RN 61 final

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The patient is having premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The nurse's greatest concern should be: a. the proximity of the R wave of the PVC to the T wave of a normal beat. b. the fact that PVCs are occurring, because they are so rare. c. whether the number of PVCs is decreasing. d. whether the PVCs are wider than 0.12 seconds.

A. the proximity of the R wave of the PVC to the T wave of a normal beat.

The correct order of actions for a patient starting enteral nutrition with a feeding tube is: _______________, _______________, _______________, _______________, _______________. a. initiate tube feeding b. insert feeding tube c. flush tube to verify patency d. obtain chest radiograph e. assess residuals

ANS: B, D, C, A, E Initially the feeding tube will be inserted and final placement verified via chest radiograph. The next step is to flush the feeding tube and start the tube feedings. Residuals are checked every 4 hours

The nurse is caring for a 100-kg patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate 110 beats/min, respirations 36/min, oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula. Bilateral crackles are audible upon auscultation. Which hemodynamic value requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Cardiac index (CI) of 1.2 L/min/m3 b. Cardiac output (CO) of 4 L/min c. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) of 80 dynes/sec/cm-5 d. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of 1400 dynes/sec/cm-5

ANS: A A cardiac index of 1.2 L/min/m3 combined with the identified clinical assessment findings indicate a low cardiac output with fluid overload (bilateral crackles), requiring intervention. The remaining hemodynamic values are within normal limits: cardiac output of 4 L/min; pulmonary vascular resistance of 80 dynes/sec/cm-5; and the systemic vascular resistance of 1400 dynes/sec/cm-5.

Which patient being cared for in the emergency department should the charge nurse evaluate first? a. A patient with a complete spinal cord injury at the C5 dermatome level b. A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 on 3-L nasal cannula c. An alert patient with a subdural bleed who is complaining of a headache d. An ischemic stroke patient with a blood pressure of 190/100 mm Hg

ANS: A A patient with a C5 complete spinal injury is at risk for ineffective breathing patterns and should be assessed immediately for any airway compromise. A GCS score of 15 indicates a neurologically intact patient. The patient with a subdural bleed is alert and not in danger of any immediate compromise. The goal for ischemic stroke is to keep the systolic BP less than 220 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

15. The nurse is caring for a patient following insertion of an intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) for cardiogenic shock unresponsive to pharmacotherapy. Which hemodynamic parameter best indicates an appropriate response to therapy? a. Cardiac index (CI) of 2.5 L/min/m2 b. Pulmonary artery diastolic pressure of 26 mm Hg c. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 22 mm Hg d. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of 1600 dynes/sec/cm−5

ANS: A Desired outcomes for a patient in cardiogenic shock with an IABP include decreased SVR, diminished symptoms of myocardial ischemia (chest pain, ST-segment elevation), increased stroke volume, and increased cardiac output and cardiac index. A cardiac index of 2.5 L/min is within normal limits. All other values are high and would not indicate an appropriate response to therapy.

The nurse is reading the cardiac monitor and notes that the patient's heart rhythm is extremely irregular and that there are no discernible P waves. The ventricular rate is 90 beats per minute, and the patient is hemodynamically stable. The nurse realizes that the patient's rhythm is a. atrial fibrillation. b. atrial flutter. c. atrial flutter with rapid ventricular response. d. junctional escape rhythm.

ANS: A Atrial fibrillation arises from multiple ectopic foci in the atria, causing chaotic quivering of the atria and ineffectual atrial contraction. No discernible P waves can be identified, resulting in a wavy baseline and an extremely irregular ventricular response. Atrial flutter arises from a single irritable focus in the atria. The atrial focus fires at an extremely rapid, regular rate, between 240 and 320 beats per minute. The P waves are called flutter waves and may have a sawtooth appearance. Atrial flutter with rapid ventricular response occurs when atrial impulses cause a ventricular response greater than 100 beats per minute. A junctional escape rhythm is a ventricular rate between 40 and 60 beats per minute with a regular rhythm. P waves may be absent, inverted, or follow the QRS complex. QRS complex is normal.

To prevent any unwanted resuscitation after life-sustaining treatments have been withdrawn, the nurse should ensure that: a. "do not resuscitate" (DNR) orders are written before the discontinuation of the treatments. b. the family is not allowed to visit until the death occurs. c. DNR orders are written as soon as possible after the discontinuation of the treatments. d. the change-of-shift report includes the information that the patient is not to be resuscitated.

ANS: A DNR orders should be written before withdrawal of life support; this will prevent any unfortunate errors in unwanted resuscitation during the time period between initiation of withdrawal and the actual death.

The nurse has just received a patient from the emergency department with an admitting diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. To prevent the spread of nosocomial infections to other patients, what is the best action by the nurse? a. Implement droplet precautions upon admission. b. Wash hands thoroughly before leaving the room. c. Scrub the hub of all central line ports before use. d. Dispose of all bloody dressings in biohazard bags.

ANS: A Droplet precautions are maintained for a patient with bacterial meningitis until 24 hours after the initiation of antibiotic therapy to reduce the potential for spread of the infection. Washing hands and scrubbing the hub of injection ports are practices that help reduce the risk of infection, but added precautions are necessary for preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis. Disposing of all bloody dressings in biohazard bags is a standard universal precaution and is not specific to bacterial meningitis

The nurse is preparing to administer 100 mg of phenytoin to a patient in status epilepticus. To prevent patient complications, what is the best action by the nurse? a. Ensure patency of intravenous (IV) line. b. Mix drug with 0.9% normal saline. c. Evaluate serum K+ level. d. Obtain an IV infusion pump.

ANS: A Ensuring a patent IV site prevents complications associated with infiltration of the medication (soft tissue necrosis). Mixing the drug with normal saline prevents crystallization of the medication and would be noticed prior to administration. Evaluating the serum K+ is not required prior to administration. The dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) ordered can be safely administered IV push over 2 minutes and does not require an infusion pump.

The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient following insertion of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC). Which action by the nurse best protects against the development of a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI)? a. Documentation of insertion date b. Elevation of the head of the bed c. Assessment for weaning readiness d. Appropriate sedation management

ANS: A Interventions that have been associated with a reduction in CLABSI include timely removal of unnecessary central lines. Documentation of the line insertion date will assist in monitoring this measure. Elevation of the head of the bed, assessment for weaning readiness, and appropriate sedation management are appropriate interventions to reduce the risk of ventilator-acquired pneumonia.

A patient has been diagnosed with Marfan syndrome. What information does the nurse plan to teach the patient about this condition? a. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder of connective tissue. b. It is caused by a random genetic mutation and is not familial. c. There are no drugs that help control the cardiac symptoms of the disease. d. Contact sports are permitted if precautions against concussion are taken.

ANS: A Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder of connective tissue with a definite familial pattern. Beta blockers and ACE inhibitors are commonly used to treat the condition. Contact sports and weight lifting are generally prohibited.

Which of the following statements is true regarding venous thromboembolism (VTE) and pulmonary embolus (PE)? a. PE should be suspected in any patient who has unexplained cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE. b. Bradycardia and hyperventilation are classic symptoms of PE. c. Dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis occur in nearly all patients with PE. d. Most critically ill patients are at low risk for VTE and PE and do not require prophylaxis

ANS: A PE should be suspected in any patient who has unexplained cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE. Dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain have been called the "classic" signs and symptoms for PE, but the three signs and symptoms actually occur in less than 20% of cases. Bradycardia and hyperventilation are not classic signs of PE. Most critically ill patients are at high risk for VTE, and all should receive prophylaxis.

Approximately 5 days after starting tube feedings, a patient develops extreme diarrhea. A stool specimen is collected to check for which possible cause? a. Clostridium difficile b. Escherichia coli c. Occult blood d. Ova and parasites

ANS: A Patients receiving enteral nutrition who develop diarrhea are evaluated for antibiotic- associated causes, including Clostridium difficile.

The patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would exhibit which of the following symptoms? a. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration b. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels c. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration d. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation

ANS: A Patients with ARDS often have hypoxemia refractory to treatment. Surfactant levels are often diminished in ARDS. Compliance decreases in ARDS. In early ARDS, hyperventilation may occur along with respiratory alkalosis

The patient is admitted with a suspected acute myocardial infarction (AMI). In assessing the 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, which findings would indicate to the nurse that the patient is in the process of an evolving Q wave myocardial infarction (MI)? a. ST-segment elevation on ECG and elevated CPK-MB or troponin levels b. Depressed ST-segment on ECG and elevated total CPK c. Depressed ST-segment on ECG and normal cardiac enzymes d. Q wave on ECG with normal enzymes and troponin levels

ANS: A ST segment elevation and elevated cardiac enzymes are seen in Q wave MI.

Which therapeutic interventions may be withdrawn or withheld from the terminally ill client? (Select all that apply.) a. Antibiotics b. Dialysis c. Nutrition d. Pain medications e. Simple nursing interventions such as repositioning and hygiene

ANS: A, B, C Any treatment that is life sustaining may be withheld from a terminally ill patient during the end of life. These treatments include nutrition, dialysis, fluids, antibiotics, respiratory support, therapeutic medications, and blood products. Any dose of analgesic or anxiolytic medication may be used to prevent suffering and should not be withdrawn. Dignity should be maintained during the course of dying. This would include ongoing provision of basic nursing care and comfort.

The nurse is caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock being treated with an intraaortic balloon pump (IABP). The family inquires about the primary reason for the device. What is the best statement by the nurse to explain the IABP? a. "The action of the machine will improve blood supply to the damaged heart." b. "The machine will beat for the damaged heart with every beat until it heals." c. "The machine will help cleanse the blood of impurities that might damage the heart." d. "The machine will remain in place until the patient is ready for a heart transplant."

ANS: A The IABP improves coronary artery perfusion, reduces afterload, and improves perfusion to vital organs. An IABP acts through counterpulsation, augmenting the pumping action of the heart, displacing blood to improve both forward and backward blood flow. It does not "beat" for the damaged heart. An IABP does not filter blood impurities. An IABP is designed as a temporary therapy for use when pharmacological interventions alone are not effective. It is indicated for short-term use, not as a bridge to transplant

While monitoring a patient for signs of shock, the nurse understands which system assessment to be of priority? a. Central nervous system b. Gastrointestinal system c. Renal system d. Respiratory system

ANS: A The central nervous system experiences decreased perfusion first. The patient will have central nervous system changes early during the course of shock, such as changes in the level of consciousness. Although the gastrointestinal, renal, and respiratory systems also experience changes during shock, changes in the central nervous system provide the earliest indication of decreased perfusion.

Select the strategies for preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolus (PE). (Select all that apply.) a. Graduated compression stockings b. Heparin or low-molecular weight heparin for patients at risk c. Sequential compression devices d. Strict bed rest e. Leg massage

ANS: A, B, C Graduated compression stockings, sequential compression devices, and anticoagulation can reduce the risk for DVT. Physical activity can also reduce the risk; bed rest increases the risk. Leg massage is not recommended.

A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) with chest pain that he has had for the past 2 hours. The patient is nauseated and diaphoretic, with dusky skin color. The electrocardiogram shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which therapeutic intervention would the nurse question? a. Emergent pacemaker insertion b. Emergent percutaneous coronary intervention c. Emergent thrombolytic therapy d. Immediate coronary artery bypass graft surgery

ANS: A The goals of management of AMI are to dissolve the lesion that is occluding the coronary artery and to increase blood flow to the myocardium. Options include emergent percutaneous intervention, such as angioplasty, emergent coronary artery bypass graft surgery, or thrombolytic therapy if the patient has been symptomatic for less than 6 hours. No data in this scenario warrant insertion of a pacemaker.

The nurse receives a patient from the emergency department following a closed head injury. After insertion of an ventriculostomy, the nurse assesses the following vital signs: blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, heart rate 52 beats/min, respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, oxygen saturation (SpO2) 97% on supplemental oxygen at 45% via Venturi mask, Glasgow Coma Scale score of 4, and intracranial pressure (ICP) of 18 mm Hg. Which provider prescription should the nurse institute first? a. Mannitol 1 g intravenous b. Portable chest x-ray c. Seizure precautions d. Ancef 1 g intravenous

ANS: A The patient's GCS score is 4 along with an ICP of 18 mm Hg. Although a portable chest x-ray and seizure precautions are appropriate to include in the plan of care, Mannitol 1 g intravenous is the priority intervention to reduce intracranial pressure. Ancef 1 g intravenous is appropriate given the indwelling ICP line; however, antibiotic therapy is not the priority in this scenario.

A patient with severe burns had a dietitian consultation for nutritional support. The patient weighs 145 pounds. What recommendations by the dietitian does the nurse anticipate initiating? (Select all that apply.) a. At least 2307 kcal/day b. Juven formula c. 2 cal HN formula d. At least 1648 kcal/day e. Perative formula

ANS: A, B The severely stressed patient requires around 35 kcal/kg/day. This patient weighs 145 pounds, which is 65.9 kg. So this patient needs at least 2307 kcal/day. Juven is an appropriate formula; 2 cal HN is used for patients with heart and/or liver disease and Perative is used for patients with impaired GI function.

Which of the following statements is true about insulin and parenteral nutrition? (Select all that apply.) a. The amount of parenteral insulin is adjusted based on the previous 24-hour laboratory values. b. Insulin may be added to a parenteral nutrition solution. c. Subcutaneous insulin is used on a sliding scale during parenteral nutrition. d. Supplemental insulin is rarely required for patients receiving parenteral nutrition. e. Lingering hyperglycemia after parenteral nutrition has stopped requires continuing insulin.

ANS: A, B, C Hyperglycemia is common when receiving parenteral nutrition; insulin may be administered on a sliding scale for glucose control and/or added to the parenteral solution. The amount of insulin added to the parenteral solution is calculated based on the previous 24-hour laboratory values. Hypoglycemia can result from continuing the insulin after the parenteral nutrition is discontinued.

Palliation may include (Select all that apply.) a. relieving pain. b. relieving nausea. c. psychological support. d. withdrawing life-support interventions. e. withholding tube feedings.

ANS: A, B, C Palliation includes the relief of symptoms that may have a negative effect on the family or the patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient in acute respiratory failure and understands that the patient should be positioned (Select all that apply.) a. high Fowler's. b. side lying with head of bed elevated. c. sitting in a chair. d. supine with the bed flat. e. Trendelenburg.

ANS: A, B, C Patients in respiratory distress are unable to tolerate a flat position. Trendelenburg would also be contraindicated as the weight of the organs on the lungs would inhibit movement. High Fowler's is appropriate. Side lying with head of bed elevated, sitting in a chair, and high Fowler's position are all appropriate ways to position the patient to facilitate gas exchange and comfort.

A patient with a 10-year history of heart failure presents to the emergency department reporting severe shortness of breath. Assessment reveals crackles throughout the lung fields and labored breathing. The patient takes beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, and diuretics as directed. What treatment strategies does the nurse plan to implement for immediate short-term management? (Select all that apply.) a. Dobutamine b. Intraaortic balloon pump c. Nesiritide d. Ventricular assist device e. Biventricular pacemaker

ANS: A, B, C This patient is showing signs and symptoms of an acute exacerbation of heart failure. Dobutamine and nesiritide are medications administered for acute short-term management; mechanical assist with an intraaortic balloon pump or insertion of a biventricular pacemaker also may be warranted as long-term therapy, but neither is appropriate for this acute exacerbation.

The nurse is preparing for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC). During insertion of the catheter, what are the priority nursing actions? (Select all that apply.) a. Allay the patient's anxiety by providing information about the procedure. b. Ensure that a sterile field is maintained during the insertion procedure. c. Inflate the balloon during the procedure when indicated by the provider. d. Monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm throughout the procedure. e. Obtain informed consent by informing the patient of procedural risks.

ANS: A, B, C, D During insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC/Swan-Ganz), the nurse should allay the patient's anxiety, ensure that the sterile field is maintained to decrease the risk of infection, inflate the balloon upon request of the provider to assist in catheter placement, and monitor for dysrhythmias that may occur as the catheter passes through the right ventricle. Informed consent may be witnessed by the nurse, but it is obtained by the provider and should occur before the procedure begins.

A patient is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The nurse monitors for which potential complications? (Select all that apply.) a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. Heart failure c. Pericarditis d. Ventricular rupture e. Chest pain

ANS: A, B, C, D Dysrhythmias, heart failure, pericarditis and ventricular rupture are potential complications of AMI. Chest pain is a possible symptom of AMI.

Which of the following are components of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement's (IHI's) ventilator bundle? (Select all that apply.) a. Interrupt sedation each day to assess readiness to extubate. b. Maintain head of bed at least 30 degrees of elevation. c. Provide deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. d. Provide prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease. e. Swab the mouth with foam swabs every 2 hours.

ANS: A, B, C, D Options A, B, C, and D are components of the IHI ventilator bundle. Oral care with chlorhexidine has recently been added to the IHI bundle. Swabbing alone provides comfort care.

Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of ARDS? (Select all that apply.) a. Increases functional residual capacity b. Prevents collapse of unstable alveoli c. Improves arterial oxygenation d. Opens collapsed alveoli e. Improves carbon dioxide retention

ANS: A, B, C, D Ventilatory support for ARDS typically includes PEEP to restore functional residual capacity, open collapsed alveoli, prevent collapse of unstable alveoli, and improve arterial oxygenation. PEEP does not improve CO2 retention.

Which of the following factors predispose the critically ill patient to pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.) a. Inability to communicate b. Invasive procedures c. Monitoring devices d. Nursing care e. Preexisting conditions

ANS: A, B, C, D, E All of these factors predispose the patient to pain or anxiety.

Which of the following are accepted nonpharmacological approaches to managing pain and/or anxiety in critically ill patients? (Select all that apply.) a. Environmental manipulation b. Explanations of monitoring equipment c. Guided imagery d. Music therapy e. Provision of personal items

ANS: A, B, C, D, E Manipulating the environment so that it appears less hostile helps decrease anxiety, as does continually reorienting the patient. Focus techniques such as guided imagery and music therapy can create a state of relaxation. Personal items can reduce anxiety and provide a pleasant distraction.

When providing palliative care, the nurse must keep in mind that the family may include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Unmarried life partners of same sex b. Unmarried life partners of opposite sex c. Roommates d. Close friends e. Parents

ANS: A, B, C, D, E The definition of family varies and may include unmarried life partners of the same or opposite sex, close friends, and other close individuals who have no legal relationship with the patient. The patient gets to define who will be regarded as "family."

Which nursing actions are most important for a patient with a right radial arterial line? (Select all that apply.) a. Checking the circulation to the right hand every 2 hours b. Maintaining a pressurized flush solution to the arterial line setup c. Monitoring the waveform on the monitor for dampening d. Restraining all four extremities with soft limb restraints e. Ensuring all junctions remain tightly connected

ANS: A, B, C, E Options A, B, C, and E are required to ensure proper functioning of the arterial line. There is no need to restrain all extremities. Depending on the patient's level of sedation, the right hand may need gentle restraint.

The nurse is caring for a patient with cystic fibrosis (CF) and understands that treatment consists of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Airway clearance therapies b. Antibiotic therapy c. Nutritional support d. Tracheostomy e. Lung transplant

ANS: A, B, C, E The three cornerstones of care for a patient with CF are antibiotic therapy, airway clearance, and nutritional support. Lung transplant is a treatment modality for those who can get a match and who do not have current respiratory failure. A tracheostomy is not a standard treatment for CF.

In an unconscious patient, eye movements are tested by the oculocephalic reflex. Which statements regarding the testing of this reflex are true? (Select all that apply.) a. Doll's eyes absent indicate a disruption in normal brainstem processing. b. Doll's eyes present indicate brainstem activity. c. Eye movement in the opposite direction as the head when turned indicates an intact reflex. d. Eye movement in the same direction as the head when turned indicates an intact reflex. e. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a contraindication to the assessment of this reflex. f. Presence of cervical injuries is a contraindication to the assessment of this reflex.

ANS: A, B, C, E, F In unconscious patients with stable cervical spine, assess oculocephalic reflex (doll's eye): turn the patient's head quickly from side to side while holding the eyes open. Note movement of eyes. The doll's eye reflex is present if the eyes move bilaterally in the opposite direction of the head movement.

The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient. The nurse understands that strategies to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Drain condensate from the ventilator tubing away from the patient. b. Elevate the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees. c. Instill normal saline as part of the suctioning procedure. d. Perform regular oral care with chlorhexidine. e. Awaken the patient daily to determine the need for continued ventilation

ANS: A, B, D Condensate should be drained away from the patient to avoid drainage back into the patient's airway. Prevention guidelines recommend elevating the head of bed at 30 to 45 degrees. Regular antiseptic oral care, with an agent such as chlorhexidine, reduces oropharyngeal colonization. Daily "sedation holidays" help determine the need to continue mechanical ventilation. Normal saline is not recommended as part of the suctioning procedure, and it may increase the risk for infection.

In the critically ill patient, an incomplete assessment and/or management of pain or anxiety may be hampered by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Administration of neuromuscular blocking agents b. Delirium c. Effective nurse communication and assessment skills d. Nonverbal patients e. Ventilated patient

ANS: A, B, D Delirium appears in approximately 80% of patients in the intensive care unit. Delirium is characterized by changing mental status, inattention, disorganized thinking, and altered levels of consciousness. Patients in the intensive care unit may not be able to verbalize because of the presence of an artificial airway, sedative medication, neuromuscular blocking agents, or brain injury. Effective nurse-to-patient communication and assessment skills would facilitate assessment of pain and anxiety. There are tools and assessment methods to assess pain in ventilated patients.

Identify the priority interventions for managing symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in the ED. (Select all that apply.) a. Administration of morphine b. Administration of nitroglycerin (NTG) c. Dopamine infusion d. Oxygen therapy e. Transfusion of packed red blood cells

ANS: A, B, D The initial pain of AMI is treated with morphine sulfate administered intravenously. NTG may be given to reduce the ischemic pain of AMI. NTG increases coronary perfusion because of its vasodilatory effects. Oxygen administration is important for assisting the myocardial tissue to continue its pumping activity and for repairing the damaged tissue around the site of the infarct. Transfusion is not required except in the setting of severe anemia, which may limit oxygen delivery to the heart. Dopamine infusion is usually used to treat hypotension but causes tachycardia which would be deleterious for the patient having an AMI because it increases the heart's workload and demand for oxygen.

When performing an initial pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP), what are the best nursing actions? (Select all that apply.) a. Inflate the balloon for no more than 8 to 10 seconds while noting the waveform change. b. Inflate the balloon with air, recording the volume necessary to obtain a reading. c. Maintain the balloon in the inflated position for 8 hours following insertion. d. Zero reference and level the air-fluid interface of the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis. e. Inflate and deflate the balloon on an hourly schedule

ANS: A, B, D To obtain an accurate pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP), the transducer system should be zero referenced and leveled to ensure accurate readings, and the balloon should be inflated with enough air, for no more than 8 to 10 seconds until a change in waveform is noted. The volume of air necessary to inflate the balloon should be documented. Maintaining the balloon in the inflated position can lead to pulmonary infarction. There is no reason to inflate and deflate the catheter's balloon unless measurements are being obtained.

Which statements about total parenteral nutrition are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. assessing fluid volume status and preventing infection are important nursing considerations. b. fingerstick glucose levels are assessed every 6 hours and prn. c. total parenteral nutrition is administered through a feeding tube and pump. d. total parenteral nutrition with added lipids provides adequate levels of protein, carbohydrates, and fats. e. soy-based lipids should not be given during the first week of a critical illness.

ANS: A, B, D, E All are correct except administration via a feeding tube and pump. A tube and pump are used to deliver enteral nutrition

Choose the items that are common to both pain and anxiety. (Select all that apply.) a. Cyclical exacerbation of one another b. Require good nursing assessment for proper treatment c. Response only to real phenomena d. Subjective in nature e. Perception may be influenced by prior experience

ANS: A, B, D, E Both pain and anxiety are subjective in nature. One can exacerbate the other in a vicious cycle that often requires good nursing assessment to manage the precipitating problem and break the cycle. Anxiety is a response to a real or perceived fear. Pain is a response to real or "phantom" phenomenon but always involves transmission of nerve impulses. Both relate to the patient's perceptions of pain and fear. Previous experiences of both pain and/or anxiety can influence the patient's perception of both. Anxiety is a response to real or perceived fear, and pain is a response to a real or "phantom" phenomenon.

Anxiety differs from pain in that: (Select all that apply.) a. it is confined to neurological processes in the brain. b. it is linked to reward and punishment centers in the limbic system. c. it is subjective. d. there is no actual tissue injury. e. it can be increased by noise and light.

ANS: A, B, D, E Unlike pain, anxiety is linked to the reward and punishment centers in the limbic system of the brain. It is totally neurological and does not involve tissue injury. Like pain, it is a subjective phenomenon. Noise, light, and other stimuli can increase the intensity of anxiety. Both anxiety and pain are subjective in nature.

Select interventions that may be included during "terminal weaning" include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Complete extubation following ventilator withdrawal b. Discontinuation of artificial ventilation but maintenance of the artificial airway c. Discontinuation of anxiolytic and pain medications d. Titration of ventilator support based upon blood gas determinations e. Titration of ventilator support to minimal levels based upon patient assessment of comfort

ANS: A, B, E "Terminal weaning" may include titration of ventilator support to minimal levels, removal of the ventilator with maintenance of the artificial airway, and complete extubation. Pain and anxiolytic medications may be required to control dyspnea and anxiety that may accompany ventilator withdrawal. Blood gas determinations would be used in therapeutic ventilator management.

Which clinical manifestations are indicative of right ventricular failure? (Select all that apply.) a. Jugular venous distension b. Peripheral edema c. Crackles audible in the lungs d. Weak peripheral pulses e. Hepatomegaly

ANS: A, B, E Jugular venous distension, liver tenderness, hepatomegaly, and peripheral edema are signs of right ventricular failure. Crackles are indicative of left ventricular failure. Weak peripheral pulse are not a manifestation of right ventricular failure. Crackles are indicative of left sided failure.

Calorie-dense feedings: (Select all that apply.) a. are most useful in heart failure and liver disease. b. are most useful in malabsorption syndromes. c. contain 2 kcal/mL and 70 g protein/L. d. include increased fiber. e. are especially good for patients with lung disease.

ANS: A, C Calorie-dense feedings are used when volume should be minimized and protein requirements are high, such as in heart failure or liver disease. They contain 2 kcal/mL and 70 g protein/L. Specific formulas, such as Oxepa, are available for lung disease.

Identify diagnostic criteria for ARDS. (Select all that apply.) a. Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study b. Decreased cardiac output c. PaO2/ FiO2 ratio of less than 200 d. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of more than 18 mm Hg e. PAOP less than 18 mm Hg

ANS: A, C Diagnostic criteria for ARDS include bilateral infiltrates, or "white out," on chest x-ray study and a low PaO2/FiO2 ratio. Decreased cardiac output and a high PAOP are seen in pulmonary edema associated with cardiac causes. The PAOP description was deleted from the current definition.

he nurse is caring for a patient admitted with new onset of slurred speech, facial droop, and left-sided weakness 8 hours ago. Diagnostic computed tomography scan rules out the presence of an intracranial bleed. Which actions are most important to include in the patient's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Make frequent neurological assessments. b. Maintain CO2 level at 50 mm Hg. c. Maintain MAP less than 130 mm Hg. d. Prepare for thrombolytic administration. e. Restrain affected limb to prevent injury.

ANS: A, C The goal for ischemic stroke is to keep the systolic blood pressure less than 220 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg. In hemorrhagic stroke, the goal is a mean arterial pressure less than 130 mm Hg. Neurological assessments are compared with the baseline assessments performed in the ED. The elapsed time of 8 hours since onset of symptoms prohibits thrombolytic therapy. The CO2 should be maintained within normal limits; this value is elevated. The elapsed time of 8 hours since onset of symptoms prohibits thrombolytic therapy. Restraints should be avoided.

In the healthy individual, pain and anxiety: (Select all that apply.) a. activate the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). b. decrease stress levels. c. help remove one from harm. d. increase performance levels. e. limit sympathetic nervous system activity.

ANS: A, C, D In the healthy person, pain and anxiety are adaptive mechanisms used to increase performance levels or to remove one from potential harm. The "fight or flight" response occurs in response to pain and/or anxiety and involves the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Pain and anxiety, however, can induce significant stress. The SNS is activated, not limited, by pain and/or anxiety.

Which statements are true regarding the symptoms of an AMI? (Select all that apply.) a. Dysrhythmias are common occurrences. b. Men have more atypical symptoms than women. c. Midsternal chest pain is a common presenting symptom. d. Some patients are asymptomatic. e. Patients may complain of jaw or back pain.

ANS: A, C, D, E Chest pain is a common presenting symptom in AMI. Dysrhythmias are commonly seen in AMI. Some individuals may have ischemic episodes without knowing it, thereby having a "silent" infarction. Women are more likely to have atypical signs and symptoms, such as shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, and back or jaw pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with shock. The nurse understands which assessment findings best assess tissue perfusion in a patient in shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure b. Heart rate c. Level of consciousness d. Pupil response e. Respirations f. Urine output

ANS: A, C, F The level of consciousness assesses cerebral perfusion, urine output assesses renal perfusion, and blood pressure is a general indicator of systemic perfusion. Heart rate is not an indicator of perfusion. Pupillary response and respirations do not assess perfusion.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is intubated and on a ventilator following extensive abdominal surgery. Although the patient is responsive, the nurse is not able to read the patient's lips as the patient attempts to mouth the words. Which of the following assessment tools would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use when assessing the patient's pain level? (Select all that apply.) a. The FACES scale b. Pain Intensity Scale c. The PQRST method d. The Visual Analogue Scale e. The CAM tool

ANS: A, D The PQRST method and the Pain Intensity Scale require verbalization and/or writing to communicate pain level. The FACES scale and the Visual Analogue Scale can be used by simply having the patient point to the appropriate place. Because of this, they are the easiest to use with children, people with language barriers, and intubated patients. The CAM tool is used to assess delirium.

The nurse is preparing to obtain a right atrial pressure (RAP/CVP) reading. What are the most appropriate nursing actions? (Select all that apply.) a. Compare measured pressures with other physiological parameters. b. Flush the central venous catheter with 20 mL of sterile saline. c. Inflate the balloon with 3 mL of air and record the pressure tracing. d. Obtain the right atrial pressure measurement during end exhalation. e. Zero reference the transducer system at the level of the phlebostatic axis

ANS: A, D, E To obtain an accurate right atrial pressure (RAP/CVP) reading, the transducer system should be zero referenced and leveled with the phlebostatic axis to ensure accurate readings; the value should be obtained during end exhalation, and any obtained measure should be evaluated in light of the patient's physiological parameters and physical assessment. The catheter does not need to be flushed before measurement because continuous saline flush is part of the RAP system. There is no balloon with a right atrial pressure (RAP/CVP) catheter.

The nurse calculates the PaO2/FiO2 ratio for the following values: PaO2 is 78 mm Hg; FiO2 is 0.6 (60%). a. 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS b. 130; meets criteria for ARDS c. 468; normal lung function d. Not enough data to compute the ratio

ANS: B 78/0.60 = 130, which meets the criteria for ARDS.

The nurse is assessing a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome. An expected assessment is a. cardiac output of 10 L/min and low systemic vascular resistance. b. PAOP of 10 mm Hg and PaO2 of 55. c. PAOP of 20 mm Hg and cardiac output of 3 L/min. d. PAOP of 5 mm Hg and high systemic vascular resistance.

ANS: B A normal PAOP with hypoxemia is an expected assessment finding in ARDS although this has been deleted from the most current definition. Cardiac output of 10 L/min and low systemic vascular resistance are expected findings in sepsis. PAOP of 20 mm Hg and cardiac output of 3 L/min are expected findings in heart failure. PAOP of 5 mm Hg and high systemic vascular resistance are expected findings in hypovolemic shock.

A patient with a history of emphysema, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia is in the critical care unit on a ventilator. The nutrition assessment notes that the patient has a protein and vitamin deficiency and is underweight. Which formula for nutritional assessment is most appropriate? a. Elemental protein formula b. Fiber-added formula c. High medium-chain triglyceride formula d. Lactose-free formula

ANS: B Added fiber helps to control blood glucose and reduce hyperlipidemia.

The nurse admits a patient to the emergency department (ED) with a suspected cervical spine injury. What is the priority nursing action? a. Keep the neck in the hyperextended position. b. Maintain proper head and neck alignment. c. Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation. d. Remove cervical collar upon arrival to the ED.

ANS: B Alignment of the head and neck may help prevent spinal cord damage in the event of a cervical spine injury. Hyperextension of the neck is contraindicated with a cervical spine injury. Immediate endotracheal intubation is not indicated with a suspected cervical spine injury unless the patient's airway is compromised. The use of assist devices to maintain immobilization of the cervical spine is indicated until injury has been ruled out.

The nurse is to administer 100 mg phenytoin intravenous (IV). Vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate 52 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% on supplemental oxygen at 3 L/min by cannula. To prevent complications, what is the best action by the nurse? a. Administer over 2 minutes. b. Administer over 20 to 30 minutes. c. Mix medication with 0.9% normal saline. d. Administer via central line.

ANS: B In the presence of hypotension and bradycardia, administering the medication over 2 minutes is too fast. Phenytoin should be administered over 20 to 30 minutes. Mixing medication with 0.9% normal saline prevents precipitation of the medication but will not prevent complications related to this scenario. Administering the medications via central line will not prevent complications related to this scenario

The nurse is caring for a patient from a rehabilitation center with a preexisting complete cervical spine injury who is complaining of a severe headache. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg, heart rate 60 beats/min, respirations 24 breaths/min, and 50 mL of urine via indwelling urinary catheter for the past 4 hours. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Administer acetaminophen as ordered for the headache. b. Assess for a kinked urinary catheter and assess for bowel impaction. c. Encourage the patient to take slow, deep breaths. d. Notify the provider of the patient's blood pressure.

ANS: B Autonomic dysreflexia, characterized by an exaggerated response of the sympathetic nervous system, can be triggered by a variety of stimuli, including a kinked indwelling catheter, which would result in bladder distension. Other causes that should be ruled out before pharmacological intervention include fecal impaction. Treating the patient for a headache will not resolve symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Treatment must focus on identifying the underlying cause. Slow, deep breaths will not correct the underlying problem. Assessing for underlying causes of autonomic dysreflexia should precede contacting the provider.

The nurse is preparing to measure the thermodilution cardiac output (TdCO) in a patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. Which action by the nurse best ensures the safety of the patient? a. Ensure the transducer system is zero referenced at the level of the phlebostatic axis. b. Avoid infusing vasoactive agents in the port used to obtain the TdCO measurement. c. Maintain a pressure of 300 mm Hg on the flush solution using a pressure bag. d. Limit the length of the noncompliant pressure tubing to a maximum 48 inches.

ANS: B Avoiding infusing vasoactive agents into the port used to obtain the thermodilution cardiac output (TdCO) measurement prevents the patient from receiving a bolus of these agents during rapid infusion of the injectate solution. Ensuring zero referencing of the transducer, maintaining 300 mm Hg pressure of the system pressure bag, and limiting the length of the pressure tubing help to ensure the obtained measures are accurate and do not influence safety.

The nurse assesses a patient who is admitted for an overdose of sedatives. The nurse expects to find which acid-base alteration? a. Hyperventilation and respiratory acidosis b. Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis c. Hypoventilation and respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis and normal oxygen levels

ANS: B Hypoventilation is common after overdose and results in impaired elimination of carbon dioxide and respiratory acidosis. The overdose depresses the respiratory drive, which results in hypoventilation, not hyperventilation. Hypoxemia is expected secondary to depressed respirations.

Which of the following cardiac diagnostic tests would include monitoring the gag reflex before giving the patient anything to eat or drink? a. Barium swallow b. Transesophageal echocardiogram c. MUGA scan d. Stress test

ANS: B In transesophageal echocardiography, an ultrasound probe is fitted on the end of a flexible gastroscope, which is inserted into the posterior pharynx and advanced into the esophagus. After the procedure, the patient is unable to eat until the gag reflex returns. The other tests do not alter the gag reflex.

The nurse is assessing a patient. Which assessment would cue the nurse to the potential of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? a. Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry b. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator c. Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures d. PaO2/FiO2 ratio >300

ANS: B Increased peak inspiratory pressures are often early indicators of ARDS. Oxygen saturation decreases in ARDS. Chest x-ray study will show progressive infiltrates. In ARDS, a PaO2/FiO2 ratio of less than 200 is a criterion.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has had an arterial line inserted. To reduce the risk of complications, what is the priority nursing intervention? a. Apply a pressure dressing to the insertion site. b. Ensure that all tubing connections are tightened. c. Obtain a portable x-ray to confirm placement. d. Restrain the affected extremity for 24 hours.

ANS: B Loose connections in hemodynamic monitoring tubing can lead to hemorrhage, a major complication of arterial pressure monitoring. Application of a pressure dressing is required only upon arterial line removal. Blood return is adequate confirmation of arterial line placement; radiography is not performed to confirm arterial line placement. Neutral positioning of the extremity and use of an arm board, without limb restraint, is the standard of care.

The nurse is caring for a patient 3 days following a complete cervical spine injury at the C3 level. The patient is in spinal shock. Following emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation, what is the priority nursing action? a. Maintain body temperature. b. Monitor blood pressure. c. Pad all bony prominences. d. Use proper hand washing.

ANS: B Maintaining perfusion to the spinal cord is critical in the management of spinal cord injury. Monitoring blood pressure is a priority. Hand washing is important for all patients. There is no indication the patient has temperature alterations. Padding bony prominences may or may not be needed.

Malnutrition contributes to infection risk by a. hampering normal gastrointestinal motility. b. impairing immune function. c. increasing blood glucose. d. increasing drug interactions.

ANS: B Malnutrition impairs immune function.

A patient with acute pancreatitis is started on parenteral nutrition. The student nurse listed possible interventions for this patient. Which intervention needs correction before finalizing the plan of care? a. Change the intravenous tubing every 24 hours. b. Infuse antibiotics through the intravenous line. c. Monitor the blood glucose every 6 hours. d. Monitor the fluid and electrolyte balance

ANS: B Medications should not be infused through the IV line infusing parenteral nutrition. The other actions are correct.

Which of the following statements about palliative care is accurate? a. Withholding and withdrawing life-sustaining treatment are distinctly different in the eyes of the legal community. b. Reducing distressing symptoms is the primary? goal of palliative care. c. Only the patient can determine what constitutes palliative care for him or her. d. Withdrawing life-sustaining treatments is considered euthanasia in most states.

ANS: B The goal of palliative care is to reduce the distressing symptoms many patients experience due to serious illnesses.

The nurse identifies which patient at greatest risk for malabsorption of protein? a. The patient with gallbladder obstruction b. The patient with ileitis c. The patient with distal colon resection d. The patient with jejunal tumor

ANS: B The ileum is where protein is broken down and absorbed; the patient with ileitis would be at greatest risk for protein malabsorption.

One of the functions of the atrioventricular (AV) node is to a. pace the heart if the ventricles fail. b. slow the impulse arriving from the SA node. c. send the impulse to the SA node. d. allow for ventricular filling during systole.

ANS: B The impulse from the SA node quickly reaches the atrioventricular (AV) node located in the area called the AV junction, between the atria and the ventricles. Here the impulse is slowed to allow time for ventricular filling during relaxation or ventricular diastole. The AV node has pacemaker properties and can discharge an impulse if the SA node (not the ventricle) fails. The electrical impulse is then rapidly conducted through the bundle of His to the ventricles (not the SA node) via the left and right bundle branches.

The patient's spouse tells the nurse that there is no point in continuing to visit at the bedside because the patient is unresponsive. The best response by the nurse is a. "You're right. Your loved one is not aware of anything now." b. "This seems to be very difficult for you." c. "I'll call you if she starts responding again." d. "Why don't you check to see if any other family member would like to visit?"

ANS: B The most therapeutic response by the nurse is to acknowledge the distress of the spouse.

The patient's heart rate is 70 beats per minute, but the P waves come after the QRS complex. The nurse correctly determines that the patient's heart rhythm is a. a normal junctional rhythm. b. an accelerated junctional rhythm. c. a junctional tachycardia. d. atrial fibrillation.

ANS: B The normal intrinsic rate for the AV node and junctional tissue is 40 to 60 beats per minute, but rates can accelerate. An accelerated junctional rhythm has a rate between 60 and 100 beats per minute, and the rate for junctional tachycardia is greater than 100 beats per minute. If P wave precedes QRS, it is inverted or upside down; the P wave may not be visible, or it may follow the QRS. If a P wave is present before the QRS, the PR interval is shortened less than 0.12 milliseconds. Atrial fibrillation arises from multiple ectopic foci in the atria, causing chaotic quivering of the atria and ineffectual atrial contraction. The AV node is bombarded with hundreds of atrial impulses and conducts these impulses in an unpredictable manner to the ventricles.

The provider prescribes fosphenytoin, 1.5 g intravenous (IV) loading dose, for a 75-kg patient in status epilepticus. What is the most important action by the nurse? a. Contact the admitting physician. b. Administer the drug over 10 minutes. c. Mix medication with 0.9% normal saline. d. Administer via central line.

ANS: B The nurse can administer the medication over 10 minutes as prescribed (100 to 150 mg phenytoin equivalent [PE] over 1 full minute). The drug dose prescribed is appropriate for the patient's weight. Fosphenytoin does not have to be administered with normal saline or via a central line.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency department in status epilepticus. Vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure 160/100 mm Hg, heart rate 145 beats/min, respiratory rate 36 breaths/min, oxygen saturation (SpO2) 96% on 100% supplemental oxygen by non-rebreather mask. After establishing an intravenous (IV) line, which prescription by the provider should the nurse implement first? a. Obtain stat serum electrolytes. b. Administer lorazepam. c. Obtain stat portable chest x-ray. d. Administer phenytoin.

ANS: B The nurse should administer lorazepam as ordered; lorazepam is the first-line medication for the treatment of status epilepticus. Phenytoin is administered only when lorazepam fails to stop seizure activity or if intermittent seizures persist for longer than 20 minutes. Serum electrolytes and chest x-rays are appropriate orders but not the priority in this scenario.

The nurse is caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock experiencing chest pain. Hemodynamic values assessed by the nurse include a cardiac index (CI) of 2.5 L/min/m2, heart rate of 70 beats/min, and a systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of 2200 dynes/sec/cm−5. Upon review of physician orders, which order is most appropriate for the nurse to initiate? a. Furosemide 20 mg intravenous (IV) every 4 hours as needed for CVP greater than or equal to ≥20 mm Hg b. Nitroglycerin infusion titrated at a rate of 5 to 10 mcg/min as needed for chest pain c. Dobutamine infusion at a rate of 2 to 20 mcg/kg/min as needed for CI less than 2 L/min/m2 d. Dopamine infusion at a rate of 5 to 10 mcg/kg/min to maintain a systolic BP of at least 90 mm Hg

ANS: B The patient is complaining of chest pain and has an elevated systemic vascular resistance (SVR). To reduce afterload, ease the workload of the heart, and dilate the coronary arteries, improving oxygenation to the heart muscle, initiation of a nitroglycerin infusion is most appropriate. Assessment data do not support the initiation of other listed physician order options.

The patient is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Three days later the nurse is concerned that the patient may have a papillary muscle rupture. Which assessment data may indicate a papillary muscle rupture? a. Gallop rhythm b. New murmur c. S1 heart sound d. S3 heart sound

ANS: B The presence of a new murmur warrants special attention, particularly in a patient with an AMI. A papillary muscle may have ruptured, causing the valve to close incorrectly, which can be indicative of severe damage and impending complications.

Following insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC), the provider requests the nurse obtain a blood sample for mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2). Which action by the nurse best ensures the obtained value is accurate? a. Zero referencing the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis following insertion b. Calibrating the system with a central venous blood sample and arterial blood gas value c. Ensuring patency of the catheter using a 0.9% normal saline solution pressurized at 300 mm Hg d. Using noncompliant pressure tubing that is no longer than 36 to 48 inches and has minimal stopcocks

ANS: B To ensure that an accurate SvO2 is obtained, calibration of the invasive monitoring system (e.g., PAC) is accomplished upon insertion and requires both a central venous blood sample from the PAC and an arterial blood gas sample. This process is unique to the accuracy of venous oxygen saturation monitoring systems. Zero referencing the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis, ensuring patency of the catheter with a pressurized flush system, and using tubing of adequate length ensure accuracy of all hemodynamic monitoring systems.

The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient in hypovolemic shock. Upon initial assessment, the nurse notes a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, heart rate 125 beats/min, respirations 32 breaths/min, central venous pressure (CVP/RAP) of 3 mm Hg, and urine output of 5 mL during the past hour. Following physician rounds, the nurse reviews the orders and questions which order? a. Administer acetaminophen 650-mg suppository prn every 6 hours for pain. b. Titrate dopamine intravenously for blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg systolic. c. Complete neurological assessment every 4 hours for the next 24 hours. d. Administer furosemide 20 mg IV every 4 hours for a CVP greater than or equal to 20 mm Hg.

ANS: B Vasoconstrictive agents should not be administered for hypotension in the presence of circulation fluid volume deficit, which this patient displays. The nurse should question the use of the dopamine infusion. All other listed orders are appropriate and have potential for use in the treatment of a hypovolemic shock.

Which nursing interventions would be appropriate after angioplasty? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevate the head of the bed by 45 degrees for 6 hours. b. Assess pedal pulses on the involved limb every 15 minutes for 1 to 2 hours. c. Monitor the vascular hemostatic device for signs of bleeding. d. Instruct the patient to bend his or her knee every 15 minutes while the sheath is in place. e. Maintain NPO status for 12 hours.

ANS: B, C The head of the bed must not be elevated more than 30 degrees, and the patient should be instructed to keep the affected leg straight. Bed rest is 6 to 8 hours in duration, unless a vascular hemostatic device is used. The nurse observes the patient for bleeding or swelling at the puncture site and frequently assesses adequacy of circulation to the involved extremity. NPO status does not need to be maintained after the patient is fully alert.

Which of the following statements is true regarding oral care for the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Tooth brushing is performed every 2 hours for the greatest effect. b. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. c. Oral care protocols should include oral suctioning and brushing teeth. d. Protocols that include chlorhexidine gluconate have been effective in preventing VAP. e. Using oral swabs or toothettes are just as effective as brushing the teeth.

ANS: B, C, D A comprehensive oral care protocol is an intervention for preventing VAP. It includes oral suction, brushing teeth every 12 hours, and swabbing. Chlorhexidine gluconate has been effective in patients who have undergone cardiac surgery. Actual toothbrushing is vital to the VAP bundle

Which of the following situations may result in a low cardiac output and low cardiac index? (Select all that apply.) a. Exercise b. Hypovolemia c. Myocardial infarction d. Shock e. Fever

ANS: B, C, D Hypovolemia, myocardial infarction, and shock often result in a decreased cardiac output. Cardiac output is usually increased with exercise and fever.

Which interventions are critical during intravenous lipid administration? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess glucose levels every 6 hours. b. Change the tubing every 24 hours. c. Hold lipids when administering antibiotics through the same line. d. Monitor triglyceride levels periodically. e. Maintain elevation of the head of the bed.

ANS: B, D Lipids are very good media for bacterial growth; lipid tubing should be changed every 24 hours. Triglyceride levels must be monitored until stable when administering lipids. Glucose is monitored during treatment with parenteral nutrition, which contains a high level of glucose. Medications are not administered through the IV lines containing lipids or parenteral nutrition. Elevating the head of the bed is important for enteral (tube) feedings to prevent aspiration.

A strategy for preventing pulmonary embolism in patients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants is a. administration of two aspirin tablets every 4 hours. b. infusion of thrombolytics. c. insertion of a vena cava filter. d. subcutaneous heparin administration every 12 hours.

ANS: C A filter may be inserted as a prevention measure in patients who are at high risk for pulmonary embolism. Aspirin is not a preventive therapy. Thrombolytics are given to treat, not prevent, pulmonary embolism. Heparin is administered as a prophylaxis in acute care settings. Coumadin is given for long-term prevention in patients at high risk for VTE

The basic underlying pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome results in a. a decrease in the number of white blood cells available. b. damage to the right mainstem bronchus. c. damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce surfactant. d. decreased capillary permeability.

ANS: C Acute respiratory distress syndrome results in damage to the pneumocytes, increased capillary permeability, and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with bacterial meningitis. Vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg, heart rate 110 beats/min, respiratory rate 30 breaths/min, oxygen saturation (SpO2) 95% on supplemental oxygen at 3 L/min, and a temperature 103.5°F. What is the priority nursing action? a. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. b. Keep lights dim at all times. c. Implement seizure precautions. d. Maintain bed rest at all times.

ANS: C Bacterial meningitis is an infection of the pia and arachnoid layers of the meninges and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the subarachnoid space. As such, the patient can experience symptoms associated with cerebral irritation, such as photophobia and seizures. In addition, the patient is at increased risk for seizures because of a high temperature. The priority nursing action is to implement seizure precautions in an attempt to prevent injury. Elevating the head of the bead, keeping the lights dim, and maintaining bed rest are all appropriate nursing interventions but are not the priorities in this scenario

A patient with a head injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 18 mm Hg. The blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg, and mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 108 mm Hg. What is the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)? a. 54 mm Hg b. 72 mm Hg c. 90 mm Hg d. 126 mm Hg

ANS: C CPP = MAP - ICP. In this case, CPP = 108 mm Hg - 18 mm Hg = 90 mm Hg. All other calculated responses are incorrect.

The nurse is caring for a patient 5 days following clipping of an anterior communicating artery aneurysm for a subarachnoid hemorrhage. The nurse assesses the patient to be more lethargic than the previous hour with a blood pressure of 95/50 mm Hg, heart rate 110 beats/min, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, oxygen saturation (SpO2) 95% on 3 L/min oxygen via nasal cannula, and a temperature of 101.5°F. Which provider prescription should the nurse institute first? a. Blood cultures (2 specimens) for temperature >101°F b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per rectum c. 500 mL albumin infusion intravenously d. Decadron 20 mg intravenous push every 4 hours

ANS: C Cerebral vasospasm is a life-threatening complication following subarachnoid hemorrhage. Once an aneurysm has been repaired surgically, blood pressure is allowed to rise to prevent vasospasm. Volume expansion with 500 mL albumin is the priority intervention for a blood pressure of 95/50 mm Hg to prevent vasospasm and ensure cerebral perfusion. Blood cultures, acetaminophen administration, and Decadron are appropriate to include in the plan of care but are not priorities in this scenario.

What were the findings of the Study to Understand Prognoses and Preferences for Outcomes and Risks of Treatment (SUPPORT)? a. Clear communication is typical in the relationships between most patients and health care providers. b. Critical care units often meet the needs of dying patients and their families. c. Disparities exist between patients' care preferences and the actual care provided. d. Pain and suffering of patients at end of life is well controlled in the hospital.

ANS: C Disparities and lack of communication are common in the relationships between patients and health care providers. Critical care units are often poorly equipped to meet the needs of dying patients. The SUPPORT study demonstrated that pain and suffering are widespread in hospitals.

While caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury, the nurse assesses an ICP of 20 mm Hg and a CPP of 85 mm Hg. What is the best interpretation by the nurse? a. Both pressures are high. b. Both pressures are low. c. ICP is high; CPP is normal. d. ICP is high; CPP is low.

ANS: C The ICP is above the normal level of 0 to 15 mm Hg. The CPP is within the normal range. All other listed responses are incorrec

The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient with a pulmonary artery catheter who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings. When obtaining continuous hemodynamic monitoring measurements, what is the best nursing action? a. Do not document hemodynamic values until the patient can be placed in the supine position. b. Level and zero reference the air-fluid interface of the transducer with the patient in the supine position and record hemodynamic values. c. Level and zero reference the air-fluid interface of the transducer with the patient's head of bed elevated to 30 degrees and record hemodynamic values. d. Level and zero reference the air-fluid interface of the transducer with the patient supine in the side-lying position and record hemodynamic values.

ANS: C Elevation of the head of bed is an important intervention to prevent aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia. Patients who require hemodynamic monitoring while receiving tube feedings should have the air-fluid interface of the transducer leveled with the phlebostatic axis while the head of bed is elevated to at least 30 degrees. Readings will be accurate. Supine positioning of a mechanically ventilated patient increases the risk of aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia and aspiration of tube feeding, and is contraindicated in this patient. Hemodynamic values can be accurately measured and trended in with the head of the bed elevated as high as 60 degrees. Even though hemodynamic values can be obtained in lateral positions, it is technically difficult and not accurate unless the positioning of the transducer is exact. Regardless, head of bed elevation is indicated for this patient.

The nurse is starting to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient admitted in hypovolemic shock secondary to hemorrhage. Vital signs include blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg, heart rate 150 beats/min, respirations 42 breaths/min, and temperature 100.6° F. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Administer blood transfusion over at least 4 hours. b. Notify the physician of the elevated temperature. c. Titrate rate of blood administration to patient response. d. Notify the physician of the patient's heart rate.

ANS: C Given the acute nature of the patient's blood loss, the nurse should titrate the rate of the blood transfusion to an improvement in the patient's blood pressure. Administering the transfusion over 4 hours can lead to a prolonged state of hypoperfusion and end-organ damage. The heart rate will normalize as circulating blood volume is restored. A mildly elevated temperature does not take priority over restoring circulating blood volume.

The nurse is caring for a patient in spinal shock. Vital signs include blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, heart rate 70 beats/min, respirations 24 breaths/min, oxygen saturation 95% on room air, and an oral temperature of 94.8° F. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the patient's plan of care? a. Administration of atropine sulfate (Atropine) b. Application of 100% oxygen via face mask c. Application of slow rewarming measures d. Infusion of IV phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)

ANS: C Hypothermia can develop in neurogenic shock from uncontrolled heat loss; therefore, a patient should be rewarmed slowly to avoid further vasodilation. In shock, a drop in systolic blood pressure to less than 90 mm Hg is considered hypotensive. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia. The patient's oxygen saturation is 95% on room air with an adequate respiratory rate. The application of 100% oxygen via face mask is not indicated. The patient's heart rate is adequate to support a normal blood pressure.

A patient presents to the emergency department in acute respiratory failure secondary to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse anticipates which treatment to facilitate ventilation? a. Emergency tracheostomy and mechanical ventilation b. Mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube c. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV) d. Oxygen at 100% via bag-valve-mask device

ANS: C Noninvasive measures are often recommended in the initial treatment of the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to prevent intubation and ventilator dependence. The history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease increases the risk for ventilator dependence, so noninvasive options are a priority. Bag-valve ventilation with 100% oxygen is not required at this time and could depress the respiratory drive that exists. Emergency tracheostomy is not indicated, as there is no indication of an obstructed airway.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The provider prescribes a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and analgesia, the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the provider of this assessment and anticipates an order for a. continuous lateral rotation therapy. b. guided imagery. c. neuromuscular blockade. d. prone positioning.

ANS: C Paralysis and additional sedation may be needed if the patient requires nontraditional ventilation. Guided imagery is an excellent nonpharmacological approach to manage anxiety; however, the nontraditional mode of ventilation usually requires that the patient receive neuromuscular blockade. Prone positioning is a treatment for refractory hypoxemia but not indicated to treat this patient, who is restless and appears to be in discomfort. Lateral rotation is not a mode of ventilation; it is used as part of a progressive mobility program for critically ill patients.

A definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism can be made by a. arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. b. chest x-ray examination. c. pulmonary angiogram. d. ventilation-perfusion scanning.

ANS: C The angiogram is one test that can confirm pulmonary embolism. A spiral CT scan is the other definitive test. Both tests have the limitation of not always being able to visualize small emboli in distal vessels. ABG would indicate only hypoxemia and/or acid-base abnormalities. A chest x-ray study is inconclusive. A ventilation-perfusion scan is inconclusive.

In evaluating a patient's nutrition, the nurse would monitor which blood test as the most sensitive indicator of protein synthesis and catabolism? a. Albumin b. BUN c. Prealbumin d. Triglycerides

ANS: C Prealbumin is the most sensitive indicator of protein synthesis and catabolism.

The patient is admitted with recurrent supraventricular tachycardia that the cardiologist believes to be related to an accessory conduction pathway or a reentry pathway. The nurse anticipates which procedure to be planned for this patient? a. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placement b. Permanent pacemaker insertion c. Radiofrequency catheter ablation d. Temporary transvenous pacemaker placement

ANS: C Radiofrequency catheter ablation is a method of interrupting a supraventricular tachycardia, a dysrhythmia caused by a reentry circuit, and an abnormal conduction pathway. A cardioverter-defibrillator is used on patients with potentially lethal rhythms such as ventricular fibrillation. A pacemaker is not used for this condition.

Patients experiencing severe physiological stress increase their nutritional requirements to: a. 20 kcal/kg/day. b. 30 kcal/kg/day. c. 35 kcal/kg/day. d. 50 kcal/kg/day.

ANS: C Severely stressed individuals require 35 kcal/kg/day; 50 kcal/kg/day exceeds caloric needs. A total of 20 kcal/kg/day is less than normal caloric requirements. A total of 30 kcal/kg/day is the caloric requirement for a moderately stressed individual.

The nurse is preparing to administer a routine dose of phenytoin. The provider orders phenytoin 500 mg intravenous every 6 hours. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Administer over 2 minutes. b. Administer with 0.9% normal saline intravenous. c. Contact the provider. d. Assess cardiac rhythm.

ANS: C The ordered dose is an inappropriate maintenance dose. The nurse should contact the provider. Administering the dose over 2 minutes, administering with normal saline, and assessing the cardiac rhythm for bradycardia are normal administration guidelines for normal dose parameters.

After pulmonary artery catheter insertion, the nurse assesses a pulmonary artery pressure of 45/25 mm Hg, a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 20 mm Hg, a cardiac output of 2.6 L/min and a cardiac index of 1.9 L/min/m2. Which provider order is of the highest priority? a. Apply 50% oxygen via Venturi mask. b. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. c. Begin a dobutamine infusion. d. Obtain stat cardiac enzymes and troponin.

ANS: C The pulmonary pressures are higher than normal, indicating elevated preload, and the cardiac index and output values are low. The priority order for the nurse to implement is to begin a dobutamine infusion to improve cardiac output, possibly reducing pulmonary artery occlusion pressures. The other treatments may be important, depending on other patient data, but the dobutamine infusion is the most important at this time.

The patient presents to the ED with sudden, severe sharp chest discomfort, radiating to the back and down both arms, as well as numbness in the left arm. While taking the patient's vital signs, the nurse notices a 30-point discrepancy in systolic blood pressure between the right and left arm. Based on these findings, the nurse should: a. contact the physician and report the cardiac enzyme results. b. contact the physician and prepare the patient for thrombolytic therapy. c. contact the physician immediately and begin prepping the patient for surgery. d. give the patient aspirin and heparin.

ANS: C These symptoms indicate the possibility of acute aortic dissection. Symptoms often mimic those of AMI or pulmonary embolism. Aortic dissection is a surgical emergency. Signs and symptoms include chest pain and arm paresthesia.

The nurse understands that in a third-degree AV block a. every P wave is conducted to the ventricles. b. some P waves are conducted to the ventricles. c. none of the P waves are conducted to the ventricles. d. the PR interval is prolonged.

ANS: C Third-degree block is often called complete heart block because no atrial impulses are conducted through the AV node to the ventricles. Normally every P wave is conducted to the ventricles. If some of the P waves are conducted but others are not, further assessment is needed to determine the type of block present. A prolonged PR interval is a first-degree AV block, and is well tolerated and requires no treatment.

Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) can be classified as which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Angina b. Nonischemic c. Non-Q wave d. Q wave e. Frequent PVCs

ANS: C, D AMI can be classified as Q wave or non-Q wave.

Nonpharmacological approaches to pain and/or anxiety that may best meet the needs of critically ill patients include: (Select all that apply.) a. anaerobic exercise. b. art therapy. c. guided imagery. d. music therapy. e. animal therapy.

ANS: C, D, E Guided imagery is a powerful technique for controlling pain and anxiety, especially that associated with painful procedures. Similar to guided imagery, a music therapy program offers patients a diversionary technique for pain and anxiety relief. Likewise animal therapy has many benefits for the critically ill patient. Anaerobic exercise is not a nonpharmacological approach for managing pain and anxiety. Most critically ill patients are not able to participate in art therapy.

The nurse is preparing to monitor intracranial pressure (ICP) with a fluid-filled monitoring system. The nurse understands which principles and/or components to be essential when implementing ICP monitoring? (Select all that apply.) a. Use of a heparin flush solution b. Manually flushing the device "prn" c. Recording ICP as a "mean" value d. Use of a pressurized flush system e. Zero referencing the transducer system

ANS: C, E Neither heparin nor pressure bags nor pressurized flush systems are used for ICP monitoring setups. ICP is recorded as a mean value with the transducer system zero referenced at the level of the foramen of Monro. Manually flushing the device may result in an increase in ICP.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 125 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 90% on a 50% Venturi mask. Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following physician's orders? a. Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO2 ≥94%. b. Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour. c. Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes. d. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg intravenously.

ANS: D A central venous pressure of 1 mm Hg, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 3 mm Hg along with a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg and heart rate of 125 are indicative of a low volume state. Infusion of 500 mL of 0.9% normal saline will increase circulating fluid volume. Administration of furosemide (Lasix) is contraindicated and could further reduce circulating fluid volume. Titrating supplemental oxygen and obtaining serum blood gas and electrolyte samples, although not a priority, are appropriate interventions.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the early stages of septic shock. The patient is slightly confused and flushed, with bounding peripheral pulses. Which hemodynamic values is the nurse most likely to assess? a. High pulmonary artery occlusive pressure and high cardiac output b. High systemic vascular resistance and low cardiac output c. Low pulmonary artery occlusive pressure and low cardiac output d. Low systemic vascular resistance and high cardiac output

ANS: D As a consequence of the massive vasodilation associated with septic shock, in the early stages, cardiac output is high with low systemic vascular resistance. In septic shock, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure is not elevated. In the early stages of septic shock, systemic vascular resistance is low and cardiac output is high. In the early stages of septic shock, cardiac output is high.

A 75-year-old patient, who suffered a massive stroke 3 weeks ago, has been unresponsive and has required ventilatory support since the time of the stroke. The physician has approached the spouse regarding placement of a permanent feeding tube. The spouse states that the patient never wanted to be kept alive by tubes and personally didn't want what was being done. After holding a family conference with the spouse, the medical team concurs, and the feeding tube is not placed. This situation is an example of a. euthanasia. b. palliative care. c. withdrawal of life support. d. withholding life support.

ANS: D Because the tube feeding had not been yet placed in the care of this patient, this scenario is an example of withholding of life support. Withholding of life support does not constitute euthanasia. Withdrawal of life support involves the discontinuation of previously established therapies in a terminally ill patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with severe sepsis. Vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg, heart rate 120 beats/min, respirations 28 breaths/min, oral temperature of 102° F, and a right atrial pressure (RAP) of 1 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse carry out first? a. Acetaminophen suppository b. Blood cultures from two sites c. IV antibiotic administration d. Isotonic fluid challenge

ANS: D Early goal-directed therapy in severe sepsis includes administration of IV fluids to keep RAP/CVP at 8 mm Hg or greater (but not greater than 15 mm Hg) and heart rate less than 110 beats/min. Fluid resuscitation to restore perfusion is the immediate priority. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are recommended within the first hour; however, volume resuscitation is the priority in this scenario.

The nurse has been administering 0.9% normal saline intravenous fluids in a patient with severe sepsis. To evaluate the effectiveness of fluid therapy, which physiological parameters would be most important for the nurse to assess? a. Breath sounds and capillary refill b. Blood pressure and oral temperature c. Oral temperature and capillary refill d. Right atrial pressure and urine output

ANS: D Early goal-directed therapy includes administration of IV fluids to keep central venous pressure at 8 mm Hg or greater. Combined with urine output, fluid therapy effectiveness can be adequately assessed. Evaluation of breath sounds assists with determining fluid overload in a patient but does not evaluate the effectiveness of fluid therapy. Capillary refill provides a quick assessment of the patient's overall cardiovascular status, but this assessment is not reliable in a patient who is hypothermic or has peripheral circulatory problems. Evaluation of oral temperature does not assess the effectiveness of fluid therapy in patients in shock.

Select the physiological reasoning behind enteral therapy as the preferred source of nutritional therapy. a. Gut overgrowth increases. b. Gastroparesis increases. c. Bacterial translocation is initiated. d. Gut mucosa is preserved.

ANS: D Enteral feedings prevent bacterial overgrowth and potential bacterial translocation from the gastrointestinal tract and preserve the gut mucosa.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory failure and identifies "Risk for Ineffective Airway Clearance" as a nursing diagnosis. A nursing intervention relevant to this diagnosis is to a. elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. b. obtain an order for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. c. provide adequate sedation. d. reposition the patient every 2 hours.

ANS: D Repositioning the patient will facilitate mobilization of secretions. Elevating the head of bed is an intervention to prevent infection. Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is ordered to prevent complications of immobility. Sedation is an intervention to manage anxiety, and administration of sedatives increases the risk for retained secretions.

The patient's heart rate is 165 beats per minute. The cardiac monitor shows a rapid rate with narrow QRS complexes. The P waves cannot be seen, but the rhythm is regular. The patient's blood pressure has dropped from 124/62 mm Hg to 78/30 mm Hg. The patient's skin is cold and diaphoretic, and the patient is complaining of nausea. The nurse prepares the patient for a. administration of beta blockers. b. administration of atropine. c. transcutaneous pacemaker insertion. d. emergent cardioversion.

ANS: D If an abnormal P wave cannot be visualized on the ECG but the QRS complex is narrow, the term supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is often used. This is a generic term that describes any tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin; it is also used when the source above the ventricles cannot be identified, usually because the rate is too fast. Treatment is directed at assessing the patient's tolerance of the tachycardia. If the rate is higher than 150 beats per minute and the patient is symptomatic, emergent cardioversion is considered. Cardioversion is the delivery of a synchronized electrical shock to the heart by an external defibrillator. Beta blockers are a possibility if the patient is not symptomatic. Atropine is used in the treatment of bradycardia. If atropine is not effective in increasing heart rate, then transcutaneous pacing is implemented.

While caring for a patient with a closed head injury, the nurse assesses the patient to be alert with a blood pressure 130/90 mm Hg, heart rate 60 beats/min, respirations 18 breaths/min, and a temperature of 102°F. To reduce the risk of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in this patient, what is (are) the priority nursing action(s)? a. Ensure adequate periods of rest between nursing interventions. b. Insert an oral airway and monitor respiratory rate and depth. c. Maintain neutral head alignment and avoid extreme hip flexion. d. Reduce ambient room temperature and administer antipyretics.

ANS: D In this scenario, the patient's temperature is elevated, which increases metabolic demands. Increases in metabolic demands increase cerebral blood flow and contribute to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Cooling measures should be implemented. Insertion of an oral airway in an alert patient is contraindicated. While maintaining neutral head position and ensuring adequate periods of rest between nursing interventions are appropriate actions for patients with elevated ICP, treatment of the fever is of higher priority.

Which statement is true about normal function of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract? a. Failure of the tight junctions allows bacteria to invade the GI tract. b. The gut lacks protective mechanisms; thus, infection is always a concern. c. Water is reabsorbed at the beginning of the colon. d. Without nutritional stimulation, mucosal villi atrophy.

ANS: D Mucosal villi replenish every 3 to 4 days; without nutritional stimulation, they atrophy. The other statements are false.

The nurse is preparing to obtain a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) reading for a patient who is mechanically ventilated. Ensuring that the air-fluid interface is at the level of the phlebostatic axis, what is the best nursing action? a. Place the patient in the supine position and record the PAOP immediately after exhalation. b. Place the patient in the supine position and document the average PAOP obtained after three measurements. c. Place the patient with the head of bed elevated 30 degrees and document the average PAOP pressure obtained. d. Place the patient with the head of bed elevated 30 degrees and record the PAOP just before the increase in pressures during inhalation.

ANS: D Pressures are highest when measured at end exhalation in the spontaneously breathing patient. In mechanically ventilated patients, pressures increase with inhalation and decrease with exhalation. Measurements are obtained just before the increase in pressure during inhalation. Supine positioning is contraindicated in the mechanically ventilated patient. The head of bed should be elevated to 30 degrees. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure is not averaged, but measured during inhalation in the mechanically ventilated patient while appropriate positioning is maintained.

The charge nurse has a pulse contour cardiac output monitoring system available for use in the surgical intensive care unit. For which patient is use of this device most appropriate? a. A patient with a history of aortic insufficiency admitted with a postoperative myocardial infarction b. A mechanically ventilated patient with cardiogenic shock being treated with an intraaortic balloon pump c. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation having frequent episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia d. A mechanically ventilated patient admitted following repair of an acute bowel obstruction

ANS: D Pulse contour analysis systems provide stroke volume variation and pulse pressure variation data and are better predictors of fluid responsiveness in mechanically ventilated patients. A patient postoperative from repair of an acute bowel obstruction that is mechanically ventilated is an appropriate candidate for this method of monitoring. Aortic insufficiency, intraaortic balloon pump therapy, and the presence of cardiac dysrhythmias are conditions in which pulse contour analysis systems are either inaccurate or contraindicated.

The nurse notices sinus bradycardia on the patient's cardiac monitor. The nurse should a. give atropine to increase heart rate. b. begin transcutaneous pacing of the patient. c. start a dopamine infusion to stimulate heart function. d. assess for hemodynamic instability.

ANS: D Sinus bradycardia may be a normal heart rhythm for some individuals such as athletes, or it may occur during sleep. Assess for hemodynamic instability related to the bradycardia. If the patient is symptomatic, interventions include administration of atropine. If atropine is not effective in increasing heart rate, then transcutaneous pacing, dopamine infusion, or epinephrine infusion may be administered. Atropine is avoided for treatment of bradycardia associated with hypothermia.

Percutaneous coronary intervention is contraindicated for patients with lesions in which coronary artery? a. Right coronary artery b. Left coronary artery c. Circumflex d. Left main coronary artery

ANS: D Stenosis of the left mainstem artery is considered unacceptable for percutaneous intervention. Lesions in the other locations are candidates for this procedure.

A critically ill patient has a nonhealing wound and malnutrition. Which component of nutritional supplementation is most important for this patient to receive? a. Arginine b. Omega-3 fatty acids c. Branched-chain amino acids d. Vitamin A

ANS: D Vitamin A is vital for wound healing. Arginine is also important in wound healing but is more important for trauma and septic patients, as are omega-3 fatty acids. Branched-chain amino acids are very important for stressed patients who have liver dysfunction or ARDS.

Objective data designating that the nutrition goals are not being met include a. hyperglycemia, normovolemia, and increased protein level. b. overhydration, hypoglycemia, and weight gain. c. weight gain, inconsistent glucose, and normovolemia. d. weight loss, elevated glucose, and dehydration.

ANS: D When nutritional goals are not being met, the patient experiences weight loss, elevated glucose levels, and either overhydration or dehydration.

During insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter, the provider asks the nurse to assist by inflating the balloon with 1.5 mL of air. As the provider advances the catheter, the nurse notices premature ventricular contractions on the monitor. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Deflate the balloon while slowly withdrawing the catheter. b. Instruct the patient to cough and deep-breathe forcefully. c. Inflate the catheter balloon with an additional 1 mL of air. d. Ensure lidocaine hydrochloride (IV) is immediately available.

During the insertion of the pulmonary artery catheter, ventricular dysrhythmias may occur as the catheter passes through the right ventricle. Treatment with lidocaine hydrochloride (or amiodarone) may be necessary to suppress the irritated ventricle and should be readily available. Withdrawal of the catheter is not within the scope of practice of the nurse and may not be necessary. Having the patient cough and deep-breathe will not correct the problem. The maximum volume of air necessary to inflate the balloon is 1.5 mL. Any additional volumes added may increase the risk of complications.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency department following a fall from a 10-foot ladder. Upon admission, the nurse assesses the patient to be awake, alert, and moving all four extremities. The nurse also notes bruising behind the left ear and straw-colored drainage from the left naris. What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Insert bilateral ear plugs. b. Monitor airway patency. c. Maintain neutral head position. d. Apply a small nasal drip pad.

NS: D Patient assessment findings are indicative of a skull fracture. The presence of straw-colored nasal draining may be indicative of a CSF leak. Drainage should be monitored and allowed to flow freely. Application of a nasal drip pad is the most appropriate action. Monitoring airway patency and maintaining the head in a neutral position are not priorities in a patient who is awake and alert. Insertion of bilateral ear plugs is not standard of care.