respiratory prepU
A 4-year-old with bronchiolitis has been admitted to the hospital with respiratory compromise. The father asks the nurse why the physician won't prescribe an antibiotic, "My child just keeps getting worse." What is the best response by the nurse? "Bronchiolitis is almost always caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Unfortunately, antibiotics don't work on viruses." "You have a very good physician who I trust completely. I'm sure everything possible is being done for your child." "Oftentimes it is more beneficial to treat the symptoms of bronchiolitis rather than try to kill the bacteria with an antibiotic." "Your physician probably doesn't want to take a chance of your child building up an immunity to the antibiotic in case the condition worsens and more antibiotics are needed."
"Bronchiolitis is almost always caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Unfortunately, antibiotics don't work on viruses." Bronchiolitis is an acute inflammatory process of the bronchioles and small bronchi. Nearly always caused by a viral pathogen, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) accounts for the majority of cases of bronchiolitis; therefore, antibiotic therapy is not warranted.
The nurse is conducting a wellness class about how to decrease the risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is the most important point the nurse should emphasize? Participate regularly in aerobic exercises. Maintain a high-protein diet. Avoid exposure to people with known respiratory infections. Abstain from cigarette smoking.
Abstain from cigarette smoking. Cigarette smoking is the primary cause of COPD. Other risk factors include exposure to environmental pollutants and chronic asthma. Participating in an aerobic exercise program, although beneficial, will not decrease the risk for COPD. Insufficient protein intake and exposure to people with respiratory infections do not increase the risk for COPD.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oxygen therapy for pneumonia. How should the nurse best assess whether the patient is hypoxemic? Assess the patient's level of consciousness (LOC). Assess the patient's extremities for signs of cyanosis. Assess the patient's oxygen saturation level. Review the patient's hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels.
Assess the patient's oxygen saturation level. The effectiveness of the patient's oxygen therapy is assessed by the ABG analysis or pulse oximetry. ABG results may not be readily available. Presence or absence of cyanosis is not an accurate indicator of oxygen effectiveness. The patient's LOC may be affected by hypoxia, but not every change in LOC is related to oxygenation. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels do not directly reflect current oxygenation status.
The experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN) under the supervision of the registered nurse (RN) team leader is providing nursing care for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus. Which task(s) are appropriate for the RN to delegate to the LPN/VN? Select all that apply. Auscultate breath sounds. Administer prescribed aerosolized medications. Initiate the nursing care plan. Check oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry. Complete an in-depth admission assessment. Evaluate the parent's ability to administer aerosolized medications.
Auscultate breath sounds, Administer prescribed aerosolized medications and Check oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry. LPN/VNs work collaboratively with colleagues in health care to assess, plan, and deliver quality nursing services. The experienced LPN/VN is capable of gathering data and observations, including breath sounds and pulse oximetry. Administering medications, such as aerosolized medications, is within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN. The actions that are within the scope of practice for the professional RN include independently completing the admission assessment, initiating the nursing care plan, and evaluating a parent's abilities, as these activities require additional education and skills.
The nurse is caring for a patient suspected of having ARDS. What is the most likely diagnostic test ordered in the early stages of this disease to differentiate the patient's symptoms from those of a cardiac etiology? Carboxyhemoglobin level Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level C-reactive protein (CRP) level Complete blood count
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level Common diagnostic tests performed for patients with potential ARDS include plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels, echocardiography, and pulmonary artery catheterization. The BNP level is helpful in distinguishing ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The carboxyhemoglobin level will be increased in a client with an inhalation injury, which commonly progresses into ARDS. CRP and CBC levels do not help differentiate from a cardiac problem.
A nurse caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis must be especially alert for complications such as pulmonary embolism. Which findings suggest pulmonary embolism? Nonproductive cough and abdominal pain Hypertension and lack of fever Bradypnea and bradycardia Chest pain and dyspnea
Chest pain and dyspnea As an embolus occludes a pulmonary artery, it blocks the supply of oxygenated blood to the heart, causing chest pain. It also blocks blood flow to the lungs, causing dyspnea. The client with pulmonary embolism typically has a cough that produces blood-tinged sputum (rather than a nonproductive cough) and chest pain (rather than abdominal pain). Hypertension, absence of fever, bradypnea, and bradycardia aren't associated with pulmonary embolism.
A nurse is caring for a newborn with asphyxia. Which nursing management is involved when treating a newborn with asphyxia? Ensure adequate tissue perfusion. Ensure effective resuscitation measures. Administer IV fluids. Administer surfactant as prescribed.
Ensure effective resuscitation measures. Explanation: Ensuring effective resuscitation measures is the nursing intervention involved when treating a newborn for asphyxia. Ensuring adequate tissue perfusion and administering surfactant are nursing interventions involved in the care of newborns with meconium aspiration syndrome. Similarly, administering IV fluids is a nursing intervention involved in the care of newborns with transient tachypnea.
How would an occupational health nurse in a large ceramic manufacturing company intervene to prevent occupational lung disease in the employees of the company?' Fit all employees with protective masks. Insist on adequate breaks for each employee. Give workshops on disease prevention. Provide employees with smoking cessation materials.
Fit all employees with protective masks. The primary focus is prevention, with frequent examination of those who work in areas of highly concentrated dust or gases. Laws require work areas to be safe in terms of dust control, ventilation, protective masks, hoods, industrial respirators, and other protection. Workers are encouraged to practice healthy behaviors, such as quitting smoking. Adequate breaks, giving workshops, and providing smoking cessation materials do not prevent occupational lung diseases.
A nurse who works in a critical care setting is caring for an adult female patient who was diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and promptly placed on positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP). When planning this patient's care, what nursing diagnosis should be prioritized? Impaired gas exchange Risk for aspiration Acute pain Anxiety
Impaired gas exchange Anxiety and pain are both possible during treatment for ARDS. However, maintenance of the patient's airway with the goal of facilitating gas exchange is an absolute priority. The patient's risk of aspiration is low due to NPO status and the presence of inline suctioning.
The nurse is caring for a patient at risk for atelectasis. The nurse implements a first-line measure to prevent atelectasis development in the patient. What is an example of a first-line measure to minimize atelectasis? Incentive spirometry Intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) Bronchoscopy
Incentive spirometry Strategies to prevent atelectasis, which include frequent turning, early ambulation, lung-volume expansion maneuvers (deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry), and coughing, serve as the first-line measures to minimize or treat atelectasis by improving ventilation. In patients who do not respond to first-line measures or who cannot perform deep-breathing exercises, other treatments such as positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), continuous or intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB), or bronchoscopy may be used.
A client who sustained a pulmonary contusion in a motor vehicle crash develops a pulmonary embolism. What is the priority nursing concern with this client? Excess fluid volume Acute pain Ineffective breathing pattern Activity intolerance
Ineffective breathing pattern Ineffective breathing pattern takes priority for a client with a pulmonary contusion with a pulmonary embolism. The objective of immediate management is to restore and maintain cardiopulmonary function. After an adequate airway is ensured and ventilation is established, examination for shock and intrathoracic and intra-abdominal injuries is necessary. Fluid volume, pain, and activity intolerance are not priority concerns.
The nurse is planning care with a client who 2 days earlier had a total laryngectomy with creation of a new tracheostomy. Which is a priority goal for the client? Decrease secretions. Learn to care for the tracheostomy. Relieve anxiety related to the tracheostomy. Maintain a patent airway.
Maintain a patent airway. The main goal for a client with a new tracheostomy is to maintain a patent airway. A fresh tracheostomy frequently causes bleeding and excess secretions, and clients may require frequent suctioning to maintain patency. Decreasing secretions may be a component of a client's care after laryngectomy and tracheostomy, and relieving anxiety is always an important goal; however, the primary goal is to maintain a patent airway. Instruction on how to care for a tracheostomy is a priority later in the client's recovery.
The student nurse is learning breath sounds while listening to a client in the physician's office. An experienced nurse is assisting and notes air movement over the trachea to the upper lungs. The air movement is noted equally on inspiration and expiration. Which breath sounds would the nurse document? Abnormal vesicular sounds Normal bronchial sounds Normal bronchovesicular sounds Abnormal bronchial sounds
Normal bronchovesicular sounds Air movement over the trachea and upper lungs is a normal finding for bronchovesicular sounds. The air movement is noted equally on inspiration and expiration. The other choices do not match the description.
A 3-month-old infant has been diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and will begin treatment with inhaled ribavirin. Which of the following measures should be taken in the care of this patient and administration of ribavirin? Serial sputum samples should be obtained daily for the duration of treatment. Pulmonary function testing should be performed immediately before and 30 minutes after each dose of the drug. Nurses who are pregnant or who may be pregnant should not administer the drug. The drug should be administered by a physician or a nurse practitioner.
Nurses who are pregnant or who may be pregnant should not administer the drug. Ribavirin is a pregnancy category X drug, and should not be administered by a nurse who is, or may be, pregnant. Serial sputum samples and lung function testing is not indicated and it is unnecessary to restrict the administration of ribavirin to nurse practitioners and physicians.
A firefighter was trapped in a fire and is admitted to the ICU for smoke inhalation. After 12 hours, the firefighter is exhibiting signs of ARDS and is intubated. What other supportive measures are initiated in a patient with ARDS? Psychological counseling Nutritional support High-protein oral diet Occupational therapy
Nutritional support Aggressive, supportive care must be provided to compensate for the severe respiratory dysfunction. This supportive therapy almost always includes intubation and mechanical ventilation. In addition, circulatory support, adequate fluid volume, and nutritional support are important. Oral intake is contraindicated by intubation. Counseling and occupational therapy would not be priorities during the acute stage of ARDS.
The nurse is caring for a 6-week-old with symptoms of irritability, nasal stuffiness, difficulty drinking and occasional vomiting. Which assessment finding produces important information regarding the medical and nursing treatment plan? Obtain testing for respiratory syncytial virus. Screen for the "allergic salute." Obtain vital signs to determine an infection. Draw a blood count to see if the client is septic.
Obtain testing for respiratory syncytial virus. The symptoms presented are of acute nasopharyngitis. Many times this is viral in nature and can be common in the very young from respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). RSV is tested by obtaining nasal secretions and sending to the lab. A 6-week-old may rub his/her face but is too young for the "allergic salute," which is done to relieve itching and open nasal pathways. Vital signs can be helpful to note the beginning of an infectious process.
6-month-old infant who was born premature is being seen for a follow-up examination. The child is to receive an intramuscular injection monthly through the winter and spring season. Which drug would the nurse expect to be ordered? Palivizumab Nedocromil Amantadine Zanamivir
Palivizumab Palivizumab is a monoclonal antibody used for prevention of serious lower respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) disease. RSV bronchiolitis occurs most often in infants and toddlers, with a peak incidence around 6 months of age. Infants born prematurely are more at risk. The peak occurrence of bronchiolitis is in the winter and spring. Nedocromil decreases the frequency and intensity of allergic reactions. Amantadine is used to treat and prevent influenza A. Zanamivir is used to treat and prevent influenza A.
A nurse prepares to suction a client's tracheostomy tube. Place the procedure steps in correct order.
Position the client in Fowlers position. Don sterile gloves. Lubricate the sterile suction catheter. Insert suction catheter into the lumen of the tube. Apply intermittent suction while withdrawing the catheter.
An 18-year-old client has given birth at 28 weeks' gestation and her newborn is showing signs of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which statement is true for a newborn with RDS? Glucocorticoid (GC) is given to the newborn following birth. RDS is caused by a lack of alveolar surfactant. Respiratory symptoms of RDS typically improve within a short period of time. RDS is characterized by heart rates below 50 beats per minute.
RDS is caused by a lack of alveolar surfactant. Explanation: Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is a serious breathing disorder caused by a lack of alveolar surfactant. Betamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is often given to the mother 12 to 24 hours before a preterm birth to help reduce the severity of RDS, not to the newborn following birth. Respiratory symptoms in the newborn with RDS typically worsen, not improve, within a short period of time after birth. Diagnosis of RDS is made based on a chest X-ray and the clinical symptoms of increasing respiratory distress, crackles, generalized cyanosis, and heart rates exceeding 150 beats per minute (not below 50 beats per minute).
The nurse is assessing a client who, after an extensive surgical procedure, is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse assesses for which most common early sign of ARDS? Rapid onset of severe dyspnea Inspiratory crackles Bilateral wheezing Cyanosis
Rapid onset of severe dyspnea The acute phase of ARDS is marked by a rapid onset of severe dyspnea that usually occurs less than 72 hours after the precipitating event.
The neonatal ICU nurse is assessing a client with severe bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). The nurse knows that this client will likely exhibit which clinical manifestations? Select all that apply. Rapid, shallow breathing Chest retractions with accessory muscle use Clubbing of the fingers Productive yellow-colored sputum Coughing blood
Rapid, shallow breathing Chest retractions with accessory muscle use Clubbing of the fingers The infant with BPD often demonstrates tachycardia, rapid and shallow breathing, chest retractions, cough, and poor weight gain. Clubbing of the fingers occurs in children with severe disease. Yellow-sputum is associated with pneumonia. Blood in sputum could be an infection, trauma in airway, etc.
Which of the following are possible indicators of pulmonary damage from an inhalation injury? Select all that apply. Singed nasal hair Hoarseness Facial burns Yellow sputum Bradypnea Take a Practice Quiz
Singed nasal hair Hoarseness Facial burns Indicators of possible pulmonary damage include singed nasal hair, hoarseness, voice change, stridor, burns of the face or neck, sooty or bloody sputum, and tachypnea.
A nurse is assessing a newly admitted newborn who is 2 hours old. Which assessment findings would concern the nurse? Select all that apply. The newborn is pink except for the hands and feet, which are blue. The newborn has visible bilateral nasal flaring. The newborn responds little to voices. The newborn has visible chest retractions. The newborn has an apical pulse between 140 and 156.
The newborn has visible bilateral nasal flaring. The newborn has visible chest retractions. The signs and symptoms of respiratory distress include tachypnea, periodic breathing, apnea, retractions, nasal flaring, grunting, pallor, and cyanosis. These findings require interventions. The blue hands and feet, apical pulse rate, and minimal response to voices are all appropriate for a newborn who is two hours old.
Which term would be used to describe the movement of air in and out of the body? Perfusion Respiration Ventilation Gas exchange
Ventilation Ventilation refers to the movement of air in and out of the body. Perfusion refers to the delivery of oxygen via the blood to tissues and cells. Respiration refers to the act of breathing to allow gas exchange and to the exchange of gases at the alveolar level.
A client admitted with multiple traumatic injuries receives massive fluid resuscitation. Later, the health care provider suspects that the client has aspirated stomach contents. The nurse knows that this client is at highest risk for: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). bronchial asthma. acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). renal failure.
acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). A client who receives massive fluid resuscitation or blood transfusions or who aspirates stomach contents is at highest risk for ARDS, which is associated with catastrophic events, such as multiple trauma, bacteremia, pneumonia, near drowning, and smoke inhalation. COPD refers to a group of chronic diseases, including bronchial asthma, characterized by recurring airflow obstruction in the lungs. Although renal failure may occur in a client with multiple trauma (depending on the organs involved), this client's history points to an assault on the respiratory system secondary to aspiration of stomach contents and massive fluid resuscitation.
Which resident of a long-term care facility is most likely to be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? a 79-year-old resident with a history of smoking who reports shortness of breath and pain on deep inspiration An 81-year-old resident with a history of smoking who has increased exercise intolerance, a fever, and increased white blood cells an 81-year-old resident who has a productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections an 88-year-old resident who experiences acute shortness of breath and airway constriction when exposed to tobacco smoke.
an 81-year-old resident who has a productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections Productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections are associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Pain, fever, and increased white blood cells are not common signs and symptoms. Acute shortness of breath and bronchoconstriction are associated with asthma.
Which client is at risk for pulmonary embolism? A client with: arteriosclerosis. a small abdominal aneurysm. deep vein thrombosis (DVT). varicose veins.
deep vein thrombosis (DVT). DVT is commonly associated with venous stasis in the legs when there is a lack of the skeletal muscle pump that enhances venous return to the heart. When a client is confined to bed rest, venous compression occurs because of the position of the lower extremities. This increased pressure causes damage to the intima lining of the veins and causes platelets to adhere to the damaged site. DVT increases the risk that a displaced plaque will become a pulmonary embolus. Arteriosclerosis is hardening of the arteries; aneurysm is the abnormal dilation of a vessel; and varicose veins are swollen, tortuous veins. These are not generally considered risk factors for pulmonary embolism.
A client admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) asks the nurse what can be done to decrease the dyspnea. The nurse instructs the client to use pursed-lip breathing (PLB) to help keep airways open by: increasing intrapleural pressures. decreasing transpulmonary pressures. increasing intrapulmonary pressures. increasing intrathoracic pressures.
increasing pulmonary pressures Forced expiration can cause increased intrathoracic pressure to rise significantly as compared to the intrapulmonary pressure causing compression on the airways in people with no lung disease. People with COPD can develop airway compression with normal breathing. Pursed-lip breathing (PLB) assists in maintaining the intrapulmonary pressure in the airways as the person exhales slowly. PLB also decreases the intrathoracic pressure as the person breathes less forcefully.
The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following a total hip replacement. The client is refusing to participate in physical therapy, complaining of extreme fatigue and severe pain with any movement. The nurse administers pain medication and then encourages the client to sit up to more effectively cough and deep breathe to increase ventilation by: enhancing the production of surfactant. stimulating the uptake of oxygen. increasing the spread of surfactant. impeding the uptake of carbon dioxide.
increasing the spread of surfactant. It is essential for bedridden and postoperative clients to change positions and to move. This not only increases ventilation in all areas of the lungs, but also enhances the spread of surfactant which prevents atelectasis. Coughing and deep breathing also enhances ventilation by spreading the surfactant in the alveoli. With this client, who is refusing to participate in physical therapy, it is a good way to start the client moving.
The nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which change in the client's mental status is concerning at this time? coma apathy irritability depression
irritability Clients who are experiencing hypoxia characteristically exhibit irritability, restlessness, or anxiety as initial mental status changes. As the hypoxia becomes more pronounced, the client may become confused and combative. Coma is a late clinical manifestation of hypoxia. Apathy and depression are not symptoms of hypoxia.
The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old child experiencing an acute asthma attack. The nurse takes immediate action to address total airway obstruction based on what assessment finding? marked decrease in level of consciousness increasing crackles bilaterally to lower lobes respiratory rate greater than 50 breaths/minute increased work of breathing and expiratory wheezes
marked decrease in level of consciousness A totally obstructed airway will quickly lead to hypercapnia and hypoxia, which would lead to cerebral hypoxia and loss of consciousness. Total airway obstruction means there is no air movement into or out of the lungs. Therefore, the nurse would not be able to auscultate crackles or wheezes, because air movement is required to generate these sounds. Though the child with total airway obstruction may appear to be tachypneic, tachypnea and intercostal retractions can also occur with partial airway obstruction, so they are not as definitive a finding as rapidly decreasing level of consciousness.
A newborn is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). While assessing the newborn, the nurse realizes that which maternal factor would most place the infant at risk for RDS? maternal gestational diabetes maternal opioid addiction maternal smoking prolonged rupture of membranes
maternal gestational diabetes Prolonged rupture of membranes, gestational or chronic maternal hypertension, maternal opioid addiction, and the use of prenatal corticosteroids reduces the newborn's risk for RDS because of the physiologic stress imposed on the fetus. Chronic stress experienced by the fetus in utero accelerates the production of surfactant before 35 weeks' gestation and thus reduces the incidence of RDS at birth. Maternal diabetes produces high levels of insulin that inhibits surfactant production thus placing the newborn more at risk for developing RDS.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxygen therapy for pneumonia. The nurse should best assess whether the client is hypoxemic by monitoring the client's: level of consciousness (LOC). extremities for signs of cyanosis. oxygen saturation level. hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels.
oxygen saturation level. The effectiveness of the client's oxygen therapy is assessed by the ABG analysis or pulse oximetry. ABG results may not be readily available. Presence or absence of cyanosis is not an accurate indicator of oxygen effectiveness. The client's LOC may be affected by hypoxia, but not every change in LOC is related to oxygenation. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels do not directly reflect current oxygenation status.
A client is receiving subcutaneous heparin after surgery to repair a fractured hip. The nurse understands that the rationale for this therapy is to reduce the risk for: compartment syndrome pulmonary embolism shock avascular necrosis
pulmonary embolism Low-dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is used prophylactically to prevent pulmonary embolism. Elevation, ice, and frequent neurovascular checks help to provide early detection of compartment syndrome. Fluid and blood volume replacements are helpful in preventing shock. Careful monitoring for pain and decreased function may provide clues early on to the development of avascular necrosis.
When doing a health assessment on a child, the nurse should include a physical assessment. What should the nurse assess first when performing the physical assessment? lung sounds temperature blood pressure respirations
respirations The assessment of respirations should always be done first. The respiratory rate will change if the child is crying, feeding, or becoming more active. Completing other parts of the physical assessment could influence the count of respirations. When counting respirations, the nurse should be aware that infants use diaphragmatic breathing so the respirations should be counted observing abdominal movements. After 1 year of age breathing changes to thoracic, so chest rise and fall would be used to count respirations. In the sequence of the physical exam, the vital signs would be taken followed by the head-to-toe assessment.
When assessing a newborn, the nurse determines that the newborn is most likely experiencing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) based on which finding? respiratory distress occurring by 6 hours of age slightly diminished breath sounds see-saw respirations peripheral cyanosis
see-saw respirations Typically the newborn with RDS demonstrates signs and symptoms of severe respiratory distress at birth or within a few hours of birth. Fine, inspiratory crackles are noted on auscultation of a newborn with RDS. See-saw respirations are characteristic of RDS. A newborn with RDS typically demonstrates generalized cyanosis.
The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client is extremely agitated and dyspneic, demanding that the oxygen be turned all the way up. The nurse states that this situation must be very frustrating for the client and then explains that the consequence of increasing the oxygen could cause: serious depression of respirations. damage to the alveoli. vasoconstriction of the airways. increased pulmonary pressures.
serious depression of respirations. The stimulus for breathing in a person without lung disease is an increase in PCO2, which stimulates the central chemoreceptors in the medulla causing respirations. Because the PCO2 levels are frequently high in people with lung disease, hypoxia stimulates the peripheral receptors located in the carotid and aortic bodies, which initiates breathing. If supplemental oxygen is given to raise the oxygen level significantly above the level needed to stimulate the peripheral receptors, the respirations could be severely depressed.
The nurse is ventilating a 9-year-old girl with a bag valve mask. Which action would most likely reduce the effectiveness of ventilation? checking the tail for free flow of oxygen setting the oxygen flow rate at 15 L/minute pressing down on the mask below the mouth referring to Broselow tape for bag size
setting the oxygen flow rate at 15 L/minute An adolescent, not a 9-year-old, would most likely require an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/minute for effective ventilation. A flow rate of 10 L/minute is appropriate for infants and children. All other options are valid for preparing to ventilate with a bag valve mask.
A premature infant develops respiratory distress syndrome. With this condition, circulatory impairment is likely to occur because, with increased lung tension,: the ductus arteriosus remains open. the foramen ovale closes prematurely. there are aortic valve strictures. the pulmonary artery closes.
the ductus arteriosus remains open. Excess pressure in the alveoli stimulates the ductus arteriosus to remain open, compromising efficient cardiovascular function.
A nurse working in the newborn observational unit is assigned four newborns closely being monitored. Which newborn is at greatest risk of developing respiratory distress syndrome? the male preterm infant born by cesarean birth with cold stress the preterm female infant born vaginally whose mother has asthma the term male infant born vaginally with a positive Babinski sign the term female infant whose mother has hypertension
the male preterm infant born by cesarean birth with cold stress The most common factor is a premature birth with additional factors of cesarean births and cold stress. Vaginal births and a parental history of asthma do not correlate with RDS. A positive Babinski sign is normal in newborns and children up to 2 years old. Maternal hypertension with a term birth as well do not correlate.
