocalcemia.
Which of the following anti-hypertensive medications is contraindicated for clients with renal insufficiency? a) beta-adrenergic blockers b) calcium-channel blockers c) direct-acting vasodilators d) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
d) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
Priority Decision: What is the most appropriate snack for the nurse to offer a patient with stage 4 CKD? a. Raisins b. Ice cream c. Dill pickles d. Hard candy
d. A patient with CKD may have unlimited intake of sugars and starches (unless the patient is diabetic) and hard candy is an appropriate snack and may help to relieve the metallic and urine taste that is common in the mouth. Raisins are a high-potassium food. Ice cream contains protein and phosphate and counts as fluid. Pickled foods have high sodium content.
What indicates to the nurse that a patient with oliguria has prerenal oliguria? a. Urine testing reveals a low specific gravity. b. Causative factor is malignant hypertension. c. Urine testing reveals a high sodium concentration. d. Reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement.
d. In prerenal oliguria, the oliguria is caused by a decrease in circulating blood volume and there is no damage yet to the renal tissue. It can be reversed by correcting the precipitating factor, such as fluid replacement for hypovolemia. Prerenal oliguria is characterized by urine with a high specific gravity and a low sodium concentration, whereas oliguria of intrarenal failure is characterized by urine with a low specific gravity and a high sodium concentration. Malignant hypertension causes damage to renal tissue and intrarenal oliguria.
What are some contraindications to Peritoneal Dialysis?
🔺Abdominal Surgery 🔺Obesity 🔺Back Problems 🔺Lung Disease
What are some inuring interventions for AKI?
🔺Managing fluid (I&O)/ daily weight. 🔺Monitoring electrolytes. 🔺Prevent respiratory complications - C&DB. 🔺Infection protection 🔺Skin care 🔺Psychosocial support 🔺Education regarding: S&S of recurrent kidney problems (fluid retention, twitching, cramping) and e-lyte imbalances.
What does Antidiuretic Hormone do?
*ADH conserves H2O and decrease urine volume.*
Is AKI permanent?
AcRF reversible.
Uremia
Accumulation of waste products in blood normally excreted in the kidney.
To gain access to the vein and artery, an AV shunt was used for Mr. Roberto. The most serious problem with regards to the AV shunt is: A. Septicemia B. Clot formation C. Exsanguination D. Vessel sclerosis
C
How is treatment generally approached with CKD?
Conservative management before dialysis.
Which intervention do you plan to include with a patient who has renal calculi? A. Maintain bed rest B. Increase dietary purines C. Restrict fluids D. Strain all urine
D All urine should be strained through gauze or a urine strainer to catch stones that are passed. The stones are then analyzed for composition. Ambulation may help the movement of the stone down the urinary tract. Encourage fluid to help flush the stones out.
End-stage renal disease is defined as GFR less than ________________ ml/min per 1.73m2. A. 10 B. 5 C. 30 D. 45 E. 15
E
How can HTN be managed in CKD and what is the goal for BP?
Goal BP<150/100 - NA and fluid restriction.
IPD
Intermittent peritoneal dialysis.
Loop of Henle
Key in the reabsorption of Na+ and Cl-.
Which teaching by the nurse will help the client prevent renal osteodystrophy? A. Low-calcium diet B. Avoiding peas, nuts, and legumes C. Drinking cola beverages only once daily D. Avoiding dairy enriched with vitamin D
Kidney failure causes hyperphosphatemia. Client must restrict phosphorus-containing foods such as beans, peas, nuts (peanut butter), and legumes. Kidney failure decreases serum calcium, resulting in demineralization of the bone; do not restrict calcium in the diet. Cola beverages are high in phosphorus and are to be avoided. Dairy products are high in phosphorus, contributing to hypocalcemia and bone breakdown.
Lets discuss Postrenal causes of AKI.
Mechanical obstruction of urinary outflow (hydronephrosis - enlarged kidneys). Urinary output around 200ml a day. 🔺Calculi formation. 🔺Prostatic hypertrophy.
The nurse is assessing the patency of a client's left arm arteriovenous fistula prior to initiating hemodialysis. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent? 1. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula 2. Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist 3. Visualization of enlarged blood vessels at the fistula site 4. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand
Palpation of a thrill over the fistula The nurse assesses the patency of the fistula by palpating for the presence of a thrill or auscultating for a bruit. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicate patency of the fistula. Enlarged visible blood vessels at the fistula site are a normal observation but are not indicative of fistula patency. Although the presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist and capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand indicate adequate circulation to the hand, they do not assess fistula patency.
What would you think is wrong with a person who has protein and RBCs in their urine?
RBC and protein are not filtered through here, if RBC of protein is noted in urine there is issues with the Glomerulus.
Reabsorption of H2O occurs with _________.
Reabsorption of H2O occurs with ADH.
What is the Tubular Function?
Reabsorption of essential materials, and excretion of nonessential materials.
Renin
Released in response to decreased blood flow or decreased pressure in nephrons.
What are S/S of Stage 2-4 CKD?
Renal insufficiency: mild, moderate or severe decrease in GFR. 🔺Fatigue 🔺Nocturia 🔺Polyuria 🔺HA
Why would Renin released?
Renin is released in response to: 🔺⬇️ In BP 🔺⬇️ In renal blood flow 🔺⬇️ In ECF 🔺⬆️ Urinary Na concentration. 🔺Hyponatremia 🔺Hyperkalemia
Glomerulus
Semi-permeable membrane. Amount of blood filtered by glomeruli in a given time = Glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Normal GFR = 125cc/min.
Phases of CKD
Stage 1: Diminished renal reserve. Stage 2 to 4: Renal insufficiency Stage 5: End stage renal failure/disease (ESRD) or uremia
2. Bed rest reduces exertion and the metabolic rate, thereby reducing catabolism and subsequent release of potassium and accumulation of endogenous waste products (urea and creatinine).
The client diagnosed with ARF is placed on bed rest. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I have to stay in bed? I don't feel bad." Which scientific rationale supports the nurse's response? 1.Bed rest helps increase the blood return to the renal circulation. 2.Bed rest reduces the metabolic rate during the acute stage. 3.Bed rest decreases the workload of the left side of the heart. 4.Bed rest aids in reduction of peripheral and sacral edema.
Distal Tubule
The final regulation of water and acid-base balance. Reabsorption of H2O occurs with ADH. Reabsorption of Na+ and H2O due to aldosterone. Acid/base balance - reabsorption of bicarbonate and secretion of H+.
How can Stage 1 CKD be DX?
The only way to DX is 24 hours urine collection creatine clearance test.
What happens with UREA build up?
UREA build up=decreased ability to fight infections! 💀
Epogen
Used in treating anemia because it increases RBC production.
Number the following in the order of the phases of exchange in PD. Begin with 1 and end with 3. ____ a. Drain ____ b. Dwell ____ c. Inflow
a. 3; b. 2; c. 1
The client is in end-stage renal failure (ESRD). Which of the following foods may be allowed for the client? a) banana b) apple c) carrot cake d) cantaloupe
b) apple APPLES ARE LOW IN POTASSIUM
The patient with chronic kidney disease is considering whether to use peritoneal dialysis (PD) or hemodialysis (HD). What are advantages of PD when compared to HD (select all that apply)? a. Less protein loss b. Rapid fluid removal c. Less cardiovascular stress d. Decreased hyperlipidemia e. Requires fewer dietary restrictions
c, e. Peritoneal dialysis is less stressful for the cardiovascular system and requires fewer dietary restrictions. Peritoneal dialysis actually contributes to more protein loss and increased hyperlipidemia. The fluid and creatinine removal are slower with peritoneal dialysis than hemodialysis.
In the oliguric phase of renal failure, what is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis? a) fluid volume deficit b) activity intolerance c) ineffective breathing pattern d) fluid volume excess
d) fluid volume excess
What are some disadvantages to Peritoneal Dialysis?
🔺Exit-site Infections 🔺Peritonitis
CAPD
*Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis* 🔺QID, this takes time but its good for active people.
CCPD
*Continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis* 🔺Machine at night which is good for retired people and takes around 10 hours.
Serum Creatinine Range
0.6-1.5 mg/dl
The nurse is conducting an interview of an older client and is concerned about the possibility of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which are characteristics of this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Nocturia 2. Incontinence 3. Enlarged prostate 4. Nocturnal emissions 5. Decreased desire for sexual intercourse
1. Nocturia 2. Incontinence 3. Enlarged prostate Nocturia, incontinence, and an enlarged prostate are characteristics of BPH and need to be assessed for in all male clients over 50 years of age. Nocturnal emissions are commonly associated with prepubescent males. Low testosterone levels (not BPH) may be associated with a decreased desire for sexual intercourse.
A client is diagnosed with epididymitis. The nurse checks the health care provider's prescriptions and expects that which measures will be prescribed? Select all that apply. 1. Sitz bath 2. Antibiotics 3. Scrotal elevation 4. Use of a heating pad 5. Bed rest with bathroom privileges
1. Sitz bath 2. Antibiotics 3. Scrotal elevation 5. Bed rest with bathroom privileges Common interventions used in the treatment of epididymitis include bed rest with bathroom privileges, elevation of the scrotum, ice packs, sitz baths, analgesics, and antibiotics. A heating pad would not be used because direct application of heat would enhance blood flow to the area, thereby increasing the swelling.
Define Acute Kidney Injury
A rapid decline in kidney function leading to azotemia. Symptomatic azotemia = uremia. *Decrease in UO <400cc/24hrs*. (oliguria). Can occur in healthy people and is brought on by a stressor. Some cases have people who have urine still and its due to the kidneys not concentrating the urine.
The nursing student is caring for a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The nursing instructor asks the student to identify the clinical manifestations associated with this condition. The student needs further teaching if the student states that which finding is an early symptom of BPH? 1. Nocturia 2. Hematuria 3. Decreased force of urine stream 4. Difficulty initiating urine stream
Hematuria Hematuria is not an early sign of BPH. Nocturia, decreased force of urine stream, and difficulty initiating urine stream are all early signs of BPH.
Number the following in the order of the phases of exchange in PD. Begin with 1 and end with 3. a. Drain b. Dwell c. Inflow
a. 3; b. 2; c. 1
Metabolic acidosis occurs in the oliguric phase of AKI as a result of impairment of a. ammonia synthesis. b. excretion of sodium. c. excretion of bicarbonate. d. conservation of potassium.
a. Metabolic acidosis occurs in AKI because the kidneys cannot synthesize ammonia or excrete acid products of metabolism, resulting in an increased acid load. Sodium is lost in urine because the kidneys cannot conserve sodium. Impaired excretion of potassium results in hyperkalemia. Bicarbonate is normally generated and reabsorbed by the functioning kidney to maintain acidbase balance.
In a patient with AKI, which laboratory urinalysis result indicates tubular damage? a. Hematuria b. Specific gravity fixed at 1.010 c. Urine sodium of 12 mEq/L (12 mmol/L) d. Osmolality of 1000 mOsm/kg (1000 mmol/kg)
b. A urine specific gravity that is consistently 1.010 and a urine osmolality of about 300 mOsm/kg is the same specific gravity and osmolality as plasma. This indicates that tubules are damaged and unable to concentrate urine. Hematuria is more common with postrenal damage. Tubular damage is associated with a high sodium concentration (greater than 40 mEq/L).
What are the 3 clinical courses of AKI?
🔺Oliguric Phase 🔺Diuretic Phase 🔺Recovery Phase
The nurse has provided instructions regarding home care measures for a client with acute pyelonephritis. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I should try to maintain an acid ash diet." 2. "I should increase my fluid intake to 3 L per day." 3. "I should take my daily dose of vitamin C to acidify the urine." 4. "I need to avoid alcohol and highly spiced foods but may continue to drink my coffee every day."
"I need to avoid alcohol and highly spiced foods but may continue to drink my coffee every day." Clients with acute pyelonephritis should be instructed to try to maintain an acid ash diet, which may be of some benefit. Also, they should increase fluid intake to 3 L per day; this helps relieve dysuria and flushes bacteria out of the bladder. However, for clients with chronic pyelonephritis and renal dysfunction, an increase in fluid intake may be contraindicated. Medications such as vitamin C help acidify the urine. Juices such as cranberry, plum, and prune juice will leave an acid ash in the urine. Caffeine, alcohol, chocolate, and highly spiced foods are avoided to prevent potential bladder irritation.
The nurse instructs a client about continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of CAPD? 1. "No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities." 2. "A cycling machine is used, so the risk for infection is minimized." 3. "The drainage system can be used once during the day and a cycling machine for 3 cycles at night." 4. "A portable hemodialysis machine is used so that I will be able to ambulate during the treatment."
"No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities." CAPD closely approximates normal renal function, and the client will need to infuse and drain the dialysis solution several times a day. No machinery is used, and CAPD is a manual procedure.
The nurse assists the client with acute kidney injury (AKI) to modify the diet in which way? Select all that apply: A. Restricted protein B. Liberal sodium C. Fluid restriction D. Low potassium E. Low fat
A, C, and D: Restricted protein (Breakdown of protein leads to azotemia and increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN). Fluid is restricted during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. Potassium intoxication may occur; dietary potassium is restricted.
Which of these interventions is essential for the client in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI)? A. Restrict fluids B. Replace potassium C. Administer blood transfusions D. Monitor arterial blood gases (ABGs)
A. Restrict fluids: During the oliguric phase of AKI, the client will be at risk for fluid overload; fluid restriction is necessary to limit this problem. Hyperkalemia results from kidney injury; do not replace potassium unless clearly decreased. Blood transfusions replace the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and are used for shortness of breath or chest pain; use is not specific to the oliguric phase.
What does Serum Bun tell us?
Amount of urea nitrogen in blood. Urea is a protein metabolism byproduct. Limit is that it can be elevated in things other than kidney failure.
The client with chronic renal failure is at risk of developing dementia related to excessive absorption of aluminum. The nurse teaches that this is the reason that the client is being prescribed which of the following phosphate binding agents? A. Alu-cap (aluminum hydroxide) B. Tums (calcium carbonate) C. Amphojel (aluminum hydroxide) D. Basaljel (aluminum hydroxide)
B Phosphate binding agents that contain aluminum include Alu-caps, Basaljel, and Amphojel. These products are made from aluminum hydroxide. Tums are made from calcium carbonate and also bind phosphorus. Tums are prescribed to avoid the occurrence of dementia related to high intake of aluminum. Phosphate binding agents are needed by the client in renal failure because the kidneys cannot eliminate phosphorus.
The nurse is preparing to care for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following would be included in the nursing plan of care to prevent the major complication associated with peritoneal dialysis? A. Monitor the clients level of consciousness B. Maintain strict aseptic technique C. Add heparin to the dialysate solution D. Change the catheter site dressing daily
B The major complication of peritoneal dialysis is peritonitis. Strict aseptic technique is required in caring for the client receiving this treatment. Although option 4 may assist in preventing infection, this option relates to an external site.
When caring for the client with acute kidney injury and a temporary subclavian hemodialysis catheter, which of these should the nurse report to the provider? A. Crackles at lung bases B. Temperature of 100.8 F C. +1 ankle edema D. Anorexia
B. Temperature of 100.8 F: Infection is a major complication of temporary catheters. Report all symptoms of infection, including fever, to the provider. The catheter may have to be removed. Some degree of fluid retention is expected. Rising blood urea nitrogen (BUN) may result in anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
The nurse teaches the client with chronic renal failure when to take the aluminum hydroxide gel. Which of the following statements would indicate that the client understands the teaching? A. "I'll take it every 4 hours around the clock." B. "I'll take it between meals and at bedtime." C. "I'll take it when I have a sour stomach." D. "I'll take it with meals and bedtime snacks
C Aluminum hydroxide gel is administered to bind the phosphates in ingested foods and must be given with or immediately after meals and snacks. There is no need for the client to take it on a 24-hour schedule. It is not administered to treat hyperacidity in clients with CRF and therefore is not prescribed between meals.
A client is undergoing hemodialysis and receives heparin during the dialysis procedure. The nurse monitors the results of which of the following laboratory tests during the dialysis procedure? a) thrombin time b) bleeding time c) partial thromboplastin time (PTT) d) prothrombin time (PT)
C - Heparin is used as an anticoagulant during hemodialysis. The hemodialysis nurse monitors the extent of anticoagulation by measuring the PTT, which measures heparin effect. The PT is measured to monitor the effect of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Thrombin and bleeding times are not used to measure the effect of heparin therapy, although they are useful in the diagnosis of other clotting abnormalities.
The nurse is calculating the protein requirement for a client who is switching from peritoneal dialysis to hemodialysis. The client is 5'5" tall and weighs 140 pounds. How many grams of protein does this client need per day? a. 42 to 63 b. 51 to 62 c. 64 to 76 d. 76 to 96
C. 64 to 76 A client on hemodialysis requires 1.0 to 1.2 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight. The client weighs 64 kg so the requirement is 64 to 76.
A female adult client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute renal failure (ARF)? A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 22 mg/dl B. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl C. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl D. Urine output of 400 ml/24 hours
D ARF, characterized by abrupt loss of kidney function, commonly causes oliguria, which is demonstrated by a urine output of 400 ml/24 hours. A serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl isn't diagnostic of ARF. A BUN level of 22 mg/dl or a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) wouldn't result from this disorder.
The client with chronic renal failure returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 100.2. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? A. Encourage fluids B. Notify the physician C. Monitor the site of the shunt for infection D. Continue to monitor vital signs
D The client may have an elevated temperature following dialysis because the dialysis machine warms the blood slightly. If the temperature is elevated excessively and remains elevated, sepsis would be suspected and a blood sample would be obtained as prescribed for culture and sensitivity purposes.
A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis? a. Perform deep-breathing exercises vigorously. b. Avoid carrying heavy items. c. Auscultate the lungs frequently. d. Wear a mask when performing exchanges
D The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.
A client with chronic renal failure who is not receiving dialysis is suffering from uremia. What nutrient will the nurse tell this client to limit in an attempt to control the uremia? a. carbohydrate c. potassium b. magnesium d. protein
D . Protein Uremia is a condition in which protein wastes that should normally have been excreted are instead circulating in the blood. The diet may limit protein to as little as 40 grams a day for predialysis clients.
When caring for a client who receives peritoneal dialysis (PD), which of these findings must the nurse report to the provider immediately? A. Pulse oximetry reading of 95% B. Sinus bradycardia, rate of 58 C. Blood pressure of 148/90 D. Temperature of 101.2 F
D. Temperature of 101.2 F: Peritonitis is the major complication of PD caused by intra-abdominal catheter site contamination; use meticulous aseptic technique when caring for PD equipment.
The nurse is assessing a dialysis patient who is asking to receive continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) instead of hemodialysis. Which of the following complications of CAPD will the nurse review with the client? a. hypercalcemia b. hypertension c. hyponatremia d. hypotension
D. hypotension Clients on CAPD have a more normal lifestyle than do clients on either hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis. Complications associated with CAPD include peritonitis, hypotension, and weight gain.
A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse should assess the client for which manifestation of the disorder? 1. Hematuria and pyuria 2. Dysuria and proteinuria 3. Hematuria and urgency 4. Dysuria and penile discharge
Dysuria and penile discharge Urethritis in the male client often results from chlamydial infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied by a clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic tests are done for both and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated with urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney dysfunction.
What does the electrolyte imbalance look like during Oliguric Phase?
Electrolyte imbalances (hyponatremic 2/2 NA loss, hypocalcemia, increased phosphates).
What is Stage 5 of CKD?
End stage renal failure/disease (ESRD) or uremia.
How might Anemia be treated in CKD
Epogen
Azotemia
Excessive urea and nitrogenous substances in the blood.
What is happening during the Recovery phase of AKI?
GFR increase to near normal and this may take up to a year.
What do electrolyte imbalances look like in CKD?
Hypernatremia Hypocalcemia Hyperkalemia
The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client after prostatectomy. What is the priority discharge instruction for this client? 1. Avoid driving a car for at least 1 week. 2. Increase fluid intake to at least 2.5 L/day. 3. Avoid lifting any objects greater than 30 pounds (13.6 kg). 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP) if small clots are noticed in the urine.
Increase fluid intake to at least 2.5 L/day. A daily intake of 2.5 L of fluid should be maintained to limit clot formation and prevent infection. Driving a car and sitting for long periods are restricted for at least 3 weeks. The client should be instructed to avoid lifting objects heavier than 20 pounds (9 kg) for at least 6 weeks. Passing small pieces of tissue or blood clots in the urine for up to 2 weeks after surgery is expected and does not necessitate contacting the HCP.
The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). The nurse should test the client's urine for proteinuria to determine which type of AKI? 1. Prerenal 2. Intrinsic 3. Atypical 4. Postrenal
Intrinsic In intrinsic failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and the urine tests positive for proteinuria. In prerenal failure, the specific gravity is high, and there is very little or no proteinuria. In postrenal failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and little or no proteinuria. There is no disorder known as atypical renal failure.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed aluminum hydroxide. Which information should the nurse include while instructing the client regarding the action of this medication? 1. It prevents ulcers. 2. It prevents constipation. 3. It promotes the elimination of potassium from the body. 4. It combines with phosphorus and helps eliminate phosphates from the body.
It combines with phosphorus and helps eliminate phosphates from the body. Aluminum hydroxide may be prescribed for a client with CKD. It binds with phosphate in the intestines for excretion in the feces, thus lowering phosphorus levels. It can cause constipation, and it does not promote the elimination of potassium. It may be used in the treatment of hyperacidity associated with gastric ulcers, but this is not the purpose of its use in the client with renal failure.
A client has just had a Foley catheter removed and is to be started on a bladder retraining program. Which intervention will provide the most useful information about the client's ability to empty the bladder? 1. Calculating total fluid intake for the shift 2. Recording the amount of the client's voidings 3. Assisting the client to the bathroom every 2 hours 4. Measuring postvoid residual using a bladder scan
Measuring postvoid residual using a bladder scan Measuring postvoid residual gives specific information about the ability of the bladder to empty completely. Recording intake and output and assisting the client to the bathroom are general interventions but do not provide information about the client's ability to empty the bladder.
What is normal GFR?
Normal GFR = 125cc/min.
What is are normal GFR lab results?
Normal GFR is >90, labs max out at 60
The nurse assessing the ureterostomy of a postoperative client interprets that the stoma has normal characteristics if which is observed? 1. Dry 2. Pale 3. Dark-colored 4. Red and moist
Red and moist Following ureterostomy, the stoma should be red and moist. A dry stoma may indicate fluid volume deficit. A pale stoma may indicate an inadequate vascular supply. Any darkness or duskiness of the stoma may mean loss of vascular supply and must be corrected immediately to prevent necrosis.
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD related to?
The clinical manifestations are related to uremic toxins.
3 Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is approximately 120 mL/min. If the GFR is decreased to 40 mL/min, the kidneys are functioning at about one-third filtration capacity.
The elderly client is diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. Which laboratory value indicates to the nurse the condition has become worse? 1.The blood urea nitrogen is 15 mg/dL. 2.The creatinine level is 1.2 mg/dL. 3.The glomerular filtration rate is 40 mL/min. 4.The 24-hour creatinine clearance is 100 mL/min.
Specific Gravity
The renal concentrating ability: 1.016 - 1.022 - not the best since many things can affect it. A low specific gravity means that it is diluted or diabetes insipidus, chronic renal insufficiency, or other things. High specific gravity 2/2 dehydration, protein, HF.
A nurse is assigned to care for a client with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse assesses which important parameter on a daily basis? a) weight b) albumin levels c) activity tolerance d) blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
a) weigh
Diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis has been established your nursing intervention includes the following except: a) provide health teaching and discharge planning b) administer antibiotic c) measure I and O d) provide adequate comfort and rest
c) measure I and O
The client with chronic renal failure who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: a) during dialysis b) just before dialysis c) the day after dialysis d) on return form dialysis
d) on return form dialysis
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD r/t the Psychosocial System?
🔺Depression 🔺Fatigue 🔺Self-esteem 🔺Role changes
What are some adverse effects of Hemodialysis>
🔺Disequibrium syndrome. 🔺Cramping. 🔺Fatigue can be common or they can be energized.
What are indications for Dialysis?
🔺Fluid Overload 🔺Hyperkalemia 🔺Severe acidosis 🔺Altered CNS 🔺Pericarditis 🔺Uremia
What are some S/S of recurrent kidney issues?
🔺Fluid retention 🔺Twitching 🔺Cramping 🔺electrolyte Imbalances
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD r/t the Neuromuscular System?
🔺General Depression of CNS 🔺Peripheral Neuropathy 🔺Muscle Weakness 🔺Twitching 🔺Uremic Encephalopathy. 🔺Renal osteodystrophy - bone and mineral disorder.
What are the two type of Dialysis?
🔺Hemodialysis 🔺Peritoneal
What are some S/S of the Oliguric phase?
🔺Urinary changes 🔺Fluid volume excess 🔺Metabolic acidosis (respiratory compensation). 🔺Electrolyte imbalances (hyponatremic 2/2 NA loss, hypocalcemia, increased phosphates). 🔺Neurologic - concentration issues, seizures, comma, etc. 2/2 urea build up.
What change indicates recovery in a patient with nephrotic syndrome? A. Disappearance of protein from the urine B. Decrease in blood pressure to normal C. Increase in serum lipid levels D. Gain in body weight
A With nephrotic syndrome, the glomerular basement membrane of the kidney becomes more porous, leading to loss of protein in the urine. As the patient recovers, less protein is found in the urine.
Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used in renal failure to: A. Correct acidosis B. Reduce serum phosphate levels C. Exchange potassium for sodium D. Prevent constipation from sorbitol use
C In renal failure, patients become hyperkalemic because they can't excrete potassium in the urine. Polystyrene sulfonate acts to excrete potassium by pulling potassium into the bowels and exchanging it for sodium.
The physician orders a combination of Sulfamethoxazole and Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Azogantrisol) for a patient. Which therapeutic effect should this combination drug have: a) plain relief and a decreased WBC count b) equal fluid intake and output c) polyuria with reddish stain d) increased complaints of bladder spasm after 20 minutes
a) plain relief and a decreased WBC count
The physician orders a combination of Sulfamethoxazole and Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Azogantrisol) for a patient. Which therapeutic effect should this combination drug have: a) plain relief and a decreased WBC count b) equal fluid intake and output c) polyuria with reddish stain d) increased complaints of bladder spasm after 20 minutes
a) plain relief and a decreased WBC count
The client with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has cloudy dialysate. Which of the following is the best initial nursing action? a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture b) administer antibiotic c) do nothing, this is expected d) stop drainage of fluid
a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture cloudy diasylate indicates infection (peritonitis). Culture of the fluid must be done to determine the microorganism present.
The client with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has cloudy dialysate. Which of the following is the best initial nursing action? a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture b) administer antibiotic c) do nothing, this is expected d) stop drainage of fluid
a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture cloudy diasylate indicates infection (peritonitis). Culture of the fluid must be done to determine the microorganism present.
The client with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has cloudy dialysate. Which of the following is the best initial nursing action? a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture b) administer antibiotic c) do nothing, this is expected d) stop drainage of fluid
a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture cloudy diasylate indicates infection (peritonitis). Culture of the fluid must be done to determine the microorganism present.
A nurse is caring for a client who has begun using peritoneal dialysis. The nurse determines that which manifestation indicates the onset of peritonitis? a) oral temperature of 100F b) history of gastrointestinal (GI) upset 1 week ago c) clear dialysate output d) presence of crystals in dialysate output
A - Typical symptoms of peritonitis include fever, nausea, malaise, rebound abdominal tenderness, and cloudy dialysate output. The complaint of GI upset is too vague to be correct. Peritonitis would cause cloudy dialysate but would not cause crystals to appear in the dialysate.
Reabsorption of Na+ and H2O is due to _________.
Aldosterone
Aldosterone
Aldosterone promotes Na and H20 reabsorption, K excretion.
What are some nursing diagnosis for Dialysis?
Altered Nutrition rt loss of appetite. Fluid volume excess rt compromised regulatory mechanisms Activity intolerance rt fatigue Anticipatory guidance rt effects of loss of kidney function Self-esteem disturbance rt body image changes, lifestyle changes
What is Antidiuretic Hormone inhibited by?
ADH inhibited by: inc ECF, dec in osmolarity
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia, and a transurethral resection of the prostate is performed. Four hours after surgery, the nurse takes the client's vital signs and empties the urinary drainage bag. Which assessment finding indicates the need to notify the health care provider (HCP)? 1. Red, bloody urine 2. Pain rated as 2 on a 0-10 pain scale 3. Urinary output of 200 mL higher than intake 4. Blood pressure, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse, 130 beats/minute
Blood pressure, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse, 130 beats/minute
Your patient returns from the operating room after abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which symptom is a sign of acute renal failure? A. Anuria B. Diarrhea C. Oliguria D. Vomiting
C Urine output less than 50ml in 24 hours signifies oliguria, an early sign of renal failure. Anuria is uncommon except in obstructive renal disorders.
2. When an elderly client's mental status changes to confused and irritable, the nurse should seek the etiology, which may be a UTI secondary to an indwelling catheter. Elderly client soften do not present with classic signs and symptoms of infection.
The nurse is caring for an elderly client who has an indwelling catheter. Which data warrant further investigation? 1.The client's temperature is 98.0˚F. 2.The client has become confused and irritable. 3.The client's urine is clear and light yellow. 4.The client feels the need to urinate.
3 The client should be taught to take all the prescribed medication anytime a prescription is written for antibiotics.
The nurse is discharging a client with a health-care facility acquired urinary tract infection. Which information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? 1.Limit fluid intake so the urinary tract can heal. 2.Collect a routine urine specimen for culture. 3.Take all the antibiotics as prescribed. 4.Tell the client to void every five (5) to six (6) hours.
3. The drainage bag should be kept below the level of the bladder to prevent reflux of urine into the renal system; it should not be placed on the bed.
The nurse is observing the UAP providing direct care to a client with an indwelling catheter. Which data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1.The UAP secures the tubing to the client's leg with tape. 2.The UAP provides catheter care with the client's bath. 3.The UAP puts the collection bag on the client's bed. 4.The UAP cares for the catheter after washing the hands.
Define Chronic Kidney Disease
The progressive, irreversible destruction of both kidneys. Nephrons destroyed, replaced with scar tissue. Kidneys get bigger then they get smaller as the disease goes and the tissue is replaced with scar tissue.
A nurse is assigned to care for a client with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse assesses which important parameter on a daily basis? a) weight b) albumin levels c) activity tolerance d) blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
a) weight
The nurse is providing instructions regarding the complications of peritoneal dialysis. The nurse emphasizes that onset of peritonitis, a serious complication, is most likely to be associated with which clinical manifestation? 1. Fever 2. Fatigue 3. Clear dialysate output 4. Leaking around the catheter site
Fever The signs of peritonitis include fever, nausea, malaise, rebound abdominal tenderness, and cloudy dialysate output. Fatigue may be associated with peritonitis, but fever is the most likely sign. Leaking around the catheter site is not an indication of peritonitis.
4. The nephrostomy tube should never be clamped or have kinks because an obstruction can cause pyelonephritis.
Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for the client with a nephrostomy tube? 1.Change the dressing only if soiled by urine. 2.Clean the end of the connecting tubing with Betadine. 3.Clean the drainage system every day with bleach and water. 4.Assess the tube for kinks to prevent obstruction.
4. This is a potentially life-threatening problem.
Which nursing diagnosis is priority for the client who has undergone a TURP? 1.Potential for sexual dysfunction. 2.Potential for an altered body image. 3.Potential for chronic infection. 4.Potential for hemorrhage.
How are calcium and phosphate imbalances dealt with?
With Phosphate Binders that are taken with meals.
A client with renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) to support erythropoiesis. The nurse questions the client about compliance with taking which of the following medications that supports red blood cell (RBC) production? a) iron supplement b) zinc supplement c) calcium supplement d) magnesium supplement
a) iron supplement
Lets talks about Sodium R/T Hypernatremia and Hyponatremia?
Hypernatremia=Chronic Hyponatremia=AKI
A client is admitted to the emergency department following a fall from a horse and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes insertion of a urinary catheter. While preparing for the procedure, the nurse notes blood at the urinary meatus. The nurse should take which action? 1. Notify the HCP before performing the catheterization. 2. Use a small-sized catheter and an anesthetic gel as a lubricant. 3. Administer parenteral pain medication before inserting the catheter. 4. Clean the meatus with soap and water before opening the catheterization kit.
Notify the HCP before performing the catheterization. The presence of blood at the urinary meatus may indicate urethral trauma or disruption. The nurse notifies the HCP, knowing that the client should not be catheterized until the cause of the bleeding is determined by diagnostic testing. The other options include performing the catheterization procedure and therefore are incorrect.
In replying to a patient's questions about the seriousness of her chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse knows that the stage of CKD is based on what? a. Total daily urine output b. Glomerular filtration rate c. Degree of altered mental status d. Serum creatinine and urea levels
b. Stages of chronic kidney disease are based on the GFR. No specific markers of urinary output, mental status, or azotemia classify the degree of chronic kidney disease (CKD).
The client in end-stage of renal failure had undergone kidney transplant. Which of the following assessment findings indicate kidney transplant rejection? a) increased urinary output, BUN = 15 mg/dL b) HCT = 50%, Hgb = 17 g/dl c) decreased urinary output, sudden weight gain d) decreased urinary output, sudden weight loss
c) decreased urinary output, sudden weight gain
A patient with AKI is a candidate for continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). What is the most common indication for use of CRRT? a. Azotemia b. Pericarditis c. Fluid overload d. Hyperkalemia
c. Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is indicated for the patient with AKI as an alternative or adjunct to hemodialysis to slowly remove solutes and fluid in the hemodynamically unstable patient. It is especially useful for treatment of fluid overload, but hemodialysis is indicated for treatment of hyperkalemia, pericarditis, or other serious effects of uremia.
A patient with AKI is a candidate for continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). What is the most common indication for use of CRRT? a. Azotemia b. Pericarditis c. Fluid overload d. Hyperkalemia
c. Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is indicated for the patient with AKI as an alternative or adjunct to hemodialysis to slowly remove solutes and fluid in the hemodynamically unstable patient. It is especially useful for treatment of fluid overload, but hemodialysis is indicated for treatment of hyperkalemia, pericarditis, or other serious effects of uremia.
What are some nursing management points for CKD?
🔺Monitor I&O 🔺Monitor Electrolytes 🔺Prevent respiratory complications. 🔺Infection protection. 🔺Skin care 🔺Psychosocial Interventions 🔺Education
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD r/t the Integumentary System?
🔺Pallor 🔺Pruritus
What are the 4 functions of the kidneys
🔺Regulate volume and composition of ECF, pH and osmolarity. 🔺Excrete metabolic end products. 🔺Activation of Vitamin D. 🔺Secrete renin and erythropoietin.
How do you therapeutically manage AKI?
🔺Treat precipitating cause 🔺Control symptoms (dialysis) and prevent complications. 🔺Fluids and diuretics. 🔺Medications to control electrolyte imbalances.
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD r/t the Metabolic System?
🔺Waste product accumulation 🔺Defective carbohydrate metabolism (moderate hyperglycemic & hyperinsulemia effect). 🔺Elevated triglycerides (hyperlipidemia). 🔺Metabolic acidosis 🔺Electrolyte imbalances (Hypernatremia, hypocalcemia, Hyperkalemia).
A client is scheduled for computed tomography (CT) of the kidneys to rule out renal disease. As an essential preprocedure component of the nursing assessment, the nurse plans to ask the client about a history of: a) familial renal disease b) frequent antibiotic use c) long-term diuretic therapy d) allergy to shellfish or iodine
d) allergy to shellfish or iodine
A client who is performing peritoneal dialysis at home calls the clinic and reports that the outflow from the dialysis catheter seems to be decreasing in amount. The clinic nurse should ask which question first? 1. "Have you had any diarrhea?" 2. "Have you been constipated recently?" 3. "Have you had any abdominal discomfort?" 4. "Have you had an increased amount of flatulence?"
"Have you been constipated recently?" Reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter may be caused by the catheter position, infection, or constipation. Constipation may contribute to a reduced outflow because peristalsis seems to aid in drainage. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the causes of reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter.
A client with renal cancer is being treated preoperatively with radiation therapy. What statement by the client demonstrates understanding of proper care of the skin over the treatment field? 1. "I need to avoid skin exposure to direct sunlight and chlorinated water." 2. "I need to use lanolin-based cream on the affected skin on a daily basis." 3. "I need to use the hottest water possible to wash the treatment site twice daily." 4. "I need to remove the lines or ink marks using a gentle soap after each treatment."
"I need to avoid skin exposure to direct sunlight and chlorinated water." The client undergoing radiation therapy should avoid washing the site until instructed to do so. The client should then wash, using mild soap and warm or cool water, and pat the area dry. No lotions, creams, alcohol, or deodorants should be placed on the skin over the treatment site. Lines or ink marks that are placed on the skin to guide the radiation therapy should be left in place. The affected skin should be protected from temperature extremes, direct sunlight, and chlorinated water (as from swimming pools).
A client with prostatitis following kidney infection has received instructions on management of the condition at home and prevention of recurrence. The nurse determines that education was effective if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will stop antibiotic therapy when pain subsides." 2. "I will exercise as much as possible to stimulate circulation." 3. "I should use warm tub baths and analgesics to increase comfort." 4. "I will keep fluid intake to a minimum to decrease the need to void."
"I should use warm tub baths and analgesics to increase comfort." Treatment of prostatitis includes medication with antibiotics, analgesics, and stool softeners. The nurse also teaches the client to rest, increase fluid intake, and use sitz baths or warm tub baths for comfort. Antimicrobial therapy is always continued until the prescription is finished.
A client has chronic kidney disease (CKD) that does yet not require dialysis. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I will reduce the sodium in my diet, and I can use salt substitutes to spice my food." 2. "The amount of fluid I can have every day depends on the amount of urine I put out." 3. "I will weigh myself on my bathroom scale every morning right after I have urinated." 4. "I should report a gain in weight, trouble with my breathing, or increased leg swelling."
"I will reduce the sodium in my diet, and I can use salt substitutes to spice my food." CKD is a condition in which the kidneys have progressive problems in their ability to clear nitrogenous waste products and control fluid and electrolyte balance within the body. Conservative treatment of CKD slows progression of the disease and includes reducing the protein, sodium, potassium, and phosphorus in the diet and controlling the blood pressure. It is important to reduce the sodium in the diet. Salt substitutes usually are potassium-based and should not be used by a client with CKD because of the risk of hyperkalemia. The client should alter the fluid intake in relation to urine output. Obtaining a daily weight is an important measurement that indicates fluid volume. The client should also monitor for signs and symptoms of fluid overload, which could include an increase in weight, edema, and fluid collection in the lungs.
The graduate nurse is caring for a client with decreased renal perfusion. The registered nurse determines that the graduate nurse demonstrates understanding of why this is occurring if which statement is made? 1. "It can be due to an increase in serotonin levels." 2. "It may be due to overhydration with intravenous fluids." 3. "It may be due to the client's hemoglobin of 13.2 g/dL (132 mmol/L)." 4. "It may be a consequence of decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation."
"It may be a consequence of decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation." Dopaminergic receptors are found in the renal blood vessels and in the nerves. When stimulated, they dilate renal arteries and help modulate release of the neurotransmitter dopamine. Renal artery dilation helps improve urine output by increasing blood flow through the kidneys. Serotonin is a local hormone that is released from platelets after an injury; it constricts arterioles but dilates capillaries. Dehydration, not overhydration, would decrease renal perfusion. A hemoglobin of 13.2 g/dL (132 mmol/L) is a normal value.
The nurse is giving general instructions to a client receiving hemodialysis. Which statement would be most appropriate for the nurse to include? 1. "It is acceptable to eat whatever you want on the day before hemodialysis." 2. "It is acceptable to exceed the fluid restriction on the day before hemodialysis." 3. "Medications should be double-dosed on the morning of hemodialysis because of potential loss." 4. "Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure."
"Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure." Many medications are dialyzable, which means that they are extracted from the bloodstream during dialysis. Therefore, many medications may be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. It is not typical for medications to be double-dosed because there is no way to be certain how much of each medication is cleared by dialysis. Clients receiving hemodialysis are not routinely taught that it is acceptable to disregard dietary and fluid restrictions.
The nurse is teaching a client with renal cancer who is scheduled for a renal artery embolization about the procedure. Which statement by the client indicates that the educational session was effective? 1. "This will reduce the time needed for surgery by at least half because it provides hemostasis." 2. "This will cause the tumor to become tougher and easier to resect in surgery with the scalpel." 3. "This will prevent the risk of pulmonary embolism by occluding the renal artery and its branches." 4. "This will decrease the size of the tumor because its blood supply will be removed after placement of an absorbable gelatin sponge.
"This will decrease the size of the tumor because its blood supply will be removed after placement of an absorbable gelatin sponge." Renal artery embolization may be done instead of radiation therapy to shrink the kidney tumor by cutting off its blood supply and impairing its overall vascularity. A secondary benefit is that it reduces the risk of hemorrhage during surgery. This procedure can be accomplished in a number of ways, including placement of an absorbable gelatin sponge, a balloon, a metal coil, or any of various other substances.
Specific Gravity Range
1.016 - 1.022
A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) has the problem of ineffective coping. Which nursing interventions are appropriate in working with this client? Select all that apply. 1. Acknowledge the client's feelings. 2. Assess the client and family's coping patterns. 3. Explore the meaning of the illness with the client. 4. Set limits on mood swings and expressions of hostility. 5. Give the client information when the client is ready to listen.
1. Acknowledge the client's feelings. 2. Assess the client and family's coping patterns. 3. Explore the meaning of the illness with the client. 5. Give the client information when the client is ready to listen. Clients with ESRD are likely to experience mood swings or express hostility, anger, and depression, among other responses. The nurse should acknowledge the client's feelings, allow the client to express those feelings, and be supportive. Options 1, 2, 3, and 5 are helpful and appropriate interventions for the client. Setting limits for this client is not client focused, does not allow the client to express concerns, and is nontherapeutic in this situation.
The nurse has taught the client with polycystic kidney disease about management of the disorder and prevention and recognition of complications. The nurse should determine that the client understands the instructions if the client states that which should be reported to the health care provider (HCP)? Select all that apply. 1. Frequent urination 2. Burning on urination 3. A temperature of 100.6°F (38.1°C) 4. New-onset shortness of breath 5. A blood pressure of 105/68 mm Hg
1. Frequent urination 2. Burning on urination 3. A temperature of 100.6°F (38.1°C) 4. New-onset shortness of breath The client with polycystic kidney disease should report any signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection, such as frequent urination, burning on urination, and elevated temperature so that treatment may begin promptly. Lowered blood pressure is not a complication of polycystic kidney disease, and it is an expected effect of antihypertensive therapy. The client would be concerned about increases in blood pressure because control of hypertension is essential. The client may experience heart failure as a result of hypertension, and thus any symptoms of heart failure, such as shortness of breath, are also a concern.
The nurse is participating in a prostate screening clinic for men. Which complaints by a client are associated with prostatism? Select all that apply. 1. Inability to stop urinating 2. Postvoid dribbling of urine 3. Increased episodes of nocturia 4. Unusual force in urinary stream 5. Hesitancy on initiating the urinary stream
1. Inability to stop urinating 2. Postvoid dribbling of urine 3. Increased episodes of nocturia 5. Hesitancy on initiating the urinary stream Signs and symptoms of prostatism include reduced force and size of urinary stream, intermittent stream, hesitancy in beginning the flow of urine, inability to stop urinating, a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying after voiding, postvoid dribbling of urine, and an increase in episodes of nocturia. These signs and symptoms are the result of pressure of the enlarging prostate on the client's urethra.
The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome whose glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is normal. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Maintain sodium restrictions. 3. Maintain a diet low in protein. 4. Monitor intake and output (I&O). 5. Maintain bed rest when edema is severe.
1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Maintain sodium restrictions. 4. Monitor intake and output (I&O). 5. Maintain bed rest when edema is severe. Controlling edema is a critical aspect of therapeutic management of nephrotic syndrome. If the GFR is normal, dietary intake of proteins is needed to restore normal plasma oncotic pressure and thereby decrease edema. Daily measurement of weight and abdominal girth, and careful monitoring of I&O will determine whether weight loss is caused by diuresis or protein loss. Dietary modifications may include salt restriction and fluid restriction and are based on the client's symptoms. Bed rest is prescribed to promote diuresis when edema is severe.
A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). The nurse should plan which actions as a priority? Select all that apply. 1. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Put the client on NPO (nothing by mouth) status except for ice chips. 4. Review the client's medications to determine if any contain or retain potassium]' 5. Allow an extra 500 mL of intravenous fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration.
1. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Review the client's medications to determine if any contain or retain potassium. The normal potassium level is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L (3.5-5.0 mmol/L). A potassium level of 7.0 is elevated. The client with hyperkalemia is at risk of developing cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Because of this, the client should be placed on a cardiac monitor. The nurse should notify the HCP and also review medications to determine if any contain potassium or are potassium retaining. The client does not need to be put on NPO status. Fluid intake is not increased because it contributes to fluid overload and would not affect the serum potassium level significantly.
The nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results for a client with glomerulonephritis. Which findings should the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. 1. Proteinuria 2. Hematuria 3. Positive ketones 4. A low specific gravity 5. A dark and smoky appearance of the urine
1. Proteinuria 2. Hematuria 5. A dark and smoky appearance of the urine In the client with glomerulonephritis, characteristic findings in the urinalysis report are gross proteinuria and hematuria. The specific gravity is elevated, and the urine may appear dark and smoky. Positive ketones are not associated with this condition but may indicate a secondary problem.
The nurse has provided dietary instructions to a client with renal calculi who must learn about the foods that yield an alkaline residue in the urine. The nurse determines that education was effective if the client chooses which selections from a diet menu? 1. Spinach salad, milk, and a banana 2. Chicken, potatoes, and cranberries 3. Peanut butter sandwich, milk, and prunes 4. Linguini with shrimp, tossed salad, and a plum
1. Spinach salad, milk, and a banana In some client situations, the health care provider may prescribe a diet that consists of foods that yield either an alkaline or an acid residue in the urine. In an alkaline residue diet, all fruits are allowed except cranberries, blueberries, prunes, and plums. Options, 2, 3 and 4 represent an acid residue diet.
A client is about to begin hemodialysis. Which measures should the nurse employ in the care of the client? Select all that apply. 1. Using sterile technique for needle insertion 2. Using standard precautions in the care of the client 3. Giving the client a mask to wear during connection to the machine 4. Wearing full protective clothing such as goggles, mask, gloves, and apron 5. Covering the connection site with a bath blanket to enhance extremity warmth
1. Using sterile technique for needle insertion 2. Using standard precautions in the care of the client 3. Giving the client a mask to wear during connection to the machine 4. Wearing full protective clothing such as goggles, mask, gloves, and apron Infection is a major concern with hemodialysis. For that reason, the use of sterile technique and the application of a face mask for both nurse and client are extremely important. It also is imperative that standard precautions be followed, which includes the use of goggles, mask, gloves, and apron. The connection site should not be covered; it should be visible so that the nurse can assess for bleeding, ischemia, and infection at the site during the hemodialysis procedure.
The nurse is preparing to care for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following would be included in the nursing plan of care to prevent the major complication associated with peritoneal dialysis? 1. Maintain strict aseptic technique. 2. Add heparin to the dialysate solution. 3. Change the catheter site dressing daily. 4. Monitor the client's level of consciousness.
1. The major complication of peritoneal dialysis is peritonitis. Strict aseptic technique is required in caring for the client receiving this treatment. Although option 3 may assist in preventing infection, this option relates to an external site. Options 2 and 4 are unrelated to the major complication of peritoneal dialysis.
Serum BUN Range
10-30mg/dl
What is the Serum BUN to Creatinine Ratio?
10:1 to 20:1
The nurse measures the cardiac output of a client and finds it to be 6 L/min. Which amount of kidney perfusion should the nurse anticipate? 1. 100 to 300 mL/min 2. 500 to 1000 mL/min 3. 1200 to 1500 mL/min 4. 2000 to 2500 mL/min
1200 to 1500 mL/min The kidneys normally receive about 20% to 25% of the cardiac output when the client is at rest. If the cardiac output is 6 L/min, the kidneys receive 1.2 to 1.5 L/min, which is equal to 1200 to 1500 mL/min.
The nurse is planning a teaching session with a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) about managing the condition between dialysis treatments. The nurse should plan to include the instruction that weight gain between dialysis treatments should be ideally what value? 1. 11 to 13 lbs (5 to 6 kg) 2. 4.5 to 9 lbs (2 to 4 kg) 3. 2 to 3 lbs (1 to 1.5 kg) 4. 1 to 2 lbs (0.5 to 1.0 kg)
2 to 3 lbs (1 to 1.5 kg) Limiting weight gain to 2 to 3 lbs (1 to 1.5 kg) between dialysis treatments helps prevent the hypotension that occurs with the removal of large volumes of fluid during dialysis. The nurse instructs the client in how to manage daily fluid allotment to assist the client in staying within a low fluid intake range to prevent excess weight gain. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.
The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the clietn's outflow is less than the inflow. Select all nursing actions in the situation that apply. 1. Contact the physician. 2. Check the level of the drainage bag. 3. Reposition the client to his or her side. 4. Place the client in good body alignment. 5. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. 6. Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.
2, 3, 4, 5. If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the other side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and peritoneal dialysis system are also checked for kinks or twisting and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the physician. Increasing the flow rate is an inappropriate action and is not associated with the amount of outflow solution.
The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the prescribed dwell time for the dialysis because of the risk of: 1. Infection. 2. Hyperglycemia. 3. Hypophosphatemia. 4. Disequilibrium syndrome.
2. An extended dwell time increases the risk of hyperglycemia in the client with diabetes mellitus as a result of absorption of glucose from the dialysate and electrolyte changes. Diabetic clients may require extra insulin when receiving peritoneal dialysis.
The nurse is preparing to perform a discharge teaching with a client who is started on hemodialysis. Which information should the nurse provide regarding the hemodialysis schedule? 1. 5 hours of treatment 2 days per week 2. 2 hours of treatment 6 days per week 3. 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week 4. 2 to 3 hours of treatment 5 days per week
3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week The typical schedule for hemodialysis is 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week. Individual adjustments are made according to variables such as the size of the client, type of dialyzer, rate of blood flow, personal client preferences, and other factors.
The nurse is caring for a client whose urine output was 25 mL per hour for 2 consecutive hours. The nurse reviews the health care provider's prescriptions and plans care, knowing that which client-related factor would increase the amount of blood flow to the kidneys? 1. Physiological stress 2. Release of norepinephrine 3. Release of low levels of dopamine 4. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
3. Release of low levels of dopamine The release of low levels of dopamine exerts a vasodilating effect on the renal arteries, increasing urinary output. The other options cause renal vasoconstriction.
A patient with ESRD has an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which intervention do you include in his plan of care? A. Apply pressure to the needle site upon discontinuing hemodialysis B. Keep the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees C. Place the left arm on an arm board for at least 30 minutes D. Keep the left arm dry
A Apply pressure when discontinuing hemodialysis and after removing the venipuncture needle until all the bleeding has stopped. Bleeding may continue for 10 minutes in some patients.
What do the labs look like in Stage 1 of CKD?
Diminished renal reserve 🔺BUN, GFR normal to higher. 🔺Creatine is normal.
Immunosuppression following Kidney transplantation is continued: A. For life B. 24 hours after transplantation C. A week after transplantation D. Until the kidney is not anymore rejected
A
The client with a crush injury to the leg has a highly positive urine myoglobin level. The nurse should assess this client carefully for signs and symptoms of which problem? 1. Brain attack 2. Respiratory failure 3. Myocardial infarction 4. Acute tubular necrosis
Acute tubular necrosis The normal urine myoglobin level is negative. After extensive muscle destruction or damage, myoglobin is released into the bloodstream, where it is cleared from the body by the kidneys. When a large amount of myoglobin is being cleared from the body, there is a risk of the renal tubules being clogged with myoglobin, causing acute tubular necrosis. This is one form of acute kidney injury. The remaining options are unrelated to a positive myoglobin level.
The nurse is working with a client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to set up a schedule for hemodialysis. The client states, "This is impossible! How can I even think about leading a normal life again if this is what I'm going to have to do?" The nurse determines that the client is exhibiting which problem? 1. Anger 2. Projection 3. Depression 4. Withdrawal
Anger Psychosocial reactions to CKD and hemodialysis are varied and may include anger. Other reactions include personality changes, emotional lability, withdrawal, and depression. The individual client's response may vary depending on the client's personality and support systems. The client in this question is exhibiting anger. The client's behavior is not indicative of projection; in addition, the client's statement does not reflect withdrawal or depression.
A patient who has been on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is hospitalized and is receiving CAPD with four exchanges a day. During the dialysate inflow, the patient complains of having abdominal pain and pain in the right shoulder. The nurse should a. massage the patient's abdomen and back. b. decrease the rate of dialysate infusion. c. stop the infusion and notify the health care provider. d. administer the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Answer: B Rationale: Abdominal pain and referred shoulder pain can be caused by a rapid infusion of dialysate; the nurse should slow the rate of the infusion. Massage and administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) would not address the reason for the pain. There is no need to notify the health care provider.
A client is being evaluated as a potential kidney donor for a family member. The client asks the nurse why separate teams are evaluating donor and recipient. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? 1. Helps reduce the cost of the preoperative workup 2. Saves the client and the recipient valuable preoperative time 3. Avoids a conflict of interest between the team evaluating the recipient and the team evaluating the donor 4. Provides for a sufficient number of persons reviewing the case so that no information is overlooked
Avoids a conflict of interest between the team evaluating the recipient and the team evaluating the donor Both the kidney donor and the kidney recipient need thorough medical and psychological evaluation before transplant surgery. Separate teams evaluate the donor and the recipient to avoid a conflict of interest in providing care for the 2 clients. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not related to the purpose of this approach.
A patient returns from surgery with an indwelling urinary catheter in place and empty. Six hours later, the volume is 120ml. The drainage system has no obstructions. Which intervention has priority? A. Give a 500 ml bolus of isotonic saline B. Evaluate the patient's circulation and vital signs C. Flush the urinary catheter with sterile water or saline D. Place the patient in the shock position, and notify the surgeon
B A total UO of 120ml is too low. Assess the patient's circulation and hemodynamic stability for signs of hypovolemia. A fluid bolus may be required, but only after further nursing assessment and a doctor's order.
A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client? a) Impaired urinary elimination b) Toileting self-care deficit c) Risk for infection d) Activity intolerance
C) Risk for infection Explanation: The peritoneal dialysis catheter and regular exchanges of the dialysis bag provide a direct portal for bacteria to enter the body. If the client experiences repeated peritoneal infections, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis may no longer be effective in clearing waste products. Impaired urinary elimination, Toileting self-care deficit, and Activity intolerance may be pertinent but are secondary to the risk of infection.
What are the various types of Peritoneal Dialysis?
CAPD CCPD IPD
The home health nurse is planning to make a home visit to a client who has undergone surgical creation of an ileal conduit. The nurse should include which information on ostomy care in discussion with the client? 1. Plan to do appliance changes in the late evening hours. 2. Cut an opening that is slightly smaller than the stoma in the face plate of the appliance. 3. Appliance odor from urine breakdown to ammonia can be minimized by limiting fluids. 4. Cleanse the skin around the stoma, using gentle soap and water, and then rinse and dry well.
Cleanse the skin around the stoma, using gentle soap and water, and then rinse and dry well. The skin around the stoma is cleansed at each appliance change using a gentle, nonresidue soap and water. The skin is rinsed and then dried thoroughly. The appliance should be changed early in the morning because urine production is slowest from no fluid intake during sleep. The appliance is cut so that the opening is not more than 3 mm larger than the stoma. An opening smaller than the stoma will prevent application of the appliance. Generous fluid intake is encouraged to dilute the urine, decreasing the intensity of odor.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been taking aluminum hydroxide gel. On the basis of this information, the nurse determines that the client is most at risk for which problem? 1. Constipation 2. Dehydration 3. Inability to tolerate activity 4. Impaired physical mobility
Constipation The client with CKD is almost certain to have a problem with constipation as a result of factors such as fluid restriction, fatigue that limits exercise, and dietary restrictions. In addition, phosphate-binding antacids such as aluminum hydroxide gel cause constipation as a side effect. The other problems listed are unrelated to the information in the question.
The main indicator of the need for hemodialysis is: A. Ascites B. Acidosis C. Hypertension D. Hyperkalemia
D
Which of the following factors causes the nausea associated with renal failure? A. Oliguria B. Gastric ulcers C. Electrolyte imbalances D. Accumulation of waste products
D Although clients with renal failure can develop stress ulcers, the nausea is usually related to the poisons of metabolic wastes that accumulate when the kidneys are unable to eliminate them. The client has electrolyte imbalances and oliguria, but these don't directly cause nausea.
The client with an arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. The nurse would do which of the following as a priority action to prevent this complication from occurring? A. Check the results of the PT time as they are ordered B. Observe the site once per shift C. Check the shunt for the presence of a bruit and thrill D. Ensure that small clamps are attached to the AV shunt dressing
D An AV shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because two ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental connection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site to use if needed. The shunt site should be assessed at least every four hours.
A client undergoing hemodialysis begins to experience muscle cramping. What is the best action by the hemodialysis nurse in this situation? 1. Administer hypotonic saline. 2. Increase the ultrafiltration rate. 3. Decrease the ultrafiltration rate. 4. Administer magnesium sulfate.
Decrease the ultrafiltration rate. Muscle cramps during hemodialysis result from either too rapid removal of water and sodium or neuromuscular hypersensitivity. The nurse corrects this situation by either slowing down the ultrafiltration rate on the hemodialyzer or administering hypertonic or isotonic normal saline. Magnesium sulfate is not prescribed to correct this occurrence.
The nurse is collecting data from a client. Which symptom described by the client is characteristic of an early symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia? 1. Nocturia 2. Scrotal edema 3. Occasional constipation 4. Decreased force in the stream of urine
Decreased force in the stream of urine Decreased force in the stream of urine is an early symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia. The stream later becomes weak and dribbling. The client then may develop hematuria, frequency, urgency, urge incontinence, and nocturia. If untreated, complete obstruction and urinary retention can occur. Constipation or scrotal edema is not associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia.
A client has been diagnosed with pyelonephritis. The nurse interprets that which health problem has placed the client at risk for this disorder? 1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Orthostatic hypotension 3. Coronary artery disease 4. Intravenous (IV) contrast medium
Diabetes mellitus Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by entry of bacteria, obstruction, or reflux. Risk factors associated with pyelonephritis include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, chronic renal calculi, chronic cystitis, overuse of analgesics, structural abnormalities of the urinary tract, presence of urinary stones, and indwelling or frequent urinary catheterization.
How is Anemia 2/2 CKD treated?
Erythropoietin TID Injection and IRON, FOLIC ACID.
What are some Nurisng diagnoses for AKI?
Fluid Volume Excess rt compromised regulatory mechanisms. Risk for Infection rt altered immune response secondary to renal failure. Activity Intolerance rt fatigue, Anxiety rt uncertainty of prognosis
How is fluid limited in ESRD?
Fluid intake is based on output (1200cc QD).
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client after a cystoscopy. Which assessment finding indicates a need to notify the health care provider (HCP)? 1. A temperature of 99.4°F (37.4°C) 2. Grossly bloody urine with clots 3. A bluish or green tinge to the urine 4. A blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg
Grossly bloody urine with clots Grossly bloody urine with clots following cystoscopy is always an abnormal finding and should be reported to the HCP immediately. The client may have clear or blood-tinged urine after cystoscopy. If a contrast agent such as methylene blue is used, the urine may have an unusual bluish or green tinge. A blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg and a temperature of 99.4°F (37.4°C) are not abnormal findings at this time.
The client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse should assess the client during dialysis for which associated manifestations? 1. Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever 2. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia 3. Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness 4. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching
Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing increased intracranial pressure and onset of symptoms. The syndrome most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates. Tachycardia and fever are associated with infection. Generalized weakness is associated with low blood pressure and anemia. Restlessness and irritability are not associated with disequilibrium syndrome.
How to nutritionally manage end stage CKD.
If you have kidney failure/ESRD, you must monitor the amounts of fluid and certain nutrients you take in each day. This can help keep waste and fluid from building up in your blood and causing problems. Exactly how strict your diet should be depends on your treatment plan and other health concerns. Most people on dialysis need to limit: Potassium Phosphorus Fluids Sodium
The nurse is monitoring the fluid balance of an assigned client. The nurse determines that the client has proper fluid balance if which 24-hour intake and output totals are noted? 1. Intake 1500 mL, output 800 mL 2. Intake 3000 mL, output 2000 mL 3. Intake 2400 mL, output 2900 mL 4. Intake 1800 mL, output 1750 mL
Intake 1800 mL, output 1750 mL For the client on a normal diet, the normal fluid intake is approximately 1200 to 1800 mL of measurable fluids per day. The client's output in the same period should be about the same and does not include insensible losses, which are extra. Insensible losses are offset by the fluid in solid foods, which also is not measured.
The nurse checks the serum myoglobin level for a client with a crush injury to the right lower leg because the client is at risk for developing which type of acute kidney injury? 1. Prerenal 2. Intrarenal 3. Postrenal 4. Extrarenal
Intrarenal Serum myoglobin levels increase in crush injuries when large amounts of myoglobin and hemoglobin are released from damaged muscle and blood cells. The accumulation may cause acute tubular necrosis, an intrarenal cause of renal failure. Prerenal causes are conditions that interfere with the perfusion of blood to the kidney. Postrenal causes include conditions that cause urinary obstruction distal to the kidney. The cause and the type of renal failure may determine the interventions used in treatment.
The nurse is planning teaching for a female client diagnosed with urethritis caused by chlamydial infection. Which information should the nurse plan to include in the teaching session? 1. Alter the perineal pH by using a spermicide with a condom. 2. Keep follow-up appointments for repeat cultures in 4 to 7 days. 3. Discontinue antibiotics after 3 weeks of uninterrupted administration. 4. Identify sexual partners for the past 12 months so they can be treated.
Keep follow-up appointments for repeat cultures in 4 to 7 days Follow-up cultures are typically done in 4 to 7 days to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication. Using a spermicide does not change the perineal pH. The infection can be prevented by the use of latex condoms. Chlamydial infection is treated with antibiotics, which are not discontinued until the prescribed course is completed. All sexual partners during the 30 days before diagnosis should be notified, examined, and treated as necessary
What happens to the kidneys physically as they die?
Kidneys get bigger then they get smaller as the disease goes and the tissue is replaced with scar tissue.
The nurse is preparing to care for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which should be included in the nursing plan of care to prevent the major complication associated with peritoneal dialysis? 1. Maintain strict aseptic technique. 2. Add heparin to the dialysate solution. 3. Change the catheter site dressing daily. 4. Monitor the client's level of consciousness.
Maintain strict aseptic technique. The major complication of peritoneal dialysis is peritonitis. Strict aseptic technique is required in caring for the client receiving this treatment. Although changing the catheter site dressing daily may assist in preventing infection, this option relates to an external site. Adding heparin to the dialysate solution and monitoring the client's level of consciousness are unrelated to the major complication of peritoneal dialysis.
The nurse is caring for a client who was prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for damage of which kidney structure? 1. Pelvis 2. Calyx 3. Nephron 4. Renal artery
Nephron The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney that is responsible for clearance of excess fluid and waste products of metabolism. The renal pelvis and calices collect urine to send to the ureter. The renal artery brings blood to the kidney for filtering by the nephron.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Monitor the client. 2. Elevate the head of the bed. 3. Assess the fistula site and dressing. 4. Notify the health care provider (HCP).
Notify the health care provider (HCP). Disequilibrium syndrome may be caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. These changes can cause cerebral edema that leads to increased intracranial pressure. The client is exhibiting early signs and symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome and appropriate treatments with anticonvulsive medications and barbiturates may be necessary to prevent a life-threatening situation. The HCP must be notified. Monitoring the client, elevating the head of the bed, and assessing the fistula site are correct actions, but the priority action is to notify the HCP.
The nurse is assessing a client who has returned from the postanesthesia care unit after transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse should assess for which color in the urinary drainage tubing that indicates proper irrigation and adequate functioning of the device? 1. Pale pink 2. Dark pink 3. Bright red 4. Red with clots
Pale pink If the bladder irrigation solution is infusing at a sufficient rate, the urinary drainage will be pale pink. A dark pink color (sometimes referred to as punch-colored) indicates that the speed of the irrigation should be increased. Bright red bleeding and red urine with clots should be reported to the surgeon because either finding could indicate complications.
The nurse is monitoring a client who has just returned from surgery after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The client has a 3-way Foley catheter in place for ongoing bladder irrigation. The nurse is observing the color of the client's urine and should expect which urine color during the immediate postoperative period? 1. Pale pink urine 2. Dark pink urine 3. Tea-colored urine 4. Bright red blood with small clots in the urine
Pale pink urine If the bladder irrigation is infusing at a sufficient rate, the urinary drainage through the Foley tubing should be pale pink. Dark pink urine indicates that the rate of the irrigation solution should be increased. Tea-colored urine is not seen after TURP but may be noted in a client with other renal disorders such as renal failure. Bright red bleeding and clots could indicate a complication, and if this is noted, it should be reported to the health care provider.
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD r/t the Urinary System?
Polyuria ⬇️ Nocturia ⬇️ Oliguria ⬇️ Anuria
A client is being discharged to home while recovering from acute kidney injury (AKI). Reduced dietary intake of which substance indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary teaching? 1. Fats 2. Vitamins 3. Potassium 4. Carbohydrates
Potassium The excretion of potassium and maintenance of potassium balance are normal functions of the kidneys. In the client with AKI or chronic kidney disease, potassium intake must be restricted as much as possible (to 60 to 70 mEq/day). The primary mechanism of potassium removal during AKI is dialysis. Vitamins, carbohydrates, and fats are not normally restricted in the client with AKI unless a secondary health problem warrants the need to do so. The amount of fluid permitted is generally calculated to be equal to the urine volume plus the insensible loss volume of 500 mL.
The nursing student is assigned to care for a client with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI), diuretic phase. The nursing instructor asks the student about the primary goal of the treatment plan for this client. Which goal, if stated by the nursing student, indicates an adequate understanding of the treatment plan for this client? 1. Prevent fluid overload. 2. Prevent loss of electrolytes. 3. Promote the excretion of wastes. 4. Reduce the urine specific gravity.
Prevent loss of electrolytes. In the diuretic phase, fluids and electrolytes are lost in the urine. As a result, the plan of care focuses on fluid and electrolyte replacement and monitoring. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not the primary concerns in this phase of AKI.
Serum Creatinine
Serum creatinine is a better indicator: 0.6-1.5 mg/dl. Inc Creatine is indicative of nephron damage. Elevated CR equals damage to kidney. Significant damage to kidneys must occur, changes are seen at 50% damage.
A client with nephrolithiasis arrives at the clinic for a follow-up visit. Laboratory analysis of the stone that the client passed 1 week earlier indicates that the stone is composed of calcium oxalate. Based on these data, what food item does the nurse instruct the client to avoid? 1. Pasta 2. Lentils 3. Lettuce 4. Spinach
Spinach Many kidney stones are composed of calcium oxalate. Foods that raise urinary oxalate excretion include spinach, rhubarb, strawberries, chocolate, wheat bran, nuts, beets, and tea. Pasta, lentils, and lettuce are acceptable to consume.
Before providing care for a client in the late stages of chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should review the results of which most relevant laboratory studies? 1. Serum potassium, serum calcium 2. Urinalysis, hematocrit, hemoglobin 3. Culture and sensitivity testing, serum sodium 4. Urine specific gravity, intravenous pyelogram
Serum potassium, serum calcium Because of the potentially life-threatening outcomes associated with hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia, they are the most relevant to nursing management of the client with CKD. The diagnostic tests in the remaining options may be helpful in diagnosing CKD or in monitoring treatment but are not the most relevant. Additionally, decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin occur in CKD because of the decreased level of erythropoietin. However, a decrease in hematocrit and hemoglobin may be reflective of various health alterations.
A client with chlamydial infection has received instructions on self-care and prevention of further infection. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states that he or she will take which action? 1. Use latex condoms to prevent disease transmission. 2. Return to the clinic as requested for follow-up culture in 1 week. 3. Reduce the chance of reinfection by limiting the number of sexual partners. 4. Take an antibiotic so as to prophylactically prevent symptoms of Chlamydia.
Take an antibiotic so as to prophylactically prevent symptoms of Chlamydia. Antibiotics are not taken prophylactically to prevent acquisition of chlamydial infection. The risk of reinfection can be reduced by limiting the number of sexual partners and by the use of condoms. In some cases, follow-up culture is requested in 4 to 7 days to confirm a cure. The remaining options are correct measures.
A cystectomy is performed for a client with a diagnosis of bladder cancer, and a Kock pouch is created for urinary diversion. In creating a discharge teaching plan for the client, the nurse should include which instruction in the plan? 1. Dietary restrictions 2. Technique of catheterization 3. External pouch and application care 4. Proper administration of prophylactic antibiotics
Technique of catheterization A Kock pouch is a continent internal ileal reservoir. The nurse instructs the client about the technique of catheterization. Dietary restrictions are not required. There is no external pouch. Antibiotics are not required unless an infection is present; also, antibiotics are prescribed by the health care provider.
4. The white blood cell count is elevated;normal is 5,000 to 10,000/mm3.
The client had surgery to remove a kidney stone. Which laboratory assessment data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1.A serum potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L. 2.A urinalysis shows microscopic hematuria. 3.A creatinine level of 0.8 mg/100 mL. 4.A white blood cell count of 14,000/mm3.
A client complains of fever, perineal pain, and urinary urgency, frequency, and dysuria. To assess whether the client's problem is related to bacterial prostatitis, the nurse reviews the results of the prostate examination for which characteristic of this disorder? 1. Soft and swollen prostate gland 2. Swollen, and boggy prostate gland 3. Tender and edematous prostate gland 4. Tender, indurated prostate gland that is warm to the touch
Tender, indurated prostate gland that is warm to the touch The client with bacterial prostatitis has a swollen and tender prostate gland that is also warm to the touch, firm, and indurated. Systemic symptoms include fever with chills, perineal and low back pain, and signs of urinary tract infection, which often accompany the disorder.
2. These crystals are uremic frost resulting from irritating toxins deposited in the client's tissues. Bathing in cool water will remove the crystals, promote client comfort, and decrease the itching resulting from uremic frost.
The UAP tells the nurse the client with ARF has a white crystal-like layer on top of the skin. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1.Have the assistant apply a moisture barrier cream to the skin. 2.Instruct the UAP to bathe the client in cool water. 3.Tell the UAP not to turn the client in this condition. 4.Explain this is normal and do not do anything for the client.
1. The nurse should place the client's chair with the head lower than thebody, which will shunt blood to the brain; this is the Trendelenburg position.
The client receiving dialysis is complaining of being dizzy and light-headed. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1.Place the client in the Trendelenburg position. 2.Turn off the dialysis machine immediately. 3.Bolus the client with 500 mL of normal saline. 4.Notify the health-care provider as soon as possible.
3. This is usually the length of time clients need to wait prior to having sexual intercourse; this is the information the client wants to know.
The client who is postoperative TURP asks the nurse, "When will I know if I will be able to have sex after my TURP?" Which response is most appropriate by the nurse? 1."You seem anxious about your surgery." 2."Tell me about your fears of impotency." 3."Potency can return in six (6) to eight (8) weeks." 4."Did you ask your doctor about your concern?"
A client with an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm who is undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for infection. Which should the nurse formulate as the best outcome goal for this client problem? 1. The client washes hands at least once per day. 2. The client's temperature remains lower than 101°F (38.3°C). 3. The client avoids blood pressure (BP) measurement in the left arm. 4. The client's white blood cell (WBC) count remains within normal limits.
The client's white blood cell (WBC) count remains within normal limits. General indicators that the client is not experiencing infection include a temperature and WBC count within normal limits. The client also should use proper hand-washing technique as a general preventive measure. Hand washing once per day is insufficient. It is true that the client should avoid BP measurement in the affected arm; however, this would relate more closely to the problem of risk for injury.
Lets discuss Intrarenal causes of AKI.
The damage to renal tissue, nephrons malfunction. 🔺Prolonged prerenal problem. 🔺Infection. 🔺Nephrotoxins (lead, mercury, medicaitons). 🔺Intravascular hemolysis (blood transfusions, DIC [blockages]). 🔺Myoglobinuria (crushing, falls = damaged muscles).
1. Clients who have urinary incontinenceare often embarrassed, so it is the responsibility of the nurse to approach this subject with respect and consideration.
The elderly client being seen in the clinic has complaints of urinary frequency,urgency, and "leaking." Which priority intervention should the nurse implement when interviewing the client? 1.Ensure communication is nonjudgmental and respectful. 2.Set the temperature for comfort in the examination room. 3.Speak loudly to ensure the client understands the nurse. 4.Ensure the examining room has adequate lighting.
4. Use of the bladder training drill is helpful in stress incontinence. The client is instructed to void at scheduled intervals. After consistently being dry, the interval is increased by 15 minutes until the client reaches an acceptable interval.
The elderly client recovering from a prostatectomy has been experiencing stress incontinence. Which independent nursing intervention should the nurse discuss with the client? 1.Establish a set voiding frequency of every two (2) hours while awake. 2.Encourage a family member to assist the client to the bathroom to void. 3.Apply a transurethral electrical stimulator to relieve symptoms of urinary urgency. 4.Discuss the use of a "bladder drill," including a timed voiding schedule.
4 Coffee, tea, cola, and alcoholic beverages are urinary tract irritants.
The female client in an outpatient clinic is being sent home with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which instruction should the nurse teach to prevent a recurrence of a UTI? 1.Clean the perineum from back to front after a bowel movement. 2.Take warm tub baths instead of hot showers daily. 3.Void immediately preceding sexual intercourse. 4.Avoid coffee, tea, colas, and alcoholic beverages.
The spouse of a client with acute kidney injury secondary to heart failure asks the nurse how a heart problem can affect the kidneys. The nurse should formulate a response using what fact about the kidneys? 1. The kidneys get fatigued from having to filter too much fluid. 2. The kidneys can react adversely to moderate doses of furosemide. 3. The kidneys will shut down easily if serum levels of digoxin are high. 4. The kidneys generally require and receive about 20% to 25% of the resting cardiac output.
The kidneys generally require and receive about 20% to 25% of the resting cardiac output. Heart failure is referred to as a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury because heart failure results in decreased blood flow to the kidneys. The kidneys normally receive about 20% to 25% of the cardiac output and require adequate perfusion to function properly. With a significant or prolonged decrease in blood supply, the kidneys can fail. Options 1 and 3 are incorrect. As for option 2, large doses of furosemide resulting in severe dehydration may lead to decreased kidney perfusion, but moderate doses of furosemide do not cause prerenal acute kidney injury, and furosemide may be used to treat acute kidney injury.
Collecting Ducts
The location of the final concentration of urine. Water is reabsorbed by ADH.
The nurse is caring for a client immediately after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. What is the most appropriate datum to use in planning administration of intravenous fluids to this client? 1. A strict hourly rate of 100 mL 2. A strict hourly rate of 150 mL 3. One half of the previous hour's urine output 4. The number of milliliters in the previous hour's urine output
The number of milliliters in the previous hour's urine output Intravenous fluids are managed very carefully after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. Fluids are usually given according to a formula that takes into account the previous hour's urine output. The desired urine output is generally high; therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.
The nurse is caring for a client with a bladder infection. The nurse plans care understanding that the primary risk factor for spread of infection in this client is dysfunction of which structure? 1. Urethra 2. Nephron 3. Glomerulus 4. Ureterovesical junction
Ureterovesical junction The ureterovesical junction is the point at which the ureters enter the bladder. At this juncture, the ureter runs obliquely for 1.5 to 2 cm through the bladder wall before opening into the bladder. This anatomical pathway prevents reflux of urine back into the ureter and, in essence, acts as a valve to prevent urine from traveling back into the ureter and up to the kidney.
GFR
Uses serum Creatine level used to calculate GFR, > 60ml/min/1.73m2 (age, gender, and race are calculated). (Normal GFR is >90, labs max out at 60)
Prevention of AKI is important because of the high mortality rate. Which patients are at increased risk for AKI (select all that apply)? a. An 86-year-old woman scheduled for a cardiac catheterization b. A 48-year-old man with multiple injuries from a motor vehicle accident c. A 32-year-old woman following a C-section delivery for abruptio placentae d. A 64-year-old woman with chronic heart failure admitted with bloody stools e. A 58-year-old man with prostate cancer undergoing preoperative workup for prostatectomy
a, b, c, d, e. High-risk patients include those exposed to nephrotoxic agents and advanced age (a), massive trauma (b), prolonged hypovolemia or hypotension (possibly b and c), obstetric complications (c), cardiac failure (d), preexisting chronic kidney disease, extensive burns, or sepsis. Patients with prostate cancer may have obstruction of the outflow tract, which increases risk of postrenal AKI (e).
Priority Decision: A patient on a medical unit has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What is the priority action that the nurse should take? a. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. b. Check the patient's blood pressure (BP). c. Instruct the patient to avoid high-potassium foods. d. Call the lab and request a redraw of the lab to verify results.
a. Dysrhythmias may occur with an elevated potassium level and are potentially lethal. Monitor the rhythm while contacting the physician or calling the rapid response team. Vital signs should be checked. Depending on the patient's history and cause of increased potassium, instruct the patient about dietary sources of potassium; however, this would not help at this point. The nurse may want to recheck the value but until then the heart rhythm needs to be monitored.
Which complication of chronic kidney disease is treated with erythropoietin (EPO)? a. Anemia b. Hypertension c. Hyperkalemia d. Mineral and bone disorder
a. Erythropoietin is used to treat anemia, as it stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.
Which complication of chronic kidney disease is treated with erythropoietin (EPO)? a. Anemia b. Hypertension c. Hyperkalemia d. Mineral and bone disorder
a. Erythropoietin is used to treat anemia, as it stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.
A client has been admitted to the hospital for urinary tract infection and dehydration. The nurse determines that the client has received adequate volume replacement if the blood urea nitrogen level drops to: a) 3 mg/dL b) 15 mg/dL c) 29 mg/dL d) 35 mg/dL
b) 15 mg/dL the normal blood urea nitrogen level is 8 to 25 mg/dL
A client has been admitted to the hospital for urinary tract infection and dehydration. The nurse determines that the client has received adequate volume replacement if the blood urea nitrogen level drops to: a) 3 mg/dL b) 15 mg/dL c) 29 mg/dL d) 35 mg/dL
b) 15 mg/dL the normal blood urea nitrogen level is 8 to 25 mg/dL
The client is in end-stage renal failure (ESRD). Which of the following foods may be allowed for the client? a) banana b) apple c) carrot cake d) cantaloupe
b) apple APPLES ARE LOW IN POTASSIUM
Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome Prednisone is prescribed for Carlo. The nurse evaluate its effectiveness by a) checking his BP every 4 hours b) checking his urine for protein c) weighing him each morning before breakfast d) observing him for behavioral changes
b) checking his urine for protein Monitor side effect of prolonged steroid therapy Hyperglycemia - test urine monitor growth of child by checking height because steroid has growth suppressing effect by preventing calcium deposition in the bones Gastric Irritation - give milk or meals, test for occult blood, administer with antacids Avoid exposure to infection because child is immunosuppressed
In replying to a patient's questions about the seriousness of her chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse knows that the stage of CKD is based on what? a. Total daily urine output b. Glomerular filtration rate c. Degree of altered mental status d. Serum creatinine and urea levels
b. Stages of chronic kidney disease are based on the GFR. No specific markers of urinary output, mental status, or azotemia classify the degree of chronic kidney disease (CKD).
A patient with AKI has a serum potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/L) and the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 86 mm Hg, HCO3 − 18 mEq/L (18 mmol/L). The nurse recognizes that treatment of the acid-base problem with sodium bicarbonate would cause a decrease in which value? a. pH b. Potassium level c. Bicarbonate level d. Carbon dioxide level
b. During acidosis, potassium moves out of the cell in exchange for H+ ions, increasing the serum potassium level. Correction of the acidosis with sodium bicarbonate will help to shift the potassium back into the cells. A decrease in pH and the bicarbonate and PaCO2 levels would indicate worsening acidosis.
A patient with AKI has a serum potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/L) and the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 86 mm Hg, HCO3 − 18 mEq/L (18 mmol/L). The nurse recognizes that treatment of the acid-base problem with sodium bicarbonate would cause a decrease in which value? a. pH b. Potassium level c. Bicarbonate level d. Carbon dioxide level
b. During acidosis, potassium moves out of the cell in exchange for H+ ions, increasing the serum potassium level. Correction of the acidosis with sodium bicarbonate will help to shift the potassium back into the cells. A decrease in pH and the bicarbonate and PaCO2 levels would indicate worsening acidosis.
What is the most serious electrolyte disorder associated with kidney disease? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypermagnesemia
b. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Hypocalcemia leads to an accelerated rate of bone remodeling and potentially to tetany. Hyponatremia may lead to confusion. Elevated sodium levels lead to edema, hypertension, and heart failure. Hypermagnesemia may decrease reflexes, mental status, and blood pressure.
Priority Decision: A dehydrated patient is in the Injury stage of the RIFLE staging of AKI. What would the nurse first anticipate in the treatment of this patient? a. Assess daily weight b. IV administration of fluid and furosemide (Lasix) c. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate d. Urinalysis to check for sediment, osmolality, sodium, and specific gravity
b. Injury is the stage of RIFLE classification when urine output is less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr for 12 hours, the serum creatinine is increased times two or the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is decreased by 50%. This stage may be reversible by treating the cause or, in this patient, the dehydration by administering IV fluid and a low dose of a loop diuretic, furosemide (Lasix). Assessing the daily weight will be done to monitor fluid changes but it is not the first treatment the nurse should anticipate. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate would be used for hyperkalemia. Checking the urinalysis will help to determine if the AKI has a prerenal, intrarenal, or postrenal cause by what is seen in the urine but with this patient's dehydration, it is thought to be prerenal to begin treatment.
The patient with CKD asks why she is receiving nifedipine (Procardia) and furosemide (Lasix). The nurse understands that these drugs are being used to treat the patient's a. anemia. b. hypertension. c. hyperkalemia. d. mineral and bone disorder.
b. Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker and furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Both are used to treat hypertension.
The patient with CKD asks why she is receiving nifedipine (Procardia) and furosemide (Lasix). The nurse understands that these drugs are being used to treat the patient's a. anemia. b. hypertension. c. hyperkalemia. d. mineral and bone disorder.
b. Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker and furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Both are used to treat hypertension.
A nurse is assessing a client who is diagnosed with cystitis. Which assessment finding is inconsistent with the typical clinical manifestations noted in this disorder? a) hematuria b) low back pain c) urinary retention d) burning on urination
c) urinary retention
A nurse is assessing a client who is diagnosed with cystitis. Which assessment finding is inconsistent with the typical clinical manifestations noted in this disorder? a) hematuria b) low back pain c) urinary retention d) burning on urination
c) urinary retention
An 83-year-old female patient was found lying on the bathroom floor. She said she fell 2 days ago and has not been able to take her heart medicine or eat or drink anything since then. What conditions could be causing prerenal AKI in this patient (select all that apply)? a. Anaphylaxis b. Renal calculi c. Hypovolemia d. Nephrotoxic drugs e. Decreased cardiac output
c, e. Because the patient has had nothing to eat or drink for 2 days, she is probably dehydrated and hypovolemic. Decreased cardiac output (CO) is most likely because she is older and takes heart medicine, which is probably for heart failure or hypertension. Both hypovolemia and decreased CO cause prerenal AKI. Anaphylaxis is also a cause of prerenal AKI but is not likely in this situation. Nephrotoxic drugs would contribute to intrarenal causes of AKI and renal calculi would be a postrenal cause of AKI.
What does the dialysate for PD routinely contain? a. Calcium in a lower concentration than in the blood b. Sodium in a higher concentration than in the blood c. Dextrose in a higher concentration than in the blood d. Electrolytes in an equal concentration to that of the blood
c. Dextrose or icodextrin or amino acid is added to dialysate fluid to create an osmotic gradient across the membrane to remove excess fluid from the blood. The dialysate fluid has no potassium so that potassium will diffuse into the dialysate from the blood. Dialysate also usually contains higher calcium to promote its movement into the blood. Dialysate sodium is usually less than or equal to that of blood to prevent sodium and fluid retention.
What does the dialysate for PD routinely contain? a. Calcium in a lower concentration than in the blood b. Sodium in a higher concentration than in the blood c. Dextrose in a higher concentration than in the blood d. Electrolytes in an equal concentration to that of the blood
c. Dextrose or icodextrin or amino acid is added to dialysate fluid to create an osmotic gradient across the membrane to remove excess fluid from the blood. The dialysate fluid has no potassium so that potassium will diffuse into the dialysate from the blood. Dialysate also usually contains higher calcium to promote its movement into the blood. Dialysate sodium is usually less than or equal to that of blood to prevent sodium and fluid retention.
The patient with CKD is brought to the emergency department with Kussmaul respirations. What does the nurse know about CKD that could cause this patient's Kussmaul respirations? a. Uremic pleuritis is occurring. b. There is decreased pulmonary macrophage activity. c. They are caused by respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis. d. Pulmonary edema from heart failure and fluid overload is occurring.
c. Kussmaul respirations occur with severe metabolic acidosis when the respiratory system is attempting to compensate by removing carbon dioxide with exhalations. Uremic pleuritis would cause a pleural friction rub. Decreased pulmonary macrophage activity increases the risk of pulmonary infection. Dyspnea would occur with pulmonary edema.
The patient with CKD is brought to the emergency department with Kussmaul respirations. What does the nurse know about CKD that could cause this patient's Kussmaul respirations? a. Uremic pleuritis is occurring. b. There is decreased pulmonary macrophage activity. c. They are caused by respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis. d. Pulmonary edema from heart failure and fluid overload is occurring.
c. Kussmaul respirations occur with severe metabolic acidosis when the respiratory system is attempting to compensate by removing carbon dioxide with exhalations. Uremic pleuritis would cause a pleural friction rub. Decreased pulmonary macrophage activity increases the risk of pulmonary infection. Dyspnea would occur with pulmonary edema.
For a patient with CKD the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for injury: fracture related to alterations in calcium and phosphorus metabolism. What is the pathologic process directly related to the increased risk for fractures? a. Loss of aluminum through the impaired kidneys b. Deposition of calcium phosphate in soft tissues of the body c. Impaired vitamin D activation resulting in decreased GI absorption of calcium d. Increased release of parathyroid hormone in response to decreased calcium levels
c. The calcium-phosphorus imbalances that occur in CKD result in hypocalcemia, from a deficiency of active vitamin D and increased phosphorus levels. This leads to an increased rate of bone remodeling with a weakened bone matrix. Aluminum accumulation is also believed to contribute to the osteomalacia. Osteitis fibrosa involves replacement of calcium in the bone with fibrous tissue and is primarily a result of elevated levels of parathyroid hormone resulting from hypocalcemia.
During the nursing assessment of the patient with renal insufficiency, the nurse asks the patient specifically about a history of a. angina. b. asthma. c. hypertension. d. rheumatoid arthritis.
c. The most common causes of CKD in the United States are diabetes mellitus and hypertension. The nurse should obtain information on long-term health problems that are related to kidney disease. The other disorders are not closely associated with renal disease.
During the nursing assessment of the patient with renal insufficiency, the nurse asks the patient specifically about a history of a. angina. b. asthma. c. hypertension. d. rheumatoid arthritis.
c. The most common causes of CKD in the United States are diabetes mellitus and hypertension. The nurse should obtain information on long-term health problems that are related to kidney disease. The other disorders are not closely associated with renal disease.
What causes the gastrointestinal (GI) manifestation of stomatitis in the patient with CKD? a. High serum sodium levels b. Irritation of the GI tract from creatinine c. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea d. Iron salts, calcium-containing phosphate binders, and limited fluid intake
c. Uremic fetor, or the urine odor of the breath, is caused by high urea content in the blood. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea leads to stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations. Irritation of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from urea in CKD contributes to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Ingestion of iron salts and calcium-containing phosphate binders, limited fluid intake, and limited activity cause constipation.
What causes the gastrointestinal (GI) manifestation of stomatitis in the patient with CKD? a. High serum sodium levels b. Irritation of the GI tract from creatinine c. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea d. Iron salts, calcium-containing phosphate binders, and limited fluid intake
c. Uremic fetor, or the urine odor of the breath, is caused by high urea content in the blood. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea leads to stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations. Irritation of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from urea in CKD contributes to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Ingestion of iron salts and calcium-containing phosphate binders, limited fluid intake, and limited activity cause constipation.
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common cause of intrarenal AKI. Which patient is most likely to develop ATN? a. Patient with diabetes mellitus b. Patient with hypertensive crisis c. Patient who tried to overdose on acetaminophen d. Patient with major surgery who required a blood transfusion
d. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is primarily the result of ischemia, nephrotoxins, or sepsis. Major surgery is most likely to cause severe kidney ischemia in the patient requiring a blood transfusion. A blood transfusion hemolytic reaction produces nephrotoxic injury if it occurs. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and acetaminophen overdose will not contribute to ATN.
Which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse that the patient's CKD is getting worse? a. Decreased BUN b. Decreased sodium c. Decreased creatinine d. Decreased calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
d. As GFR decreases, BUN and serum creatinine levels increase. Although elevated BUN and creatinine indicate that waste products are accumulating, the calculated GFR is considered a more accurate indicator of kidney function than BUN or serum creatinine.
Which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse that the patient's CKD is getting worse? a. Decreased BUN b. Decreased sodium c. Decreased creatinine d. Decreased calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
d. As GFR decreases, BUN and serum creatinine levels increase. Although elevated BUN and creatinine indicate that waste products are accumulating, the calculated GFR is considered a more accurate indicator of kidney function than BUN or serum creatinine.
What indicates to the nurse that a patient with oliguria has prerenal oliguria? a. Urine testing reveals a low specific gravity. b. Causative factor is malignant hypertension. c. Urine testing reveals a high sodium concentration. d. Reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement.
d. In prerenal oliguria, the oliguria is caused by a decrease in circulating blood volume and there is no damage yet to the renal tissue. It can be reversed by correcting the precipitating factor, such as fluid replacement for hypovolemia. Prerenal oliguria is characterized by urine with a high specific gravity and a low sodium concentration, whereas oliguria of intrarenal failure is characterized by urine with a low specific gravity and a high sodium concentration. Malignant hypertension causes damage to renal tissue and intrarenal oliguria.
What indicates to the nurse that a patient with AKI is in the recovery phase? a. A return to normal weight b. A urine output of 3700 mL/day c. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels d. Decreasing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
d. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels remain high during the oliguric and diuretic phases of AKI. The recovery phase begins when the glomerular filtration returns to a rate at which BUN and creatinine stabilize and then decrease. Urinary output of 3 to 5 L/ day, decreasing sodium and potassium levels, and fluid weight loss are characteristic of the diuretic phase of AKI.
What indicates to the nurse that a patient with AKI is in the recovery phase? a. A return to normal weight b. A urine output of 3700 mL/day c. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels d. Decreasing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
d. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels remain high during the oliguric and diuretic phases of AKI. The recovery phase begins when the glomerular filtration returns to a rate at which BUN and creatinine stabilize and then decrease. Urinary output of 3 to 5 L/ day, decreasing sodium and potassium levels, and fluid weight loss are characteristic of the diuretic phase of AKI.
Which of the following is an expected finding in the client with chronic renal failure? a) anemia b) polyuria c) increased creatinine clearance d) increased serum calcium levels
a) anemia
Which of the following is an expected finding in the client with chronic renal failure? a) anemia b) polyuria c) increased creatinine clearance d) increased serum calcium levels
a) anemia
Which of the following problems is expected in a client who is in end-stage renal failure? a) anemia b) thalassemia c) renal calculi d) hypotension
a) anemia
A client who is to have a cystectomy with creation of an ileal conduit asks the nurse why the bowel needs to be cleansed before surgery if the bladder is being removed. Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate? 1. "All clients undergo bowel preparation with major surgery." 2. "This will decrease the chance of postoperative paralytic ileus." 3. "A portion of the bowel will be used to create the conduit for urinary diversion." 4. "This will reduce the chance that the surgeon will nick the bowel during surgery."
"A portion of the bowel will be used to create the conduit for urinary diversion." The client scheduled for surgical creation of either an ileal conduit or a reservoir undergoes bowel preparation the night before the procedure. Preparation can include intake of copious clear liquids, laxatives, enemas, and antibiotics, depending on health care provider preference. This is done primarily to prevent infection because a loop of bowel will be used to create the urinary diversion.
The nurse provides home care instructions to a client undergoing hemodialysis with regard to care of a newly created arteriovenous (AV) fistula. Which client statement indicates that teaching was effective? 1. "I should check the fistula every day by feeling it for a vibration." 2. "I am glad that the laboratory will be able to draw my blood from the fistula." 3. "I should wear a shirt with tight arms to provide some compression on the fistula." 4. "I should check my blood pressure in the arm where I have my fistula every week."
"I should check the fistula every day by feeling it for a vibration." An AV fistula provides access to the client's bloodstream for the dialysis procedure. The client is instructed to monitor fistula patency daily by palpating for a thrill (vibration feeling). The client is instructed to avoid compressing the fistula with tight clothing or when sleeping and that blood pressure measurements and blood draws should not be performed on the arm with the fistula. The client also is instructed to assess the fistula for signs and symptoms of infection, including pain, redness, swelling, and excessive warmth.
The ambulatory care nurse is providing instructions to a client after a cystoscopy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I should increase my fluid intake." 2. "I can apply heat to my lower abdomen." 3. "I may have some burning on urination for the next few days." 4. "If I notice any pink-tinged urine, I should contact the health care provider."
"If I notice any pink-tinged urine, I should contact the health care provider." The client is instructed that pink-tinged urine and burning on urination are expected for 1 to 2 days after the procedure. Increased fluid intake is encouraged. Application of heat to the lower abdomen, administration of mild analgesics, and the use of sitz baths may relieve discomfort. The client also is advised to avoid alcoholic beverages for 2 days after the test.
The nurse instructor is evaluating a nursing student for knowledge regarding care of a client with acute kidney injury. Which statement by the student demonstrates the need for further teaching about the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury? 1. "The increase in urine output indicates the return of some renal function." 2. "The diuretic phase develops about 14 days after the initial insult and lasts about 10 days." 3. "The diuretic phase is characterized by an increase in urine output of about 500 mL in a 24-hour period." 4. "The blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels will continue to rise during the first few days of diuresis."
"The diuretic phase is characterized by an increase in urine output of about 500 mL in a 24-hour period." The diuretic phase of acute kidney injury is characterized by an increase in urine output of more than 1000 mL in a 24-hour period. This increase in urine output indicates the return of some renal function; however, blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels continue to rise during the first few days of diuresis. The diuretic phase develops about 14 days after the initial insult and lasts about 10 days.
The nurse is caring for a client just after ureterolithotomy and is monitoring the drainage from the ureteral catheter hourly. Suddenly, the catheter stops draining. The nurse assesses the client and determines that which could be the cause of the problem? Select all that apply. 1. Blood clots 2. Mucous shreds 3. Ureteral edema 4. Chemical sediment 5. Catheter displacement
1. Blood clots 2. Mucous shreds 4. Chemical sediment 5. Catheter displacement After ureterolithotomy, a ureteral catheter is put in place. Urine flows freely through it for the first 2 to 3 days. As ureteral edema diminishes, urine leaks around the ureteral catheter and drains directly into the bladder. At this point, drainage through the ureteral catheter diminishes. Immediately after surgery, absence of drainage usually is caused by blockage from blood clots, mucous shreds, chemical sediment, or catheter displacement.
The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client's outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. 1. Check the level of the drainage bag. 2. Reposition the client to his or her side. 3. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 4. Place the client in good body alignment. 5. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. 6. Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.
1. Check the level of the drainage bag. 2. Reposition the client to his or her side. 4. Place the client in good body alignment. 5. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and peritoneal dialysis system are also checked for kinks or twisting and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the HCP. Increasing the flow rate should not be done and also is not associated with the amount of outflow solution.
The nurse has a prescription to obtain a urinalysis specimen from a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which actions should the nurse include in performing this procedure? Select all that apply. 1. Explaining the procedure to the client 2. Clamping the tubing of the drainage bag 3. Aspirating a sample from the port on the drainage tubing 4. Obtaining the specimen from the urinary drainage bag 5. Wiping the port with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe
1. Explaining the procedure to the client 2. Clamping the tubing of the drainage bag 3. Aspirating a sample from the port on the drainage tubing 5. Wiping the port with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe A urine specimen is not taken from the urinary drainage bag. Urine undergoes chemical changes while sitting in the bag, so its properties do not necessarily reflect current client status. In addition, it may become contaminated with bacteria from opening the system. The remaining options are correct interventions for obtaining the specimen.
The nurse discusses plans for future treatment options with a client with symptomatic polycystic kidney disease. Which treatment should be included in this discussion? Select all that apply. 1. Hemodialysis 2. Peritoneal dialysis 3. Kidney transplant 4. Bilateral nephrectomy 5. Intense immunosuppression therapy
1. Hemodialysis 3. Kidney transplant 4. Bilateral nephrectomy Polycystic kidney disease is a genetic familial disease in which the kidneys enlarge with cysts that rupture and scar the kidney, eventually resulting in end-stage renal disease. Treatment options include hemodialysis or kidney transplant. Clients usually undergo bilateral nephrectomy to remove the large, painful, cyst-filled kidneys. Peritoneal dialysis is not a treatment option due to the infected cysts. The condition does not respond to immunosuppression.
The nurse is performing assessment on a client with acute kidney injury who is in the oliguric phase. Which should the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. 1. Increased serum creatinine level 2. A low and fixed specific gravity 3. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 4. A urine output of 600 to 800 mL in a 24-hour period 5. Urine osmolarity of approximately 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg)
1. Increased serum creatinine level 2. A low and fixed specific gravity 3. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 5. Urine osmolarity of approximately 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg) During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, serum creatinine levels increase by approximately 1 mg/dL (88 mcmol/L) per day, and the BUN level increases by approximately 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L) per day. The specific gravity of the urine is low and fixed, and the urine osmolarity approaches that of the client's serum level, or about 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg). Urine output is less than 100 mL in a 24-hour period.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being managed by continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). During outflow, the nurse notes that only half of the 2-L dialysate has returned and the flow has stopped. Which interventions should the nurse take to enhance the outflow? Select all that apply. 1. Reposition the client. 2. Encourage a low-fiber diet. 3. Make sure the peritoneal catheter is not kinked. 4. Slide the peritoneal catheter farther into the abdomen. 5. Check that the drainage bag is lower than the client's abdomen. 6. Assess the stool history, and institute elimination measures if the client is constipated.
1. Reposition the client. 3. Make sure the peritoneal catheter is not kinked. 5. Check that the drainage bag is lower than the client's abdomen. 6. Assess the stool history, and institute elimination measures if the client is constipated.
The nurse has provided instructions to a client with a urinary tract infection regarding foods and fluids to consume that will acidify the urine. Which fluids should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan that will aid in acidifying the urine? Select all that apply. 1. Milk 2. Prune juice 3. Apricot juice 4. Cranberry juice 5. Carbonated drinks
2. Prune juice 3. Apricot juice 4. Cranberry juice Acidification of the urine inhibits multiplication of bacteria. Fluids that acidify the urine include prune, apricot, cranberry, and plum juice. Carbonated drinks should be avoided because they increase urine alkalinity. Two glasses of milk a day can make the urine more alkaline, which could aid in the development of kidney stones.
The registered nurse is instructing a new nursing graduate about hemodialysis. Which statement made by the new nursing graduate indicates an understanding of the procedure for hemodialysis? Select all that apply. 1. "Sterile dialysate must be used." 2. "Dialysate contains metabolic waste products." 3. "Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis." 4. "Dialysis cleanses the blood of accumulated waste products." 5. "Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion."
3. "Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis." 4. "Dialysis cleanses the blood of accumulated waste products." 5. "Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion." Heparin sodium is used during dialysis, and it inhibits the tendency of blood to clot when it comes in contact with foreign substances. Option 4 is the purpose of dialysis. The dialysate is warmed to approximately 100°F to increase the efficiency of diffusion and to prevent a decrease in the client's blood temperature. Dialysate is made from clear water and chemicals and is free from any metabolic waste products or medications. Bacteria and other microorganisms are too large to pass through the membrane; therefore, the dialysate does not need to be sterile.
A nurse instructs a client about continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements if made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of CAPD? 1. A portable hemodialysis machine is used so that I will be able to ambulate during the treatment. 2. A cycling machine is used so the risk for infection is minimized. 3. No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities. 4. The drainage system can be used once during the day and a cycling machine for 3 cycles at night.
3. CAPD closely approximates normal renal function, and the client will need to infuse and drain the dialysis solution several times a day. No machinery is used, and CAPD is a manual procedure.
A female client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). Nurse Julian knows that this disorder increases the client's risk of: A. water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate. B. a decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure. C. an increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure. D. metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions
A A client with CRF is at risk for fluid imbalance — dehydration if the kidneys fail to concentrate urine, or fluid retention if the kidneys fail to produce urine. Electrolyte imbalances associated with this disorder result from the kidneys' inability to excrete phosphorus; such imbalances may lead to hyperphosphatemia with reciprocal hypocalcemia. CRF may cause metabolic acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis, secondary to inability of the kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions.
A client receiving hemodialysis treatment arrives at the hospital with a blood pressure of 200/100, a heart rate of 110, and a respiratory rate of 36. Oxygen saturation on room air is 89%. He complains of shortness of breath, and +2 pedal edema is noted. His last hemodialysis treatment was yesterday. Which of the following interventions should be done first? A. Administer oxygen B. Elevate the foot of the bed C. Restrict the client's fluids D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis
A Airway and oxygenation are always the first priority. Because the client is complaining of shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation is only 89%, the nurse needs to try to increase his levels by administering oxygen. The client is in pulmonary edema from fluid overload and will need to be dialyzed and have his fluids restricted, but the first interventions should be aimed at the immediate treatment of hypoxia. The foot of the bed may be elevated to reduce edema, but this isn't the priority.
A male client develops acute renal failure (ARF) after receiving I.V. therapy with a nephrotoxic antibiotic. Because the client's 24-hour urine output totals 240 ml, Nurse Billy suspects that the client is at risk for: A. cardiac arrhythmia B. paresthesia C. dehydration D. pruritus
A As urine output decreases, the serum potassium level rises; if it rises sufficiently, hyperkalemia may occur, possibly triggering a cardiac arrhythmia. Hyperkalemia doesn't cause paresthesia (sensations of numbness and tingling). Dehydration doesn't occur during this oliguric phase of ARF, although typically it does arise during the diuretic phase. In a client with ARF, pruritus results from increased phosphates and isn't associated with hyperkalemia.
Which of the following is the most significant sign of peritoneal infection? A. Cloudy dialysate fluid B. Swelling in the legs C. Poor drainage of the dialysate fluid D. Redness at the catheter insertion site
A Cloudy drainage indicates bacterial activity in the peritoneum. Other signs and symptoms of infection are fever, hyperactive bowel sounds, and abdominal pain. Swollen legs may be indicative of congestive heart failure. Poor drainage of dialysate fluid is probably the result of a kinked catheter. Redness at the insertion site indicates local infection, not peritonitis. However, a local infection that is left untreated can progress to the peritoneum.
The nurse assesses the client who has chronic renal failure and notes the following: crackles in the lung bases, elevated blood pressure, and weight gain of 2 pounds in one day. Based on these data, which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate? A. Excess fluid volume related to the kidney's inability to maintain fluid balance B. Increased cardiac output related to fluid overload C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to interrupted arterial blood flow D. Ineffective therapeutic Regimen Management related to lack of knowledge about therapy
A Crackles in the lungs, weight gain, and elevated blood pressure are indicators of excess fluid volume, a common complication in chronic renal failure. The client's fluid status should be monitored carefully for imbalances on an ongoing basis.
A patient who received a kidney transplant returns for a follow-up visit to the outpatient clinic and reports a lump in her breast. Transplant recipients are: A. At increased risk for cancer due to immunosuppression caused by cyclosporine (Neoral) B. Consumed with fear after the life-threatening experience of having a transplant C. At increased risk for tumors because of the kidney transplant D. At decreased risk for cancer, so the lump is most likely benign
A Cyclosporine suppresses the immune response to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. The use of cyclosporine places the patient at risk for tumors.
Which sign indicated the second phase of acute renal failure? A. Daily doubling of urine output (4 to 5 L/day) B. Urine output less than 400 ml/day C. Urine output less than 100 ml/day D. Stabilization of renal function
A Daily doubling of the urine output indicates that the nephrons are healing. This means the patient is passing into the second phase (dieresis) of acute renal failure.
What is the appropriate infusion time for the dialysate in your 38 y.o. patient with chronic renal failure? A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 2 to 3 hours
A Dialysate should be infused quickly. The dialysate should be infused over 15 minutes or less when performing peritoneal dialysis. The fluid exchange takes place over a period ranging from 30 minutes to several hours.
You have a patient that is receiving peritoneal dialysis. What should you do when you notice the return fluid is slowly draining? A. Check for kinks in the outflow tubing B. Raise the drainage bag above the level of the abdomen C. Place the patient in a reverse Trendelenburg position D. Ask the patient to cough
A Tubing problems are a common cause of outflow difficulties, check the tubing for kinks and ensure that all clamps are open. Other measures include having the patient change positions (moving side to side or sitting up), applying gentle pressure over the abdomen, or having a bowel movement.
A female client with acute renal failure is undergoing dialysis for the first time. The nurse in charge monitors the client closely for dialysis equilibrium syndrome, a complication that is most common during the first few dialysis sessions. Typically, dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes: A. confusion, headache, and seizures B. acute bone pain and confusion C. weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias D. hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea
A Dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes confusion, a decreasing level of consciousness, headache, and seizures. These findings, which may last several days, probably result from a relative excess of interstitial or intracellular solutes caused by rapid solute removal from the blood. The resultant organ swelling interferes with normal physiologic functions. To prevent this syndrome, many dialysis centers keep first-time sessions short and use a reduced blood flow rate. Acute bone pain and confusion are associated with aluminum intoxication, another potential complication of dialysis. Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias suggest hyperkalemia, which is associated with renal failure. Hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea signal hemorrhage, another dialysis complication.
After the first hemodialysis treatment, your patient develops a headache, hypertension, restlessness, mental confusion, nausea, and vomiting. Which condition is indicated? A. Disequilibrium syndrome B. Respiratory distress C. Hypervolemia D. Peritonitis
A Disequilibrium occurs when excess solutes are cleared from the blood more rapidly than they can diffuse from the body's cells into the vascular system.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of a headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? A. Notify the physician B. Monitor the client C. Elevate the head of the bed D. Medicate the client for nausea
A Disequilibrium syndrome may be due to the rapid decrease in BUN levels during dialysis. These changes can cause cerebral edema that leads to increased intracranial pressure. The client is exhibiting early signs of disequilibrium syndrome and appropriate treatments with anticonvulsant medications and barbituates may be necessary to prevent a life-threatening situation. The physician must be notified.
Which criterion is required before a patient can be considered for continuous peritoneal dialysis? A. The patient must be hemodynamically stable B. The vascular access must have healed C. The patient must be in a home setting D. Hemodialysis must have failed
A Hemodynamic stability must be established before continuous peritoneal dialysis can be started.
The client with chronic renal failure tells the nurse he takes magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) at home for constipation. The nurse suggests that the client switch to psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) because: A. MOM can cause magnesium toxicity B. MOM is too harsh on the bowel C. Metamucil is more palatable D. MOM is high in sodium
A Magnesium is normally excreted by the kidneys. When the kidneys fail, magnesium can accumulate and cause severe neurologic problems. MOM is harsher than Metamucil, but magnesium toxicity is a more serious problem. A client may find both MOM and Metamucil unpalatable. MOM is not high in sodium.
Which drug is indicated for pain related to acute renal calculi? A. Narcotic analgesics B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) C. Muscle relaxants D. Salicylates
A Narcotic analgesics are usually needed to relieve the severe pain of renal calculi. Muscle relaxants are typically used to treat skeletal muscle spasms. NSAIDS and salicylates are used for their anti-inflammatory and antipyretic properties and to treat less severe pain.
Dialysis allows for the exchange of particles across a semipermeable membrane by which of the following actions? A. Osmosis and diffusion B. Passage of fluid toward a solution with a lower solute concentration C. Allowing the passage of blood cells and protein molecules through it D. Passage of solute particles toward a solution with a higher concentration
A Osmosis allows for the removal of fluid from the blood by allowing it to pass through the semipermeable membrane to an area of high concentrate (dialysate), and diffusion allows for passage of particles (electrolytes, urea, and creatinine) from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. Fluid passes to an area with a higher solute concentration. The pores of a semipermeable membrane are small, thus preventing the flow of blood cells and protein molecules through it.
A client is admitted to the hospital and has a diagnosis of early stage chronic renal failure. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on assessment of the client? A. Polyuria B. Polydipsia C. Oliguria D. Anuria
A Polyuria occurs early in chronic renal failure and if untreated can cause severe dehydration. Polyuria progresses to anuria, and the client loses all normal functions of the kidney. Oliguria and anuria are not early signs, and polydipsia is unrelated to chronic renal failure.
The nurse has instructed a patient who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary management. Which diet choices by the patient indicate that the teaching has been successful? a. Scrambled eggs, English muffin, and apple juice b. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice c. Split-pea soup, whole-wheat toast, and nonfat milk d. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea
A Rationale: Scrambled eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup would be high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and the cream would be high in phosphate.
In preparation for hemodialysis, a patient has an AV native fistula created in the left forearm. When caring for the fistula postoperatively, the nurse should a. check the fistula site for a bruit and thrill. b. assess the rate and quality of the left radial pulse. c. compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. irrigate the fistula site daily with low-dose heparin.
A Rationale: The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula.
A male client is scheduled for a renal clearance test. Nurse Sheldon should explain that this test is done to assess the kidneys' ability to remove a substance from the plasma in: A. 1 minute B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 24 hours
A The renal clearance test determines the kidneys' ability to remove a substance from the plasma in 1 minute. It doesn't measure the kidneys' ability to remove a substance over a longer period.
A client with chronic renal failure has started receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). The nurse reminds the client about the importance of taking which prescribed medication to enhance the effects of this therapy? a) ferrous gluconate b) aluminum carbonate c) aluminum hydroxide gel d) calcium carbonate (Tums)
A - In order to form healthy red blood cells, which is the purpose of epoetin alfa, the body needs adequate stores of iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12. The client should take these supplements regularly to enhance the hematocrit-raising benefit of this medication. The other options are incorrect.
A nurse is working on a renal unit in a local hospital. The nurse interprets that which client with renal failure is best suited for peritoneal dialysis as a treatment option? a) a client with severe congestive heart failure b) a client with a history of ruptured diverticuli c) a client with a history of herniated lumbar disk d) a client with a history of three previous abdominal surgeries
A - Peritoneal dialysis may be the treatment option of choice for clients with severe cardiovascular disease, which would be worsened by the rapid shifts in fluid, electrolytes, urea, and glucose that occur with hemodialysis. Contraindications to peritoneal dialysis include diseases of the abdomen, such as ruptured diverticuli or malignancies, extensive abdominal surgeries, history of peritonitis, obesity, and history of back problems, which could be aggravated by the fluid weight of the dialysate. Severe disease of the vascular system also may be a contraindication.
A client with chronic renal failure has a protein restriction in the diet. The nurse should include in a teaching plan to avoid which of the following sources of incomplete protein in the diet? a) nuts b) eggs c) milk d) fish
A - The client whose diet has a protein restriction should be careful to ensure that the proteins eaten are complete proteins with the highest biological value. Foods such as meat, fish, milk, and eggs are complete proteins, which are optimal for the client with chronic renal failure.
A client has just been diagnosed with acute renal failure. The laboratory calls the nurse to report a serum potassium level of 6.1 mEq/L on the client. The nurse takes which immediate action? a) calls the physician b) checks the sodium level c) encourages an extra 500ml of fluid intake d) teaches the client about foods low in potassium
A - The client with hyperkalemia is at risk of developing cardiac dysrhythmias and resultant cardiac arrest. Because of this, the physician must be notified at once so that the client may receive definitive treatment. Fluid intake would not be increased because it would contribute to fluid overload and wouldn't effectively lower the serum potassium level. Dietary teaching may be necessary at some point, but this action is not the priority. The nurse might also check the result of a serum sodium level, but this is not a priority action of the nurse.
A 32-year-old flight attendant is undergoing diagnostics due to a significant drop in renal output. The physician has scheduled an angiography and you are in the midst of completing client education about the procedure. The client asks what the angiography will reveal. What is your response, as her nurse? a. Renal circulation b. Urine production c. Kidney function d. Kidney structure
A A renal angiogram (renal arteriogram) provides details of the arterial supply to the kidneys, specifically the location and number of renal arteries (multiple vessels to the kidney are not unusual) and the patency of each renal artery.
A registered nurse is instructing a new nursing graduate about hemodialysis. Which statement if made by the new nursing graduate would indicate an inaccurate understanding of the procedure for hemodialysis? a. Sterile dialysate must be used. b. Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion. c. Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis. d. Dialysis cleanses the blood from accumulated waste products.
A Dialysate is made from clear water and chemicals and is free from any metabolic waste products or medications. Bacteria and other microorganisms are too large to pass through the membrane; therefore, the dialysate does not need to be sterile. The dialysate is warmed to approximately 100° F to increase the efficiency of diffusion and to prevent a decrease in the client's blood temperature. Heparin sodium inhibits the tendency of blood to clot when it comes in contact with foreign substances. Option 4 is the purpose of dialysis.
A client with chronic renal failure has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse would use which of the following standard indicators to evaluate the client's status after dialysis? a. Vital signs and weight. b. Potassium level and weight. c. Vital signs and BUN. d. BUN and creatinine levels.
A Following dialysis, the client's vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable. Weight is measured and compared with the client's predialysis weight to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction. Laboratory studies are done as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.
A client undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding from the heparin used during the hemodialysis treatment. The nurse assesses for this occurrence by periodically checking the results of which of the following lab tests? a. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) b. Prothrombin time (PT) c. Thrombin time (TT) d. Bleeding time
A Heparin is the anticoagulant used most often during hemodialysis. The hemodialysis nurse monitors the extent of anticoagulation by checking the PTT, which is the appropriate measure of heparin effect. The PT is used to monitor the effect of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Thrombin and bleeding times are not used to measure the effect of heparin therapy, although they are useful in the diagnosis of other clotting abnormalities.
The client being hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale, and anxious. The nurse suspects air embolism. The priority action for the nurse is to: a. Discontinue dialysis and notify the physician. b. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour. c. Continue dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air. d. Bolus the client with 500 mL of normal saline to break up the embolus.
A If the client experiences air embolus during hemodialysis, the nurse should terminate dialysis immediately, notify the physician, and administer oxygen as needed. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.
A nurse is giving general instructions to a client receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for the nurse to include? a. Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. b. Medications should be double-dosed on the morning of hemodialysis to prevent loss. c. It's acceptable to exceed the fluid restriction on the day before hemodialysis. d. It's acceptable to eat whatever you want on the day before hemodialysis.
A Many medications are dialyzable, which means they are extracted from the bloodstream during dialysis. Therefore, many medications may be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. It is not typical for medications to be "double-dosed," because there is no way to be certain how much of each medication is cleared by dialysis. Clients receiving hemodialysis are not routinely taught that it is acceptable to disregard dietary and fluid restrictions.
A patient with an obstruction of the renal artery causing renal ischemia exhibits HTN. One factor that may contribute to HTN: a. increase renin release b. increased ADH secretion c. decreased aldosterone secretion d. increased synthesis and release of prostaglandins
A Renin is released in resonse to decreased B/P, renal ischemia, eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF) depletion, and other factors affecting blood suppy to the kidney. It is they catalyst of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which raises B/P when stimulated. ADH is secreted by the posterior pituitary in response to serum hyperosmolality and low blood volume. Aldosterone is secreted within the renin-angiotensin II, and kidney prostaglandins lower B/P by causing vasodilation.
A nurse is assessing the patency of a client's left arm arteriovenous fistula prior to initiating hemodialysis. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent? a. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula. b. Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist. c. Absence of a bruit on auscultation of the fistula. d. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers of the left hand.
A The nurse assesses the patency of the fistula by palpating for the presence of a thrill or auscultating for a bruit. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicate patency of the fistula. Although the presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist and capillary refill shorter than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand are normal findings, they do not assess fistula patency.
The nurse is working on a medical-surgical nursing unit and is caring for several clients with chronic kidney disease. The nurse interprets that which client is best suited for peritoneal dialysis as a treatment option? 1. A client with severe heart failure 2. A client with a history of ruptured diverticula 3. A client with a history of herniated lumbar disk 4. A client with a history of 3 previous abdominal surgeries
A client with severe heart failure Peritoneal dialysis may be the treatment option of choice for clients with severe cardiovascular disease. Severe cardiac disease can be worsened by the rapid shifts in fluid, electrolytes, urea, and glucose that occur with hemodialysis. For the same reason, peritoneal dialysis may be indicated for the client with diabetes mellitus. Contraindications to peritoneal dialysis include diseases of the abdomen such as ruptured diverticula or malignancies; extensive abdominal surgeries; history of peritonitis; obesity; and a history of back problems, which could be aggravated by the fluid weight of the dialysate. Severe disease of the vascular system also may be a relative contraindication.
The nurse is monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis and nurse notes that a client's outflow is less than the inflow. Select actions that the nurse should take. A. Place the client in good body alignment B. Check the level of the drainage bag C. Contact the physician D. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks E. Reposition the client to his or her side
A,B,D,E If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the other side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and the peritoneal dialysis system is also checked for kinks or twisting and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the physician.
The RN has just received change-of-shift report. Which of the assigned clients should be assessed first? A. A client with chronic kidney failure who was just admitted with shortness of breath B. A client with kidney insufficiency who is scheduled to have an arteriovenous (AV) fistula inserted C. A client with azotemia whose blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are increasing D. A client receiving peritoneal dialysis who needs help changing the dialysate bag
A. A client with chronic kidney failure who was just admitted with shortness of breath: This client's dyspnea may indicate pulmonary edema and should be assessed immediately.
Which finding in the first 24 hours after kidney transplantation requires immediate intervention? A. Abrupt decrease in urine output B. Blood-tinged urine C. Incisional pain D. Increase in urine output
A. Abrupt decrease in urine output: An abrupt decrease in urine output may indicate complications such as rejection, acute tubular necrosis (ATN), thrombosis, or obstruction. Blood-tinged urine, incisional pain, and an increase in urine output is an expected finding after kidney transplantation.
The client with chronic kidney disease reports chest pain. The nurse notes tachycardia and low-grade fever. Which additional assessment is warranted? A. Auscultate for pericardial friction rub B. Assess for crackles C. Monitor for decreased peripheral pulses D. Determine whether the client is able to ambulate
A. Auscultate for pericardial friction rub The client with uremia is prone to pericarditis; symptoms include inspiratory chest pain, low-grade fever, and ST segment elevation. Crackles and tachycardia are symptomatic of fluid overload; fever is not present
The client with a recently created vascular access for hemodialysis is being discharged. In planning discharge instructions, which information does the nurse include? A. Avoiding venipuncture and blood pressure measurements in the affected arm B. Discussion on modifications to allow for complete arm rest C. Information on how to assess for bruit D. Information on proper nutrition
A. Avoiding venipuncture and blood pressure measurements in the affected arm: Compression of vascular access causes decreased blood flow and may cause occlusion; dialysis will not be possible. The arm is exercised to encourage venous dilation, not rested.
Which clinical manifestation indicates the need for increased fluids in the client with kidney failure? A. Increased blood urea nitrogen B. Increased creatinine C. Pale urine D. Decreased sodium
A. Increased blood urea nitrogen: An increase in blood urea nitrogen can be an indication of dehydration, and an increase in fluids is needed. Increased creatinine indicates kidney impairment.
The nurse is educating a client who recently had a kidney transplant about the dietary changes that will be necessary. Which of the following statements could the nurse make to the client? Select all that apply. a. additional calcium may be needed b. carbohydrates may be restricted c. extra protein may be needed d. fats may be limited e. protein may be restricted f. sodium may be restricted
ALL--> A, B, C, D, E, F After kidney transplant, there may be a need for extra protein or for the restriction of protein. Carbohydrate and sodium may be restricted. The appropriate amounts of these nutrients will depend largely on the medications given at the time. Additional calcium and phosphorus may be necessary if there was substantial bone loss before the transplant. There may be an increased appetite after transplant, so fats and simple carbohydrates may be limited to prevent excessive weight gain.
The nurse is preparing to teach ostomy care to a client who has just had a urinary diversion; the client expresses concern about body appearance. Which client action indicates that the best initial positive adaptation is being made? 1. Agrees to look at the ostomy 2. Asks to defer ostomy care to the spouse 3. Asks to wait 1 more day before beginning to learn ostomy care 4. States that ostomy care is the nurse's job while the client is in the hospital
Agrees to look at the ostomy The best initial positive step in learning to care for an ostomy and to accept it as a part of the self is to be able to look at the ostomy. Once the client is able to look at the ostomy and touch it, the client can proceed more successfully to learn about ostomy care. The other options all indicate a deferral or refusal on the part of the client, which makes them less than optimal choices.
A client with epididymitis is upset about the extent of scrotal edema. Attempts to reassure the client that this condition is temporary have not been effective. The nurse should plan to address which client problem? 1. Pain related to fluid accumulation in the scrotum 2. Uneasiness related to inability to reduce scrotal swelling 3. Guilt related to the possibility of sterility secondary to scrotal swelling 4. Altered body appearance related to change in the appearance of the scrotum
Altered body appearance related to change in the appearance of the scrotum Altered body appearance is a problem when the client has either a verbal or a nonverbal response to a change in the structure or the function of a body part. Pain may apply but does not correlate with the information in the question. There are no data in the question that uneasiness, inability to reduce scrotal swelling, or sterility is a client concern.
A patient with diabetes who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) is considering using continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). In discussing this treatment option with the patient, the nurse informs the patient that a. patients with diabetes who use CAPD have fewer dialysis-related complications than those on hemodialysis. b. home CAPD requires more extensive equipment than does home hemodialysis. c. CAPD is contraindicated for patients who might eventually want a kidney transplant. d. dietary restrictions are stricter for patients using CAPD than for those having hemodialysis.
Answer: A Rationale: Patients with diabetes have better control of blood pressure, less hemodynamic instability, and fewer problems with retinal hemorrhages when using peritoneal dialysis than when using hemodialysis. CAPD is less expensive and has fewer dietary restrictions than hemodialysis. CAPD is not a contraindication for a kidney transplant.
Your patient becomes restless and tells you she has a headache and feels nauseous during hemodialysis. Which complication do you suspect? A. Infection B. Disequilibrium syndrome C. Air embolus D. Acute hemolysis
B Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by a rapid reduction in urea, sodium, and other solutes from the blood. This can lead to cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Signs and symptoms include headache, nausea, restlessness, vomiting, confusion, twitching, and seizures.
The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2-L inflows. Which information should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of feeling bloated after the inflow. b. The patient's peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patient has an outflow volume of 1600 ml.
Answer: B Rationale: Cloudy-appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.
A patient receiving peritoneal dialysis using 2 L of dialysate per exchange has an outflow of 1200 ml. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Infuse 1200 ml of dialysate during the inflow. b. Assist the patient in changing position. c. Administer a laxative to the patient. d. Notify the health care provider about the outflow problem.
Answer: B Rationale: Outflow problems may occur because the peritoneal catheter is collapsed by a portion of the intestine, and repositioning the patient will move the catheter and allow outflow to occur. If less than the ordered 2 L of dialysate is infused, the dialysis will be less effective. Administration of a laxative may also help if the patient's colon is full, but this should be tried after repositioning the patient. If the problem with outflow persists after the patient is repositioned, the health care provider should be notified.
What medication might be employed during Hyperkalemia 2/2 CKD to protect the heart?
Calcium Glutinate IV
Which cause of hypertension is the most common in acute renal failure? A. Pulmonary edema B. Hypervolemia C. Hypovolemia D. Anemia
B Acute renal failure causes hypervolemia as a result of overexpansion of extracellular fluid and plasma volume with the hypersecretion of renin. Therefore, hypervolemia causes hypertension.
The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the dwell time for the dialysis at the prescribed time because of the risk of: A. Infection B. Hyperglycemia C. Fluid overload D. Disequilibrium syndrome
B An extended dwell time increases the risk of hyperglycemia in the client with diabetes mellitus as a result of absorption of glucose from the dialysate and electrolyte changes. Diabetic clients may require extra insulin when receiving peritoneal dialysis.
Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the client's care plan during dialysis therapy? A. Limit the client's visitors B. Monitor the client's blood pressure C. Pad the side rails of the bed D. Keep the client NPO
B Because hypotension is a complication of peritoneal dialysis, the nurse records intake and output, monitors VS, and observes the client's behavior. The nurse also encourages visiting and other diversional activities. A client on PD does not need to be placed in bed with padded side rails or kept NPO.
During the client's dialysis, the nurse observes that the solution draining from the abdomen is consistently blood tinged. The client has a permanent peritoneal catheter in place. Which interpretation of this observation would be correct? A. Bleeding is expected with a permanent peritoneal catheter B. Bleeding indicates abdominal blood vessel damage C. Bleeding can indicate kidney damage D. Bleeding is caused by too-rapid infusion of the dialysate
B Because the client has a permanent catheter in place, blood tinged drainage should not occur. Persistent blood tinged drainage could indicate damage to the abdominal vessels, and the physician should be notified. The bleeding is originating in the peritoneal cavity, not the kidneys. Too rapid infusion of the dialysate can cause pain.
The client with chronic renal failure has an indwelling catheter for peritoneal dialysis in the abdomen. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. The nurse should immediately: A. Reinforce the dressing B. Change the dressing C. Flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter D. Scrub the catheter with povidone-iodine
B Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A dressing that is wet is a conduit for bacteria for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse assures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnecting of peritoneal dialysis.
A 30 y.o. female patient is undergoing hemodialysis with an internal arteriovenous fistula in place. What do you do to prevent complications associated with this device? A. Insert I.V. lines above the fistula. B. Avoid taking blood pressures in the arm with the fistula C. Palpate pulses above the fistula D. Report a bruit or thrill over the fistula to the doctor
B Don't take blood pressure readings in the arm with the fistula because the compression could damage the fistula. IV lines shouldn't be inserted in the arm used for hemodialysis. Palpate pulses below the fistula. Lack of bruit or thrill should be reported to the doctor.
What is the priority nursing diagnosis with your patient diagnosed with end-stage renal disease? A. Activity intolerance B. Fluid volume excess C. Knowledge deficit D. Pain
B Fluid volume excess because the kidneys aren't removing fluid and wastes. The other diagnoses may apply, but they don't take priority.
The client being hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale, and anxious. The nurse suspects air embolism. The nurse should: A. Continue the dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air B. Discontinue dialysis and notify the physician C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour D. Bolus the client with 500 ml of normal saline to break up the air embolism
B If the client experiences air embolus during hemodialysis, the nurse should terminate dialysis immediately, notify the physician, and administer oxygen as needed.
The hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for steal syndrome. The nurse assesses this client for which of the following clinical manifestations? A. Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand B. Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand. C. Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm D. Aching pain, pallor, and edema in the left arm
B Steal syndrome results from vascular insufficiency after creation of a fistula. The client exhibits pallor and a diminished pulse distal to the fistula. The client also complains of pain distal to the fistula, which is due to tissue ischemia. Warmth, redness, and pain more likely would characterize a problem with infection.
The nurse has completed client teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the client best understands the information given if the client states to record the daily: A. Pulse and respiratory rate B. Intake, output, and weight C. BUN and creatinine levels D. Activity log
B The client on hemodialysis should monitor fluid status between hemodialysis treatments by recording intake and output and measuring weight daily. Ideally, the hemodialysis client should not gain more than 0.5 kg of weight per day.
A nurse is assessing the patency of an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm of a client who is receiving hemodialysis for the treatment of chronic renal failure. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent? A. Absence of bruit on auscultation of the fistula B. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula C. Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist D. Capillary refill time less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand
B The nurse assesses the patency of the fistula by palpating for the presence of a thrill or auscultating for a bruit. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicate patency of the fistula. Although the presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist and capillary refill time less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand are normal findings, they do not assess fistula patency.
A patient with diabetes mellitus and renal failure begins hemodialysis. Which diet is best on days between dialysis treatments? A. Low-protein diet with unlimited amounts of water B. Low-protein diet with a prescribed amount of water C. No protein in the diet and use of a salt substitute D. No restrictions
B The patient should follow a low-protein diet with a prescribed amount of water. The patient requires some protein to meet metabolic needs. Salt substitutes shouldn't be used without a doctor's order because it may contain potassium, which could make the patient hyperkalemic. Fluid and protein restrictions are needed.
A client is diagnosed with chronic renal failure and told she must start hemodialysis. Client teaching would include which of the following instructions? A. Follow a high potassium diet B. Strictly follow the hemodialysis schedule C. There will be a few changes in your lifestyle D. Use alcohol on the skin and clean it due to integumentary changes
B To prevent life-threatening complications, the client must follow the dialysis schedule. Alcohol would further dry the client's skin more than it already is. The client should follow a low-potassium diet because potassium levels increase in chronic renal failure. The client should know hemodialysis is time-consuming and will definitely cause a change in current lifestyle.
Your patient is complaining of muscle cramps while undergoing hemodialysis. Which intervention is effective in relieving muscle cramps? A. Increase the rate of dialysis B. Infuse normal saline solution C. Administer a 5% dextrose solution D. Encourage active ROM exercises
B Treatment includes administering normal saline or hypertonic normal saline solution because muscle cramps can occur when the sodium and water are removed to quickly during dialysis. Reducing the rate of dialysis, not increasing it, may alleviate muscle cramps.
In planning teaching strategies for the client with chronic renal failure, the nurse must keep in mind the neurologic impact of uremia. Which teaching strategy would be most appropriate? A. Providing all needed teaching in one extended session B. Validating frequently the client's understanding of the material C. Conducting a one-on-one session with the client D. Using videotapes to reinforce the material as needed
B Uremia can cause decreased alertness, so the nurse needs to validate the client's comprehension frequently. Because the client's ability to concentrate is limited, short lesions are most effective. If family members are present at the sessions, they can reinforce the material. Written materials that the client can review are superior to videotapes, because the clients may not be able to maintain alertness during the viewing of the videotape.
A client with chronic renal failure has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse measures which parameters at the completion of the hemodialysis procedure to monitor for hemodynamic stability and to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction? a) vital signs and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) b) vital signs and weight c) sodium and potassium levels d) BUN and creatinine levels
B - Following dialysis, the client's vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable. Weight is measured and compared with the client's "dry weight" to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction. Laboratory studies are done as per protocol, but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has been ended.
The nurse is administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to a client with chronic renal failure. The nurse monitors the client for which adverse effect of this therapy? a) anemia b) hypertension c) iron intoxication d) bleeding tendencies
B - The client taking epoetin alfa is at risk of hypertension and seizure activity as the most serious adverse effects of therapy. This medication is used to treat anemia. The medication does not cause iron intoxication. Bleeding tendencies is not an adverse effect of this medication.
A client with chronic renal failure has received dietary counseling about potassium restriction in the diet. The nurse determines that the client has learned the information correctly if the client states to do which of the following for preparation of vegetables? a) eat only fresh vegetables b) boil them and discard the water c) use salt substitute on them liberally d) buy frozen vegetables whenever possible
B - The potassium content of vegetables can be reduced by boiling them and discarding the cooking water. Options 1 and 4 are incorrect. Clients with renal failure should avoid the use of salt substitutes altogether, because they tend to be high in potassium content.
A client undergoing hemodialysis becomes hypotensive. The nurse immediately prepares to take which action? a) administer 1000 ml 5% dextrose in water b) administer a 250 ml normal saline bolus c) increase the blood flow into the dialyzer d) lower the client's legs and feet
B - To treat hypotension during hemodialysis, a normal saline bolus of up to 500 mL may be given. The client's feet and legs are raised to enhance cardiac return. Albumin may be given as per protocol to increase colloid oncotic pressure. The blood flow rate into the dialyzer may be decreased. All of these measures should improve the circulating volume and blood pressure. Five percent dextrose in water is not prescribed because it is less likely to improve the circulating volume and blood pressure.
An adult with renal insufficiency has been placed on a fluid restriction of 1200 mL per day. The nurse discusses the fluid restriction with the dietitian and then plans to allow the client to have how many milliliters of fluid from 7:00 AM to 3:00 PM? a) 400 b) 600 c) 800 d) 1000
B - When a client is on a fluid restriction, the nurse informs the dietary department and discusses the allotment of fluid per shift with the dietitian. When calculating how to distribute a fluid restriction, the nurse usually allows half of the daily allotment (600 mL) during the day shift, when the client eats two meals and takes most medications. Another two-fifths (480 mL) is allotted to the evening shift, with the balance (120 mL) allowed during the nighttime.
A nurse is caring for a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. The nurse checks the client and notes that the drainage from the outflow catheter is cloudy. The nurse should take which action? a) stop the peritoneal dialysis b) obtain a culture and sensitivity of the drainage c) institute hemodialysis temporarily d) add antibiotics to the next several dialysis bags
B - When the drainage becomes cloudy, peritonitis is suspected. A culture and sensitivity is obtained, and broad-spectrum antibiotics are added to the dialysis solution, pending culture and sensitivity results. The dialysis solution may also be heparinized to prevent catheter occlusion. Some clients must switch to hemodialysis if peritonitis is severe or recurring, but the nurse does not make this decision. The peritoneal dialysis is not stopped.
A female client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving a hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, nurse Sarah knows that the client is most likely to experience: A. hematuria B. weight loss C. increased urine output D. increased blood pressure
B Because CRF causes loss of renal function, the client with this disorder retains fluid. Hemodialysis removes this fluid, causing weight loss. Hematuria is unlikely to follow hemodialysis because the client with CRF usually forms little or no urine. Hemodialysis doesn't increase urine output because it doesn't correct the loss of kidney function, which severely decreases urine production in this disorder. By removing fluids, hemodialysis decreases rather than increases the blood pressure.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Monitor the client. b. Notify the physician. c. Elevate the head of the bed. d. Medicate the client for nausea.
B Disequilibrium syndrome may be caused by the rapid decreases in the blood urea nitrogen level during hemodialysis. These changes can cause cerebral edema that leads to increased intracranial pressure. The client is exhibiting early signs of disequilibrium syndrome and appropriate treatments with anticonvulsive medications and barbiturates may be necessary to prevent a life-threatening situation. The physician must be notified.
A nurse, when caring for a client, notes that the specific gravity of the client's urine is low. What could have lead to the low specific gravity of urine? a. Repeated diarrhea b. Excess fluid intake c. Frequent vomiting d. Urine retention
B Excess fluid intake results in low specific gravity of urine. Excessive fluid intake will result in formation of dilute urine. When the urine is diluted, it results in low specific gravity of urine. Frequent vomiting, repeated diarrhea, and urine retention will result in high specific gravity of urine.
The diet order for a client receiving hemodialysis is written as 80-3-3. When the nurse explains the diet to the client, which of the following will be included in the teaching? Select all that apply. a. 80 grams of fat are allowed per day b. 80 grams of protein are allowed per day c. potassium is restricted to 3 grams a day d. phosphorus is restricted to 3 grams a day e. potassium is restricted to 80 mg per day f. sodium is restricted to 3 grams per day
B. 80 grams of protein are allowed per day C. potassium is restricted to 3 grams a day F. sodium is restricted to 3 grams per day A typical renal diet could be written as "80-3-3," which means 80 grams of protein, 3 grams of sodium, and 3 grams of potassium are allowed per day.
A client undergoing hemodialysis has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left arm. A related nursing diagnosis for the client is risk for infection. The nurse should formulate which of the following outcome goals as most appropriate for this nursing diagnosis? a. The client's temperature remains less than 101F b. The client's WBC count remains within normal limits. c. The client washes hands at least once per day. d. The client states to avoid blood pressure measurement in the left arm.
B General indicators that the client is not experiencing infection include a temperature and WBC count within normal limits. The client also should use proper hand-washing technique as a general preventive measure. Hand washing once per day is insufficient. It is true that the client should avoid BP measurement in the affected arm; however, this would relate more closely to the nursing diagnosis risk for injury.
The hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse assesses this client for which of the following manifestations? a. Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand. b. Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand. c. Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm. d. Aching pain, pallor, and edema of the left arm.
B Steal syndrome results from vascular insufficiency after creation of a fistula. The client exhibits pallor and a diminished pulse distal to the fistula. The client also complains of pain distal to the fistula, caused by tissue ischemia. Warmth, redness, and pain probably would characterize a problem with infection. The manifestations described in options 3 and 4 are incorrect.
A client with chronic renal failure is about to begin hemodialysis therapy. The client asks the nurse about the frequency and scheduling of hemodialysis treatments. The nurse's response is based on an understanding that the typical schedule is: a. 5 hours of treatment 2 days per week. b. 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week c. 2 to 3 hours of treatment 5 days per week d. 2 hours of treatment 6 days per week
B The typical schedule for hemodialysis is 3 to 4 hours of treatment three days per week. Individual adjustments may be made according to variables such as the size of the client, type of dialyzer, the rate of blood flow, personal client preferences, and others.
When caring for Mr. Roberto's AV shunt on his right arm, you should: A. Cover the entire cannula with an elastic bandage B. Notify the physician if a bruit and thrill are present C. User surgical aseptic technique when giving shunt care D. Take the blood pressure on the right arm instead
C
When caring for the client with a left forearm arteriovenous (AV) fistula created for hemodialysis, the nurse must do which of these? Select all that apply. A. Check brachial pulses daily B. Auscultate for a bruit each shift C. Teach the client to palpate for a thrill over the site D. Elevate the arm above heart level E. Ensure that no blood pressures are taken in that arm
B. Auscultate for a bruit each shift, C. Teach the client to palpate for a thrill over the site, and E. Ensure that no blood pressures are taken in that arm
When administering medications to the client with chronic kidney disease, the nurse recognizes that which of these medications is most effective in slowing the progression of kidney failure? A. Diltiazem (Cardizem) B. Lisinopril (Zestril) C. Clonidine (Catapres) D. Doxazosin (Cardura)
B. Lisinopril (Zestril): Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors appear to be the most effective drugs to slow the progression of kidney failure. Calcium channel blockers (diltiazem/Cardizem) may indirectly prevent kidney disease by controlling hypertension but are not specific to slowing progression of kidney disease.
The nurse is assessing an otherwise healthy client with renal disease. The client is taking several supplements that are not indicated for clients who have renal disease. Which of the following will the nurse think should be discontinued? Select all that apply. a. iron b. vitamin A c. vitamin C d. vitamin D e. vitamin E f. vitamin K
B. Vitamin A E. Vitamin E F. Vitamin K Renal clients often have an increased need for vitamins B, C, and D, and supplements are often given. Vitamin A should not be given because the blood level of vitamin A tends to be elevated in uremia. If a client is receiving antibiotics, a vitamin K supplement may be given. Otherwise, supplements of vitamins E and K are not necessary.
The nurse is educating the client about diet after the client was treated for calcium oxalate renal stones. The nurse tells the client about foods that should be avoided to reduce the risk of development of future renal stones. Which of the following foods could the nurse tell the client to avoid? Select all that apply. a. cheese b. chocolate c. milk d. spinach e. strawberries f. tea
B. chocolate D. spinach E. strawberries F. tea About 80% of the renal stones formed contain calcium oxalate. Recent studies provide no support for the theory that a diet low in calcium can reduce the risk of calcium oxalate renal stones. In fact, higher dietary calcium intake may decrease the incidence of renal stones for most people. Stones containing oxalate are thought to be partially caused by a diet especially rich in oxalate, which is found in beets, wheat bran, chocolate, tea, rhubarb, strawberries, and spinach.
A home care nurse is making home visits to an older client with urinary incontinence who is very concerned about the incontinent episodes. Which finding by the nurse indicates that the client has an environmental barrier to normal voiding? 1. Presence of hand railings in the bathroom 2. Having 1 bathroom on each floor of the home 3. Bathroom located on the second floor, bedroom on the first floor 4. Night light present in the hall between the bedroom and bathroom
Bathroom located on the second floor, bedroom on the first floor Having the bathroom on the second floor and the bedroom on the first floor may pose a problem for the older client with incontinence. The need to negotiate the stairs and the distance both may interfere with reaching the bathroom in a timely fashion. It is more helpful to the incontinent client to have a bathroom on the same floor as the bedroom or to have a commode rented for use. Hand railings and night lights are helpful to the client in reaching the bathroom quickly and safely.
A client who has had a prostatectomy has been instructed in perineal exercises to gain control of the urinary sphincter. The nurse determines that the client demonstrates a need for further teaching when he states that he will perform which movement as part of these exercises? 1. Bearing down as if having a bowel movement 2. Tightening the muscles as if trying to prevent urination 3. Contracting the abdominal, gluteal, and perineal muscles 4. Tightening the rectal sphincter while relaxing abdominal muscles
Bearing down as if having a bowel movement The Valsalva maneuver (bearing down) is avoided after prostatectomy because it increases the risk of bleeding in the postoperative period. An acceptable exercise is to tighten the abdominal, gluteal, and perineal muscles as if trying to prevent urination. Another acceptable exercise is to tighten the rectal sphincter while relaxing the abdominal muscles; this prevents the Valsalva maneuver from occurring
The nurse is assessing the renal function of a client at risk for acute kidney injury. After noting the amount of urine output and urine characteristics, the nurse proceeds to assess which as the best indirect indicator of renal status? 1. Blood pressure 2. Apical heart rate 3. Jugular vein distention 4. Level of consciousness
Blood pressure The kidneys normally receive 20% to 25% of the cardiac output, even under conditions of rest. For kidney function to be optimal, adequate renal perfusion is necessary. Perfusion can best be estimated by the blood pressure, which is an indirect reflection of the adequacy of cardiac output. The heart rate affects the cardiac output but can be altered by factors unrelated to kidney function. Jugular vein distention and level of consciousness are unrelated items.
A client who is undergoing peritoneal dialysis calls the nurse at the renal unit and reports the presence of severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. The client also informs the nurse that the peritoneal dialysis returns are brown-tinged in color. Which would the nurse suspect? 1. Infection 2. An intact catheter 3. Bowel perforation 4. Bladder perforation
Bowel perforation Complications of a peritoneal catheter include infection, perforation of the bowel or bladder, and bleeding. Brown-tinged returns suggest bowel perforation, which usually is accompanied by severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. Cloudy or opaque returns suggest possible infection. Urine-colored returns suggest possible bladder perforation. An intact catheter is unrelated to the information provided in the question.
A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia undergoes a transurethral resection of the prostate. Postoperatively the client is receiving continuous bladder irrigations. The nurse assesses the client for manifestations of transurethral resection syndrome. Which assessment data would indicate the onset of this syndrome? 1. Tachycardia and diarrhea 2. Bradycardia and confusion 3. Increased urinary output and anemia 4. Decreased urinary output and bladder spasms
Bradycardia and confusion Transurethral resection syndrome is caused by increased absorption of nonelectrolyte irrigating fluid used during surgery. The client may show signs of cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure, such as increased blood pressure, bradycardia, confusion, disorientation, muscle twitching, visual disturbances, and nausea and vomiting
Aluminum hydroxide gel (Amphojel) is prescribed for the client with chronic renal failure to take at home. What is the purpose of giving this drug to a client with chronic renal failure? A. To relieve the pain of gastric hyperacidity B. To prevent Curling's stress ulcers C. To bind phosphorus in the intestine D. To reverse metabolic acidosis
C A client in renal failure develops hyperphosphatemia that causes a corresponding excretion of the body's calcium stores, leading to renal osteodystrophy. To decrease this loss, aluminum hydroxide gel is prescribed to bind phosphates in the intestine and facilitate their excretion. Gastric hyperacidity is not necessarily a problem associated with chronic renal failure. Antacids will not prevent Curling's stress ulcers and do not affect metabolic acidosis.
A male client in the short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was useD. When providing postprocedure care, the nurse should: A. keep the client's knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours. B. apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes. C. check the client's pedal pulses frequently. D. remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize
C After renal angiography involving a femoral puncture site, the nurse should check the client's pedal pulses frequently to detect reduced circulation to the feet caused by vascular injury. The nurse also should monitor vital signs for evidence of internal hemorrhage and should observe the puncture site frequently for fresh bleeding. The client should be kept on bed rest for several hours so the puncture site can seal completely. Keeping the client's knee bent is unnecessary. By the time the client returns to the short-procedure unit, manual pressure over the puncture site is no longer needed because a pressure dressing is in place. The nurse shouldn't remove this dressing for several hours — and only if instructed to do so.
The client with chronic renal failure who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: A. Just before dialysis B. During dialysis C. On return from dialysis D. The day after dialysis
C Antihypertensive medications such as enalapril are given to the client following hemodialysis. This prevents the client from becoming hypotensive during dialysis and also from having the medication removed from the bloodstream by dialysis. No rationale exists for waiting a full day to resume the medication. This would lead to ineffective control of the blood pressure.
A patient with diabetes has had many renal calculi over the past 20 years and now has chronic renal failure. Which substance must be reduced in this patient's diet? A. Carbohydrates B. Fats C. Protein D. Vitamin C
C Because of damage to the nephrons, the kidney can't excrete all the metabolic wastes of protein, so this patient's protein intake must be restricted. A higher intake of carbs, fats, and vitamin supplements is needed to ensure the growth and maintenance of the patient's tissues.
The nurse is assisting a client on a low-potassium diet to select food items from the menu. Which of the following food items, if selected by the client, would indicate an understanding of this dietary restriction? A. Cantaloupe B. Spinach C. Lima beans D. Strawberries
C Cantaloupe (1/4 small), spinach (1/2 cooked) and strawberries (1 ¼ cups) are high potassium foods and average 7 mEq per serving. Lima beans (1/3 c) averages 3 mEq per serving.
The nurse helps the client with chronic renal failure develop a home diet plan with the goal of helping the client maintain adequate nutritional intake. Which of the following diets would be most appropriate for a client with chronic renal failure? A. High carbohydrate, high protein B. High calcium, high potassium, high protein C. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium D. Low protein, high potassium
C Dietary management for clients with chronic renal failure is usually designed to restrict protein, sodium, and potassium intake. Protein intake is reduced because the kidney can no longer excrete the byproducts of protein metabolism. The degree of dietary restriction depends on the degree of renal impairment. The client should also receive a high carbohydrate diet along with appropriate vitamin and mineral supplements. Calcium requirements remain 1,000 to 2,000 mg/day.
The client asks whether her diet would change on CAPD. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? A. "Diet restrictions are more rigid with CAPD because standard peritoneal dialysis is a more effective technique." B. "Diet restrictions are the same for both CAPD and standard peritoneal dialysis." C. "Diet restrictions with CAPD are fewer than with standard peritoneal dialysis because dialysis is constant." D. "Diet restrictions with CAPD are fewer than with standard peritoneal dialysis because CAPD works more quickly."
C Dietary restrictions with CAPD are fewer than those with standard peritoneal dialysis because dialysis is constant, not intermittent. The constant slow diffusion of CAPD helps prevent accumulation of toxins and allows for a more liberal diet. CAPD does not work more quickly, but more consistently. Both types of peritoneal dialysis are effective.
For a male client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is most important? A. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing B. Promoting carbohydrate intake C. Limiting fluid intake D. Providing pain-relief measures
C During the oliguric phase of ARF, urine output decreases markedly, possibly leading to fluid overload. Limiting oral and I.V. fluid intake can prevent fluid overload and its complications, such as heart failure and pulmonary edema. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing is important for clients with various respiratory disorders. Promoting carbohydrate intake may be helpful in ARF but doesn't take precedence over fluid limitation. Controlling pain isn't important because ARF rarely causes pain.
A male client who has been treated for chronic renal failure (CRF) is ready for discharge. Nurse Billy should reinforce which dietary instruction? A. "Be sure to eat meat at every meal." B. "Monitor your fruit intake, and eat plenty of bananas." C. "Increase your carbohydrate intake." D. "Drink plenty of fluids, and use a salt substitute.
C In a client with CRF, unrestricted intake of sodium, protein, potassium, and fluid may lead to a dangerous accumulation of electrolytes and protein metabolic products, such as amino acids and ammonia. Therefore, the client must limit intake of sodium; meat, which is high in protein; bananas, which are high in potassium; and fluid, because the failing kidneys can't secrete adequate urine. Salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided. Extra carbohydrates are needed to prevent protein catabolism.
A client newly diagnosed with renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. During the infusion of the dialysate the client complains of abdominal pain. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Slow the infusion B. Decrease the amount to be infused C. Explain that the pain will subside after the first few exchanges D. Stop the dialysis
C Pain during the inflow of dialysate is common during the first few exchanges because of peritoneal irritation; however, the pain usually disappears after 1 to 2 weeks of treatment. The infusion amount should not be decreased, and the infusion should not be slowed or stopped.
A patient needing vascular access for hemodialysis asks the nurse what the differences are between an arteriovenous (AV) fistula and a graft. The nurse explains that one advantage of the fistula is that it a. can accommodate larger needles. b. increases patient mobility. c. is much less likely to clot. d. can be used sooner after surgery.
C Rationale: AV fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not impact on needle size or patient mobility.
A patient begins hemodialysis after having had conservative management of chronic kidney disease. The nurse explains that one dietary regulation that will be changed when hemodialysis is started is that a. unlimited fluids are allowed since retained fluid is removed during dialysis. b. increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. c. more protein will be allowed because of the removal of urea and creatinine by dialysis. d. dietary sodium and potassium are unrestricted because these levels are normalized by dialysis.
C Rationale: Once the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is allowed. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes.
A patient with acute renal failure (ARF) requires hemodialysis and temporary vascular access is obtained by placing a catheter in the left femoral vein. The nurse will plan to a. restrict the patient's oral protein intake. b. discontinue the retention catheter. c. place the patient on bed rest. d. start continuous pulse oximetry.
C Rationale: The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry.
A patient is experiencing which type of incontinence if she experiences leaking urine when she coughs, sneezes, or lifts heavy objects? A. Overflow B. Reflex C. Stress D. Urge
C Stress incontinence is an involuntary loss of a small amount of urine due to sudden increased intra-abdominal pressure, such as with coughing or sneezing.
You suspect kidney transplant rejection when the patient shows which symptoms? A. Pain in the incision, general malaise, and hypotension B. Pain in the incision, general malaise, and depression C. Fever, weight gain, and diminished urine output D. Diminished urine output and hypotension
C Symptoms of rejection include fever, rapid weight gain, hypertension, pain over the graft site, peripheral edema, and diminished urine output.
The client with acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. The nurse would plan which of the following as a priority action? A. Allow an extra 500 ml of fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration B. Encourage increased vegetables in the diet C. Place the client on a cardiac monitor D. Check the sodium level
C The client with hyperkalemia is at risk for developing cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Because of this the client should be placed on a cardiac monitor. Fluid intake is not increased because it contributes to fluid overload and would not affect the serum potassium level significantly. Vegetables are a natural source of potassium in the diet, and their use would not be increased. The nurse may also assess the sodium level because sodium is another electrolyte commonly measured with the potassium level. However, this is not a priority action at this time.
A client is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. The dialysate dwell time is completed, and the dwell clamp is opened to allow the dialysate to drain. The nurse notes that the drainage has stopped and only 500 ml has drained; the amount the dialysate instilled was 1,500 ml. Which of the following interventions would be done first? A. Change the client's position B. Call the physician C. Check the catheter for kinks or obstruction D. Clamp the catheter and instill more dialysate at the next exchange time
C The first intervention should be to check for kinks and obstructions because that could be preventing drainage. After checking for kinks, have the client change position to promote drainage. Don't give the next scheduled exchange until the dialysate is drained because abdominal distention will occur, unless the output is within parameters set by the physician. If unable to get more output despite checking for kinks and changing the client's position, the nurse should then call the physician to determine the proper intervention.
A client undergoing long-term peritoneal dialysis is experiencing a problem with reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter. The nurse assessing the client would inquire whether the client has had a recent problem with: a) vomiting b) diarrhea c) constipation d) flatulence
C - Reduced outflow may be caused by catheter position and adherence to the omentum, infection, or constipation. Constipation may contribute to reduced outflow in part because peristalsis seems to aid in drainage. For this reason, bisacodyl suppositories are sometimes used prophylactically, even without a history of constipation. The other options are unrelated to impaired catheter drainage.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed as having a kidney mass. The client asks the nurse the reason for renal biopsy when other tests such as computed tomography (CT) scan and ultrasound are available. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the knowledge that renal biopsy : a) helps differentiate between a solid mass and a fluid-filled cyst b) provides an outline of the renal vascular system c) gives specific cytological information about the lesion d) determines if the mass is growing rapidly or slowly
C - Renal biopsy is a definitive test that gives specific information about whether the lesion is benign or malignant. An ultrasound discriminates between a fluid-filled cyst and a solid mass. Renal arteriography outlines the renal vascular system. Although some types of cancer grow more quickly than others, it is not possible to determine this by biopsy.
While reading the product literature regarding ofloxacin (Floxin), the nurse notes that the medication could cause crystalluria. The nurse decides to tell the client taking the medication to do which of the following to decrease the likelihood of this adverse effect? a) avoid beverages that contain salts, such as mineral water b) avoid carbonated soft-drink beverages c) drink at least 1500 to 2000 ml of fluid per day d) drink at least three glasses of milk per day
C - To prevent crystalluria, the client should drink at least 1500 to 2000 mL of fluid per day. Milk interferes with the absorption of the medication and should be avoided. Consumption of carbonated beverages or mineral water is not harmful.
The nurse is reviewing a urinalysis report for a client with acute renal failure and notes that the results are highly positive for proteinuria. The nurse interprets that this client has which type of renal failure? a) prerenal failure b) postrenal failure c) intrinsic renal failure d) atypical renal failure
C - With intrinsic renal failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and the urine tests positive for proteinuria. In prerenal failure, the specific gravity is high, and there is very little or no proteinuria. In postrenal failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and little or no proteinuria. There is no such classification as atypical renal failure.
A client with acute renal failure has an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN). The client is experiencing difficulty remembering information due to uremia. The nurse avoids which of the following when communicating with this client? a) giving simple, clear directions b) including the family in discussions related to care c) giving thorough, lengthy explanations of procedures d) explaining treatments using understandable language
C - the client with acute renal failure nay have difficulty remembering information and instructions because of anxiety and the increased level of the BUN. The nurse should avoid giving lengthy explanations about procedures because this information may not be remembered by the client and could increase client anxiety.
Julia Lee, a 57-year-old financial officer, has been exhibiting signs and symptoms which lead her urologist to suspect the adequacy of her urinary function. Beginning with the least invasive tests, which of the following would you expect the physician to prescribe to assess kidney function? Choose all correct options. a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level b. Creatinine clearance c. Angiography d. All options are correct
C Angiography provides the details of the arterial supply to the kidneys, specifically the number and location of renal arteries. Radiography shows the size and position of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. A CT scan is useful in identifying calculi, congenital abnormalities, obstruction, infections, and polycystic diseases. Cystoscopy is used for providing a visual examination of the internal bladder.
A nurse is working with the client newly diagnosed with chronic renal failure (CRF) to set up a schedule for hemodialysis. The client states, "This is impossible! How can I even think about leading a normal life again if this is what I'm going to have to do?" The nurse assesses that the client is exhibiting: a. Withdrawal b. Depression c. Anger d. Projection
C Psychosocial reactions to CRF and hemodialysis are varied and may include anger. Other reactions include personality changes, emotional lability, withdrawal, and depression. The individual client's response may vary depending on the client's personality and support systems. The client in this question is exhibiting anger. The client has not projected blame on the nurse, nor does the client statement reflect withdrawal or depression.
The client with chronic renal failure returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 100.2F. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action? a. Encourage fluids. b. Notify the physician. c. Continue to monitor vital signs. d. Monitor the site of the shunt for infection.
C The client may have an elevated temperature following dialysis because the dialysis machine warms the blood slightly. If the temperature is elevated excessively and remains elevated, sepsis would be suspected and a blood sample would be obtained as prescribed for culture and sensitivity determinations.
The nurse has completed client teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the client best understands the information if the client states to record daily the: a. Amount of activity. b. Pulse and respiratory rate. c. Intake and output and weight. d. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels.
C The client on hemodialysis should monitor fluid status between hemodialysis treatments by recording intake and output and measuring weight daily. Ideally, the hemodialysis client should not gain more than 0.5 kg of weight/day.
A client diagnosed with chronic renal failure (CRF) is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse assesses that which of the following neurological and psychosocial manifestations if exhibited by this client would be unrelated to the CRF? a. Labile emotions. b. Withdrawal. c. Euphoria. d. Depression.
C The client with CRF often experiences a variety of psychosocial changes. These are related to uremia, as well as the stress associated with living with a chronic disease that is life-threatening. Clients with CRF may have labile emotions or personality changes and may exhibit withdrawal, depression, or agitation. Delusions and psychosis also can occur. Euphoria is not part of the clinical picture for the client in renal failure.
A clinic nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of an adult client seen in the health care clinic. The nurse determines that the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is normal if which of the following is noted on the laboratory results? a) 35 mg/dL b) 29 mg/dL c) 15 mg/dL d) 3 mg/dL
C The normal BUN ranges from 5 to 25 mg/dL. Options A and B reflect elevated values, which may indicate renal abnormalities or dehydration. Option D reflects a lower than normal value, which may not be clinically significant.
The nurse at the dialysis clinic notes when she reviews a client's labs that the labs indicated hyperkalemia. She makes a note to make sure the client is adhering to all dietary restrictions. Of the following possibilities, which might the nurse ask about? a. fiber supplements b. intake of whole grains c. salt substitutes d. sugar substitutes
C . Salt Substitutes Potassium may be restricted in some clients because hyperkalemia tends to occur in end-stage renal disease. Excess potassium can cause cardiac arrest. Because of this danger, renal clients should not use salt substitutes or low-sodium milk because the sodium in these products is replaced with potassium.
Discharge teaching has been provided for the client recovering from kidney transplantation. Which information indicates that the client understands the instructions? A. "I can stop my medications when my kidney function return to normal." B. "If my urine output is decreased, I should increase my fluids." C. "The anti-rejection medications will be taken for life." D. "I will drink 8 ounces of water with my medications."
C. "The anti-rejection medications will be taken for life." Adherence to immune suppressive drugs is crucial to survival for clients with transplanted kidneys. Lack of adherence can lead to complications such as rejection, graft loss, return to dialysis, and death. Oliguria is a symptom of transplant rejection; the transplant team should be contacted immediately.
The nurse carefully observes for toxicity of drugs excreted through the kidney. Which of these represents a sign or symptom of digoxin toxicity? A. Serum digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL B. Polyphagia C. Anorexia D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L
C. Anorexia: Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are symptoms of digoxin toxicity.
The nurse recognizes that the client with end-stage kidney disease has difficulty adhering to the fluid restriction when which of these is found? A. Blood pressure 118/78 B. Weight loss of 3 lbs during hospitalization C. Dyspnea and anxiety at rest D. Central venous pressure (CVP) of 6 mm Hg
C. Dyspnea and anxiety at rest: Dyspnea is a sign of fluid overload and possible pulmonary edema; the nurse assists the client in correlating symptoms of fluid overload with nonadherence to fluid restriction. Excess fluid intake and fluid retention are manifested by elevated CVP (>8 mm Hg). Excess fluid intake and fluid retention are manifested by weight gain, not loss. Nonadherence to fluid restriction results in fluid volume excess and higher blood pressures; 118/78 is a normal blood pressure.
The client with chronic kidney disease has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. Which action should the nurse immediately take? 1. Change the dressing. 2. Reinforce the dressing. 3. Flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter. 4. Scrub the catheter with povidone-iodine.
Change the dressing. Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.
Which finding noted in the client on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) should be reported to the health care provider (HCP)? 1. Cloudy yellow dialysate output 2. Client refusal to take the stool softener 3. Previous evening's dwell time of 8 hours 4. Peritoneal catheter site is not red, and the skin has grown around the cuff
Cloudy yellow dialysate output CAPD is a form of peritoneal dialysis in which exchanges are completed 4 or 5 times daily. Peritonitis is a major complication of this type of dialysis. Peritonitis can be recognized by cloudy dialysate outflow, fever, abdominal guarding (board-like abdomen), abdominal pain, pain on inflow, malaise, nausea, and vomiting. The client has the right to refuse medications, but it also is important for the nurse to explain the importance of medications to the client. Typically the dwell time during the night is for the entire time that the client sleeps, which could be around 7 to 9 hours. The peritoneal site should have intact skin. The skin grows around the peritoneal catheter cuff, and this prevents tunnel (around catheter) infections.
Creatinine Clearance Test
Collect urine for 24 hrs and calculate GFR 85-135 ml/min. This allows a more precise calculation of a GFR.
Lets discuss Prerenal causes of AKI.
Conditions outside kidneys that impair renal blood flow and cause decreased GFR. 🔺⬇️ Vascular Volume 🔺⬇️ Cardiac Output 🔺 Intravascular pooling of blood/peripheral vasodilation. 🔺⬆️ Renal vascular resistance or an obstruction.
In performing a physical assessment of a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), which finding should the nurse anticipate? 1. Glycosuria 2. Polyphagia 3. Crackles auscultated in the lungs 4. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
Crackles auscultated in the lungs CKD is a condition in which the kidneys have progressive problems in clearing nitrogenous waste products and controlling fluid and electrolyte balance within the body. Cardiovascular symptoms of heart failure and hypertension are caused by the fluid volume overload resulting from the kidneys' inability to excrete water. Signs and symptoms of heart failure include jugular venous distention, S3 heart sound, pedal edema, increased weight, shortness of breath, and crackles auscultated in the lungs. The typical signs and symptoms of CKD include proteinuria or hematuria, not glycosuria. The nurse would observe anorexia and nausea in this client, not polyphagia.
A client has a history of chronic renal failure and received hemodialysis treatments three times per week through an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left arm. Which of the following interventions is included in this client's plan of care? A. Keep the AV fistula site dry B. Keep the AV fistula wrapped in gauze C. Take the blood pressure in the left arm D. Assess the AV fistula for a bruit and thrill
D Assessment of the AV fistula for bruit and thrill is important because, if not present, it indicates a non-functioning fistula. No blood pressures or venipunctures should be taken in the arm with the AV fistula. When not being dialyzed, the AV fistula site may get wet. Immediately after a dialysis treatment, the access site is covered with adhesive bandages.
A female client requires hemodialysis. Which of the following drugs should be withheld before this procedure? A. Phosphate binders B. Insulin C. Antibiotics D. Cardiac glycosides
D Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin should be withheld before hemodialysis. Hypokalemia is one of the electrolyte shifts that occur during dialysis, and a hypokalemic client is at risk for arrhythmias secondary to digitalis toxicity. Phosphate binders and insulin can be administered because they aren't removed from the blood by dialysis. Some antibiotics are removed by dialysis and should be administered after the procedure to ensure their therapeutic effects. The nurse should check a formulary to determine whether a particular antibiotic should be administered before or after dialysis.
Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for developing acute renal failure? A. A dialysis client who gets influenza B. A teenager who has an appendectomy C. A pregnant woman who has a fractured femur D. A client with diabetes who has a heart catheterization
D Clients with diabetes are prone to renal insufficiency and renal failure. The contrast used for heart catherization must be eliminated by the kidneys, which further stresses them and may produce acute renal failure. A teenager who has an appendectomy and a pregnant woman with a fractured femur isn't at increased risk for renal failure. A dialysis client already has end-stage renal disease and wouldn't develop acute renal failure.
The client newly diagnosed with chronic renal failure recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse assesses the client during dialysis for: A. Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever B. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia C. Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness D. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching
D Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea, and vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing brain swelling and onset of symptoms. The syndrome most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates.
A client with chronic renal failure has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse would use which of the following standard indicators to evaluate the client's status after dialysis? A. Potassium level and weight B. BUN and creatinine levels C. VS and BUN D. VS and weight
D Following dialysis, the client's vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable. Weight is measured and compared with the client's predialysis weight to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction. Laboratory studies are done as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.
In a client in renal failure, which assessment finding may indicate hypocalcemia? A. Headache B. Serum calcium level of 5 mEq/L C. Increased blood coagulation D. Diarrhea
D In renal failure, calcium absorption from the intestine declines, leading to increased smooth muscle contractions, causing diarrhea. CNS changes in renal failure rarely include headache. A serum calcium level of 5 mEq/L indicates hypercalcemia. As renal failure progresses, bleeding tendencies increase.
The nurse is reviewing a list of components contained in the peritoneal dialysis solution with the client. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the glucose contained in the solution. The nurse bases the response knowing that the glucose: A. Prevents excess glucose from being removed from the client B. Decreases risk of peritonitis C. Prevents disequilibrium syndrome D. Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration
D Increasing the glucose concentration makes the solution increasingly more hypertonic. The more hypertonic the solution, the greater the osmotic pressure for ultrafiltration and thus the greater amount of fluid removed from the client during an exchange.
Your patient has complaints of severe right-sided flank pain, nausea, vomiting and restlessness. He appears slightly pale and is diaphoretic. Vital signs are BP 140/90 mmHg, Pulse 118 beats/min., respirations 33 breaths/minute, and temperature, 98.0F. Which subjective data supports a diagnosis of renal calculi? A. Pain radiating to the right upper quadrant B. History of mild flu symptoms last week C. Dark-colored coffee-ground emesis D. Dark, scanty urine output
D Patients with renal calculi commonly have blood in the urine caused by the stone's passage through the urinary tract. The urine appears dark, tests positive for blood, and is typically scant.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is started on hemodialysis, and after the first treatment, the patient complains of nausea and a headache. The nurse notes mild jerking and twitching of the patient's extremities. The nurse will anticipate the need to a. increase the time for the next dialysis to remove wastes more completely. b. switch to continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) to improve dialysis efficiency. c. administer medications to control these symptoms before the next dialysis. d. slow the rate for the next dialysis to decrease the speed of solute removal.
D Rationale: The patient has symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome, which can be prevented by slowing the rate of dialysis so that fewer solutes are removed during the dialysis. Increasing the time of the dialysis to remove wastes more completely will increase the risk for disequilibrium syndrome. CRRT is a less efficient means of removing wastes and, because it is continuous, would not be used for a patient with CKD. Administration of medications to control the symptoms is not an appropriate action; rather, the disequilibrium syndrome should be avoided.
Frequent PVCs are noted on the cardiac monitor of a patient with end-stage renal disease. The priority intervention is: A. Call the doctor immediately B. Give the patient IV lidocaine (Xylocaine) C. Prepare to defibrillate the patient D. Check the patient's latest potassium level
D The patient with ESRD may develop arrhythmias caused by hypokalemia. Call the doctor after checking the patient's potassium values. Lidocaine may be ordered if the PVCs are frequent and the patient is symptomatic.
A client with chronic renal failure has learned about managing diet and fluid restriction between dialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the client is compliant with the therapeutic regimen of the client gains no more than how much weight between hemodialysis treatments? a) 2 to 4kg b) 5 to 6kg c) 0.5 to 1kg d) 1 to 1.5kg
D - A limit of 1 to 1.5 kg of weight gain between dialysis treatments helps prevent hypotension that tends to occur during dialysis with the removal of larger fluid loads. The nurse determines that the client is compliant with fluid restriction if this weight gain is not exceeded.
A client with chronic renal failure has been on dialysis for 4 years and has been taking aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel tablets) as prescribed as part of the medication regimen. The client develops confusion and dementia, and complains of bone pain. The nurse interprets that this client is at risk for developing: a) advancing uremia b) folic acid defieciency c) phosphate overdose d) aluminum intoxication
D - Aluminum intoxication can occur when there is accumulation of aluminum, an ingredient in many phosphate-binding antacids. Symptoms include mental cloudiness, dementia, and bone pain from infiltration of the bone with aluminum. This complication is treated with aluminum chelating agents, which make aluminum available to be dialyzed from the body. It is prevented by avoiding or limiting the use of phosphate-binding agents that contain aluminum.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis and notes a brownish tinge to the dialysate output. The nurse interprets that this finding could be a result of: a) early infection b) insufficient fluid instillation c) bladder perforation d) bowel perforation
D - Brown-tinged or bloody drainage could indicate perforation of the bowel by the peritoneal dialysis catheter. If noted, this must be reported to the physician immediately. Early signs of infection include cloudy dialysate output or fever and, most likely, abdominal discomfort. Bladder perforation could yield yellow or bloody drainage. Insufficient fluid instillation is an incorrect option. The client would have no signs as a result of insufficient fluid instillation except outflow of smaller amounts of dialysate.
A hemodialysis client has a newly created left arm fistula. The nurse monitors the affected extremity for which signs and symptoms that indicate a complication related to steal syndrome? a) edema and purplish discoloration b) aching pain, pallor, and edema c) warmth, redness, and pain d) pallor, diminished pulse. and pain
D - Steal syndrome results from vascular insufficiency after creation of a fistula. The client exhibits pallor and diminished pulse distal to the fistula and complains of pain distal to the fistula from tissue ischemia. Warmth, redness, and pain would more likely characterize a problem with infection. The patterns described in options A and B are not usually observed because they do not relate to a complication following fistula creation.
A nurse is assessing the renal function of a client. The nurse checks which item as the best indirect indicator of renal status? a) bladder distention b) level of conciousness c) pulse rate d) blood pressure
D - The kidneys normally receive 20% to 25% of the cardiac output, even under conditions of rest. In order for kidney function to be optimal, adequate renal perfusion is necessary. Perfusion can best be estimated by the blood pressure, which is an indirect reflection of the adequacy of cardiac output. The pulse rate affects the cardiac output, but can be altered by factors unrelated to kidney function. Bladder distention reflects a problem or obstruction that is most often distal to the kidneys. Level of consciousness is an unrelated item.
The client newly diagnosed with chronic renal failure recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse assesses the client during dialysis for: a. Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever. b. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia. c. Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness. d. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching.
D Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing brain swelling and onset of symptoms. The syndrome most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates.
A nurse is analyzing the posthemodialysis lab test results for a client with chronic renal failure (CRF). The nurse interprets that the dialysis is having an expected but nontherapeutic effect if the results indicate a decreased: a. Phosphorus. b. Creatinine. c. Potassium. d. Red blood cell count
D Hemodialysis typically lowers the amounts of fluid, sodium, potassium, urea nitrogen, creatinine, uric acid, magnesium, and phosphate levels in the blood. Hemodialysis also worsens anemia, because RBCs are lost in dialysis from blood sampling and anticoagulation during the procedure, and from residual blood that is left in the dialyzer. Although all of these results are expected, only the lowered RBC count is nontherapeutic and worsens the anemia already caused by the disease process.
A client has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in place in the right upper extremity for hemodialysis treatments. When planning care for this client, which of the following measures should the nurse implement to promote client safely? a. take blood pressures only on the right arm to ensure accuracy b. use the fistula for all venipunctures and intravenous infusions c. ensure that small clamps are attached to the AV fistula dressing d. assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours
D assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours
The client with chronic renal failure who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: a. during dialysis b. just before dialysis c. the day after dialysis d. on return form dialysis
D on return form dialysis
A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis? a) Perform deep-breathing exercises vigorously. b) Avoid carrying heavy items. c) Auscultate the lungs frequently. d) Wear a mask when performing exchanges.
D) Wear a mask when performing exchanges The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.
When caring for the client hoping to receive a kidney transplant, the nurse recognizes that which of these problems will exclude the client from transplantation? A. History of hiatal hernia B. Client with diabetes and HbA1c of 6.8 C. Basal cell carcinoma removed from nose 5 years ago D. Client with tuberculosis
D. Client with tuberculosis: Long-standing pulmonary disease and chronic infection typically exclude clients from transplantation; these conditions worsen with immune suppressants required to prevent rejection.
The nurse is reviewing the assessment findings for a client with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Which should the nurse expect to note in this client? 1. Decreased serum lipids 2. Signs of fluid volume deficit 3. Decreased protein in the urine 4. Decreased serum albumin levels
Decreased serum albumin levels Nephrotic syndrome describes a variety of signs and symptoms that accompany any condition that markedly impairs filtration by glomerular capillary membranes and results in increased permeability to protein. Hallmark signs and symptoms of this syndrome include increased serum lipids, edema, increased excretion of protein in the urine, and decreased serum albumin levels.
A client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. Which is the priority nursing intervention? 1. Check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill. 2. Observe the site once during the shift as time permits. 3. Check the results of the prothrombin time as they are determined. 4. Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing.
Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing. An external arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because 2 ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours. Checking the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill relates to patency of the shunt. Although checking the results of the prothrombin time is important, it is not the priority nursing action.
The nurse is assessing a client with epididymitis. The nurse anticipates which findings on physical examination? 1. Fever, diarrhea, groin pain, and ecchymosis 2. Nausea, painful scrotal edema, and ecchymosis 3. Fever, nausea, vomiting, and painful scrotal edema 4. Diarrhea, groin pain, testicular torsion, and scrotal edema
Fever, nausea, vomiting, and painful scrotal edema Typical signs and symptoms of epididymitis include scrotal pain and edema, which often are accompanied by fever, nausea and vomiting, and chills. Epididymitis most often is caused by infection, although sometimes it can be caused by trauma. The remaining options do not present all of the accurate manifestations.
A client has been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. On assessment of the client, the nurse should observe for which most common manifestation of this disorder? 1. Headache 2. Hypotension 3. Flank pain and hematuria 4. Complaints of low pelvic pain
Flank pain and hematuria The most common findings with polycystic kidney disease are hematuria and flank or lumbar pain that is either colicky in nature or dull and aching. Other common findings include proteinuria, calculi, uremia, and palpable kidney masses. Hypertension is another common finding and may be associated with cardiomegaly and heart failure. The client may complain of a headache, but this is not a specific assessment finding in polycystic kidney disease.
What is happening during the Diuretic phase of AKI?
Gradual increase in output to 1-3 L/day. Indicates recovery of nephrons. Issues with electrolyte balances. May take a few weeks before the body is back to normal.
Serum BUN to Creatinine Ratio
Helpful because this ratio determines whether it is just a renal issue or a renal issue with some other issue. 10:1 to 20:1
The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the prescribed dwell time for the dialysis because of the risk of which complication? 1. Peritonitis 2. Hyperglycemia 3. Hyperphosphatemia 4. Disequilibrium syndrome
Hyperglycemia An extended dwell time increases the risk of hyperglycemia in the client with diabetes mellitus as a result of absorption of glucose from the dialysate and electrolyte changes. Diabetic clients may require extra insulin when receiving peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a risk associated with breaks in aseptic technique. Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte imbalance that occurs with renal dysfunction. Disequilibrium syndrome is a complication associated with hemodialysis.
A client with glomerulonephritis has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) as a complication. The nurse should expect to note which abnormal finding documented on the client's medical record? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hypertension 3. Decreased cardiac output 4. Decreased central venous pressure
Hypertension AKI caused by glomerulonephritis is classified as an intrinsic or intrarenal cause of renal failure. It is commonly manifested by hypertension, tachycardia, oliguria, lethargy, edema, and other signs of fluid overload. AKI from a prerenal cause is characterized by decreased blood pressure, tachycardia, decreased cardiac output, and decreased central venous pressure. Bradycardia is not part of the clinical picture for any form of kidney failure.
A client has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) as a complication of glomerulonephritis. Which should the nurse expect to observe in the client? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hypertension 3. Decreased cardiac output 4. Decreased central venous pressure
Hypertension AKI caused by glomerulonephritis is classified as intrinsic or intrarenal failure. This form of AKI commonly manifests with hypertension, tachycardia, oliguria, lethargy, edema, and other signs of fluid overload. AKI from prerenal causes is characterized by decreased blood pressure or a recent history of the same, tachycardia, and decreased cardiac output and central venous pressure. Bradycardia is not part of the clinical picture for any form of renal failure.
The nurse is reviewing the list of components contained in the peritoneal dialysis solution with the client. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the glucose contained in the solution. The nurse should base the response on knowing that which is the action of the glucose in the solution? 1. Decreases the risk of peritonitis 2. Prevents disequilibrium syndrome 3. Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration 4. Prevents excess glucose from being removed from the client
Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration Increasing the glucose concentration makes the solution more hypertonic. The more hypertonic the solution, the higher the osmotic pressure for ultrafiltration and thus the greater the amount of fluid removed from the client during an exchange. The remaining options do not identify the purpose of the glucose.
The nurse has completed teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse should determine that education was effective if the client states to record which parameters daily? 1. Pulse and respiratory rate 2. Amount of activity and sleep 3. Intake and output (I&O) and weight 4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Intake and output (I&O) and weight The client on hemodialysis should monitor fluid status between hemodialysis treatments by recording I&O and measuring weight daily. Ideally, the hemodialysis client should not gain more than 0.5 kg of weight per day. It is not necessary to record the pulse and respiratory rate or the amount of activity and sleep; these parameters are not specifically related to hemodialysis. BUN and creatinine levels are not measured on a daily basis.
The nurse is providing instructions to a client who is scheduled for cystoscopy and possible biopsy under general anesthesia. Which information should the nurse include? 1. The procedure will take about 4 hours. 2. Intravenous fluids may be started on the day of the procedure. 3. Preprocedure sedatives are never administered with general anesthesia. 4. Only a full liquid breakfast may be allowed on the day of the procedure.
Intravenous fluids may be started on the day of the procedure. Client preparation for cystoscopy and possible biopsy includes informing the client that intravenous fluids will be started the day of the procedure to ensure adequate hydration and flow of urine. The procedure will take approximately 30 minutes to 1 hour. An informed consent is obtained from the client, and preprocedure sedatives are administered as prescribed. If a general anesthetic is to be used, the client is told that fasting is necessary after midnight before the procedure.
A client being discharged home after renal transplantation has a risk for infection related to immunosuppressive medication therapy. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching on measures to prevent and control infection if the client states that it is necessary to take which action? 1. Take an oral temperature daily. 2. Use good hand-washing technique. 3. Take all scheduled medications exactly as prescribed. 4. Monitor urine character and output at least 1 day each week.
Monitor urine character and output at least 1 day each week. The client receiving immunosuppressive medication therapy must learn and use infection control methods for use at home. The client self-monitors urine output and its characteristics on a daily basis. The client must learn proper hand-washing technique and should take the temperature daily to detect early infection. This is especially important because the client also takes corticosteroids, which mask signs and symptoms of infection. All medications should be taken exactly as prescribed.
The nurse is admitting a client from the postanesthesia care unit who has had percutaneous nephrolithotomy for calculi in the renal pelvis. The nurse anticipates that the client's care will most likely involve monitoring which device? 1. Ureteral stent 2. Suprapubic tube 3. Nephrostomy tube 4. Jackson-Pratt drain
Nephrostomy tube A nephrostomy tube is put in place after percutaneous nephrolithotomy for calculi in the renal pelvis. The client also may have a Foley catheter to drain urine produced by the other kidney. The nurse monitors the drainage from each of these tubes and strains the urine to detect elimination of the calculous fragments. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.
A client with chronic kidney disease who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril. When should the nurse plan to administer this medication? 1. During dialysis 2. Just before dialysis 3. The day after dialysis 4. On return from dialysis
On return from dialysis Antihypertensive medications such as enalapril are given to the client following hemodialysis. This prevents the client from becoming hypotensive during dialysis and from having the medication removed from the bloodstream by dialysis. No rationale exists for waiting an entire day to resume the medication. This would lead to ineffective control of the blood pressure.
The nurse caring for a client immediately after transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) notices that the client has suddenly become confused and disoriented. Which is the priority nursing action for this client? 1. Reorient the client. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Ensure that a clock and calendar are in the room. 4. Increase the flow rate of the intravenous infusion.
Notify the health care provider (HCP). The client who suddenly becomes disoriented and confused after TURP could be experiencing early signs of hyponatremia. This may occur because the flushing solution used during the operative procedure is hypotonic. If the solution is absorbed through the prostate veins during surgery, the client experiences increased circulating volume and dilutional hyponatremia. The nurse should notify the HCP of these symptoms. Reorienting the client and ensuring that a clock and calendar are visible may be helpful but do not correct the problem. The nurse does not increase the flow rate of an intravenous infusion without a prescription from the HCP. In addition, speeding up the flow rate could potentially worsen the problem, depending on the solution that is infusing.
A client with chronic kidney disease returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 38.5°C (101.2°F). Which nursing action is most appropriate? 1. Encourage fluid intake. 2. Notify the health care provider. 3. Continue to monitor vital signs. 4. Monitor the site of the shunt for infection.
Notify the health care provider. A temperature of 101.2°F (38.5°C) is significantly elevated and may indicate infection. The nurse should notify the health care provider (HCP). Dialysis clients cannot have fluid intake encouraged. Vital signs and the shunt site should be monitored, but the HCP should be notified first.
A client with renal cell carcinoma of the left kidney is scheduled for nephrectomy. The right kidney appears normal at this time. The client is anxious about whether dialysis will ultimately be needed. The nurse should plan to use which information in discussions with the client to alleviate anxiety? 1. There is a strong likelihood that the client will need dialysis within 5 to 10 years. 2. There is absolutely no chance of needing dialysis because of the nature of the surgery. 3. One kidney is adequate to meet the needs of the body as long as it has normal function. 4. Dialysis could become likely, but it depends on how well the client complies with fluid restriction after surgery.
One kidney is adequate to meet the needs of the body as long as it has normal function. Fears about having only 1 functioning kidney are common in clients who must undergo nephrectomy for renal cancer. These clients need emotional support and reassurance that the remaining kidney should be able to fully meet the body's metabolic needs, as long as it has normal function. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.
The nurse is urging a client to cough and deep breathe after nephrectomy. The client tells the nurse, "That's easy for you to say! You don't have to do this." The nurse interprets that the client's statement is most likely to be a result of which factor? 1. A stress response to the ordeal of surgery 2. A latent fear of needing dialysis if the surgery is unsuccessful 3. Pain that is intensified because of the location of the incision near the diaphragm 4. Effects of circulating metabolites that have not been excreted by the remaining kidney
Pain that is intensified because of the location of the incision near the diaphragm After nephrectomy, the client may be in considerable pain. This is because of the size of the incision and its location near the diaphragm, which make coughing and deep breathing very uncomfortable. For this reason, opioids are used liberally and may be most effective when provided as patient-controlled analgesia or through epidural analgesia. The items in the other options are not likely factors for the client's statement.
A hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse should assess for which manifestations of this complication? 1. Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand 2. Ecchymosis and audible bruit over the fistula 3. Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm 4. Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand
Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand Steal syndrome results from vascular insufficiency after creation of a fistula. The client exhibits pallor and a diminished pulse distal to the fistula. The client also complains of pain distal to the fistula, caused by tissue ischemia. Warmth and redness probably would characterize a problem with infection. Ecchymosis and a bruit are normal findings for a fistula.
A client undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding from the heparin used during the hemodialysis treatment. The nurse assesses for this occurrence by periodically checking the results of which laboratory test? 1. Bleeding time 2. Thrombin time 3. Prothrombin time (PT) 4. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) Heparin is the anticoagulant used most often during hemodialysis. The hemodialysis nurse monitors the extent of anticoagulation by checking the PTT, which is the appropriate measure of heparin effect. Thrombin and bleeding times are not used to measure the effect of heparin therapy, although they are useful in the diagnosis of other clotting abnormalities. The PT is a test used to monitor the effect of warfarin therapy.
The nurse is admitting a client who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the right arm for hemodialysis. Which nursing intervention is the best way to prevent injury to the AV site? 1. Putting a large note about the access site on the front of the medical record 2. Applying an allergy bracelet to the right arm, indicating the presence of the fistula 3. Telling the client to inform all caregivers who enter the room about the presence of the access site 4. Placing a sign at the bedside that reads "No blood pressure measurements or venipunctures in the right arm"
Placing a sign at the bedside that reads "No blood pressure measurements or venipunctures in the right arm" No venipunctures or blood pressure measurements should be performed in a limb with a hemodialysis access device. This commonly is communicated to all caregivers by placing a sign at the client's bedside. Placing a note on the front of the medical record does not ensure that everyone caring for the client is aware of the access device. An allergy bracelet is placed on the client with an allergy. The client should not be assigned the responsibility for informing caregivers. Some agencies use special bracelets for clients with an AV fistula to alert health care providers. Agency guidelines should always be followed in the care of the client.
What are the 3 ways that we discuss how people can get AKI?
Prerenal Intrarenal Postrenal
The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which factor will enhance the educational process? 1. Anxiety 2. Memory deficits 3. Presence of family 4. Short attention span
Presence of family The client with CKD may have several barriers to learning. The presence of family members is helpful because they need to understand the disease and treatment and may help reinforce information with the client after the formal teaching session is over. Anxiety about the disease and its ramifications frequently interferes with learning. Physiological effects of the disease process also impair the client's mental functioning. Specifically, the client may exhibit a short attention span and have memory deficits. Mental functioning usually improves once hemodialysis has begun.
The health care provider writes prescriptions for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which prescription should the nurse question? 1. Insert a saline lock. 2. Obtain a daily weight. 3. Provide a high-protein diet. 4. Administer a calcium supplement with each meal.
Provide a high-protein diet. When a client experiences CKD, the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels rise. The client also experiences increased potassium, increased phosphates, and decreased calcium. BUN and creatinine are the byproducts of protein metabolism, so monitoring protein intake is important, with care taken to include proteins of high biological value. Clients with CKD will have protein restricted early in the disease to preserve kidney function. In end-stage disease, protein is restricted according to the client's weight, the type of dialysis, and protein loss. With CKD, the nurse is concerned about fluid volume overload and accumulation of waste products. Because of the kidneys' inability to excrete fluid, it is important for the nurse to prevent as well as assess for early signs of fluid volume excess. Infusing an intravenous (IV) solution into a client with CKD significantly increases the risk for overload. If an IV access is needed, it usually involves only a saline lock. Obtaining the client's daily weight is one of the most important assessment tools for evaluating changes in fluid volume. The kidneys also are responsible for removing waste products. The client also receives phosphate binders, calcium supplements, and vitamin D to prevent bone demineralization (osteodystrophy) from chronically elevated phosphate levels.
3. Venison, sardines, goose, organ meats,and herring are high-purine foods, which should be eliminated from the diet to help prevent uric acid stones.
The client is diagnosed with a uric acid stone. Which foods should the client eliminate from the diet to help prevent re-occurrence? 1.Beer and colas. 2.Asparagus and cabbage. 3.Venison and sardines. 4.Cheese and eggs.
A client experiencing end-stage kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula placed surgically for hemodialysis. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to document in the plan for care of the AV fistula? 1. Palpate the bruit of the AV fistula weekly to assess for thrombosis. 2. Use the AV fistula site for blood draws to prevent increased pain of multiple blood draws. 3. Take the blood pressure readings in the extremity with the AV fistula to get a more accurate reading. 4. Teach the client to avoid carrying heavy objects that would compress the AV fistula and cause thrombosis.
Teach the client to avoid carrying heavy objects that would compress the AV fistula and cause thrombosis. An AV fistula is a vascular access system that is required for hemodialysis. It is a device established for clients who need long-term hemodialysis. It is created by connecting an artery to a vein inside the body to create a vessel that can handle the amount of blood flow necessary for effective dialysis. Bleeding, clotting, and infection are risks with all vascular devices. It also is very important to avoid any activity that would promote the status of blood or increase the risk for infection. Taking the blood pressure in the affected arm, carrying heavy objects in the arm, and lying on the arm at night could increase the risk for clotting in the fistula. To check circulation of the fistula, the nurse should palpate or feel for the thrill or auscultate (listen with a stethoscope) for the bruit. It is important to do this at least daily to ascertain the patency of the fistula. To avoid infection, that extremity is never used for peripheral intravenous access (placement of an intravenous line) or for blood draws. Strict aseptic technique is used in accessing the fistula for dialysis.
1. An elevated PSA can be from urinary retention, BPH, prostate cancer, or prostate infarct.
The client asks, "What does an elevated PSA test mean?" On which scientific rationale should the nurse base the response? 1.An elevated PSA can result from several different causes. 2.An elevated PSA can be only from prostate cancer. 3.An elevated PSA can be diagnostic for testicular cancer. 4.An elevated PSA is the only test used to diagnose BPH.
2. Elevating the scrotum on a towel for support is a task which can be delegated to the UAP.
The client is one (1) day postoperative TURP. Which task should the nurse delegate to the UAP? 1.Increase the irrigation fluid to clear clots from the tubing. 2.Elevate the scrotum on a towel roll for support. 3.Change the dressing on the first postoperative day. 4.Teach the client how to care for the continuous irrigation catheter.
4. Normal potassium level is 3.5 to5.5 mEq/L. A level of 6.8 mEq/L is life threatening and could lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the client may be dialyzed to decrease the potassium level quickly. This requires a health-careprovider order, so it is a collaborative intervention.
The client diagnosed with ARF has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which collaborative treatment should the nurse anticipate for the client? 1.Administer a phosphate binder. 2.Type and crossmatch for whole blood. 3.Assess the client for leg cramps. 4.Prepare the client for dialysis.
3. Carbohydrates are increased to provide for the client's caloric intake and protein is restricted to minimize protein breakdown and to prevent accumulation of toxic waste products.
The client diagnosed with ARF is admitted to the intensive care unit and placed on a therapeutic diet. Which diet is most appropriate for the client? 1.A high-potassium and low-calcium diet. 2.A low-fat and low-cholesterol diet. 3.A high-carbohydrate and restricted-protein diet. 4.A regular diet with six (6) small feedings a day.
3. Regular insulin, along with glucose, will drive potassium into the cells,thereby lowering serum potassium levels temporarily.
The client diagnosed with ARF is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer to help decrease the potassium level? 1.Erythropoietin. 2.Calcium gluconate. 3.Regular insulin. 4.Osmotic diuretic.
A client is scheduled for surgical creation of an internal arteriovenous (AV) fistula on the following day. The client says to the nurse, "I'll be so happy when the fistula is made tomorrow. This means I can have that other hemodialysis catheter pulled right out." Which interpretation should the nurse make based on the client's statement? 1. The client has an accurate understanding of the procedure and aftercare. 2. The client does not realize how painful removal of the dialysis catheter will be. 3. The client does not understand that the site needs to mature or develop for 1 to 2 weeks before use. 4. The client is not aware that the alternative access site is left in place prophylactically for 2 months.
The client does not understand that the site needs to mature or develop for 1 to 2 weeks before use. An AV fistula is the internal creation of an arterial-to-venous anastomosis. This causes engorgement of the vein, allowing both the artery and the vein to be easily cannulated for hemodialysis. Fistulas take 1 to 2 weeks to mature (engorgement) or develop before they can be used for dialysis, so the current method of access must remain in place to be used during that period. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect interpretations of the client's statement.
3. Dehydration results in concentrated serum, causing laboratory values to increase because the blood has normal constituents but not enough volume to dilute the values to within normal range or possibly lower.
The client is admitted to a nursing unit from a long-term care facility with a hematocrit of 56% and a serum sodium level of 152 mEq/L. Which condition is a cause for these findings? 1.Overhydration. 2.Anemia. 3.Dehydration. 4.Renal failure.
1 Fever, chills, and costovertebral pain are symptoms of a urinary tract infection (acute pyelonephritis), which requires a urine culture first to confirm the diagnosis.
The client is reporting chills, fever, and left costovertebral pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse expect the HCP to prescribe first? 1.A midstream urine for culture. 2.A sonogram of the kidney. 3.An intravenous pyelogram for renal calculi. 4.A CT scan of the kidneys.
4. The nurse should always assess any complaint before dismissing it as a commonly occurring problem.
The client with a TURP who has a continuous irrigation catheter complains of the need to urinate. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1.Call the surgeon to inform the HCP of the client's complaint. 2.Administer the client a narcotic medication for pain. 3.Explain to the client this sensation happens frequently. 4.Assess the continuous irrigation catheter for patency.
A client is experiencing the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. When explaining this disorder to the client and family, the nurse recalls that ADH works to reabsorb water in which parts of the nephron? 1. The glomerulus and the calices 2. The loop of Henle and the distal tubule 3. The distal tubule and the collecting duct 4. The proximal tubule and the loop of Henle
The distal tubule and the collecting duct The distal tubule and the collecting duct of the nephron require the presence of ADH for water reabsorption. The hormone increases the permeability of the membranes to allow water to flow more easily along the concentration gradient. The glomerulus filters but does not reabsorb. The calices are responsible for collecting the urine. The proximal tubule and the loop of Henle reabsorb water without the assistance of ADH.
The nurse provides instructions to a client about newly prescribed furosemide. Which information should the nurse use to provide instructions in this teaching session? 1. The medication acts on the distal tubule of the nephron. 2. The medication acts on the loop of Henle in the nephron. 3. The collecting duct of the nephron will be affected by this medication. 4. The site of action for furosemide is the proximal tubule of the nephron.
The medication acts on the loop of Henle in the nephron. Furosemide works by acting to excrete sodium, potassium, and chloride in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.
Secretion
The moving of substances from blood into tubule (filtrate) = excreted
Reabsorption
The moving of substances from tubules into blood = retained.
2. This client's dialysis access is compromised and he or she should be assessed first.
The nurse in the dialysis center is initiating the morning dialysis run. Which client should the nurse assess first? 1.The client who has hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL and hematocrit of 30%. 2.The client who does not have a palpable thrill or auscultated bruit. 3.The client who is complaining of being exhausted and is sleeping. 4.The client who did not take antihypertensive medication this morning.
1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels reflect the balance between the production and excretion of urea from the kidneys. Creatinine is a by-product of the metabolism of the muscles and is excreted by the kidneys. Creatinine is the ideal sub-stance for determining renal clearance because it is relatively constant in the body and is the laboratory value most significant in diagnosing renal failure.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with ARF. Which laboratory values are most significant for diagnosing ARF? 1.BUN and creatinine. 2.WBC and hemoglobin. 3.Potassium and sodium. 4.Bilirubin and ammonia level.
2. Bladder spasms are common, but being relieved with medication indicates the condition is improving.
The nurse is caring for a client with a TURP. Which expected outcome indicates the client's condition is improving? 1.The client is using the maximum amount allowed by the PCA pump. 2.The client's bladder spasms are relieved by medication. 3.The client's scrotum is swollen and tender with movement. 4.The client has passed a large, hard, brown stool this morning.
3 A long-term complication of glomerulonephritis is it can become chronic if unresponsive to treatment,and this can lead to end-stage renal disease. Maintaining renal function is an appropriate long-term goal.
The nurse is preparing a plan of care for the client diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which statement is an appropriate long-term goal? 1.The client will have a blood pressure within normal limits. 2.The client will show no protein in the urine. 3.The client will maintain normal renal function. 4.The client will have clear lung sounds.
The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from having a cystoscopy. The nurse should recognize which as an abnormal assessment finding for this client? 1. The nurse notes bright red urine output. 2. The nurse notes pink-tinged urine output. 3. The client reports having urinary frequency. 4. The client complains of burning when urinating.
The nurse notes bright red urine output. The main purpose of a cystoscopy is to inspect the interior of the bladder with a tubular lighted scope (cystoscope). Pink-tinged urine is a normal finding after this procedure, but bright red urine indicates hemorrhaging and is not a normal finding. The remaining options are normal findings following this procedure.
1. A client with a peaked T wave could be experiencing hyperkalemia. Changes in potassium levels can initiate cardiac dysrhythmias and instability.
The telemetry monitor technician notifies the nurse of the morning telemetry readings. Which client should the nurse assess first? 1.The client in normal sinus rhythm with a peaked T wave. 2.The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation with a rate of 100. 3.The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction who has occasional PVCs. 4.The client with a first-degree atrioventricular block and a rate of 92.
A client arrives at the emergency department with complaints of low abdominal pain and hematuria. The client is afebrile. The nurse next assesses the client to determine a history of which condition? 1. Pyelonephritis 2. Glomerulonephritis 3. Trauma to the bladder or abdomen 4. Renal cancer in the client's family
Trauma to the bladder or abdomen Bladder trauma or injury should be considered or suspected in the client with low abdominal pain and hematuria. Glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis would be accompanied by fever and are thus not applicable to the client described in this question. Renal cancer would not cause pain that is felt in the low abdomen; rather, the pain would be in the flank area.
What is happening during the Oliguric phase of AKI?
UO <400ml/24 hrs, decrease in specific gravity, issues in concentrating urine. (increased sodium release). 1-7d post event, the longer they are in this phase the worse the prognosis is.
Uremic Encephalopathy
Uremic encephalopathy is an organic brain disorder. It develops in patients with acute or chronic renal failure, usually when the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls and remains below 15 mL/min.
A client tells the nurse about a pattern of a strong urge to void, followed by incontinence before the client can get to the bathroom. Based on the data provided, which condition should the nurse suspect? 1. Urge incontinence 2. Total incontinence 3. Stress incontinence 4. Reflex incontinence
Urge incontinence Urge incontinence occurs when the client experiences involuntary loss of urine soon after experiencing urgency. Total incontinence occurs when loss of urine is unpredictable and continuous. Stress incontinence occurs when the client voids in increments of less than 50 mL under conditions of increased abdominal pressure. Reflex incontinence occurs at rather predictable times that correspond to when a certain bladder volume is attained.
Which of the following client responses shows a correct understanding of continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)? a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home b) the procedure lasts for one hour c) I have to sit and raise my legs during the procedure d) I have to go to the hospital for this procedure
a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home
A client with chronic kidney disease has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse should use which standard indicators to evaluate the client's status after dialysis? 1. Vital signs and weight 2. Potassium level and weight 3. Vital signs and blood urea nitrogen level 4. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
Vital signs and weight Following dialysis the client's vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable. Weight is measured and compared with the client's predialysis weight to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction. Laboratory studies are done as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.
The client with chronic renal failure has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. The nurse should immediately: a) change the dressing b) reinforce the dressing c) flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter d) scrub the catheter with povidine-iodine
a) change the dressing - Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.
The client with chronic renal failure has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. The nurse should immediately: a) change the dressing b) reinforce the dressing c) flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter d) scrub the catheter with povidine-iodine
a) change the dressing - Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.
The client with chronic renal failure has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. The nurse should immediately: a) change the dressing b) reinforce the dressing c) flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter d) scrub the catheter with povidine-iodine
a) change the dressing - Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.
The nurse instructs a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu? a) cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee b) sausage and eggs, banana, orange juice c) bacon, cantaloupe melon, tomato juice d) cured pork, strawberries, orange juice
a) cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee - the diet for a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis should include controlled amounts of sodium, phosphorus, calcium, potassium, and fluids. Option B, C, and D are high in sodium, phosphorus, and potassium.
The nurse instructs a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu? a) cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee b) sausage and eggs, banana, orange juice c) bacon, cantaloupe melon, tomato juice d) cured pork, strawberries, orange juice
a) cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee - the diet for a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis should include controlled amounts of sodium, phosphorus, calcium, potassium, and fluids. Option B, C, and D are high in sodium, phosphorus, and potassium.
The client hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale and anxious. The nurse suspects air embolism. The priority action for the nurse is to: a) discontinue dialysis and notify the physician b) monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour c) continue dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air d) bolus the client with 500 ml of normal saline to break up the air embolus
a) discontinue dialysis and notify the physician
A client with renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) to support erythropoiesis. The nurse questions the client about compliance with taking which of the following medications that supports red blood cell (RBC) production? a) iron supplement b) zinc supplement c) calcium supplement d) magnesium supplement
a) iron supplement
Which of the following should be considered in the diet of the client with end-stage-renal-disease (ESRD)? a) limit fluid intake during anuric phase b) limit phosphorus and vitamin D-rich food c) limit calcium-rich food d) limit carbohydrates
a) limit fluid intake during anuric phase during ESRD, fluid intake of the client should be limited during anuric phase to prevent fluid overload. Fluid overload increases renal workload, pulmonary edema, and congestive heart failure.
Which of the following should be considered in the diet of the client with end-stage-renal-disease (ESRD)? a) limit fluid intake during anuric phase b) limit phosphorus and vitamin D-rich food c) limit calcium-rich food d) limit carbohydrates
a) limit fluid intake during anuric phase during ESRD, fluid intake of the client should be limited during anuric phase to prevent fluid overload. Fluid overload increases renal workload, pulmonary edema, and congestive heart failure.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the nursing care plan of the client who is diagnosed to have renal failure, whose BUN is 32 mg/dl, serum creatinine is 4 mg/dl, hematocrit is 38%. He is complaining of fatigue and edema. a) low protein diet and fluid restriction b) high protein diet and fluid restriction c) low protein diet and increase in fiber d) high protein diet and potassium restriction
a) low protein diet and fluid restriction
The client has end-stage renal disease. He had undergone kidney transplant 5 days ago. Which of the following is the most important intervention for the client to prevent infection? a) observe asepsis b) increase fluid intake c) avoid clients with flu d) avoid crowded places
a) observe asepsis
The client has end-stage renal disease. He had undergone kidney transplant 5 days ago. Which of the following is the most important intervention for the client to prevent infection? a) observe asepsis b) increase fluid intake c) avoid clients with flu d) avoid crowded places
a) observe asepsis
The client with chronic renal failure is on chronic hemodialysis. Which of the following indicate improvement of the client's condition due to hemodialysis? Select all that apply a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L c) the client's hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL d) the client's serum calcium is 7.7 mg/dL e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L f) the client's serum magnesium is 4 mEq/L g) the client's weight has increased from 60 kg to 63 kg
a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L
The client with chronic renal failure is on chronic hemodialysis. Which of the following indicate improvement of the client's condition due to hemodialysis? Select all that apply a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L c) the client's hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL d) the client's serum calcium is 7.7 mg/dL e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L f) the client's serum magnesium is 4 mEq/L g) the client's weight has increased from 60 kg to 63 kg
a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L
The client with chronic renal failure is on chronic hemodialysis. Which of the following indicate improvement of the client's condition due to hemodialysis? Select all that apply a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L c) the client's hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL d) the client's serum calcium is 7.7 mg/dL e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L f) the client's serum magnesium is 4 mEq/L g) the client's weight has increased from 60 kg to 63 kg
a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L
Prevention of AKI is important because of the high mortality rate. Which patients are at increased risk for AKI (select all that apply)? a. An 86-year-old woman scheduled for a cardiac catheterization b. A 48-year-old man with multiple injuries from a motor vehicle accident c. A 32-year-old woman following a C-section delivery for abruptio placentae d. A 64-year-old woman with chronic heart failure admitted with bloody stools e. A 58-year-old man with prostate cancer undergoing preoperative workup for prostatectomy
a, b, c, d, e. High-risk patients include those exposed to nephrotoxic agents and advanced age (a), massive trauma (b), prolonged hypovolemia or hypotension (possibly b and c), obstetric complications (c), cardiac failure (d), preexisting chronic kidney disease, extensive burns, or sepsis. Patients with prostate cancer may have obstruction of the outflow tract, which increases risk of postrenal AKI (e).
Priority Decision: During the immediate postoperative care of a recipient of a kidney transplant, what should the nurse expect to do? a. Regulate fluid intake hourly based on urine output. b. Monitor urine-tinged drainage on abdominal dressing. c. Medicate the patient frequently for incisional flank pain. d. Remove the urinary catheter to evaluate the ureteral implant.
a. Fluid and electrolyte balance is critical in the transplant recipient patient, especially because diuresis often begins soon after surgery. Fluid replacement is adjusted hourly based on kidney function and urine output. Urine-tinged drainage on the abdominal dressing may indicate leakage from the ureter implanted into the bladder and the health care provider should be notified. The donor patient may have a flank or laparoscopic incision(s) where the kidney was removed. The recipient has an abdominal incision where the kidney was placed in the iliac fossa. The urinary catheter is usually used for 2 to 3 days to monitor urine output and kidney function.
During the immediate postoperative care of a recipient of a kidney transplant, what should the nurse expect to do? a. Regulate fluid intake hourly based on urine output. b. Monitor urine-tinged drainage on abdominal dressing. c. Medicate the patient frequently for incisional flank pain. d. Remove the urinary catheter to evaluate the ureteral implant.
a. Fluid and electrolyte balance is critical in the transplant recipient patient, especially because diuresis often begins soon after surgery. Fluid replacement is adjusted hourly based on kidney function and urine output. Urine-tinged drainage on the abdominal dressing may indicate leakage from the ureter implanted into the bladder and the health care provider should be notified. The donor patient may have a flank or laparoscopic incision(s) where the kidney was removed. The recipient has an abdominal incision where the kidney was placed in the iliac fossa. The urinary catheter is usually used for 2 to 3 days to monitor urine output and kidney function.
A patient received a kidney transplant last month. Because of the effects of immunosuppressive drugs and CKD, what complication of transplantation should the nurse be assessing the patient for to decrease the risk of mortality? a. Infection b. Rejection c. Malignancy d. Cardiovascular disease
a. Infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality after transplantation because the surgery, the immunosuppressive drugs, and the effects of CKD all suppress the body's normal defense mechanisms, thus increasing the risk of infection. The nurse must assess the patient as well as use aseptic technique to prevent infections. Rejection may occur but for other reasons. Malignancy occurrence increases later due to immunosuppressive therapy. Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death after renal transplantation but this would not be expected to cause death within the first month after transplantation.
Metabolic acidosis occurs in the oliguric phase of AKI as a result of impairment of a. ammonia synthesis. b. excretion of sodium. c. excretion of bicarbonate. d. conservation of potassium.
a. Metabolic acidosis occurs in AKI because the kidneys cannot synthesize ammonia or excrete acid products of metabolism, resulting in an increased acid load. Sodium is lost in urine because the kidneys cannot conserve sodium. Impaired excretion of potassium results in hyperkalemia. Bicarbonate is normally generated and reabsorbed by the functioning kidney to maintain acid/base balance.
A man with end-stage kidney disease is scheduled for hemodialysis following healing of an arteriovenous fistula (AVF). What should the nurse explain to him that will occur during dialysis? a. He will be able to visit, read, sleep, or watch TV while reclining in a chair. b. He will be placed on a cardiac monitor to detect any adverse effects that might occur. c. The dialyzer will remove and hold part of his blood for 20 to 30 minutes to remove the waste products. d. A large catheter with two lumens will be inserted into the fistula to send blood to and return it from the dialyzer.
a. While patients are undergoing hemodialysis, they can perform quiet activities that do not require the limb that has the vascular access. Blood pressure is monitored frequently and the dialyzer monitors dialysis function but cardiac monitoring is not usually indicated. The hemodialysis machine continuously circulates both the blood and the dialysate past the semipermeable membrane in the machine. Graft and fistula access involve the insertion of two needles into the site: one to remove blood from and the other to return blood to the dialyzer.
A man with end-stage kidney disease is scheduled for hemodialysis following healing of an arteriovenous fistula (AVF). What should the nurse explain to him that will occur during dialysis? a. He will be able to visit, read, sleep, or watch TV while reclining in a chair. b. He will be placed on a cardiac monitor to detect any adverse effects that might occur. c. The dialyzer will remove and hold part of his blood for 20 to 30 minutes to remove the waste products. d. A large catheter with two lumens will be inserted into the fistula to send blood to and return it from the dialyzer.
a. While patients are undergoing hemodialysis, they can perform quiet activities that do not require the limb that has the vascular access. Blood pressure is monitored frequently and the dialyzer monitors dialysis function but cardiac monitoring is not usually indicated. The hemodialysis machine continuously circulates both the blood and the dialysate past the semipermeable membrane in the machine. Graft and fistula access involve the insertion of two needles into the site: one to remove blood from and the other to return blood to the dialyzer.
The client who has a history of gout also is diagnosed with urolithisis and the stones are determined to be of uric acid type. The nurse gives the client instructions in which foods to limit, including: a) milk b) liver c) apples d) carrots
b) liver
The client who has a history of gout also is diagnosed with urolithisis and the stones are determined to be of uric acid type. The nurse gives the client instructions in which foods to limit, including: a) milk b) liver c) apples d) carrots
b) liver
The client had been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. He had undergone hemodialysis for the first time. What signs and symptoms when experienced by the client suggest that he is experiencing disequilibrium syndrome? a) restlessness, hypotension, headache b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness c) lethargy, hypotension, dizziness d) thachycardia, hypotension, headache
b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness disequilibrium syndrome is caused by more rapid removal of waste products from the blood from the brain. This is due to the presence of blood-brain barrier. This causes increased intracranial pressure.
The client had been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. He had undergone hemodialysis for the first time. What signs and symptoms when experienced by the client suggest that he is experiencing disequilibrium syndrome? a) restlessness, hypotension, headache b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness c) lethargy, hypotension, dizziness d) thachycardia, hypotension, headache
b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness disequilibrium syndrome is caused by more rapid removal of waste products from the blood from the brain. This is due to the presence of blood-brain barrier. This causes increased intracranial pressure.
The client had been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. He had undergone hemodialysis for the first time. What signs and symptoms when experienced by the client suggest that he is experiencing disequilibrium syndrome? a) restlessness, hypotension, headache b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness c) lethargy, hypotension, dizziness d) thachycardia, hypotension, headache
b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness disequilibrium syndrome is caused by more rapid removal of waste products from the blood from the brain. This is due to the presence of blood-brain barrier. This causes increased intracranial pressure.
The client with acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. The nurse would plan which of the following as a priority action? a) check the sodium level b) place the client on a cardiac monitor c) encourage increased vegetables in the diet d) allow an extra 500 ml of fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration
b) place the client on a cardiac monitor
The client with chronic renal failure is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. He asks why the nurse monitors his blood glucose levels. Which of the following will be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a) I have to check if you have diabetes mellitus b) the dialysate contains glucose c) the procedure may lower your blood glucose levels d) it is a routine procedure for every client who undergoes the treatment
b) the dialysate contains glucose
The client with chronic renal failure is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. He asks why the nurse monitors his blood glucose levels. Which of the following will be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a) I have to check if you have diabetes mellitus b) the dialysate contains glucose c) the procedure may lower your blood glucose levels d) it is a routine procedure for every client who undergoes the treatment
b) the dialysate contains glucose
Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome: At Carlo's last check-up when he was 2 1/2 years old, his BP was 95/60, PR was 110/min and weight was 15 kg. Which unexpected assessment today would the nurse report to help the diagnosis? a) BP: 95/60 b) weight: 20 kg c) PR: 110 d) temp: 37 C
b) weight: 20 kg during the toddler period, the child gains 2.5 kg a year. Carlo has gained 5 kg in only 6 months. In nephrotic syndrome, this excessive weight gain is due to edema.
Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome: At Carlo's last check-up when he was 2 1/2 years old, his BP was 95/60, PR was 110/min and weight was 15 kg. Which unexpected assessment today would the nurse report to help the diagnosis? a) BP: 95/60 b) weight: 20 kg c) PR: 110 d) temp: 37 C
b) weight: 20 kg during the toddler period, the child gains 2.5 kg a year. Carlo has gained 5 kg in only 6 months. In nephrotic syndrome, this excessive weight gain is due to edema.
What is the primary way that a nurse will evaluate the patency of an AVF? a. Palpate for pulses distal to the graft site. b. Auscultate for the presence of a bruit at the site. c. Evaluate the color and temperature of the extremity. d. Assess for the presence of numbness and tingling distal to the site.
b. A patent arteriovenous fistula (AVF) creates turbulent blood flow that can be assessed by listening for a bruit or palpated for a thrill as the blood passes through the graft. Assessment of neurovascular status in the extremity distal to the graft site is important to determine that the graft does not impair circulation to the extremity but the neurovascular status does not indicate whether the graft is open.
A client is being admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of urolithiasis and ureteral colic. The nurse assesses the client for pain that is: a) dull and aching in the costovetebal area b) aching and camplike thoughout the abdomen c) sharp and radiating posteriorly to the spinal column d) excruciating, wavelike, and radiating toward the genitalia
d) excruciating, wavelike, and radiating toward the genitalia
In a patient with AKI, which laboratory urinalysis result indicates tubular damage? a. Hematuria b. Specific gravity fixed at 1.010 c. Urine sodium of 12 mEq/L (12 mmol/L) d. Osmolality of 1000 mOsm/kg (1000 mmol/kg)
b. A urine specific gravity that is consistently 1.010 and a urine osmolality of about 300 mOsm/kg is the same specific gravity and osmolality as plasma. This indicates that tubules are damaged and unable to concentrate urine. Hematuria is more common with postrenal damage. Tubular damage is associated with a high sodium concentration (greater than 40 mEq/L).
In which type of dialysis does the patient dialyze during sleep and leave the fluid in the abdomen during the day? a. Long nocturnal hemodialysis b. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) c. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) d. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
b. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) is the type of dialysis in which the patient dialyzes during sleep and leaves the fluid in the abdomen during the day. Long nocturnal hemodialysis occurs while the patient is sleeping and is done up to six times per week. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) is a type of continuous renal replacement therapy used to treat AKI. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is dialysis that is done with exchanges of 1.5 to 3 L of dialysate at least four times daily.
In which type of dialysis does the patient dialyze during sleep and leave the fluid in the abdomen during the day? a. Long nocturnal hemodialysis b. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) c. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) d. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
b. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) is the type of dialysis in which the patient dialyzes during sleep and leaves the fluid in the abdomen during the day. Long nocturnal hemodialysis occurs while the patient is sleeping and is done up to six times per week. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) is a type of continuous renal replacement therapy used to treat AKI. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is dialysis that is done with exchanges of 1.5 to 3 L of dialysate at least four times daily.
A client is being admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of urolithiasis and ureteral colic. The nurse assesses the client for pain that is: a) dull and aching in the costovetebal area b) aching and camplike thoughout the abdomen c) sharp and radiating posteriorly to the spinal column d) excruciating, wavelike, and radiating toward the genitalia
d) excruciating, wavelike, and radiating toward the genitalia
The client with chronic renal failure who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: a) during dialysis b) just before dialysis c) the day after dialysis d) on return form dialysis
d) on return form dialysis
A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure resulting from hypertension has AKI as a result of the effects of nephrotoxic diuretics. Currently his serum potassium is 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L) with cardiac changes, his BUN is 108 mg/dL (38.6 mmol/L), his serum creatinine is 4.1 mg/dL (362 mmol/L), and his serum HCO3 − is 14 mEq/L (14 mmol/L). He is somnolent and disoriented. Which treatment should the nurse expect to be used for him? a. Loop diuretics b. Renal replacement therapy c. Insulin and sodium bicarbonate d. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
b. This patient has at least three of the six common indications for renal replacement therapy (RRT), including (1) high potassium level, (2) metabolic acidosis, and (3) changed mental status. The other indications are (4) volume overload, resulting in compromised cardiac status (this patient has a history of hypertension), (5) BUN greater than 120 mg/dL, and (6) pericarditis, pericardial effusion, or cardiac tamponade. Although the other treatments may be used, they will not be as effective as RRT for this older patient. Loop diuretics and increased fluid are used if the patient is dehydrated. Insulin and sodium bicarbonate can be used to temporarily drive the potassium into the cells. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to actually decrease the amount of potassium in the body.
A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure resulting from hypertension has AKI as a result of the effects of nephrotoxic diuretics. Currently his serum potassium is 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L) with cardiac changes, his BUN is 108 mg/dL (38.6 mmol/L), his serum creatinine is 4.1 mg/dL (362 mmol/L), and his serum HCO3 − is 14 mEq/L (14 mmol/L). He is somnolent and disoriented. Which treatment should the nurse expect to be used for him? a. Loop diuretics b. Renal replacement therapy c. Insulin and sodium bicarbonate d. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
b. This patient has at least three of the six common indications for renal replacement therapy (RRT), including (1) high potassium level, (2) metabolic acidosis, and (3) changed mental status. The other indications are (4) volume overload, resulting in compromised cardiac status (this patient has a history of hypertension), (5) BUN greater than 120 mg/dL, and (6) pericarditis, pericardial effusion, or cardiac tamponade. Although the other treatments may be used, they will not be as effective as RRT for this older patient. Loop diuretics and increased fluid are used if the patient is dehydrated. Insulin and sodium bicarbonate can be used to temporarily drive the potassium into the cells. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to actually decrease the amount of potassium in the body.
A adult client has had laboratory work done as part of a routine physical examination. The nurse interprets that the client may have a mild degree of renal insufficiency if which of the following serum creatinine levels is noted? a) 0.2 mg/dlL b) 0.5 mg/dL c) 1.9 mg/dL d) 3.5 mg/dL
c) 1.9 mg/dL the normal serum creatinine level foadults is 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. The client with a mild degree of renal insufficiency would have a slight elevated level. A creatinie level of 0.2 mg/dL is low, and a level of 0.5 mg/dL is just below normal. A creeatinie level of 3.5 mg/dL may be associated with acute or chronic renal failure.
A adult client has had laboratory work done as part of a routine physical examination. The nurse interprets that the client may have a mild degree of renal insufficiency if which of the following serum creatinine levels is noted? a) 0.2 mg/dlL b) 0.5 mg/dL c) 1.9 mg/dL d) 3.5 mg/dL
c) 1.9 mg/dL the normal serum creatinine level foadults is 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. The client with a mild degree of renal insufficiency would have a slight elevated level. A creatinie level of 0.2 mg/dL is low, and a level of 0.5 mg/dL is just below normal. A creeatinie level of 3.5 mg/dL may be associated with acute or chronic renal failure.
A client who has a renal mass asks the nurse why an ultrasound has been scheduled, as opposed to other diagnostic tests that may be ordered. The nurse formulates a response based on the understanding that: a) all other tests are more invasive than an ultrasound b) all other tests require more elaborate postprocedure care c) an ultrasound can differentiate a solid mass from a fluid-filled cyst d) an ultrasound is much more cost effective than other diagnostic tests
c) an ultrasound can differentiate a solid mass from a fluid-filled cyst
Situation: Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. The diagnosis of Idiopathic Nephrotic Syndrome has been confirmed. Which unexpected finding would the nurse report? a) proteinuria b) distended abdomen c) blood in the urine d) elevated serum lipid levels
c) blood in the urine hematuria is rare in nephrotic syndrome but it is profuse is acute glomerulonephritis The manifestations of nephrotic syndrome are: Proteinuria - nephrosis is believed to be due to immunologic response that results in increased permeability of glomerular membrane to proteins resulting in massive protein losses in the urine -- proteinuria and albuminuria (+3 +4), the child losses 50-100 mg/kg weight/day from proteinuria. Hypoalbuminemia - loss of protein in blood results in hypoalbumenimia Edema - cardinal sign and appears first in the periorbital region followed by dependent edema and accompanied by pallor, fatigue and lethargy. Hypoalbuminemia leads to decreased oncotic pressure resulting in fluid shift from intravascular to interstitial causing generalized edema or anasarca.The child has lost appetite but gained weight -- puffiness of the eyes on awakening decreases during the day but appears on the legs and abdomen. Fluid shift causes decreased blood volume that leads to decreased blood supply to kidney. Decreased blood supply to kidney initiates release of aldosterone. Aldosterone causes sodium retention (in interstitial spaces so child will have hyponatremia) and water retention contributing to edema. Hypocholesteronemia and hyperlipidemia - triglycerides and fats are released by the liver in the blood to make up for the protein loss
Situation: Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. The diagnosis of Idiopathic Nephrotic Syndrome has been confirmed. Which unexpected finding would the nurse report? a) proteinuria b) distended abdomen c) blood in the urine d) elevated serum lipid levels
c) blood in the urine hematuria is rare in nephrotic syndrome but it is profuse is acute glomerulonephritis The manifestations of nephrotic syndrome are: Proteinuria - nephrosis is believed to be due to immunologic response that results in increased permeability of glomerular membrane to proteins resulting in massive protein losses in the urine -- proteinuria and albuminuria (+3 +4), the child losses 50-100 mg/kg weight/day from proteinuria. Hypoalbuminemia - loss of protein in blood results in hypoalbumenimia Edema - cardinal sign and appears first in the periorbital region followed by dependent edema and accompanied by pallor, fatigue and lethargy. Hypoalbuminemia leads to decreased oncotic pressure resulting in fluid shift from intravascular to interstitial causing generalized edema or anasarca.The child has lost appetite but gained weight -- puffiness of the eyes on awakening decreases during the day but appears on the legs and abdomen. Fluid shift causes decreased blood volume that leads to decreased blood supply to kidney. Decreased blood supply to kidney initiates release of aldosterone. Aldosterone causes sodium retention (in interstitial spaces so child will have hyponatremia) and water retention contributing to edema. Hypocholesteronemia and hyperlipidemia - triglycerides and fats are released by the liver in the blood to make up for the protein loss
The client in end-stage of renal failure had undergone kidney transplant. Which of the following assessment findings indicate kidney transplant rejection? a) increased urinary output, BUN = 15 mg/dL b) HCT = 50%, Hgb = 17 g/dl c) decreased urinary output, sudden weight gain d) decreased urinary output, sudden weight loss
c) decreased urinary output, sudden weight gain
The patient with chronic kidney disease is considering whether to use peritoneal dialysis (PD) or hemodialysis (HD). What are advantages of PD when compared to HD (select all that apply)? a. Less protein loss b. Rapid fluid removal c. Less cardiovascular stress d. Decreased hyperlipidemia e. Requires fewer dietary restrictions
c, e. Peritoneal dialysis is less stressful for the cardiovascular system and requires fewer dietary restrictions. Peritoneal dialysis actually contributes to more protein loss and increased hyperlipidemia. The fluid and creatinine removal are slower with peritoneal dialysis than hemodialysis.
Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Carlo's potential for impairment of skin integrity is related to: a) joint inflammation b) drug therapy c) edema d) generalized body rash
c) edema - management: reduce protein excretion Prevention of Skin Breakdown from Edema frequent turning keep nails short to prevent scratching meticulous skin care to dependent and edematous areas - sacrum, scrotum, labia, abdomen, legs loose clothing Monitor Edema weigh daily and monitor I and O check for pulmonary edema manifested by crackles on auscultation ascites - measure abdominal girth Prevention of Infection - pulmonary edema predisposes to respiratory infection and generalized edema predisposes to skin breakdown. Avoid contact with persons who have infection. Diet - usually anorexic because of GI edema high protein diet sodium restriction if with severe edema fluid intake equal to output and insensible loss vitamin and iron supplements small feedings, give favorite foods
Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Carlo's potential for impairment of skin integrity is related to: a) joint inflammation b) drug therapy c) edema d) generalized body rash
c) edema - management: reduce protein excretion Prevention of Skin Breakdown from Edema frequent turning keep nails short to prevent scratching meticulous skin care to dependent and edematous areas - sacrum, scrotum, labia, abdomen, legs loose clothing Monitor Edema weigh daily and monitor I and O check for pulmonary edema manifested by crackles on auscultation ascites - measure abdominal girth Prevention of Infection - pulmonary edema predisposes to respiratory infection and generalized edema predisposes to skin breakdown. Avoid contact with persons who have infection. Diet - usually anorexic because of GI edema high protein diet sodium restriction if with severe edema fluid intake equal to output and insensible loss vitamin and iron supplements small feedings, give favorite foods
The home care nurse is making follow-up visits to a client following renal transplant. The nurse assesses the client for which signs of acute graft rejection? a) hypotension, graft tenderness, and anemia b) hypertension, oliguria, thirst, and hypothermia c) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise d) fever, vomiting, hypotension, and copious amounts of dilute urine
c) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise
The home care nurse is making follow-up visits to a client following renal transplant. The nurse assesses the client for which signs of acute graft rejection? a) hypotension, graft tenderness, and anemia b) hypertension, oliguria, thirst, and hypothermia c) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise d) fever, vomiting, hypotension, and copious amounts of dilute urine
c) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise
The nurse has completed client teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the best understands the information if the client states to record daily the: a) amount of activity b) pulse and respiratory rate c) intake and output and weight d) blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
c) intake and output and weight
Which of the following complaints is common in a client with pyelonephritis? a) right upper quadrant pain b) left upper quadrant pain c) pain at the costovertebral region d) pain at the suprapubic region
c) pain at the costovertebral region
Which of the following complaints is common in a client with pyelonephritis? a) right upper quadrant pain b) left upper quadrant pain c) pain at the costovertebral region d) pain at the suprapubic region
c) pain at the costovertebral region
A client has been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. Sodium polysterene sulfonate (exchange resin kayexalate) is prescribed. The action of the medication is that it releases a) bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions b) sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions c) sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions d) potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions
c) sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions
A client has been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. Sodium polysterene sulfonate (exchange resin kayexalate) is prescribed. The action of the medication is that it releases a) bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions b) sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions c) sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions d) potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions
c) sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions
The client arrives at the emergency department with complaints of low abdominal pain and hematuria. The client is afebrile. The nurse next assesses the client to determine a history of: a) pyelonephritis b) glomerulonephritis c) trauma to the bladder or abdomen d) renal cancer in the client's family
c) trauma to the bladder or abdomen Use the process of elimination. Eliminate options A and B, knowing that any inflammatory disease or infection is accompanied by fever. Because this client is afebrile, these are not possible options. Use knowledge of anatomy and pain assessment to select option C. Pain from renal cancer is a later finding and is localized in the flank area.
The client arrives at the emergency department with complaints of low abdominal pain and hematuria. The client is afebrile. The nurse next assesses the client to determine a history of: a) pyelonephritis b) glomerulonephritis c) trauma to the bladder or abdomen d) renal cancer in the client's family
c) trauma to the bladder or abdomen Use the process of elimination. Eliminate options A and B, knowing that any inflammatory disease or infection is accompanied by fever. Because this client is afebrile, these are not possible options. Use knowledge of anatomy and pain assessment to select option C. Pain from renal cancer is a later finding and is localized in the flank area.
An 83-year-old female patient was found lying on the bathroom floor. She said she fell 2 days ago and has not been able to take her heart medicine or eat or drink anything since then. What conditions could be causing prerenal AKI in this patient (select all that apply)? a. Anaphylaxis b. Renal calculi c. Hypovolemia d. Nephrotoxic drugs e. Decreased cardiac output
c, e. Because the patient has had nothing to eat or drink for 2 days, she is probably dehydrated and hypovolemic. Decreased cardiac output (CO) is most likely because she is older and takes heart medicine, which is probably for heart failure or hypertension. Both hypovolemia and decreased CO cause prerenal AKI. Anaphylaxis is also a cause of prerenal AKI but is not likely in this situation. Nephrotoxic drugs would contribute to intrarenal causes of AKI and renal calculi would be a postrenal cause of AKI.
A patient on hemodialysis develops a thrombus of a subcutaneous arteriovenous (AV) graft, requiring its removal. While waiting for a replacement graft or fistula, the patient is most likely to have what done for treatment? a. Peritoneal dialysis b. Peripheral vascular access using radial artery c. Silastic catheter tunneled subcutaneously to the jugular vein d. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line inserted into subclavian vein
c. A more permanent, soft, flexible Silastic double-lumen catheter is used for long-term access when other forms of vascular access have failed. These catheters are tunneled subcutaneously and have Dacron cuffs that prevent infection from tracking along the catheter.
A client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. During history-taking the nurse first asks the client about a recent history of: a) bleeding ulcer b) deep vein thrombosis c) myocardial infarction d) streptococcal infection
d) streptococcal infection
A client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. During history-taking the nurse first asks the client about a recent history of: a) bleeding ulcer b) deep vein thrombosis c) myocardial infarction d) streptococcal infection
d) streptococcal infection
A client is scheduled for computed tomography (CT) of the kidneys to rule out renal disease. As an essential preprocedure component of the nursing assessment, the nurse plans to ask the client about a history of: a) familial renal disease b) frequent antibiotic use c) long-term diuretic therapy d) allergy to shellfish or iodine
d) allergy to shellfish or iodine
The nurse develops a post-procedure plan of care for a client who had a renal biopsy. The nurse avoids documenting which intervention in the plan? a) administering analgesics as needed b) encouraging fluids to at least 3L in the first 24 hours c) testing serial urine samples with dipstick for occult blood d) ambulating the client in the room and hall for short distances
d) ambulating the client in the room and hall for short distances
The nurse develops a post-procedure plan of care for a client who had a renal biopsy. The nurse avoids documenting which intervention in the plan? a) administering analgesics as needed b) encouraging fluids to at least 3L in the first 24 hours c) testing serial urine samples with dipstick for occult blood d) ambulating the client in the room and hall for short distances
d) ambulating the client in the room and hall for short distances
Which of the following anti-hypertensive medications is contraindicated for clients with renal insufficiency? a) beta-adrenergic blockers b) calcium-channel blockers c) direct-acting vasodilators d) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
d) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
Which of the following may be included in the diet of the client with chronic renal failure? a) orange slices b) watermelon slices c) cantaloupe slices d) apple slices
d) apple slices the client with renal failure should be given low potassium diet because of hyperkalemia. Apple contains very little potassium. So, it can be given to the client.
Which of the following may be included in the diet of the client with chronic renal failure? a) orange slices b) watermelon slices c) cantaloupe slices d) apple slices
d) apple slices the client with renal failure should be given low potassium diet because of hyperkalemia. Apple contains very little potassium. So, it can be given to the client.
A client has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in place in the right upper extremity for hemodialysis treatments. When planning care for this client, which of the following measures should the nurse implement to promote client safely? a) take blood pressures only on the right arm to ensure accuracy b) use the fistula for all venipunctures and intravenous infusions c) ensure that small clamps are attached to the AV fistula dressing d) assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours
d) assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours
A client has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in place in the right upper extremity for hemodialysis treatments. When planning care for this client, which of the following measures should the nurse implement to promote client safely? a) take blood pressures only on the right arm to ensure accuracy b) use the fistula for all venipunctures and intravenous infusions c) ensure that small clamps are attached to the AV fistula dressing d) assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours
d) assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours
The client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. The priority nurse action would be to: a) check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill b) observe the site once as time permits during the shift c) check the results of the prothrombin time as they are determined d) ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing
d) ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing - An arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because two ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours.
The client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. The priority nurse action would be to: a) check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill b) observe the site once as time permits during the shift c) check the results of the prothrombin time as they are determined d) ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing
d) ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing - An arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because two ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours.
What are intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) (select all that apply)? a. Anaphylaxis b. Renal stones c. Bladder cancer d. Nephrotoxic drugs e. Acute glomerulonephritis f. Tubular obstruction by myoglobin
d, e, f. Intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) include conditions that cause direct damage to the kidney tissue, including nephrotoxic drugs, acute glomerulonephritis, and tubular obstruction by myoglobin, or prolonged ischemia. Anaphylaxis and other prerenal problems are frequently the initial cause of AKI. Renal stones and bladder cancer are among the postrenal causes of AKI.
Priority Decision: What is the most appropriate snack for the nurse to offer a patient with stage 4 CKD? a. Raisins b. Ice cream c. Dill pickles d. Hard candy
d. A patient with CKD may have unlimited intake of sugars and starches (unless the patient is diabetic) and hard candy is an appropriate snack and may help to relieve the metallic and urine taste that is common in the mouth. Raisins are a high-potassium food. Ice cream contains protein and phosphate and counts as fluid. Pickled foods have high sodium content. Lewis, Sharon L.; Dirksen, Shannon Ruff; Bucher, Linda (2014-03-14). Study Guide for Medical-Surgical Nursing: Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems (Study Guide for Medical-Surgical Nursing: Assessment & Management of Clinical Problem) (Page 413). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common cause of intrarenal AKI. Which patient is most likely to develop ATN? a. Patient with diabetes mellitus b. Patient with hypertensive crisis c. Patient who tried to overdose on acetaminophen d. Patient with major surgery who required a blood transfusion
d. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is primarily the result of ischemia, nephrotoxins, or sepsis. Major surgery is most likely to cause severe kidney ischemia in the patient requiring a blood transfusion. A blood transfusion hemolytic reaction produces nephrotoxic injury if it occurs. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and acetaminophen overdose will not contribute to ATN.
A patient rapidly progressing toward end-stage kidney disease asks about the possibility of a kidney transplant. In responding to the patient, the nurse knows that what is a contraindication to kidney transplantation? a. Hepatitis C infection b. Coronary artery disease c. Refractory hypertension d. Extensive vascular disease
d. Extensive vascular disease is a contraindication for renal transplantation, primarily because adequate blood supply is essential for the health of the new kidney. Other contraindications include disseminated malignancies, refractory or untreated cardiac disease, chronic respiratory failure, chronic infection, or unresolved psychosocial disorders. Coronary artery disease (CAD) may be treated with bypass surgery before transplantation and transplantation can relieve hypertension. Hepatitis B or C infection is not a contraindication.
A patient rapidly progressing toward end-stage kidney disease asks about the possibility of a kidney transplant. In responding to the patient, the nurse knows that what is a contraindication to kidney transplantation? a. Hepatitis C infection b. Coronary artery disease c. Refractory hypertension d. Extensive vascular disease
d. Extensive vascular disease is a contraindication for renal transplantation, primarily because adequate blood supply is essential for the health of the new kidney. Other contraindications include disseminated malignancies, refractory or untreated cardiac disease, chronic respiratory failure, chronic infection, or unresolved psychosocial disorders. Coronary artery disease (CAD) may be treated with bypass surgery before transplantation and transplantation can relieve hypertension. Hepatitis B or C infection is not a contraindication.
While caring for the patient in the oliguric phase of AKI, the nurse monitors the patient for associated collaborative problems. When should the nurse notify the health care provider? a. Urine output is 300 mL/day. b. Edema occurs in the feet, legs, and sacral area. c. Cardiac monitor reveals a depressed T wave and elevated ST segment. d. The patient experiences increasing muscle weakness and abdominal cramping.
d. Hyperkalemia is a potentially life-threatening complication of AKI in the oliguric phase. Muscle weakness and abdominal cramping are signs of the neuromuscular impairment that occurs with hyperkalemia. In addition, hyperkalemia can cause the cardiac conduction abnormalities of peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, prolonged QRS interval, and depressed ST segment. Urine output of 300 mL/day is expected during the oliguric phase, as is the development of peripheral edema.
While caring for the patient in the oliguric phase of AKI, the nurse monitors the patient for associated collaborative problems. When should the nurse notify the health care provider? a. Urine output is 300 mL/day. b. Edema occurs in the feet, legs, and sacral area. c. Cardiac monitor reveals a depressed T wave and elevated ST segment. d. The patient experiences increasing muscle weakness and abdominal cramping.
d. Hyperkalemia is a potentially life-threatening complication of AKI in the oliguric phase. Muscle weakness and abdominal cramping are signs of the neuromuscular impairment that occurs with hyperkalemia. In addition, hyperkalemia can cause the cardiac conduction abnormalities of peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, prolonged QRS interval, and depressed ST segment. Urine output of 300 mL/day is expected during the oliguric phase, as is the development of peripheral edema.
What accurately describes the care of the patient with CKD? a. A nutrient that is commonly supplemented for the patient on dialysis because it is dialyzable is iron. b. The syndrome that includes all of the signs and symptoms seen in the various body systems in CKD is azotemia. c. The use of morphine is contraindicated in the patient with CKD because accumulation of its metabolites may cause seizures. d. The use of calcium-based phosphate binders in the patient with CKD is contraindicated when serum calcium levels are increased.
d. In the patient with CKD, when serum calcium levels are increased, calcium-based phosphate binders are not used. The nutrient supplemented for patients on dialysis is folic acid. The various body system manifestations occur with uremia, which includes azotemia. Meperidine is contraindicated in patients with CKD related to possible seizures.
What accurately describes the care of the patient with CKD? a. A nutrient that is commonly supplemented for the patient on dialysis because it is dialyzable is iron. b. The syndrome that includes all of the signs and symptoms seen in the various body systems in CKD is azotemia. c. The use of morphine is contraindicated in the patient with CKD because accumulation of its metabolites may cause seizures. d. The use of calcium-based phosphate binders in the patient with CKD is contraindicated when serum calcium levels are increased.
d. In the patient with CKD, when serum calcium levels are increased, calcium-based phosphate binders are not used. The nutrient supplemented for patients on dialysis is folic acid. The various body system manifestations occur with uremia, which includes azotemia. Meperidine is contraindicated in patients with CKD related to possible seizures.
In caring for the patient with AKI, what should the nurse be aware of? a. The most common cause of death in AKI is irreversible metabolic acidosis. b. During the oliguric phase of AKI, daily fluid intake is limited to 1000 mL plus the prior day's measured fluid loss. c. Dietary sodium and potassium during the oliguric phase of AKI are managed according to the patient's urinary output. d. One of the most important nursing measures in managing fluid balance in the patient with AKI is taking accurate daily weights.
d. Measuring daily weights with the same scale at the same time each day allows for the evaluation and detection of excessive body fluid gains or losses. Infection is the leading cause of death in AKI, so meticulous aseptic technique is critical. The fluid limitation in the oliguric phase is 600 mL plus the prior day's measured fluid loss. Dietary sodium and potassium intake are managed according to the plasma levels.
In caring for the patient with AKI, what should the nurse be aware of? a. The most common cause of death in AKI is irreversible metabolic acidosis. b. During the oliguric phase of AKI, daily fluid intake is limited to 1000 mL plus the prior day's measured fluid loss. c. Dietary sodium and potassium during the oliguric phase of AKI are managed according to the patient's urinary output. d. One of the most important nursing measures in managing fluid balance in the patient with AKI is taking accurate daily weights.
d. Measuring daily weights with the same scale at the same time each day allows for the evaluation and detection of excessive body fluid gains or losses. Infection is the leading cause of death in AKI, so meticulous aseptic technique is critical. The fluid limitation in the oliguric phase is 600 mL plus the prior day's measured fluid loss. Dietary sodium and potassium intake are managed according to the plasma levels.
Lets discuss Peritoneal Dialysis
🔺Catheter inserted into abdominal wall (looks like a G tube but lower and more central). 🔺Dialysis solution instilled (2L) and remains in peritoneal cavity it stays there for 6 hours and when it comes out it looks like urine and is normally a larger amount. 🔺Dialysis solution later drained.
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD r/t the Reproductive System?
🔺Decreased Hormone Levels 🔺Infertility
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD r/t the Cardiovascular System?
🔺HTN 🔺Edema 🔺CHF 🔺Cardiac Arrhythmias 🔺Uremic Pericarditis 🔺Anemia 🔺Clotting Defects
What are some advantage to Peritoneal Dialysis?
🔺Home and/or mobile. 🔺Fewer dietary restrictions. 🔺Preferred for diabetics and those with poor access.
How is Hyperkalemia treated in CKD?
🔺IV Glucose & Insulin. 🔺Calcium Glutinate IV 🔺Kayexalate (PO)
What can Peritoneal dialysis cause?
🔺Infection 🔺Cramping 🔺Respiratory Issues
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD r/t the Respiratory System?
🔺Kussmaul's respirations 🔺Dyspnea 🔺Pneumonia
Lets discuss Hemodialysis
🔺Machine, blood is removed through vascular access device (VAD). 🔺Blood filtered through synthetic membrane in machine. 🔺Filtered blood returned through same VAD. 🔺200cc blood leaving the body at one time and a small amount of Heparin. 🔺Process lasts for 2-5 hours and is for 3 times a week.
What are the goals of Dialysis?
🔺Remove waste products and fluid. 🔺Correct electrolytes and acidosis.
What are the clinical manifestation of CKD r/t the Gastrointestinal System?
🔺Ulceration and bleeding of GI mucosa. 🔺Anorexia (metallic taste). 🔺Nausea. 🔺Bowel problems (constipation and diarrhea).
