Salesforce CDP
What are the two file type options for activation for Cloud Storage? A. .json B. .csv C. .zip D. .xls
A. .json B. .csv
Which two file types are available for Cloud Storage activation? A. .json B. .csv C. .xls D. .zip
A. .json B. .csv
How A. many Metrics can be present in 1 segment container? A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 D. 100
A. 1
How many marketing cloud EIDs can be connected to Salesforce CDP? A. 3 B. 5 C. 1 D. 2
A. 3
Which two dependencies can prevent a Data Stream from being deleted? A. A data stream attribute is mapped to a Data Model Object B. A data stream attribute is used in Segmentation C. A data stream attribute is used in Calculated Insights D. A data stream attribute is used in Activation
A. A data stream attribute is mapped to a Data Model Object C. A data stream attribute is used in Calculated Insights
How does an admin increase the consolidation rate for identity resolution? A. Add more matching rules to broaden the search of matches B. Change the ignore empty value option C. Change all reconciliation rules to source sequence D. Reduce the number of matching rules
A. Add more matching rules to broaden the search of matches
Which Steps should an administrator take if a successfully configured cloud storage data stream fails to refresh with a NO FILE FOUND error message ? A. Check if the file exists in S3 bucket B. Check permissions are configured for the CDP user C. Check permissions are configured for the S3 user D. Check if cloud storage data source is enabled in cdp set up
A. Check if the file exists in S3 bucket B. Check permissions are configured for the CDP user
What must CDP admin user do first when setting up users in CDP? A. Creates profile for each CDP user role B. Assign permission sets C. Configure Data Source D. Set up each use as admin
A. Creates profile for each CDP user role
Which dependencies need to be removed before a data stream can be deleted? A. Data Model B. Segmentation C. Calculated Insights D. Activation
A. Data Model C. Calculated Insights
Which three Object types are available under Data Explorer? A. Data Source Object B. Data Model Object C. Segment Objects D. Data Extensions E. Calculated Insights
A. Data Source Object B. Data Model Object E. Calculated Insights
What is the process called of Cleaning, Deduplicating, Merging data into a single ID? A. Data Unification B. Data Mining C. Data Cleansing
A. Data Unification
What are two root causes to why companies face fragmented data issues ? A. Department silos B. Employees working from home C. Misaligned business goals D. No eCommerce websites
A. Department silos C. Misaligned business goals
What are the two options for the publishing schedule of segments? A. Don't Refresh B. Data Stream schedule C. 12 or 24 hrs D. Activation schedule
A. Don't Refresh C. 12 or 24 hrs
In which two ways can a marketer include campaign name from an external system into the segment? A. Include campaign code in segment name B. Include campaign code in activation name C. Include campaign code in activation description D. Include campaign code in filename specification
A. Include campaign code in segment name B. Include campaign code in activation name
Which operator can be used to find individuals whose loyalty is gold, platinum or higher? A. Is In B. Is between C. Is less than or equal to D. Is greater than
A. Is In
What are the two benefits of using Calculated Insights compared to Segmentation Criteria? A. It creates reusable content B. Performs complex queries across multiple objects. C. Simple logic on row-based operations D. Friendly drag & drop interface
A. It creates reusable content B. Performs complex queries across multiple objects.
Which of the following are characteristics of Formulas? (Choose 2) A. Simple logic on a row-based operation B. Ease of use, self-service C. Highly reusable content D. Attribute updated regularly
A. Simple logic on a row-based operation C. Highly reusable content
How can a Data Subject Rights request from a customer be submitted to Salesforce CDP? A. Using the consent API B. Using a dedicated field in data stream C. Using a dedicated data stream D. Using Data Exp7orer
A. Using the consent API
Which two files are activated to Cloud file storage to publish segment?
B. A file that contains the segment definition C. A file that contains the segment members with additional attributes
Which two CRM objects are included in both Sales and Service Cloud Data Bundle? A. Campaign Member B. Contact C. Opportunity D. Account
B. Contact D. Account
What is the relationship between Individual and Contact Point Objects? A. 1:1 B. 1: Many C. Many: Many D. None of the above
B. 1: Many
What is the maximum number of filter criteria a segment can have? A. 10 B. 50 C. 500 D. 99
B. 50
Which two features are impacted by the Time zone setting in CDP instance? A. Ingestion Schedule B. Activation Schedule C. Identity Resolution publish schedule D. Segmentation schedule
B. Activation Schedule D. Segmentation schedule
When can the data types be changed during ingestion? A. After the DSO is created B. Before DSO is created C. Data type can never be changed D. Data type can be changed at any time
B. Before DSO is created
Which three types of data can Identity Resolution combine into a unified Profile? A. Corporate Performance B. Behavioral C. Transactional D. Product E. Profile
B. Behavioral C. Transactional E. Profile
Which two types of data can be ingested from Interaction Studio using the connector? A. Product Catalog B. Behavioral Events C. User Profile D. Segment Membership
B. Behavioral Events C. User Profile
Which datatype is not supported in Salesforce CDP? A. Date B. Boolean C. Text D. Number
B. Boolean
Which of the following functions returns the first value from a list that isn't empty? A. CONCAT B. COALESCE C. REPLACE D. FIND
B. COALESCE
Which two steps are required when setting up a marketing cloud activation?
B. Choose an activation target D. Select the email contact point
Which 2 characteristics describe the CIM (Cloud Information Model)? A. Product sold by salesforce B. Conceptual model C. Statistical model D. Canonical model
B. Conceptual model D. Canonical model
Which function does the Copy SOQL button perform in Data Explorer? A. Copy SOQL for any formula fields in that object B. Copy SOQL for the current data view to clipboard and export C. Copy SOQL for data export from Salesforce CDP D. Copy SOQL for the current data view to clipboard
B. Copy SOQL for the current data view to clipboard and export
What is the result of a segment using two separate containers linked by an AND: SalesOrder.PurchasedItem = 'Yellow' AND SalesOrder.PurchasedItem = 'Belt'? A. Customer who purchased only 'Yellow Belt' items on the purchase. B. Customer who purchased any yellow product and also purchased belt of any color. C. Customer who purchased 'Yellow Belt' as a single product on the purchase. D. Customer who purchased 'Yellow Belt', or any 'yellow' item, or any 'belt' items on the purchase
B. Customer who purchased any yellow product and also purchased belt of any color.
Which two features can be used to validate the data in the unified profile object? [Answer need confirmation] A. Query API B. Data Explorer C. Segmentation D. Identity Reconciliation
B. Data Explorer D. Identity Reconciliation
Where does Data Specialist enable value suggestion on an attribute for segmentation? A. Segment Setup B. Data Mapping (accurate) C. Data Modeling D. Data Stream Setup (it can be also answer. HELP doc )
B. Data Mapping (accurate)
Which two dependencies need to be removed prior to disconnecting a data source? A. Activation Target B. Data Stream C. Segment D. Activation
B. Data Stream C. Segment
Which archive formats are supported by Salesforce CDP? A. CSV B. GZ C. TSV D. ZIP
B. GZ D. ZIP
Which of the fields is non-editable during data ingestion? A. Field label B. Header label C. Field API name D. Data Type
B. Header label
What should a Marketer do first when implementing Salesforce CDP? A. Manage Consent B. Identify Data Sources C. Obtain Cross-organizational buy-in D. Identify Activation Targets
B. Identify Data Sources
What are the two benefits of Calculate Insights compared to Segment criteria? A. It creates simple logic on row-based operations B. It creates reusable contents C. Marketer friendly drag and drop interface D. It performs complex queries on multiple objects
B. It creates reusable contents D. It performs complex queries on multiple objects
Which data model defines the complete set of experiences that customers go through when interacting with a company? A. Party Data Model B. Journey Data Model C. Engagement Data Model D. Case Data Model
B. Journey Data Model
What are the two steps of data ingestion in Salesforce CDP? A. Map ingested data to existing ingested data objects. B. Map ingested data to data model with consistent semantics. C. Preserve data per source schema with ingestion to data lake. D. Establish a connection with the source data via REST API
B. Map ingested data to data model with consistent semantics. C. Preserve data per source schema with ingestion to data lake.
What role in a company was Salesforce CDP designed for? A. Developer B. Marketer C. Salesperson D. Data Analyst
B. Marketer
How do the Data streams that use the Marketing Cloud Connector refresh data? A. Manually refreshed by CDP Admin B. Marketing Cloud's Automation Studio handles this process. C. APIs are used for refresh D. None of the above
B. Marketing Cloud's Automation Studio handles this process.
What modeling format describes the Individual and Contact Point objects? A. Jagged B. Normalized C. Compress D. De-normalized
B. Normalized
What is the primary object for an Organization, Individual, Affiliation Group, Member in the Cloud Information Model? A. Membership B. Party C. Global Account D. Individual
B. Party
Which of these three CRM objects do reconciliation rules operate across? A. Contact B. Party Identification C. Individual D. Lead E. Contact Point Email
B. Party Identification C. Individual E. Contact Point Email
How can an administrator check segment publishing status? A. Segments publish summary dashboard B. Publish History related list in Activation Record C. Segments publish history report D. Publish History related list in Segment Record
B. Publish History related list in Activation Record D. Publish History related list in Segment Record
A purchase order number is specified as text field typE. What value will segmenting on Purchase order number | is equal to | 0122 return? A. Purchase order number 122 B. Purchase order number 0122 C. Purchase order number 0122 and 122 D. Purchase order number null
B. Purchase order number 0122
What three things happen when an admin clicks on identity resolution deletion? A. Deletes all custom data model objects B. Removes all unified customer data C. Resets all settings in identity resolution D. Eliminates dependencies on data model object
B. Removes all unified customer data C. Resets all settings in identity resolution D. Eliminates dependencies on data model object
Which two Interaction Studio features are updated with activation from Salesforce CDP? A. Event Data B. Segments C. Promotions D. Profile Attributes
B. Segments D. Profile Attributes
What is a DMO called if it inherits the name, shape, and semantics of the reference object? A. Custom DMO B. Standard DMO C. Data Lake Object (DLO) D. Data Source Object (DSO)
B. Standard DMO
Which of the following cannot be used in Segmentation? (Choose 2) A. Numeric Measures B. Text Measures C. Aggregate Functions D. Date Time Measures
B. Text Measures D. Date Time Measures
What happens if no file name is specified in AWS S3 data stream during ingestion? A. The system does not fetch any file and the data stream shows an error. B. The system chooses the first file found in the S3 bucket C. The ingestion setup can't be completed without specifying the filename. D. The ingestion setup is completed but the data stream shows 0 records
B. The system chooses the first file found in the S3 bucket
In addition to Unified Individual Object, what other object does Salesforce CDP automatically create and manage during the Identity Resolution process? A. Unified Lead Objects B. Unified Contact Point Objects C. Unified Order Objects D. Unified Product Objects
B. Unified Contact Point Objects
How long does it take for the suggested values to be visible after being enabled? A. Up to 1 week B. Up to 24 hours C. Instantly D. Up to 48 hours
B. Up to 24 hours
What are the two refresh models available for a cloud storage data stream? A. Update B. Upsert C. Append D. Full Refresh
B. Upsert D. Full Refresh
How should Data Subject Rights request be submitted to Salesforce CDP? A. Using a dedicated field in data stream B. Using Consent API C. Using dedicated data stream D. Using Data Explorer
B. Using Consent API
What programming language is used to configure Calculate Insights? A. Python B. SOQL C. ANSI SOQL D. DCL
C. ANSI SOQL
Which types of data can be ingested from Interaction studio? A. Sales data B. Segment membership C. Behavioral Events D. User profile
C. Behavioral Events D. User profile
How many days of historical data is loaded when B2C Commerce Data Stream is created from the Order Bundle? A. 90 days B. 60 days C. 30 days D. 10 days
C. 30 days
What is the max limit of records can be retrieved by the Profile and Query API in a single call? A. 2000 B. 9999 C. 4999 D. No max limit
C. 4999
What is the maximum limit of the number of records for Full Refresh Extract Method? A. 10 million B. 40 million C. 50 million D. No hard limit
C. 50 million
Which CDP objects are available as tables via the Tableau connector to discover new insights about customers? A. Calculated insights B. Data Model Objects C. All Objects D. Unified Profile
C. All Objects
What is the purpose of Identity Resolutions? A. Increase the size of your mailable customer list B. Perform data hygiene on large data set C. Build a cohesive, omnichannel view of customers D. Drive more revenue through ecommerce channels
C. Build a cohesive, omnichannel view of customers
Which formula function should a Data Specialist use to create composite key if the primary key is not available in the data stream? A. COALESCE B. UUID C. CONCATE D. SUBTITUTE
C. CONCATE
What Salesforce CDP API enables simultaneous retrieve of customer profile along with their calculated insights? A. Profile API B. Query API C. Calculated Insights API (Doubt) D. Metadata API
C. Calculated Insights API (Doubt)
In addition to email, which three attributes are available on the interface of .... (3rd answer Doubt between Address and Government ID) A. Social Handle B. Government ID C. First and Last Name D. Phone Number E. Address
C. First and Last Name D. Phone Number
In Salesforce CRM, the customer has a custom 'Customer_Email c' object related to standard 'Contact' object. Which CDP data model object do you map it to? A. Contact B. Custom 'Customer_Email' object C. Contact Point Email D. Individual
C. Contact Point Email
Which user role manages the data model and creates Identity Resolution rulesets for unified profiles? A. Admin B. Marketing Specialist C. Data Aware Specialist D. Marketing Manager
C. Data Aware Specialist
Which data bundle sources are available out of the box to create Data Streams from Marketing Cloud? A. Email only B. Email and MobileConnect C. Email, MobileConnect and MobilePush D. Email, MobileConnect, MobilePush and GroupConnect
C. Email, MobileConnect and MobilePush
Which data model type in Salesforce CDP defines interactions with party? A. Sales Order B. Transaction C. Engagement D. Individual
C. Engagement
What is the first step in the two step process to ingest data from SFMC to Salesforce CDP? A. Extract marketing Cloud data to customer owned S3 bucket B. Extract Marketing cloud data to Salesforce owned SFTP C. Extract Marketing Cloud data to Salesforce owned S3 bucket D. Extract Marketing Cloud data to customer owned SFTP
C. Extract Marketing Cloud data to Salesforce owned S3 bucket
Which two files are created in Cloud Storage bucket after segment is published? A. File with the security credentials B. File containing calculated insights C. File containing segment definition D. File containing segment members with additional attributes
C. File containing segment definition
Which field in the recommended source schema is not editable? A. Field Label B. Field API Name C. Header Label D. Data Type
C. Header Label
How often does subscriber data from Marketing Cloud Bundles refresh? A. Every 12 hours B. Every 15 mins C. Hourly D. Daily
C. Hourly
What does the ignore empty value option do in Identity Resolution? A. Ignores empty reconciliation rules B. Replaces the value with a null C. Ignores empty fields when running reconciliation D. Modified the value in the field with a predefined value
C. Ignores empty fields when running reconciliation
What should be the type of the Event Time Field while ingesting Engagement data? A. Mutable B. Inconsistent C. Immutable D. None of the above
C. Immutable
A developer wants to create a segment for a birthday campaign which is refreshed every day and activateD. Which operator should he use? A. Is Birthday B. Is This Year C. Is Anniversary Of D. Is Between
C. Is Anniversary Of
Which CDP permission set manages the overall segmentation strategy and identifies the target campaigns? A. Marketing specialist B. IT manager C. Marketing manager D. Data Aware Specialist
C. Marketing manager
Which type of measures with aggregate functions are supported? A. Date B. Text C. Numeric D. Boolean
C. Numeric
How many Marketing Cloud instances, or Enterprise IDs can be connected to one Salesforce CDP org? A. Two B. Four C. One D. Three
C. One
Which data model in Salesforce CDP defines the future revenue or quantity for an opportunity of the product family? A. Product B. Sales Order C. Party D. Engagement
C. Party
What data model object category can a marketer create segments on? A. Unified Individual Only B. Engagement C. Profile D. Other
C. Profile
Which Interaction Studio features are updated by activation from CDP? A. Engagement data B. Event data C. Profile attributes D. Segments
C. Profile attributes D. Segments
The purchase order number field is specified as text. What value will be segmenting on 0852 retrieve? A. Purchase order number will be NULL B. Purchase order number 852 C. Purchase order number 0852 D. Purchase order number 852 and 0852
C. Purchase order number 0852
How is Restriction of Processing request handled in segmentation? A. Restricts data processing on all entities B. Restricts data processing while saving the segment C. Restricts data processing for individual and unified individual profile D. Restricts data processing during activation
C. Restricts data processing for individual and unified individual profile
Which permission set needs to be added to the salesforce CRM object to be available in Salesforce CDP A. Salesforce CDP external connector B. Salesforce External Integration C. Salesforce CDP Salesforce Connector Integration D. Salesforce External Connector
C. Salesforce CDP Salesforce Connector Integration
Which configuration supports separate AWS S3 buckets for data ingestion and activation? A. Separate user credentials for data stream and activation B. Dedicated S3 data source configuration in CDP Setup C. Separate user credentials for data stream and activation target D. Dedicated S3 data source configuration in Activation Setup
C. Separate user credentials for data stream and activation target
What are activated segments found in Marketing Cloud? A. Filtered data extensions B. Standard data extensions C. Shared data extensions D. Salesforce Data Extensions
C. Shared data extension
What does the source sequence reconciliation rule do in Identity Resolution? A. Source data from disparate systems across the enterprise. B. Reconcile data by data that's most frequent across records. C. Sort data sources in order of most to least preferred for inclusion in Unified Profile. D. Includes data from sources where the data is alphanumerically sequenced.
C. Sort data sources in order of most to least preferred for inclusion in Unified Profile.
Where do calculated insights appear in the segmentation attribute library? A. They always appear in Direct Attributes B. They always appear in Related Attributes C. They appear under the objects that were used to create them D. They appear under Profile type objects
C. They appear under the objects that were used to create them
What type of data is collected by a company or entity that does not have a direct relationship with the visitor and customer? A. Partner Data B. First Party Data C. Third Party Data D. Second Party Data
C. Third Party Data
What is the recommendation for activation when multiple data sources are brought into CDP?
C. Use Identity Resolution and activate on Unified Individual
Which authentication type is supported for Cloud File storage activation target? A. Using private key certificate B. Using encrypted username and password C. Using access and secret keys D. Using JWT token
C. Using access and secret keys
How can the records in a Data Stream object be updated? A. Using API B. Using Data Explorer C. Using the edit Data Stream feature D. Using a new source file
C. Using the edit Data Stream feature
What is the correct formula to display the value of the raw data column of "Revenue" plus a 5% margin? A. SELECT(['Revenue'] *1.05) B. SELECT(['revenue'] *1.05) C. sourceField(['Revenue'] *1.05) D. sourceField(['revenue'] *1.05)
C. sourceField(['Revenue'] *1.05)
How A. many calculated insights can be created per tenant? A. 5 B. 10 C. 50 D. 100
D. 100
What permission setting should an admin check if the custom CRM object is not accessible from CDP? A. Create object permission enabled in CDP org B. Read object permission enabled in Source CRM Org C. Modify all object permission enabled in CDP org D. View All object permission enabled in Source CRM org
D. View All object permission enabled in Source CRM org
What programming language is used to configure Calculated Insights A. Python B. DCL C. SOQL D. ANSI SOQL
D. ANSI SOQL
Salesforce CDP creates automationsin SFMC automation studio to support data ingestion. Under which all these automations be created? A. All business unites (BUs) in the Account used for sending B. All selected business unites (BUs) during mapping C. Top-level (ENT) business unit only D. All business units (BUs) in the Account including Top-Level (ENT) business unit
D. All business units (BUs) in the Account including Top-Level (ENT) business unit
Which of these is present in Identity Resolution Summary? A. Unified Individuals B. Last Processing Status C. Matched Individuals D. All the above
D. All the above
Which Salesforce CDP use case merges customer information from various systems to create a single id, a single record for a cusomter? A. Audience Segmentation B. Consent Management C. Data Unification D. Identity resolution
D. Identity resolution
How should an admin view past processing for resolution rules in Identity Resoultion? A. Run History B. Audit History list view C. View processing Audit Trail D. Click on view history
D. Click on view history
A marketer needs to create several segments with similar filter criteria for multiple brands. How can marketer create these segments as efficiently as possible? A. Use and attribute filter feature in activation B. Create a segment and clone via API for each brand C. Create a reusable container block with common criteria D. Create a segment and copy for each brand.
D. Create a segment and copy for each brand
What are 2 options to stop a segment from publishing? A. Disable B. Skip C. Unpublish D. Delete
D. Delete
Which operator can be used to check if an attribute value is blank? A. IS not null B. Has no value C. Null D. Is empty
D. Is empty
How many Business Units under the same Enterprise ID (EID) can be connected for data ingestion? A. 1 B. 4 C. 10 D. No hard limit
D. No hard limit
How many CRM orgs can be connected to CDP instance? A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. No hard limit
D. No hard limit
How many Salesforce orgs can an admin connect to Salesforce CDP? A. 1 B. 2 C. 10 D. No limit
D. No hard limit
What is customizable in Salesforce CDP canonical model? A. Objects B. Objects & Fields C. Fields D. Objects, Fields & relationships
D. Objects, Fields & relationships
Which permission set allows the user to create, manage and publish segments in Salesforce CDP? A. Salesforce CDP Admin B. Salesforce CDP Data aware specialist C. Salesforce CDP Marketing Manager D. Salesforce CDP Marketing Specialist
D. Salesforce CDP Marketing Specialist
What configuration step has to be completed before marketing cloud activation? A. Assign Salesforce CDP activation permission set to the user B. Enable segment publishing to marketing cloud C. Allow audience creation from CDP in marketing cloud D. Selects business units for activation
D. Selects business units for activation
How can a marketer change attribute names to match personalization in an Activation Target? A. Update field names in data model B. Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation target C. Update attributes names in the data stream configuration D. Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation
D. Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation
Which data type is collected by a company that does not have any direct relationship with the customer? A. Partner data B. First party data C. Second party data D. Third party data
D. Third party data
What can cause a published schedule to be skipped? A. Segment criteria is not correct B. Activation schedule is paused C. Segment has 0 records D. Too many schedules at same time
D. Too many schedules at same time
Data from which object will be deleted when processing a Data Deletion or Right to be forgotten request A. Individual and all related entities in data model B. Individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams C. Unified individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams D. Unified individual and all related entities in data model
D. Unified individual and all related entities in data model
What result will a segmentation filtering on City | Is Equal To | 'San José' return? A. Values containing San José', San Jose only B. Values containing San Jose', san jose only C. Values containing San José', San Jose, san josé, san jose D. Values containing San José', san josé only
D. Values containing San José', san josé only
Which CDP use case drives acquisition of new customers based on 3rd party data?
Prospective look-alikes with paid media