Risk Management & Insurance Exam 1: Chapters 5, 6, 7, 8
2) Which of the following would not appear in the asset section of an insurance company's balance sheet? A) loss reserves B) bonds C) common stock D) real estate
A
13) Advantages of the direct response system for marketing life insurance include which of the following? I. Advertising can be specifically directed to selected markets. II. Complex products can be easily sold. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A) I only
13) Which of the following statements about adjustment bureaus is (are) true? I. They are frequently used to settle claims when a large number of losses occur in a given geographic location as a result of a catastrophic event. II. Their major advantage is low cost because of the use of part-time adjustors. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A) I only
24) Which of the following statements about the investments of property and liability insurers is (are) true? I. Income from investments is important in offsetting any unfavorable underwriting experience. II. Because premium income is continually being received, the investment objective of liquidity is of little importance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A) I only
34) Sue double-majored in mathematics and statistics in college. She also enrolled in a number of finance courses. After graduation, she was hired by Econodeath Insurance Company. Her job is to calculate premium rates for life insurance coverages. Sue is a(n) A) actuary. B) underwriter. C) claims adjustor. D) producer.
A) actuary.
38) A personal lines insurance company initiating banking and investment services for its policyowners demonstrates which financial services industry trend? A) convergence B) demutualization C) mass merchandising D) consolidation
A) convergence
7) If an underwriter suspects moral hazard, the underwriter may ask an outside firm to investigate the applicant and make a detailed report to the insurer. This report is called a(n) A) inspection report. B) application. C) M.I.B. report. D) agent's report.
A) inspection report.
50) Gwen is in charge of accounting at Integrity Insurance Company. Integrity is a publicly-traded insurer. In describing her job, Gwen said, "There aren't too many businesses where you are required to keep two sets of book." Gwen's comment most likely refers to her company A) preparing accounting statements using statutory and GAAP accounting. B) preparing one set of records for the insurer's managers and another set for the policyholders. C) preparing one set of books using dishonest values and another set using current market values. D) preparing one set of accounting statements considering investment income and another set of accounting statements not considering investment income.
A) preparing accounting statements using statutory and GAAP accounting.
47) ABC Insurance Company entered into a reinsurance agreement with XYZ Reinsurance. Under the contract, XYZ Re has no liability unless ABC's loss ratio exceeds 75 percent for the year. XYZ Re agreed to pay all losses in excess of the 75 percent loss ratio. ABC Insurance Company is using reinsurance to A) stabilize profits. B) reduce the unearned premium reserve. C) provide large risk capacity. D) retire from a line or territory.
A) stabilize profits.
10) Neil needs insurance that is unavailable in the state where he lives. To obtain insurance from a nonadmitted insurer, Neil should contact a A) surplus lines broker. B) nonadmitted agent. C) general agency broker. D) direct writer.
A) surplus lines broker.
47) ABC Insurance Company's investment income ratio last year was 4.2 percent. The company's combined ratio last year was 102.6 percent. What was ABC's overall operating ratio? A) 96.8 percent B) 98.4 percent C) 103.2 percent D) 106.8 percent
B
4) Reasons for the unearned premium reserve include which of the following? I. To pay losses that occur during the policy period. II. To pay premium refunds to policyholders in the event of cancellation. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
16) A property and casualty insurer in which the salesperson is an employee of the insurer, not an independent contractor, is called a A) fraternal insurance company. B) risk retention group. C) direct writer. D) captive insurance company
C) direct writer.
23) All of the following statements about life insurance company investments are true EXCEPT A) Funds for these investments are derived primarily from premium income, investment earnings, and maturing investments that must be reinvested. B) Income from these investments reduces the cost of insurance. C) A primary objective in making these investments is safety of principal. D) The majority of these investments are short-term investments.
D) The majority of these investments are short-term investments.
39) In 2008, Liberty Mutual Insurance Company acquired Safeco Insurance Company. This acquisition demonstrates which financial services industry trend? A) convergence B) demutualization C) mass merchandising D) consolidation
D) consolidation
6) Common sources of underwriting information for life and health insurance include all of the following EXCEPT A) the application. B) a physical examination. C) the Medical Information Bureau. D) the applicant's income tax return.
D) the applicant's income tax return.
10) Which of the following is a function of the marketing department of an insurance company? A) to settle claims after a loss has been reported B) to determine the cost of products the insurer sells C) to make final underwriting decisions D) to identify production goals
D) to identify production goals
26) Ratemakers at ABC Insurance Company calculated the pure premium to be $280 for a risk they were considering insuring. What is the gross rate for this risk, assuming a 30 percent expense ratio? A) $364 B) $400 C) $430 D) $520
B
6) Which of the following statements about methods for estimating loss reserves for property and casualty insurers is (are) true? I. The judgment method involves the use of a statutory formula to estimate the loss reserve. II. The average value method is used when the number of claims is large and the claims are settled quickly. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
B
35) Easy Pay Insurance Company may require insureds who suffer a loss to submit a sworn statement to substantiate that a loss occurred and to describe the conditions under which the loss occurred. This sworn statement is called a(n) A) binder. B) proof of loss. C) inspection report. D) notice of loss.
B) proof of loss.
11) Which of the following statements about the regulation of insurance company investments is (are) true? I. The purpose of regulating insurance company investments is to prevent insurers from making unsound investments which could threaten their solvency. II. Life insurers can invest an unlimited amount of their assets in common stocks. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
13) Which of the following statements about property and casualty insurance company operating results is (are) true? I. An insurance company can have a combined ratio greater than 1 (or 100 percent) and still be required to pay income taxes. II. By all measures, the property and casualty insurance industry is highly profitable when compared to other industries. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
13) Which of the following statements about state insurance guaranty funds is (are) true? I. They limit the amount that policyholders can collect if an insurer becomes insolvent. II. They are usually funded by general revenues of the states. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
15) Under what type of rate regulation are insurers required to obtain approval of rates before using them if the rate change exceeds a specified predetermined range? A) flex-rating law B) prior-approval law C) file-and-use law D) use-and-file law
A
22) Which of the following is a principal method of ensuring the solvency of insurers? A) requiring submission of annual financial statements to state regulators B) tracking and investigating market conduct complaints against insurers C) disciplining agents of the insurer for illegal sales practices D) regulating the forms (applications and policies) employed by the insurer
A
27) Mutual Property Insurance Company has a surplus of $2 million. According to a conservative rule, how much new net premiums can Mutual Property Insurance Company safely write? A) $2 million B) $8 million C) $10 million D) $20 million
A
28) Fly-By-Night Insurance Company had much larger losses than forecast. The company did not charge adequate premiums nor did the company purchase reinsurance. If Fly-By-Night becomes insolvent, which of the following will help pay the unpaid claims of the insurer? A) guaranty fund B) premium rebates C) risk-based capital D) admitted assets
A
29) Grace is a life insurance agent. She is attempting to sell a large life insurance policy, but the prospective purchaser is having second thoughts. To persuade the prospective purchaser, Grace said, "I will earn a $1,000 commission if you buy this policy. I'll give you $500 of my commission if you buy the policy." In most states, what illegal sales practice will Grace be guilty of if she splits her commission with the purchaser? A) rebating B) churning C) twisting D) backdating
A
3) The basis for current state regulation of insurance is A) the McCarran-Ferguson Act. B) Paul v. Virginia. C) the South-Eastern Underwriters Association case. D) the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.
A
46) The assets of a property and liability insurance company are primarily A) investments such as stocks and bonds. B) loss reserves. C) plant and equipment. D) premiums paid by policyholders.
A
46) Which of the following is authority given to the Federal Insurance Office created by the Dodd-Frank Act? A) to represent the federal government in international discussions of insurance regulation B) to license and charter new insurance companies that plan to operate nationally C) to be the primary monitor of insurance company solvency D) to be the primary regulator of all aspects of insurance
A
5) A property and casualty insurer's loss reserve includes estimates for all of the following EXCEPT A) claims anticipated but not yet incurred. B) claims reported and adjusted but not yet paid. C) claims reported and filed but not yet adjusted. D) claims incurred but not yet reported to the company.
A
5) Which of the following statements about the licensing of insurance companies is (are) true? I. A new capital stock insurer must meet minimum capital and surplus requirements, which vary by state and line of insurance. II. The licensing requirements for insurance companies are less stringent than those imposed on most other types of firms. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
9) The policyholders' surplus of an insurer is defined as the difference between its A) assets and its liabilities. B) premium income and its expenses. C) reserves and its liabilities. D) assets and its nonadmitted assets.
A
7) Which of the following statements about Lloyd's of London is true? A) Coverage is actually written by syndicates who belong to Lloyd's of London. B) New individual members or Names who belong to the various syndicates have unlimited legal liability. C) It operates as an admitted insurer throughout the United States. D) It allows underwriters to write coverage without meeting stringent financial requirements.
A) Coverage is actually written by syndicates who belong to Lloyd's of London.
3) Which of the following statements about underwriting policy is (are) true? I. A company must establish an underwriting policy consistent with company objectives. II. Underwriting policy is usually subjective and allows the underwriter considerable flexibility with respect to lines written and forms used. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A) I only
41) Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding insurance agents and insurance brokers? I. A property and liability insurance agent has the authority to bind the insurer for certain types of coverage. II. A licensed broker who is not a licensed agent has the legal authority to bind an insurer. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A) I only
9) Which of the following statements about brokers is (are) true? I. They legally represent the insured rather than the insurance company. II. They are prohibited from being licensed as agents. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A) I only
5) The underwriting process begins with the A) agent. B) desk underwriter. C) inspection report. D) acceptance of the application.
A) agent.
21) Sarah owns a property and liability insurance agency. She is authorized to represent several insurance companies and she is compensated by commissions. Sarah's agency owns the expiration rights to the business she sells. Sarah is a(n) A) independent agent. B) exclusive agent. C) direct writer. D) insurance broker.
A) independent agent.
30) Some investors decided to start an insurance company. Each investor contributed $50,000 to raise the capital required to charter a new company. Each investor received an ownership interest in the company. The company will raise additional capital by selling ownership rights to other investors. Under this type of organization, the customer and owner functions are separate. This type of insurer is called a A) stock company. B) reciprocal exchange. C) fraternal company. D) mutual company.
A) stock company.
16) All of the following are reasons for a primary insurer to use reinsurance EXCEPT A) to increase the unearned premium reserve. B) to increase underwriting capacity. C) to protect against catastrophic losses. D) to stabilize profits.
A) to increase the unearned premium reserve.
26) Jan is employed by an insurance company. She reviews applications to determine whether her company should insure the applicant. If insurable, Jan assigns the applicant to a rating category based on the applicant's degree of risk. Jan is a(n) A) underwriter. B) actuary. C) loss control engineer. D) claims adjustor.
A) underwriter.
10) JKL Insurance Company reported the following information on its accounting statements last year: Premiums Written $90,000,000 Loss Adjustment Expenses $5,000,000 Underwriting Expenses $30,000,000 Premiums Earned $100,000,000 Incurred Losses $70,000,000 What was JKL's loss ratio last year? A) 70.0 percent B) 75.0 percent C) 83.3 percent D) 90.0 percent
B
15) MedProf Insurance markets medical malpractice insurance. The company's combined ratio in 2012 was 95.4. Its expense ratio was 25.4. What was the company's loss ratio? A) 60.4 B) 70.0 C) 88.2 D) 120.8
B
18) Which of the following is an advantage of federal regulation of insurance over state regulation of insurance? A) greater opportunity for innovation B) more effective treatment of systemic risk C) greater responsiveness to local needs D) more competent regulators
B
19) All of the following statements about business objectives in designing a rating system are true EXCEPT A) The rating system should encourage loss control activities. B) The rating system should be independent of long-run changes in economic conditions. C) The rating system should be simple to understand. D) The rating system should be stable over short periods so that consumer satisfaction can be maintained.
B
2) The right of the states to regulate the business of insurance was first established by A) the South-Eastern Underwriters Association case. B) Paul v. Virginia. C) the Financial Modernization Act. D) the Sherman Act.
B
23) Which of the following statements about judgment rating is true? A) It involves the manual rating of exposures. B) It is used when the loss exposures are so diverse that a class rate cannot be calculated. C) It is a form of experience rating. D) It is only used when credible loss statistics are available.
B
24) In which of the following did the Court decide that insurance was interstate commerce when conducted across state lines, and therefore was subject to federal regulation? A) Paul v. Virginia B) South-Eastern Underwriters Association case C) McCarran-Ferguson Act D) Financial Modernization Act
B
26) XYZ Mutual Insurance Company has total assets of $10 million. The policyholders' surplus is $2 million. What are XYZ Mutual's total liabilities? A) $4.0 million B) $8.0 million C) $10.0 million D) $12.0 million
B
27) Which of the following statements is (are) true about the loss ratio method of class rating? I. A premium is calculated, and the pure premium is loaded to cover expenses, profit, and contingencies. II. The actual loss ratio is compared to the expected loss ratio, and the rate is adjusted accordingly. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
B
3) Under one method of estimating a loss reserve, the reserve is based on life expectancy, duration of disability, and similar factors. This method of estimating loss reserves is called the A) judgment method. B) tabular value method. C) loss ratio method. D) average value method.
B
33) The regulation of insurers in areas that affect consumers, which include claims handling, underwriting, complaints, advertising, sales practices, and other trade practices is called A) solvency surveillance. B) market conduct regulation. C) combined ratio analysis. D) market share regulation.
B
37) Which of the following is a method used to help ensure the solvency of insurers? A) commercial lines deregulation B) risk-based capital standards C) use of credit-based insurance scores D) use of no filing required rating laws
B
38) A score derived from an individual's credit history and other factors that is used by many auto and homeowners insurers for underwriting and rating purposes is called a(n) A) CLUE score. B) insurance score. C) expense ratio score. D) combined ratio score.
B
38) Metro City has six different zip codes. XYZ Insurance Company markets coverages in Metro City. Any applicant who lists one particular zip code is automatically quoted a premium that is twenty percent more than the average premium for applicants from the other five zip codes, even if the loss exposure is identical. Which regulatory objective is not being met given XYZ's premium structure? A) Rates must be adequate. B) Rates must not unfairly discriminate. C) Rates must be responsive. D) Rate must not be excessive.
B
39) All of the following are arguments in favor of using an applicant's credit record in personal lines underwriting EXCEPT A) Most consumers have good credit records and benefit when credit history is used as a rating factor. B) Use of credit data in underwriting and rating eliminates price discrimination against minority groups when they purchase insurance from insurers. C) Underwriting and rating may be more consistent if applicants' credit histories are considered. D) There is high correlation between an applicant's credit record and future claims experience.
B
39) Which of the following statements about the combined ratio is true? A) It is equal to the loss ratio minus the expense ratio. B) A combined ratio greater than 1 (or 100 percent) means an underwriting loss has occurred. C) The combined ratio considers the company's investment income. D) A combined ratio less than 1 (or 100 percent) indicates that an underwriting loss has occurred.
B
4) All of the following statements about the methods of regulating insurance are true EXCEPT A) All states have insurance laws that regulate the operations of insurers. B) Insurers are totally exempt from regulation by federal agencies and laws. C) The courts regulate insurance in many ways, including the interpretation of policy clauses and provisions. D) State insurance commissioners, through administrative rulings, have considerable power over insurers doing business in their states.
B
42) A property and liability insurance company's loss reserve and unearned premium reserve are A) assets. B) liabilities. C) income. D) expenses.
B
44) One provision of the Dodd-Frank Act was creation of the Financial Stability Oversight Council. This council is charged with identifying nonbank financial companies that could increase the risk of collapse of the entire financial system. This risk is called A) market risk. B) systemic risk. C) diversifiable risk. D) enterprise risk.
B
45) The Dodd-Frank Act created a federal body with some limited regulatory authority. For example, the organization can represent the federal government in international negotiations regarding insurance and it can preempt state law where it conflicts with negotiated international agreements. This body is called the A) National Insurance Bureau. B) Federal Office of Insurance. C) Department of International Insurance. D) International Insurance Bureau.
B
7) One item that appears on an insurance company's financial statements is a liability that represents an estimate of the claims reported and adjusted but not yet paid, claims reported and filed but not yet adjusted, and claims incurred but not yet reported to the company. This liability is called the insurer's A) net income. B) loss reserves. C) admitted assets. D) unearned premium reserve.
B
21) Delta Insurance Company has a surplus-share treaty with Eversafe Reinsurance. Delta has a retention limit of $200,000, and nine lines of insurance are ceded to Eversafe. How much will Eversafe pay if a $1,600,000 building insured by Delta suffers an $800,000 loss? A) $600,000 B) $700,000 C) $720,000 D) $800,000
B) $700,000
33) Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the financial services industry? I. The number of life insurers operating in the industry continues to increase at a rapid rate. II. The Financial Modernization Act of 1999 permits financial institutions to compete in other financial markets outside their core business area. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
B) II only
12) Which of the following statements about claims settlement is true? A) Agents are never authorized to settle claims. B) Independent adjustors may be used in a geographic area where the volume of business is too low for an insurer to have its own adjustors. C) A public adjustor is a salaried employee who works for one insurer. D) A company adjustor is hired by a policyholder to represent him or her if the policyholder does not agree with the claim settlement offered by the insurer.
B) Independent adjustors may be used in a geographic area where the volume of business is too low for an insurer to have its own adjustors.
19) Which of the following statements about treaty reinsurance is true? A) The reinsurer is required to underwrite each individual applicant that is reinsured. B) The reinsurer must accept all business that falls within the scope of the treaty. C) The ceding insurer can choose which business falling within the scope of the treaty it wishes to reinsure. D) It protects the reinsurer by requiring the ceding insurer to charge adequate premiums.
B) The reinsurer must accept all business that falls within the scope of the treaty.
17) The unearned premium reserve of an insurer is A) an asset representing the investments made with premium income. B) a liability representing the unearned portion of gross premiums on outstanding policies. C) a liability representing claims that have been filed, but not yet paid. D) the portion of the insurer's net worth belonging to policyowners.
B) a liability representing the unearned portion of gross premiums on outstanding policies.
42) Most insurance companies require their marketing representatives to submit an evaluation of the prospective insured. This important source of underwriting information is called the A) application. B) agent's report. C) inspection report. D) physical inspection.
B) agent's report.
1) The function of an actuary is to A) adjust claims. B) determine premium rates. C) negotiate reinsurance treaties. D) invest insurance company assets.
B) determine premium rates.
31) RST Insurance is an interesting company. It doesn't have any agents. Instead, the company sells insurance through radio ads, telemarketers, and newspaper and magazine inserts. This distribution method is called A) reciprocal exchange. B) direct response system. C) mass merchandising. D) multiple distribution system
B) direct response system.
34) The financial services field is currently experiencing consolidation and convergence. If both of these trends continue, in the future we should observe A) fewer financial institutions offering a narrower range of financial services products. B) fewer financial institutions offering a wider range of financial services products. C) more financial institutions offering a narrower range of financial services products. D) more financial institutions offering a wider range of financial services products.
B) fewer financial institutions offering a wider range of financial services products.
40) Marcy advises her clients on investments, taxes, wealth management, estate issues, budgeting, and insurance. Marcy is also a licensed life insurance agent. When Marcy sells life insurance to a client, the distribution channel used is a(n) A) stock broker. B) financial planner. C) financial institution. D) independent agent.
B) financial planner.
2) Insurers obtain data which can be used to determine rates from A) pricing pools. B) insurance advisory organizations. C) banks. D) reciprocal exchanges.
B) insurance advisory organizations.
25) Cathy just started a job with XYZ Manufacturing Company. She attended an orientation and was given a packet providing information about the various employee benefits XYZ offers. One item in the packet was a booklet and application form from an auto insurer. The insurer offers lower premiums to XYZ employees. The insurer's plan for selling individually-underwritten auto insurance to employees of XYZ Manufacturing Company is called A) direct response. B) mass merchandising. C) personal selling. D) multiple marketing.
B) mass merchandising.
19) Which of the following is characteristic of a typical mass merchandising plan? A) higher commission scales for agents and higher administrative expenses B) payment of premiums through payroll deduction C) group rather than individual underwriting D) contributions by the employer to the cost of coverage
B) payment of premiums through payroll deduction
36) All of the following are methods that a property and liability insurance company can use to protect against catastrophic losses EXCEPT A) sale of catastrophe bonds. B) purchase of common stock. C) purchase of excess-of-loss reinsurance. D) quota share reinsurance with a low retention percentage.
B) purchase of common stock.
33) Amy heads the legal staff of a large property and liability insurance company. Amy's staff is likely involved in which of the following activities? A) reviewing investment options for the insurer's assets B) reviewing language and policy provisions in insurance contracts C) calculating premiums to be charged for the insurer's products D) reviewing applications to determine if the company should insure the risk
B) reviewing language and policy provisions in insurance contracts
4) The corporate structure of mutual insurers is changing rapidly. All of the following are current trends EXCEPT A) demutualization of some insurers. B) sharp increase in the number of mutual insurance companies. C) increase in company mergers. D) formation of mutual holding companies.
B) sharp increase in the number of mutual insurance companies.
26) Brian buys and sells investment securities for his clients. Brian also decided to become a licensed life insurance agent to better serve his customers. While Brian's primary focus is buying and selling financial securities for his clients in exchange for commissions, he also earns commissions on his life insurance sales. Brian is a(n) A) financial planner. B) stock broker. C) insurance broker. D) personal-producing general agent.
B) stock broker.
48) Granite Insurance Company entered into a treaty reinsurance agreement with Rock Solid Reinsurance (RSR). Granite's retention limit is $400,000 and RSR agreed to provide reinsurance for up to $2.0 million. If Granite writes an $800,000 policy, RSR is responsible for 50 percent of the losses. If Granite insures a $1.6 million risk, RSR is responsible for 25 percent of any losses. What type of reinsurance arrangement did Granite enter into with RSR? A) facultative reinsurance B) surplus share reinsurance C) quota share reinsurance D) excess of loss reinsurance
B) surplus share reinsurance
30) New Liability Insurance Company began operations last year and has been very successful. The company's ability to grow is being restricted by an accounting rule that requires insurers to realize acquisition expenses immediately, while not realizing premiums received as income until some time has passed. Reinsurance is often used in such cases for which of the following purposes? A) to stabilize profitability B) to reduce the unearned premium reserve C) to provide protection against catastrophic losses D) to withdraw from a line of business or territory
B) to reduce the unearned premium reserve
1) LMN Mutual Insurance Company has total liabilities of $300 million. The company has total assets of $380 million. What is LMN's policyholders' surplus? A) $680 million B) $340 million C) $80 million D) -$80 million
C
1) Reasons for regulation of insurance include which of the following? I. Maintaining insurer solvency II. Ensuring reasonable rates A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
10) Which of the following statements about the use of risk-based capital requirements is (are) true? I. Insurers must have a certain amount of capital depending on the riskiness of their investments and insurance operations. II. Insurers may be required to take certain actions depending on how much capital they have relative to their risk-based capital requirements. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
11) JKL Insurance Company reported the following information on its accounting statements last year: Premiums Written $90,000,000 Loss Adjustment Expenses $5,000,000 Underwriting Expenses $30,000,000 Premiums Earned $100,000,000 Incurred Losses $70,000,000 What was JKL's expense ratio last year? A) 5.0 percent B) 30.0 percent C) 33.3 percent D) 50.0 percent
C
17) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning investments of property and casualty insurers and life insurers? I. Property and casualty insurance companies place greater emphasis on liquidity than do life insurers. II. Life insurance company investments are, on average, of longer duration than property and casualty insurance company investments. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
20) A shortcoming of state regulation of insurance found by Congressional committees and the General Accounting Office is that state regulation A) leads to decentralized governmental power. B) provides opportunities for innovation. C) provides inadequate consumer protection. D) is more responsive to local needs.
C
20) All of the following statements about regulatory objectives of insurance rate making are true EXCEPT A) One purpose of rate adequacy is to maintain the solvency of insurers. B) Rates unfairly discriminate if loss exposures that are similar with respect to losses and expenses are charged substantially different rates. C) Insurers know in advance if the coverages marketed will be profitable, so rate regulation is not needed. D) Rates are excessive if policyholders are paying substantially more than the actual value of their protection.
C
21) The major reasons for insurer insolvency include which of the following? I. Inadequate pricing and loss reserves II. Rapid growth and inadequate surplus A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
21) The unit of measurement used in property and casualty insurance pricing is called the A) unit rate. B) premium. C) exposure unit. D) experience unit.
C
23) The number of title insurance companies operating in State Z is relatively low. Recently, the largest of these companies (50 percent market share) acquired the second largest company (30 percent market share). Immediately after the acquisition, the insurer raised premiums by 75 percent. This scenario demonstrates which of the following rationales for the regulation of insurance? A) maintain insurer solvency B) prohibit unfair sales practices by agents C) ensure reasonable rates D) make insurance available
C
31) Monopoly Insurance is the only company marketing a certain line of insurance in a state. After complaints from several consumers, the State Insurance Department investigated Monopoly's rates. The regulators determined that Monopoly was taking advantage of being the only insurer offering the line by charging more than double the actuarial cost of the coverage. Which regulatory rating objective was Monopoly violating? A) Rates must be adequate. B) Rates should encourage loss control. C) Rates must not be excessive. D) Rates must not unfairly discriminate.
C
32) Under one type of rating law, insurers are free to change rates and to use modified rates immediately. However, the new rate must be filed with regulators within a specified period, such as 60 days after the modified rate is employed. This type of rating law is called A) prior approval. B) file-and-use. C) use-and-file. D) flex rating.
C
34) The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) administers an "early warning system" to help ensure insurance company solvency. This system uses data provided in the annual statement to identify companies that may pose a solvency risk. This early warning system is called A) the risk-based capital requirements. B) an insurance guaranty fund. C) the Insurance Regulatory Information System (IRIS). D) the assessment method.
C
40) All of the following statements about insurance regulation are true EXCEPT A) Insurance commissioners are appointed in some states and elected in some states. B) Insurers are subject to regulation by certain federal agencies and laws. C) The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) can force states to adopt the model laws that it drafts. D) An insurance commissioner can revoke or suspend an insurer's license to do business in his or her state.
C
42) During the financial crisis, the U.S. federal government stepped-in to prevent the financial failure of the world's largest insurer, the American International Group (AIG). AIG's near insolvency was caused by A) catastrophic hurricane and earthquake losses that were not reinsured. B) fraudulent accounting practices that had inflated earnings for many years. C) losses on derivative loan guarantees issued by the company. D) over-investment in U.S. equity markets and the sharp drop in U.S. equity values.
C
43) To correct abuses in the financial services industry, Congress passed an Act in 2010 that included numerous provisions to reform the financial services industry. This Act was the A) Financial Modernization Act. B) McCarran-Ferguson Act. C) Dodd-Frank Act. D) Biggert-Waters Act.
C
44) A property and liability insurance company's loss ratio was 74 percent in 2011, 68 percent in 2012, and 66 percent in 2013. The same insurer's expense ratio was 31 percent in 2011, 33 percent in 2012, and 30 percent in 2013. Which of the following statements is true about the company's underwriting results? A) The insurer made money from its underwriting activities each year. B) The insurer's profitability from underwriting has been deteriorating each year. C) The insurer's profitability from underwriting has been improving each year. D) The insurer lost money from its underwriting activities each year.
C
47) One method of ensuring the solvency of insurers is a periodic review, every three to five years, of insurers that operate on a multistate basis. This review is coordinated by the NAIC. This review is called a(n) A) annual report. B) early warning system. C) field examination. D) inspection report.
C
9) Which of the following items would not appear in the income section of an insurance company's income and expense statement? A) gain on sale of securities B) common stock dividends received C) commissions D) premiums
C
35) All of the following are reasons why mutual insurance companies convert to stock insurance companies EXCEPT A) Stock companies can offer stock options to attract and retain key personnel. B) Stock companies can raise new capital more easily. C) Stock companies are exempt from state insurance regulation. D) Stock companies offer greater flexibility to expand through acquisitions.
C) Stock companies are exempt from state insurance regulation.
1) Which of the following statements about stock insurers is true? A) They issue assessable policies. B) They are not permitted to write property and liability insurance. C) Stockholders bear any losses and share in any profits. D) They are owned by their policyholders.
C) Stockholders bear any losses and share in any profits.
14) All of the following statements about the settlement of a claim are true EXCEPT A) The insurance policy usually has a provision specifying how a notice of loss is to be made to the insurance company. B) One step in the investigation of a claim is to determine whether the policy was in force when the loss occurred. C) The adjustor must file the proof of loss, which is a sworn statement supporting his or her decision regarding a claim. D) A policy provision may determine how disputes over claim settlements are resolved.
C) The adjustor must file the proof of loss, which is a sworn statement supporting his or her decision regarding a claim.
15) All of the following statements about the independent agency system are true EXCEPT A) Agents are often authorized to adjust small claims. B) Agents are compensated on the basis of commissions. C) The insurer rather than the agent owns the renewal rights to the business. D) The agent is an independent business person who represents several insurers.
C) The insurer rather than the agent owns the renewal rights to the business.
25) Functions of an insurance company's legal department include which of the following? I. Lobbying for legislation favorable to the insurance industry. II. Drafting policy provisions. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C) both I and II
32) Which of the following statements about Blue Cross and Blue Shield plans is (are) true? I. Blue Cross and Blue Shield plans can be organized on a nonprofit basis or on a for-profit basis. II. Blue Cross provides coverage for hospital services; Blue Shield provides coverage for physicians' and surgeons' fees. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C) both I and II
4) Which of the following statements about underwriting standards is (are) true? I. One purpose of underwriting standards is to reduce adverse selection against the insurer. II. Equitable rates should be charged so that each group of policyowners pays its own way in terms of losses and expenses. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C) both I and II
44) Which of the following statements is true regarding the information systems functional area of an insurance company? I. Computers and information systems are able to perform some tasks that previously were performed directly by employees. II. Information systems can speed the processing of policies by insurers. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C) both I and II
9) Factors that may result in more restrictive underwriting decisions include which of the following? I. Inadequate rates. II. The unavailability of reinsurance at favorable terms. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C) both I and II
27) ABC Term Life Insurance Company uses an interesting marketing system—it has no agents. Instead, the company markets its coverages through television and radio ads, newspaper inserts, and the Internet. The type of marketing system that ABC Term Life Insurance Company uses is called the A) mass merchandising system. B) mixed marketing system. C) direct response system. D) worksite marketing system.
C) direct response system.
42) Big Life Insurance Company purchased Regional Bank. Regional Bank has 27 branches in four states. Big Life Insurance Company required one employee at each bank branch to become a licensed life insurance agent and to sell Big Life Insurance Company annuities and life insurance products. This distribution channel is an example of the A) career agent distribution system. B) direct response distribution system. C) financial institution distribution system. D) worksite marketing distribution system.
C) financial institution distribution system.
29) Beverly lives in a sparsely populated area in northern Idaho. Some insurance companies marketing coverage in northern Idaho cannot afford to have full-time adjustors there. Several insurers hire Beverly to adjust claims for their insureds. Beverly charges the insurers a fee for each claim that she settles. Beverly is a(n) A) public adjustor. B) adjustment bureau. C) independent adjustor. D) company adjustor.
C) independent adjustor.
24) ABC Insurance has always used the exclusive agency system to market coverages. ABC, however, cannot afford full-time agents in sparsely-populated areas. To reach customers in these areas, ABC enters into agreements with local independent agents. Using more than one marketing system is called employing a A) direct response system. B) general agency system. C) multiple distribution system. D) branch office system.
C) multiple distribution system.
45) The price per unit of insurance is called the A) premium. B) loss adjustment expense. C) rate. D) loss reserve.
C) rate.
29) Jim would like to start a business raising thoroughbred racehorses. The business would be the first of its kind in the state where he lives. Obtaining insurance on the horses is a key concern, and he was dismayed to learn that none of the insurers authorized to operate in his state offer this specialty insurance. What is the name of the intermediary which Jim can use to place this coverage with an insurer not admitted to his state? A) alien insurer B) general agent C) surplus lines broker D) direct writer
C) surplus lines broker
28) Antonio is a claims adjustor for LMN Insurance Company. After the insurer is notified that there has been a loss, Antonio meets with the insured. The first step in the claims process that Antonio should follow is to A) determine the amount of the loss. B) attempt to deny the claim regardless of whether he believes the claim is covered. C) verify that a covered loss has occurred. D) delay paying the claim if the claim is covered.
C) verify that a covered loss has occurred.
12) JKL Insurance Company reported the following information on its accounting statements last year: Premiums Written $90,000,000 Loss Adjustment Expenses $5,000,000 Underwriting Expenses 30,000,000 Premiums Earned $100,000,000 Incurred Losses $70,000,000 What was JKL's combined ratio last year? A) 100.0 B) 103.3 C) 105.0 D) 108.3
D
14) Under one type of rate regulation, insurers do not have to register their rates with state regulatory authorities. However, insurers may be required to furnish rate schedules and supporting data to state officials. A fundamental assumption underlying this type of rating law is that market forces will determine the price and availability of insurance, rather than discretionary acts of regulators. This type of rate regulation is called A) a flex-rating law. B) a prior-approval law. C) a file-and-use law. D) no filing required
D
16) By misrepresenting the true facts, Gretchen was able to convince a client to drop a life insurance policy with another company and to purchase a policy from the company that Gretchen represents. Gretchen has engaged in an illegal sales practice called A) bait and switch. B) rebating. C) retaliating. D) twisting.
D
17) Which of the following statements about premium taxes is (are) true? I. They are levied by the federal government as a result of the McCarran-Ferguson Act. II. Their primary purpose is to provide funds for insurance regulation. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
D
19) Which of the following is an advantage of state regulation of insurance over federal regulation of insurance? A) uniformity of laws B) greater efficiency C) more effective in negotiating international agreements pertaining to insurance D) quicker response to local insurance problems
D
31) ABC Insurance Company would like to purchase a bank. For many years, ABC was not permitted under federal law to enter into banking operations. Which of the following legislative acts eliminated the prohibition that prevented banks, insurers, and investment firms from entering into one another's markets? A) The McCarran-Ferguson Act B) The Tax Reform Act C) The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act D) The Financial Modernization Act (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act)
D
34) XYZ Insurance Company expects $500,000 in claims and loss adjustment expenses for each 1,000 properties that it insures in a certain category of business insurance. What pure premium should XYZ charge for each property insured? A) $69.99 B) $166.67 C) $350.00 D) $500.00
D
35) Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the quality of insurance regulation? I. The quality of insurance regulation is uniform from state to state. II. All evidence suggests federal regulation of insurance would improve the quality of regulation. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
D
45) One liability on a property and liability insurance company's balance sheet is for the costs associated with settling and paying reserved claims. This liability is the A) pre-paid expense reserve. B) loss reserve. C) unearned premium reserve. D) loss adjustment expense reserve.
D
48) The major argument in favor of an optional federal charter for insurers is that A) small insurers need a national charter to be competitive with large insurer. B) a federal charter will prevent insurer insolvencies. C) a federal charter will provide greater oversight of insurer market practices. D) national insurers are at a competitive disadvantage under the present system.
D
8) A loss reserve established for each individual claim when it is reported to a property and casualty insurance company is call a(n) A) admitted asset. B) incurred-but-not-reported (IBNR) reserve. C) unearned premium reserve. D) case reserve.
D
14) Which of the following statements about the exclusive agency system for marketing property and liability insurance is true? A) Exclusive agents typically have complete ownership of policy expirations. B) A higher commission rate is usually paid on exclusive agents' renewal business than on new business. C) Exclusive agents represent several different insurance companies. D) New exclusive agents may start as employees and after a training period become independent contractors.
D) New exclusive agents may start as employees and after a training period become independent contractors.
15) Which of the following statements about reinsurance is true? A) A reinsurer may not purchase reinsurance. B) The reinsurer is responsible for providing claims services to the insured after a loss occurs. C) The amount of insurance transferred to a reinsurer is called the net retention. D) The insurer transferring business to a reinsurer is called the ceding company.
D) The insurer transferring business to a reinsurer is called the ceding company.
46) When a fraternal insurer began operations, it asked each member, regardless of age, to pay $20 per month to the fraternal's group life insurance plan. In exchange, each member received the same amount of life insurance. Soon younger members of the group began to drop out when they realized their premiums were subsidizing a group with a higher chance of loss. Which important underwriting principle was violated in this case? A) An underwriting profit should be attained. B) Moral hazard should be avoided. C) Insureds should be selected according to underwriting standards. D) There should be equity among policyholders.
D) There should be equity among policyholders.
3) Why are some mutual insurers referred to as "assessment mutuals"? A) They charge low premiums because the loss exposures of their insureds are thoroughly assessed before a policy is written. B) They are noted for being very thorough in their assessment of investment opportunities. C) They are assessed for state premium taxes only if they make a profit. D) They can assess policyholders if premiums are insufficient to pay losses and expenses.
D) They can assess policyholders if premiums are insufficient to pay losses and expenses.
2) Which of the following statements about mutual insurers is true? A) They are legally organized as partnerships. B) They have a board of directors which is selected by state insurance departments. C) They are owned by their stockholders. D) They may pay dividends to their policyholders.
D) They may pay dividends to their policyholders.
20) Which of the following statements about treaty reinsurance is true? A) Under a surplus-share treaty, 100 percent of the ceding insurer's liability must be transferred to the reinsurer. B) Using a quota-share treaty increases the ceding insurer's unearned premium reserve. C) Under an excess-of-loss treaty, the reinsurer pays losses in full only if they are less than the ceding insurer's retention limit. D) Using a reinsurance pool provides financial capacity to write large amounts of insurance.
D) Using a reinsurance pool provides financial capacity to write large amounts of insurance.
28) Big Mutual Insurance Company would like to take advantage of financial services deregulation by acquiring a bank and a stock brokerage firm. Big Mutual, however, would have trouble raising the funds needed to make these acquisitions under the mutual form of organization. Big Mutual is planning to switch from the mutual form of organization to the stock form, and to issue shares of common stock to raise capital. This change in organizational structure is called A) mutualization. B) retrocession. C) reinsurance. D) demutualization.
D) demutualization.
18) A reinsurance contract that is entered into on a case-by-case basis after an application for insurance is received by a primary insurer is called A) a reinsurance pool. B) automatic treaty reinsurance. C) retrocession. D) facultative reinsurance.
D) facultative reinsurance.
27) Mark has been an underwriter for 20 years. An application he recently reviewed looked odd to him. The building value in the application seemed far too high, and Mark suspected the applicant might be planning to destroy the property after it is insured. Mark hired an outside firm to investigate the applicant and to prepare a report about the applicant. This report is called a(n) A) agent's report. B) binder. C) physical inspection. D) inspection report.
D) inspection report.
23) Scott works in property and liability insurance marketing. He legally represents insurance purchasers, rather than insurance companies. Scott is paid a commission on the insurance placed with insurers. Scott is a(n) A) exclusive agent. B) direct writer. C) branch manager. D) insurance broker.
D) insurance broker.
11) Which of the following statements about claim settlement is (are) true? I. The fair payment of claims requires an insurer to adopt a very liberal claims policy. II. To prevent lawsuits, an insurer should provide no personal assistance to a claimant other than that which is required by contractual obligations. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
D) neither I nor II
17) Which of the following statements about the sale of property and liability insurance through the direct response system is (are) true? I. Selling expenses are higher because market segmentation tends to be less precise than with other marketing methods. II. It is the most appropriate system for selling complex products. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
D) neither I nor II
43) The bar at the local franchise of a national chain continued to serve a drunk customer. The customer left the bar and tried to drive home. The drunk driver hit and killed three people who were riding bicycles. The legal representatives of those who were killed filed a multi-million dollar lawsuit against the national chain. As jury awards in the city where the incident occurred tend to be high, insurers marketing liquor liability insurance refused to issue new coverage until the case was resolved. Because no admitted insurers were willing to offer the coverage, liquor liability in this case is considered a(n) A) residual line. B) mandatory coverage. C) orphan policy. D) surplus line.
D) surplus line.
