section 2 cell bio

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11-16 Water molecules readily form hydrogen bonds with other polar molecules, and when they encounter nonpolar molecules they must form hydrogen-bonding networks with neighboring water molecules. Which of the following molecules will cause a "cage" of water to form? (a) 2-methylpropane (b) acetone (c) methanol (d) urea

(a) 2-methylpropane

7-6 Figure Q7-6 shows a ribose sugar. RNA bases are added to the part of the ribose sugar pointed to by arrow _____. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6.

(a) 3.

7-43 Below is the sequence from the 3′ end of an mRNA.5′-CCGUUACCAGGCCUCAUUAUUGGUAACGGAAAAAAAAAAAAAA-3′If you were told that this sequence contains the stop codon for the protein encoded by this mRNA, what is the anticodon on the tRNA in the P site of the ribosome when release factor binds to the A site? (a) 5′-CCA-3′ (b) 5′-CCG-3′ (c) 5′-UGG-3′ (d) 5′-UUA-3′

(a) 5′-CCA-3′stop codon is 5'-UAA-3'

7-13 Which of the following molecules of RNA would you predict to be the most likely to fold into a specific structure as a result of intramolecular base-pairing? (a) 5′-CCCUAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAUUUUUUUUUUUUUUUUAGGG-3′ (b) 5′-UGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUGUG-3′ (c) 5′-AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA-3′ (d) 5′-GGAAAAGGAGAUGGGCAAGGGGAAAAGGAGAUGGGCAAGG-3′

(a) 5′-CCCUAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAUUUUUUUUUUUUUUUUAGGG-3′

15-38 Which of the following statements about vesicle budding from the Golgi is false? (a) Clathrin molecules are important for binding to and selecting cargoes for transport. (b) Adaptins interact with clathrin. (c) Once vesicle budding occurs, clathrin molecules are released from the vesicle. (d) Clathrin molecules act at the cytosolic surface of the Golgi membrane.

(a) Clathrin molecules are important for binding to and selecting cargoes for transport.

8-30 Which proteins are likely to act as gene repressors? (a) G (b) H (c) J (d) both H and J

(a) G

15-2 Which of the following statements about membrane-enclosed organelles is true? (a) In a typical cell, the area of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane far exceeds the area of plasma membrane. (b) The nucleus is the only organelle that is surrounded by a double membrane. (c) Other than the nucleus, most organelles are small and thus, in a typical cell, only about 10% of a cell's volume is occupied by membrane-enclosed organelles; the other 90% of the cell volume is the cytosol. (d) The nucleus is the only organelle that contains DNA.

(a) In a typical cell, the area of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane far exceeds the area of plasma membrane.

7-33 Genes in eukaryotic cells often have intronic sequences coded for within the DNA. These sequences are ultimately not translated into proteins. Why? (a) Intronic sequences are removed from RNA molecules by the spliceosome, which works in the nucleus. (b) Introns are not transcribed by RNA polymerase. (c) Introns are removed by catalytic RNAs in the cytoplasm. (d) The ribosome will skip over intron sequences when translating RNA into protein.

(a) Intronic sequences are removed from RNA molecules by the spliceosome, which works in the nucleus.

15-14 What is the role of the nuclear localization sequence in a nuclear protein? (a) It is bound by cytoplasmic proteins that direct the nuclear protein to the nuclear pore. (b) It is a hydrophobic sequence that enables the protein to enter the nuclear membranes. (c) It aids in protein unfolding so that the protein can thread through nuclear pores. (d) It prevents the protein from diffusing out of the nucleus through nuclear pores.

(a) It is bound by cytoplasmic proteins that direct the nuclear protein to the nuclear pore.

15-21 Which of the following statements about peroxisomes is false? (a) Most peroxisomal proteins are synthesized in the ER. (b) Peroxisomes synthesize phospholipids for the myelin sheath. (c) Peroxisomes produce hydrogen peroxide. (d) Vesicles that bud from the ER can mature into peroxisomes.

(a) Most peroxisomal proteins are synthesized in the ER.

12-9 Cells use membranes to help maintain set ranges of ion concentrations inside and outside the cell. Which of the following ions is the most abundant outside a typical mammalian cell? (a) Na+ (b) K+ (c) Ca2+ (d) Cl-

(a) Na+

15-61 Which of the following statements about phagocytic cells in animals is false? (a) Phagocytic cells are important in the gut to take up large particles of food. (b) Phagocytic cells scavenge dead and damaged cells and cell debris. (c) Phagocytic cells can engulf invading microorganisms and deliver them to their lysosomes for destruction. (d) Phagocytic cells extend pseudopods that surround the material to be ingested.

(a) Phagocytic cells are important in the gut to take up large particles of food.

11-56 You have isolated two mutants of a normally pear-shaped microorganism that have lost their distinctive shape and are now round. One of the mutants has a defect in a protein you call A and the other has a defect in a protein you call B. First, you grind up each type of mutant cell and normal cells separately and separate the plasma membranes from the cytoplasm, forming the first cell extract. Then you set aside a portion of each fraction for later testing. Next, you wash the remaining portion of the membrane fractions with a low concentration of urea (which will unfold proteins and disrupt their ability to interact with other proteins) and centrifuge the mixture. The membranes and their constituent proteins form a pellet, and the proteins liberated from the membranes by the urea wash remain in the supernatant. When you check each of the fractions for the presence of A or B, you obtain the results given below.Which of the following statements are consistent with your results (more than one answer may apply)? (a) Protein A is an integral membrane protein that interacts with B, a peripheral membrane protein that is part of the cell cortex. (b) Protein B is an integral membrane protein that interacts with A, a peripheral membrane protein that is part of the cell cortex. (c) Proteins A and B are both integral membrane proteins. (d) The mutation in A affects its ability to interact with B.

(a) Protein A is an integral membrane protein that interacts with B, a peripheral membrane protein that is part of the cell cortex.AND(d) The mutation in A affects its ability to interact with B.

7-26 Transcription in bacteria differs from transcription in a eukaryotic cell because __________________________. (a) RNA polymerase (along with its sigma subunit) can initiate transcription on its own. (b) RNA polymerase (along with its sigma subunit) requires the general transcription factors to assemble at the promoter before polymerase can begin transcription. (c) the sigma subunit must associate with the appropriate type of RNA polymerase to produce mRNAs. (d) RNA polymerase must be phosphorylated at its C-terminal tail for transcription to proceed.

(a) RNA polymerase (along with its sigma subunit) can initiate transcription on its own.

8-50 In mammals, individuals with two X chromosomes are female, and individuals with an X and a Y chromosome are male. It had long been known that a gene located on the Y chromosome was sufficient to induce the gonads to form testes, which is the main male-determining factor in development, and researchers sought the product of this gene, the so-called testes-determining factor (TDF). For several years, the TDF was incorrectly thought to be a zinc finger protein encoded by a gene called BoY. Which of the following observations would most strongly suggest that BoY might not be the TDF? (a) Some XY individuals that develop into females have mutations in a different gene, SRY, but are normal at BoY. (b) BoY is not expressed in the adult male testes. (c) Expression of BoY in adult females does not masculinize them. (d) A few of the genes that are known to be expressed only in the testes have binding sites for the BoY protein in their upstream regulatory sequences, but most do not.

(a) Some XY individuals that develop into females have mutations in a different gene, SRY, but are normal at BoY.

12-41 Voltage-gated channels contain charged protein domains, which are sensitive to changes in membrane potential. By responding to a threshold in the membrane potential, these voltage sensors trigger the opening of the channels. Which of the following best describes the behavior of a population of channels exposed to such a threshold? (a) Some channels remain closed and some open completely. (b) All channels open completely. (c) All channels open partly, to the same degree. (d) All channels open partly, each to a different degree.

(a) Some channels remain closed and some open completely.

8-13 Which of the following statements about the Lac operon is false? (a) The Lac repressor binds when lactose is present in the cell. (b) Even when the CAP activator is bound to DNA, if lactose is not present, the Lac operon will not be transcribed. (c) The CAP activator can only bind DNA when it is bound to cAMP. (d) The Lac operon only produces RNA when lactose is present and glucose is absent.

(a) The Lac repressor binds when lactose is present in the cell.

8-44 You are studying a set of mouse genes whose expression increases when cells are exposed to the hormone cortisol, and you believe that the same cortisol-responsive transcriptional activator regulates all of these genes. Which of the following statements below should be true if your hypothesis is correct? (a) The cortisol-responsive genes share a DNA sequence in their regulatory regions that binds the cortisol-responsive transcriptional activator. (b) The cortisol-responsive genes must all be in an operon. (c) The transcriptional regulators that bind to the regulatory regions of the cortisol-responsive genes must all be the same. (d) The cortisol-responsive genes must not be transcribed in response to other hormones.

(a) The cortisol-responsive genes share a DNA sequence in their regulatory regions that binds the cortisol-responsive transcriptional activator.

11-28 A group of membrane proteins can be extracted from membranes only by using detergents. All the proteins in this group have a similar amino acid sequence at their C-terminus: -KKKKKXXC (where K stands for lysine, X stands for any amino acid, and C stands for cysteine). This sequence is essential for their attachment to the membrane. What is the most likely way in which the C-terminal sequence attaches these proteins to the membrane? (a) The cysteine residue is covalently attached to a membrane lipid. (b) The peptide spans the membrane as an α helix. (c) The peptide spans the membrane as part of a β sheet. (d) The positively charged lysine residues interact with an acidic integral membrane protein.

(a) The cysteine residue is covalently attached to a membrane lipid.

7-27 Which of the following does not occur before a eukaryotic mRNA is exported from the nucleus? (a) The ribosome binds to the mRNA. (b) The mRNA is polyadenylated at its 3′ end. (c) 7-methylguanosine is added in a 5′-to-5′ linkage to the mRNA. (d) RNA polymerase dissociates.

(a) The ribosome binds to the mRNA.

11-32 Porin proteins form large, barrel-like channels in the membrane. Which of the following is not true about these channels? (a) They are made primarily of α helices. (b) They are made primarily of β sheets. (c) They cannot form narrow channels. (d) They have alternating hydrophobic and hydrophilic amino acids.

(a) They are made primarily of α helices.

8-10 Which of the following statements about transcriptional regulators is false? (a) Transcriptional regulators usually interact with the sugar-phosphate backbone on the outside of the double helix to determine where to bind on the DNA helix. (b) Transcriptional regulators will form hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and hydrophobic interactions with DNA. (c) The DNA-binding motifs of transcriptional regulators usually bind in the major groove of the DNA helix. (d) The binding of transcriptional regulators generally does not disrupt the hydrogen bonds that hold the double helix together.

(a) Transcriptional regulators usually interact with the sugar-phosphate backbone on the outside of the double helix to determine where to bind on the DNA helix.

12-59 The stimulation of a motor neuron ultimately results in the release of a neurotransmitter at the synapse between the neuron and a muscle cell. What type of neurotransmitter is used at these neuromuscular junctions? (a) acetylcholine (b) glutamate (c) GABA (d) glycine

(a) acetylcholine

12-17 Pumps are transporters that are able to harness energy provided by other components in the cells to drive the movement of solutes across membranes, against their concentration gradient. This type of transport is called _____________. (a) active transport. (b) free diffusion. (c) facilitated diffusion. (d) passive transport.

(a) active transport.

12-2 Which of the following channels would not be expected to generate a change in voltage by movement of its substrate across the membrane where it is found? (a) an aquaporin (b) a sodium channel (c) a calcium channel (d) a proton channel

(a) an aquaporin

8-58 MicroRNAs ____________________. (a) are produced from a precursor miRNA transcript. (b) are found only in humans. (c) control gene expression by base-pairing with DNA sequences. (d) can degrade RNAs by using their intrinsic catalytic activity

(a) are produced from a precursor miRNA transcript.

11-50 Consider the apical location of a particular protein expressed in epithelial cells, illustrated in Figure Q11-50A. When a molecule that chelates calcium is added to the cell culture medium, you observe a redistribution of that protein around the entire cell, shown in Figure Q11-50B. Which is most likely to be true about the role of calcium in maintaining an apical distribution of protein A?Figure Q11-50 (a) calcium is required to maintain the structural integrity of the junctional complex (b) calcium is required for the binding of the junctional proteins to the cell cortex (c) calcium is a structural component of protein A (d) calcium inhibits intracellular transport of protein A

(a) calcium is required to maintain the structural integrity of the junctional complex

11-40 Plasma membranes are extremely thin and fragile, requiring an extensive support network of fibrous proteins. This network is called the ____________. (a) cortex. (b) attachment complex. (c) cytoskeleton. (d) spectrin.

(a) cortex.

8-56 miRNAs, tRNAs, and rRNAs all _____________. (a) do not code for proteins. (b) act in the nucleus. (c) are packaged with other proteins to form RISC. (d) form base pairs with mRNA molecules.

(a) do not code for proteins.

12-56 Figure Q12-56 illustrates changes in membrane potential during the formation of an action potential. What membrane characteristic or measurement used to study action potentials is indicated by the arrow?Figure Q12-56 (a) effect of a depolarizing stimulus (b) resting membrane potential (c) threshold potential (d) action potential

(a) effect of a depolarizing stimulus

You are interested in understanding the gene regulation of Lkp1, a protein that is normally produced in liver and kidney cells in mice. Interestingly, you find that the LKP1 gene is not expressed in heart cells. You isolate the DNA upstream of the LKP1 gene, place it upstream of the gene for green fluorescent protein (GFP), and insert this entire piece of recombinant DNA into mice. You find GFP expressed in liver and kidney cells but not in heart cells, an expression pattern similar to the normal expression of the LKP1 gene. Further experiments demonstrate that there are three regions in the promoter, labeled A, B, and C in Figure Q8-21, that contribute to this expression pattern. Assume that a single and unique transcription factor binds each site such that protein X binds site A, protein Y binds site B, and protein Z binds site C. You want to determine which region is responsible for tissue-specific expression, and create mutations in the promoter to determine the function of each of these regions. In Figure Q8-21, if the site is missing, it is mutated such that it cannot bind its corresponding transcription factor.8-23 Experiment 1 in Figure Q8-21 is the positive control, demonstrating that the region of DNA upstream of the gene for GFP results in a pattern of expression that we normally find for the LKP1 gene. Experiment 2 shows what happens when the sites for binding factors X, Y, and Z are removed. Which experiment above demonstrates that factor X alone is sufficient for expression of LPK1 in the kidney? (a) experiment 3 (b) experiment 5 (c) experiment 6 (d) experiment 7

(a) experiment 3only one that shows expression without other factor present

You are interested in understanding the gene regulation of Lkp1, a protein that is normally produced in liver and kidney cells in mice. Interestingly, you find that the LKP1 gene is not expressed in heart cells. You isolate the DNA upstream of the LKP1 gene, place it upstream of the gene for green fluorescent protein (GFP), and insert this entire piece of recombinant DNA into mice. You find GFP expressed in liver and kidney cells but not in heart cells, an expression pattern similar to the normal expression of the LKP1 gene. Further experiments demonstrate that there are three regions in the promoter, labeled A, B, and C in Figure Q8-21, that contribute to this expression pattern. Assume that a single and unique transcription factor binds each site such that protein X binds site A, protein Y binds site B, and protein Z binds site C. You want to determine which region is responsible for tissue-specific expression, and create mutations in the promoter to determine the function of each of these regions. In Figure Q8-21, if the site is missing, it is mutated such that it cannot bind its corresponding transcription factor.8-22 Which of the following proteins are likely to act as gene activators? (a) factors X and Y (b) factors X and Z (c) factors Y and Z (d) factor X only

(a) factors X and Y

11-24 Membrane synthesis in the cell requires the regulation of growth for both halves of the bilayer and the selective retention of certain types of lipids on one side or the other. Which group of enzymes accomplishes both of these tasks? (a) flippases (b) phospholipases (c) convertases (d) glycosylases

(a) flippases

12-5 We can test the relative permeability of a phospholipid bilayer by using a synthetic membrane that does not contain any protein components. Some uncharged, polar molecules are found to diffuse freely across these membranes, to varying degrees. Which of the following has the lowest rate of diffusion across an artificial membrane? Why?( a) glucose (b) water (c) glycerol (d) ethanol

(a) glucose

15-31 Figure Q15-31 shows the organization of a protein that resides on the ER membrane. The N- and C-termini of the protein are labeled. Boxes 1, 2, and 3 represent membrane-spanning sequences. Non-membrane-spanning regions of the protein are labeled "X," "Y," and "Z."Figure Q15-31Once this protein is fully translocated, where will region Y be? (a) in the cytoplasm (b) in the ER lumen (c) inserted into the ER membrane (d) degraded by signal peptidase

(a) in the cytoplasm

7-40 Which amino acid would you expect a tRNA with the anticodon 5′-CUU-3′ to carry? (a) lysine (b) glutamic acid (d) leucine (d) phenylalanine

(a) lysine

11-55 The endothelial cells found closest to the site of an infection express proteins called lectins. Each lectin binds to a particular ____________ that is presented on the surface of a target cell. (a) oligosaccharide (b) aminophospholipid (c) polysaccharide (d) sphingolipid

(a) oligosaccharide

11-4 Which type of lipids are the most abundant in the plasma membrane? (a) phospholipids (b) glycolipids (c) sterols (d) triacylglycerides

(a) phospholipids

11-44 The lateral movement of transmembrane proteins can be restricted by several different mechanisms. Which mechanism best describes the process by which a budding yeast cell designates the site of new bud formation during cell division? (a) proteins are tethered to the cell cortex (b) proteins are tethered to the extracellular matrix (c) proteins are tethered to the proteins on the surface of another cell (d) protein movement is limited by the presence of a diffusion barrier

(a) proteins are tethered to the cell cortex

15-16 A large protein that passes through the nuclear pore must have an appropriate _________. (a) sorting sequence, which typically contains the positively charged amino acids lysine and arginine. (b) sorting sequence, which typically contains the hydrophobic amino acids leucine and isoleucine. (c) sequence to interact with the nuclear fibrils. (d) Ran-interacting protein domain.

(a) sorting sequence, which typically contains the positively charged amino acids lysine and arginine.

12-16 Transporters, in contrast to channels, work by ________________. (a) specific binding to solutes. (b) a gating mechanism. (c) filtering solutes by charge. (d) filtering solutes by size.

(a) specific binding to solutes

11-18 Membrane lipids are capable of many different types of movement. Which of these does not occur spontaneously in biological membranes? (a) switching between lipid layers (b) lateral movement (c) rotation (d) flexing of hydrocarbon chains

(a) switching between lipid layers

15-12 Proteins that are fully translated in the cytosol and lack a sorting signal will end up in ____. (a) the cytosol. (b) the mitochondria. (c) the interior of the nucleus. (d) the nuclear membrane.

(a) the cytosol

11-1 Which of the following phenomena will be observed if a cell's membrane is pierced? (a) the membrane reseals (b) the membrane collapses (c) a tear is formed (d) the membrane expands

(a) the membrane reseals

8-64 The modular nature of the Eve gene's regulatory region means that ______. (a) there are seven regulatory elements and each element is sufficient for driving expression in a single stripe. (b) all the regulatory elements for each stripe use the same transcriptional activators. (c) the E. coli LacZ gene is normally only expressed in a single stripe—unlike Eve, which is expressed in seven stripes. (d) transcription regulators only bind to the stripe 2 regulatory DNA segment in stripe 2.

(a) there are seven regulatory elements and each element is sufficient for driving expression in a single stripe.

7-67 When using a repeating trinucleotide sequence (such as 5′-AAC-3′) in a cell-free translation system, you will obtain: (a) three different types of peptides, each made up of a single amino acid (b) peptides made up of three different amino acids in random order (c) peptides made up of three different amino acids, each alternating with each other in a repetitive fashion (d) polyasparagine, as the codon for asparagine is AAC

(a) three different types of peptides, each made up of a single amino acid

11-13 Which of the following phospholipid precursors is the most hydrophobic? (a) triacylglycerol (b) diacylglycerol (c) phosphate (d) glycerol

(a) triacylglycerol

11-22 Most animal fats form a solid at room temperature, while plant fats remain liquid at room temperature. Which of the following is a feature of lipids in plant membranes that best explains this difference? (a) unsaturated hydrocarbons (b) longer hydrocarbon tails (c) higher levels of sterols (d) larger head groups

(a) unsaturated hydrocarbons

8-60 The extent of complementarity of a miRNA with its target mRNA determines ___________________________. (a) whether the mRNA will be immediately degraded or whether the mRNA will first be transported elsewhere in the cell before degradation. (b) whether the mRNA will be transported to the nucleus. (c) whether RISC is degraded. (d) whether the miRNA synthesizes a complementary strand.

(a) whether the mRNA will be immediately degraded or whether the mRNA will first be transported elsewhere in the cell before degradation.MicroRNAs are noncoding RNAs that are incorporated into a protein complex called RISC, which searches the mRNAs in the cytoplasm for sequence complementary to that of the miRNA. When such a molecule is found, it is then targeted for destruction

12-44 The Nernst equation can be used to calculate the membrane potential based on the ratio of the outer and inner ion concentration. In a resting cell, membrane potential is calculated taking only K+ ions into account. What is V when Co = 15 mM and Ci = 106 mM? (a) 438.1 mV (b) -52.7 mV (c) 52.7 mV (d) -5.3 mV

(b) -52.7 mVV = 62 × log(Co/Ci)

11-19 There are two properties of phospholipids that affect how tightly they pack together: the length of the hydrocarbon chain and the number of double bonds. The degree of packing, in turn, influences the relative mobility of these molecules in the membrane. Which of the following would yield the most highly mobile phospholipid (listed as number of carbons and number of double bonds, respectively)? (a) 24 carbons with 1 double bond (b) 15 carbons with 2 double bonds (c) 20 carbons with 2 double bonds (d) 16 carbons with no double bonds

(b) 15 carbons with 2 double bonds

7-18 You have a piece of DNA that includes the following sequence:5′-ATAGGCATTCGATCCGGATAGCAT-3′3′-TATCCGTAAGCTAGGCCTATCGTA-5′Which of the following RNA molecules could be transcribed from this piece of DNA? (a) 5′-UAUCCGUAAGCUAGGCCUAUGCUA-3′ (b) 5′-AUAGGCAUUCGAUCCGGAUAGCAU-3′ (c) 5′-UACGAUAGGCCUAGCUUACGGAUA-3′ (d) none of the above

(b) 5′-AUAGGCAUUCGAUCCGGAUAGCAU-3′

15-20 Which of the following statements about transport into mitochondria and chloroplasts is false? (a) The signal sequence on proteins destined for these organelles is recognized by a receptor protein in the outer membrane of these organelles. (b) After a protein moves through the protein translocator in the outer membrane of these organelles, the protein diffuses in the lumen until it encounters a protein translocator in the inner membrane. (c) Proteins that are transported into these organelles are unfolded as they are being transported. (d) Signal peptidase will remove the signal sequence once the protein has been imported into these organelles.

(b) After a protein moves through the protein translocator in the outer membrane of these organelles, the protein diffuses in the lumen until it encounters a protein translocator in the inner membrane.

12-27 You have generated antibodies that recognize the extracellular domain of the Ca2+-pump. Adding these antibodies to animal cells blocks the active transport of Ca2+ from the cytosol into the extracellular environment. What do you expect to observe with respect to intracellular Ca2+? (a) Ca2+-pumps in vesicle membranes keep cytosolic calcium levels low. (b) Ca2+-pumps in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane keep cytosolic calcium levels low. (c) Ca2+-pumps in the Golgi apparatus keep cytosolic calcium levels low. (d) Ca2+ concentrations in the cytosol increase at a steady rate.

(b) Ca2+-pumps in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane keep cytosolic calcium levels low.

12-3 Although the extracellular environment has a high sodium ion concentration and the intracellular environment has a high potassium ion concentration, both must be neutralized by negatively charged molecules. In the extracellular case, what is the principal anion? (a) HCO3- (b) Cl- (c) PO43- (d) OH-

(b) Cl-

15-64 You are working in a biotech company that has discovered a small-molecule drug called H5434. H5434 binds to LDL receptors when they are bound to cholesterol. H5434 binding does not alter the conformation of the LDL receptor's intracellular domain. Interestingly, in vitro experiments demonstrate that addition of H5434 increases the affinity of LDL for cholesterol and prevents cholesterol from dissociating from the LDL receptor even in acidic conditions. Which of the following is a reasonable prediction of what may happen when you add H5434 to cells? (a) Cytosolic cholesterol levels will remain unchanged relative to normal cells. (b) Cytosolic cholesterol levels will decrease relative to normal cells. (c) The LDL receptor will remain on the plasma membrane. (d) The uncoating of vesicles will not occur.

(b) Cytosolic cholesterol levels will decrease relative to normal cells.

7-30 Which of the following statements about RNA splicing is false? (a) Conventional introns are not found in bacterial genes. (b) For a gene to function properly, every exon must be removed from the primary transcript in the same fashion on every mRNA molecule produced from the same gene. (c) Small RNA molecules in the nucleus perform the splicing reactions necessary for the removal of introns. (d) Splicing occurs after the 5′ cap has been added to the end of the primary transcript.

(b) For a gene to function properly, every exon must be removed from the primary transcript in the same fashion on every mRNA molecule produced from the same gene.

11-38 We know the detailed molecular structure and mechanism of action of the transmembrane protein bacteriorhodopsin. This protein uses sunlight as the source of energy to pump ______ out of the cell. (a) ATP (b) H+ (c) K+ (d) Na+

(b) H+

12-14 Ion channels are classified as membrane transport proteins. Channels discriminate by size and charge. In addition to Na+, which one of the following ions would you expect to be able to freely diffuse through a Na+ channel? Explain your answer. (a) Mg2+ (b) H+ (c) K+ (d) Cl-

(b) H+

11-34 The amino acid sequences below represent the sequences of transmembrane helices. The characteristics of α helices that form a channel are different from those that form a single transmembrane domain. Select the helix that forms a single transmembrane domain. (a) VGHSLSIFTLVISLGIFVFF (b) IMIVLVMLLNIGLAILFVHF (c) ILHFFHQYMMACNYFWMLCE (d) VTLHKNMFLTYILNSMIIII

(b) IMIVLVMLLNIGLAILFVHFthe peptide sequences for options (a), (c), and (d) are amphipathic—that is, they contain a hydrophilic amino acid every 3-4 amino acids in the sequence. This indicates they may be part of a protein that makes a channel in the membrane, and they require hydrophobic amino acids on the surface that interacts with the lipid bilayer and a hydrophilic surface on the inside of the channel. Option (b) is the only sequence that is completely hydrophobic, indicating that it forms a helix in which all the side chains interact with the lipid bilayer.

7-53 A poison added to an in vitro translation mixture containing mRNA molecules with the sequence 5′-AUGAAAAAAAAAAAAUAA-3′ has the following effect: the only product made is a Met-Lys dipeptide that remains attached to the ribosome. What is the most likely way in which the poison acts to inhibit protein synthesis? (a) It inhibits peptidyl transferase activity. (b) It inhibits movement of the small subunit relative to the large subunit. (c) It inhibits release factor. (d) It mimics release factor.

(b) It inhibits movement of the small subunit relative to the large subunit.

12-36 Which of the following best describes the behavior of a gated channel? (a) It stays open continuously when stimulated. (b) It opens more frequently in response to a given stimulus. (c) It opens more widely as the stimulus becomes stronger. (d) It remains closed if unstimulated.

(b) It opens more frequently in response to a given stimulus.

12-8 Cells use membranes to help maintain set ranges of ion concentrations inside and outside the cell. Which of the following ions is the most abundant inside a typical mammalian cell? (a) Na+ (b) K+ (c) Ca2+ (d) Cl-

(b) K+

12-20 Active transport requires the input of energy into a system so as to move solutes against their electrochemical and concentration gradients. Which of the following is not one of the common ways to perform active transport? (a) Na+-coupled (b) K+-coupled (c) ATP-driven (d) light-driven

(b) K+-coupled

You are interested in examining the Psf gene. It is known that Psf is normally produced when cells are exposed to high levels of both calcium (Ca2+) and magnesium (Mg2+). MetA, MetB, and MetC are important for binding to the promoter of the Psf gene and are involved in regulating its transcription. MetA binds to the "A" site in the promoter region, MetB to the "B" site, and MetC to the "C" site. You create binding-site mutations in the A, B, and C sites and observe what happens to transcription of the Psf gene. Your results are summarized in Table Q8-17.8-18 Which of the following proteins are likely to act as gene repressors? (a) MetA only (b) MetB only (c) MetC only (d) Both MetA and MetC

(b) MetB only

7-24 There are several reasons why the primase used to make the RNA primer for DNA replication is not suitable for gene transcription. Which of the statements below is not one of those reasons? (a) Primase initiates RNA synthesis on a single-stranded DNA template. (b) Primase can initiate RNA synthesis without the need for a base-paired primer. (c) Primase synthesizes only RNAs of about 5-20 nucleotides in length. (d) The RNA synthesized by primase remains base-paired to the DNA template.

(b) Primase can initiate RNA synthesis without the need for a base-paired primer.

11-9 A bacterium is suddenly expelled from a warm human intestine into the cold world outside. Which of the following adjustments might the bacterium make to maintain the same level of membrane fluidity? (a) Produce lipids with hydrocarbon tails that are longer and have fewer double bonds. (b) Produce lipids with hydrocarbon tails that are shorter and have more double bonds. (c) Decrease the amount of cholesterol in the membrane. (d) Decrease the amount of glycolipids in the membrane.

(b) Produce lipids with hydrocarbon tails that are shorter and have more double bonds.

15-51 Which of the following statements about the protein quality control system in the ER is false? (a) Chaperone proteins help misfolded proteins fold properly. (b) Proteins that are misfolded are degraded in the ER lumen. (c) Protein complexes are checked for proper assembly before they can exit the ER. (d) A chaperone protein will bind to a misfolded protein to retain it in the ER.

(b) Proteins that are misfolded are degraded in the ER lumen.

15-1 Which of the following statements about the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is false? (a) The ER is the major site for new membrane synthesis in the cell. (b) Proteins to be delivered to the ER lumen are synthesized on smooth ER. (c) Steroid hormones are synthesized on the smooth ER. (d) The ER membrane is contiguous with the outer nuclear membrane.

(b) Proteins to be delivered to the ER lumen are synthesized on smooth ER.

7-65 You are studying a disease that is caused by a virus, but when you purify the virus particles and analyze them you find they contain no trace of DNA. Which of the following molecules are likely to contain the genetic information of the virus? (a) high-energy phosphate groups (b) RNA (c) lipids (d) carbohydrates

(b) RNA

8-62 Which of the following statements about RNAi is true? (a) The RNAi mechanism is found only in plants and animals. (b) RNAi is induced when double-stranded, foreign RNA is present in the cell. (c) RISC uses the siRNA duplex to locate complementary foreign RNA molecules. (d) siRNAs bind to miRNAs to induce RNAi.

(b) RNAi is induced when double-stranded, foreign RNA is present in the cell.

7-55 Which of the following statements about prokaryotic mRNA molecules is false? (a) A single prokaryotic mRNA molecule can be translated into several proteins. (b) Ribosomes must bind to the 5′ cap before initiating translation. (c) mRNAs are not polyadenylated. (d) Ribosomes can start translating an mRNA molecule before transcription is complete.

(b) Ribosomes must bind to the 5′ cap before initiating translation.Bacterial mRNAs do not have 5′ caps

11-59 It is possible to follow the movement of a single molecule or a small group of molecules. This requires the use of antibodies linked to small particles of gold, which appear as dark spots when tracked through video microscopy. What is this method called? What does the abbreviation stand for? (a) SDS (b) SPT (c) GFP (d) FRAP

(b) SPTsingle-particle tracking

12-62 Which of the following statements best reflects the nature of synaptic plasticity? (a) New synapses are created due to the postnatal generation of neurons. (b) Synaptic response changes in magnitude depending on frequency of stimulation. (c) There is a change in the type of neurotransmitter used at the synapse. (d) Neuronal connections are pruned during normal development.

(b) Synaptic response changes in magnitude depending on frequency of stimulation.

7-25 You have a bacterial strain with a mutation that removes the transcription termination signal from the Abd operon. Which of the following statements describes the most likely effect of this mutation on Abd transcription? (a) The Abd RNA will not be produced in the mutant strain. (b) The Abd RNA from the mutant strain will be longer than normal. (c) Sigma factor will not dissociate from RNA polymerase when the Abd operon is being transcribed in the mutant strain. (d) RNA polymerase will move in a backward fashion at the Abd operon in the mutant strain.

(b) The Abd RNA from the mutant strain will be longer than normal.Dissociation of sigma factor occurs once an approximately 10-nucleotide length of RNA has been synthesized by RNA polymerase and should not be affected by the lack of a termination signal [choice (c)].

15-34 Figure Q15-34 shows the organization of a protein that normally resides in the plasma membrane. The boxes labeled 1 and 2 represent membrane-spanning sequences and the arrow represents a site of action of signal peptidase. Given this diagram, which of the following statements must be true?Figure Q15-34 (a) The N-terminus of this protein is cytoplasmic. (b) The C-terminus of this protein is cytoplasmic. (c) The mature version of this protein will span the membrane twice, with both the N- and C-terminus in the cytoplasm. (d) None of the above.

(b) The C-terminus of this protein is cytoplasmic.

8-47 Which of the following statements about the Ey transcriptional regulator is false? (a) Expression of Ey in cells that normally form legs in the fly will lead to the formation of an eye in the middle of the legs. (b) The Ey transcription factor must bind to the promoter of every eye-specific gene in the fly. (c) Positive feedback loops ensure that Ey expression remains switched on in the developing eye. (d) A homolog of Ey is found in vertebrates; this homolog is also used during eye development.

(b) The Ey transcription factor must bind to the promoter of every eye-specific gene in the fly.

8-15 What do you predict would happen if you replace the Lac operator DNA from the Lac operon with the DNA from the operator region from the tryptophan operon? (a) The presence of lactose will not cause allosteric changes to the Lac repressor. (b) The Lac operon will not be transcribed when tryptophan levels are high. (c) The lack of glucose will no longer allow CAP binding to the DNA. (d) RNA polymerase will only bind to the Lac promoter when lactose is present.

(b) The Lac operon will not be transcribed when tryptophan levels are high.

11-39 In the photosynthetic archaean Halobacterium halobium, a membrane transport protein called bacteriorhodopsin captures energy from sunlight and uses it to pump protons out of the cell. The resulting proton gradient serves as an energy store that can later be tapped to generate ATP. Which statement best describes how bacteriorhodopsin operates? (a) The absorption of sunlight triggers a contraction of the β barrel that acts as the protein's central channel, squeezing a proton out of the cell. (b) The absorption of sunlight triggers a shift in the conformation of the protein's seven, membrane spanning α helices, allowing a proton to leave the cell. (c) The absorption of sunlight triggers a restructuring of bacteriorhodopsin's otherwise unstructured core to form the channel through which a proton can exit the cell. (d) The absorption of sunlight triggers the activation of an enzyme that generates ATP.

(b) The absorption of sunlight triggers a shift in the conformation of the protein's seven, membrane spanning α helices, allowing a proton to leave the cell.

8-6 Investigators performed nuclear transplant experiments to determine whether DNA is altered irreversibly during development. Which of the following statements about these experiments is true? (a) Because the donor nucleus is taken from an adult animal, the chromosomes from the nucleus must undergo recombination with the DNA in the egg for successful development to occur. (b) The embryo that develops from the nuclear transplant experiment is genetically identical to the donor of the nucleus. (c) The meiotic spindle of the egg must interact with the chromosomes of the injected nuclei for successful nuclear transplantation to occur. (d) Although nuclear transplantation has been successful in producing embryos in some mammals with the use of foster mothers, evidence of DNA alterations during differentiation has not been obtained for plants.

(b) The embryo that develops from the nuclear transplant experiment is genetically identical to the donor of the nucleus.

7-37 Which of the following statements about the genetic code is correct? (a) All codons specify more than one amino acid. (b) The genetic code is redundant. (c) All amino acids are specified by more than one codon. (d) All codons specify an amino acid.

(b) The genetic code is redundant.

8-54 Which of the following statements about mRNA half-life is false? (a) The half-life of mRNAs produced from different genes will vary more than the half-life of mRNAs produced from the same gene. (b) The half-life of most eukaryotic-cell mRNAs is >24 hours. (c) The half-life of most bacterial mRNAs is shorter than the half-life of a typical eukaryotic mRNA. (d) The 5′ and 3′ untranslated regions of an mRNA often contain specific sequences that determine the lifetime of the mRNA molecule.

(b) The half-life of most eukaryotic-cell mRNAs is >24 hours.

15-8 Which of the following statements is true? (a) Lysosomes are believed to have originated from the engulfment of bacteria specialized for digestion. (b) The nuclear membrane is thought to have arisen from the plasma membrane invaginating around the DNA. (c) Because bacteria do not have mitochondria, they cannot produce ATP in a membrane-dependent fashion. (d) Chloroplasts and mitochondria share their DNA.

(b) The nuclear membrane is thought to have arisen from the plasma membrane invaginating around the DNA.

12-45 When using the Nernst equation to calculate membrane potential, we are making several assumptions about conditions in the cell. Which of the following is not a good assumption? (a) The temperature is 37°C. (b) The plasma membrane is primarily permeable to Na+. (c) At rest, the interior of the cell is more negatively charged than the exterior. (d) K+ is the principal positive ion in the cell.

(b) The plasma membrane is primarily permeable to Na+.

7-57 You have discovered a protein that inhibits translation. When you add this inhibitor to a mixture capable of translating human mRNA and centrifuge the mixture to separate polyribosomes and single ribosomes, you obtain the results shown in Figure Q7-57. Which of the following interpretations is consistent with these observations? (a) The protein binds to the small ribosomal subunit and increases the rate of initiation of translation. (b) The protein binds to sequences in the 5′ region of the mRNA and inhibits the rate of initiation of translation. (c) The protein binds to the large ribosomal subunit and slows down elongation of the polypeptide chain. (d) The protein binds to sequences in the 3′ region of the mRNA and prevents termination of translation.

(b) The protein binds to sequences in the 5′ region of the mRNA and inhibits the rate of initiation of translation.

11-7 Formation of a lipid bilayer is energetically favorable. How does this arrangement result in higher entropy for the system, and thus make bilayer formation energetically favorable? (a) Polar head groups form a hydrogen-bonding network at the interface with water. (b) Water molecules form cagelike structures around hydrophobic molecules. (c) Hydrogen bonds form between neighboring polar head groups in the bilayer. (d) Fatty acid tails are highly saturated and flexible.

(b) Water molecules form cagelike structures around hydrophobic molecules.

15-39 Molecules to be packaged into vesicles for transport are selected by ________. (a) clathrin. (b) adaptins. (c) dynamin. (d) SNAREs.

(b) adaptins.

11-27 Membrane proteins, like membrane lipids, can move laterally by exchanging positions with other membrane components. Which type of membrane proteins is expected to be the least mobile, based on their function? (a) channels (b) anchors (c) receptors (d) enzymes

(b) anchors

7-38 The piece of RNA below includes the region that codes for the binding site for the initiator tRNA needed in translation.5′-GUUUCCCGUAUACAUGCGUGCCGGGGGC-3′Which amino acid will be on the tRNA that is the first to bind to the A site of the ribosome? (a) methionine (b) arginine (c) cysteine (d) valine

(b) arginine

8-12 The tryptophan operator ___________________________. (a) is an allosteric protein. (b) binds to the tryptophan repressor when the repressor is bound to tryptophan. (c) is required for production of the mRNA encoded by the tryptophan operon. (d) is important for the production of the tryptophan repressor.

(b) binds to the tryptophan repressor when the repressor is bound to tryptophan.

8-36 How are most eukaryotic transcription regulators able to affect transcription when their binding sites are far from the promoter? (a) by binding to their binding site and sliding to the site of RNA polymerase assembly (b) by looping out the intervening DNA between their binding site and the promoter (c) by unwinding the DNA between their binding site and the promoter (d) by attracting RNA polymerase and modifying it before it can bind to the promoter

(b) by looping out the intervening DNA between their binding site and the promoter

12-35 Which of the following occur without coupling transport of the solute to the movement of a second solute? (a) import of glucose into gut epithelial cells (b) export of Ca2+ from the cytosol (c) export of H+ from animal cells for pH regulation (d) the export of Na+ from cells to maintain resting membrane potential

(b) export of Ca2+ from the cytosol

8-45 Which of the following statements about iPS cells is false? (a) iPS cells are created by adding a combination of transcription regulators to a fibroblast. (b) iPS cells created from mouse cells can differentiate into almost any human cell type. (c) Stimulation by extracellular signal molecules causes iPS cells to differentiate. (d) During the de-differentiation process to become an iPS, the fibroblast will undergo changes to its gene expression profile.

(b) iPS cells created from mouse cells can differentiate into almost any human cell type.

11-15 Where does most new membrane synthesis take place in a eukaryotic cell? (a) in the Golgi apparatus (b) in the endoplasmic reticulum (c) in the plasma membrane (d) in the mitochondria (e) on ribosomes

(b) in the endoplasmic reticulum

8-43 Combinatorial control of gene expression __________________________. (a) involves every gene using a different combination of transcriptional regulators for its proper expression. (b) involves groups of transcriptional regulators working together to determine the expression of a gene. (c) involves only the use of gene activators used together to regulate genes appropriately. (d) is seen only when genes are arranged in operons.

(b) involves groups of transcriptional regulators working together to determine the expression of a gene.

7-48 What do you predict would happen if you created a tRNA with an anticodon of 5′-CAA-3′ that is charged with methionine, and added this modified tRNA to a cell-free translation system that has all the normal components required for translating RNAs? (a) methionine would be incorporated into proteins at some positions where glutamine should be (b) methionine would be incorporated into proteins at some positions where leucine should be (c) methionine would be incorporated into proteins at some positions where valine should be (d) translation would no longer be able to initiate

(b) methionine would be incorporated into proteins at some positions where leucine should be

12-30 Ca2+-pumps in the plasma membrane and endoplasmic reticulum are important for _____________. (a) maintaining osmotic balance. (b) preventing Ca2+ from altering the activity of molecules in the cytosol. (c) providing enzymes in the endoplasmic reticulum with Ca2+ ions that are necessary for their catalytic activity. (d) maintaining a negative membrane potential.

(b) preventing Ca2+ from altering the activity of molecules in the cytosol.

1-45 The lateral movement of transmembrane proteins can be restricted by several different mechanisms. Which mechanism best describes the process by which focal adhesions are formed to promote cell motility? (a) proteins are tethered to the cell cortex (b) proteins are tethered to the extracellular matrix (c) proteins are tethered to the proteins on the surface of another cell (d) protein movement is limited by the presence of a diffusion barrier

(b) proteins are tethered to the extracellular matrix

12-54 Figure Q12-54 illustrates changes in membrane potential during the formation of an action potential. What membrane characteristic or measurement used to study action potentials is indicated by the arrow?Figure Q12-54 (a) effect of a depolarizing stimulus (b) resting membrane potential (c) threshold potential (d) action potential

(b) resting membrane potential

7-54 In eukaryotes, but not in prokaryotes, ribosomes find the start site of translation by ____________________________. (a) binding directly to a ribosome-binding site preceding the initiation codon. (b) scanning along the mRNA from the 5′ end. (c) recognizing an AUG codon as the start of translation. (d) binding an initiator tRNA.

(b) scanning along the mRNA from the 5′ end.

11-2 The plasma membrane serves many functions, many of which depend on the presence of specialized membrane proteins. Which of the following roles of the plasma membrane could still occur if the bilayer were lacking these proteins? (a) intercellular communication (b) selective permeability (c) cellular movement (d) import/export of molecules

(b) selective permeability

7-46 A mutation in the tRNA for the amino acid lysine results in the anticodon sequence 5′-UAU-3′ (instead of 5′-UUU-3′). Which of the following aberrations in protein synthesis might this tRNA cause? (a) read-through of stop codons (b) substitution of lysine for isoleucine (c) substitution of lysine for tyrosine (d) substitution of lysine for phenylalanine

(b) substitution of lysine for isoleucine

11-49 Consider the apical location of a particular protein expressed in epithelial cells, illustrated in Figure Q11-49A. Which type of defect described below is the most likely to cause the redistribution of that protein around the entire cell, shown in Figure Q11-49B?Figure Q11-49 (a) a nonfunctional protein glycosylase (b) the deletion of a junctional protein (c) the truncation of a protein found in the extracellular matrix (d) a nonfunctional flippase

(b) the deletion of a junctional protein

8-63 The owners of a local bakery ask for your help in improving a special yeast strain they use to make bread. They would like you to help them design experiments using RNA interference to turn off genes, to allow them to test their hypothesis that certain genes are important for the good flavors found in their bread. Of the components in the following list, which is the most important to check for in this yeast strain if you'd like this project to succeed? (a) the presence of foreign double-stranded RNA (b) the presence of genes in the genome that code for RISC proteins (c) the presence of miRNA genes in the genome (d) the presence of single-stranded siRNAs within the cell

(b) the presence of genes in the genome that code for RISC proteins

8-2 The distinct characteristics of different cell types in a multicellular organism result mainly from the differential regulation of the _________________. (a) replication of specific genes. (b) transcription of genes transcribed by RNA polymerase II. (c) transcription of housekeeping genes. (d) proteins that directly bind the TATA box of eukaryotic genes.

(b) transcription of genes transcribed by RNA polymerase II.

15-42 An individual transport vesicle ________. (a) contains only one type of protein in its lumen. (b) will fuse with only one type of membrane. (c) is endocytic if it is traveling toward the plasma membrane. (d) is enclosed by a membrane with the same lipid and protein composition as the membrane of the donor organelle.

(b) will fuse with only one type of membrane.

8-31 Your colleague looks at your data above and predicts that protein G will bind more strongly to the DNA at site A, compared to protein H. Which experiment above is critical for this prediction? (a) #2 (b) #3 (c) #5 (d) #6

7-8 Figure Q7-6 shows a ribose sugar. The part of the ribose sugar where a new ribonucleotide will attach in an RNA molecule is pointed to by arrow ____. (a) 1. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5.

7-7 Figure Q7-6 shows a ribose sugar. The part of the ribose sugar that is different from the deoxyribose sugar used in DNA is pointed to by arrow ____. (a) 1. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6.

15-52 Which of the following statements about the unfolded protein response (UPR) is false? (a) Activation of the UPR results in the production of more ER membrane. (b) Activation of the UPR results in the production of more chaperone proteins. (c) Activation of the UPR occurs when receptors in the cytoplasm sense misfolded proteins. (d) Activation of the UPR results in the cytoplasmic activation of gene regulatory proteins.

7-41 Which of the following pairs of codons might you expect to be read by the same tRNA as a result of wobble? (a) CUU and UUU (b) GAU and GAA (c) CAC and CAU (d) AAU and AGU

15-19 Which of the following statements is true? (a) The signal sequences on mitochondrial proteins are usually at the C-terminus. (b) Most mitochondrial proteins are not imported from the cytosol but are synthesized inside the mitochondria. (c) Chaperone proteins in the mitochondria facilitate the movement of proteins across the outer and inner mitochondrial membranes. (d) Mitochondrial proteins cross the membrane in their native, folded state.

(c) Chaperone proteins in the mitochondria facilitate the movement of proteins across the outer and inner mitochondrial membranes.

12-10 Cells use membranes to help maintain set ranges of ion concentrations inside and outside the cell. Which of the following negatively charged ions is not primarily used to buffer positive charges inside the cell? (a) PO43- (b) OH- (c) Cl- (d) HCO3-

8-48 The MyoD transcriptional regulator is normally found in differentiating muscle cells and participates in the transcription of genes that produce muscle-specific proteins, such as those needed in contractile tissue. Amazingly, expression of MyoD in fibroblasts causes these cells derived from skin connective tissue to produce proteins normally only seen in muscles. However, some other cell types do not transcribe muscle-specific genes when MyoD is expressed in them. Which of the following statements below is the best explanation of why MyoD can cause fibroblasts to express muscle-specific genes? (a) Unlike some other cell types, fibroblasts have not lost the muscle-specific genes from their genome. (b) The muscle-specific genes must be in heterochromatin in fibroblasts. (c) During their developmental history, fibroblasts have accumulated some transcriptional regulators in common with differentiating muscle cells. (d) The presence of MyoD is sufficient to activate the transcription of muscle-specific genes in all cell types.

(c) During their developmental history, fibroblasts have accumulated some transcriptional regulators in common with differentiating muscle cells.

7-36 You have discovered a gene (Figure Q7-36A) that is alternatively spliced to produce several forms of mRNA in various cell types, three of which are shown in Figure Q7-36B. The lines connecting the exons that are included in the mRNA indicate the splicing. From your experiments, you know that protein translation begins in exon 1. For all forms of the mRNA, the encoded protein sequence is the same in the regions of the mRNA that correspond to exons 1 and 10. Exons 2 and 3 are alternative exons used in different mRNA, as are exons 7 and 8. Which of the following statements about exons 2 and 3 is the most accurate? (a) Exons 2 and 3 must have the same number of nucleotides. (b) Exons 2 and 3 must contain an integral number of codons (that is, the number of nucleotides divided by 3 must be an integer). (c) Exons 2 and 3 must contain a number of nucleotides that when divided by 3, leaves the same remainder (that is, 0, 1, or 2). (d) Exons 2 and 3 must have different numbers of nucleotides.

(c) Exons 2 and 3 must contain a number of nucleotides that when divided by 3, leaves the same remainder (that is, 0, 1, or 2).

7-3 Consider two genes that are next to each other on a chromosome, as arranged in Figure Q7-3.Which of the following statements is true? (a) The two genes must be transcribed into RNA using the same strand of DNA. (b) If gene A is transcribed in a cell, gene B cannot be transcribed. (c) Gene A and gene B can be transcribed at different rates, producing different amounts of RNA within the same cell. (d) If gene A is transcribed in a cell, gene B must be transcribed.

8-40 Which of the following statements about nucleosomes is true? (a) Nucleosomes activate transcription when bound to the promoter. (b) Although RNA polymerase can access DNA packed within nucleosomes, the general transcription factors and transcriptional regulators cannot. (c) Histone acetyltransferases affect transcription by both altering chromatin structure to allow accessibility to the DNA and by adding acetyl groups to histones that can bind proteins that promote transcription. (d) Histone deacetylases remove lysines from histone tails.

(c) Histone acetyltransferases affect transcription by both altering chromatin structure to allow accessibility to the DNA and by adding acetyl groups to histones that can bind proteins that promote transcription.

12-46 If Na+ channels are opened in a cell that was previously at rest, how will the resting membrane potential be affected? (a) The membrane potential is not affected by Na+. (b) It becomes more negative. (c) It becomes more positive. (d) It is permanently reset.

8-57 Which of the following is not involved in post-transcriptional control? (a) the spliceosome (b) Dicer (c) Mediator (d) RISC

11-8 Which of the following statements is true? (a) Phospholipids will spontaneously form liposomes in nonpolar solvents. (b) In eukaryotes, all membrane-enclosed organelles are surrounded by one lipid bilayer. (c) Membrane lipids diffuse within the plane of the membrane. (d) Membrane lipids frequently flip-flop between one monolayer and the other.

You are interested in examining the Psf gene. It is known that Psf is normally produced when cells are exposed to high levels of both calcium (Ca2+) and magnesium (Mg2+). MetA, MetB, and MetC are important for binding to the promoter of the Psf gene and are involved in regulating its transcription. MetA binds to the "A" site in the promoter region, MetB to the "B" site, and MetC to the "C" site. You create binding-site mutations in the A, B, and C sites and observe what happens to transcription of the Psf gene. Your results are summarized in Table Q8-17.8-19 Which transcription factors are normally bound to the Psf promoter in the presence of Mg2+ only? (a) none (b) MetA only (c) MetA and Met B (d) MetA, MetB, and MetC

You are interested in examining the Psf gene. It is known that Psf is normally produced when cells are exposed to high levels of both calcium (Ca2+) and magnesium (Mg2+). MetA, MetB, and MetC are important for binding to the promoter of the Psf gene and are involved in regulating its transcription. MetA binds to the "A" site in the promoter region, MetB to the "B" site, and MetC to the "C" site. You create binding-site mutations in the A, B, and C sites and observe what happens to transcription of the Psf gene. Your results are summarized in Table Q8-17.8-20 Which transcription factors are normally bound to the Psf promoter in the presence of both Mg2+ and Ca2+? (a) MetA and MetB (b) MetB and MetC (c) MetA and MetC (d) MetA, MetB, and MetC

7-61 Which of the following statements about the proteasome is false? (a) Ubiquitin is a small protein that is covalently attached to proteins to mark them for delivery to the proteasome. (b) Proteases reside in the central cylinder of a proteasome. (c) Misfolded proteins are delivered to the proteasome, where they are sequestered from the cytoplasm and can attempt to refold. (d) The protein stoppers that surround the central cylinder of the proteasome use the energy from ATP hydrolysis to move proteins into the proteasome inner chamber.

(c) Misfolded proteins are delivered to the proteasome, where they are sequestered from the cytoplasm and can attempt to refold.

15-15 Which of the following statements about nuclear transport is true? (a) mRNAs and proteins transit the nucleus through different types of nuclear pores. (b) Nuclear import receptors bind to proteins in the cytosol and bring the proteins to the nuclear pores, where the proteins are released from the receptors into the pores for transit into the nucleus. (c) Nuclear pores have water-filled passages that small, water-soluble molecules can pass through in a nonselective fashion. (d) Nuclear pores are made up of many copies of a single protein.

(c) Nuclear pores have water-filled passages that small, water-soluble molecules can pass through in a nonselective fashion.

15-18 Your friend works in a biotechnology company and has discovered a drug that blocks the ability of Ran to exchange GDP for GTP. What is the most likely effect of this drug on nuclear transport? (a) Nuclear transport receptors would be unable to bind cargo. (b) Nuclear transport receptors would be unable to enter the nucleus. (c) Nuclear transport receptors would be unable to release their cargo in the nucleus. (d) Nuclear transport receptors would interact irreversibly with the nuclear pore fibrils.

15-29 Which of the following statements is true? (a) Proteins destined for the ER are translated by a special pool of ribosomes whose subunits are always associated with the outer ER membrane. (b) Proteins destined for the ER translocate their associated mRNAs into the ER lumen where they are translated. (c) Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and are targeted to the ER when a signal sequence emerges during translation. (d) Proteins destined for the ER are translated by a pool of cytosolic ribosomes that contain ER-targeting sequences that interact with ER-associated protein translocators

(c) Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and are targeted to the ER when a signal sequence emerges during translation.

7-62 Which of the following molecules is thought to have arisen first during evolution? (a) protein (b) DNA (c) RNA (d) all came to be at the same time

7-64 Ribozymes catalyze which of the following reactions? (a) DNA synthesis (b) transcription (c) RNA splicing (d) protein hydrolysis

15-43 Which of the following statements about vesicular membrane fusion is false? (a) Membrane fusion does not always immediately follow vesicle docking. (b) The hydrophilic surfaces of membranes have water molecules associated with them that must be displaced before vesicle fusion can occur. (c) The GTP hydrolysis of the Rab proteins provides the energy for membrane fusion. (d) The interactions of the v-SNAREs and the t-SNAREs pull the vesicle membrane and the target organelle membrane together so that their lipids can intermix.

(c) The GTP hydrolysis of the Rab proteins provides the energy for membrane fusion.Rab is needed for docking, but not membrane fusion catalysis

11-52 Which of the following statements about the carbohydrate coating of the cell surface is false? (a) It is not usually found on the cytosolic side of the membrane. (b) It can play a role in cell-cell adhesion. (c) The arrangement of the oligosaccharide side chains is highly ordered, much like the peptide bonds of a polypeptide chain. (d) Specific oligosaccharides can be involved in cell-cell recognition.

(c) The arrangement of the oligosaccharide side chains is highly ordered, much like the peptide bonds of a polypeptide chain.

7-50 The ribosome is important for catalyzing the formation of peptide bonds. Which of the following statements is true? (a) The number of rRNA molecules that make up a ribosome greatly exceeds the number of protein molecules found in the ribosome. (b) The large subunit of the ribosome is important for binding to the mRNA. (c) The catalytic site for peptide bond formation is formed primarily from an rRNA. (d) Once the large and small subunits of the ribosome assemble, they will not separate from each other until degraded by the proteasome.

(c) The catalytic site for peptide bond formation is formed primarily from an rRNA.the ribosome is made of rRNA and protein

12-42 When the net charge on either side of the plasma membrane is zero, what else is true? (a) There is an equal number of K+ ions on each side of the plasma membrane. (b) The K+ leak channels are open. (c) The electrochemical potential across the membrane is zero. (d) The resting membrane potential is between -20 mV and -200 mV.

15-48 Cells have oligosaccharides displayed on their cell surface that are important for cell-cell recognition. Your friend discovered a transmembrane glycoprotein, GP1, on a pathogenic yeast cell that is recognized by human immune cells. He decides to purify large amounts of GP1 by expressing it in bacteria. To his purified protein he then adds a branched 14-sugar oligosaccharide to the asparagine of the only Asn-X-Ser sequence found on GP1 (Figure Q15-48). Unfortunately, immune cells do not seem to recognize this synthesized glycoprotein. Which of the following statements is a likely explanation for this problem?Figure Q15-48 (a) The oligosaccharide should have been added to the serine instead of the asparagine. (b) The oligosaccharide should have been added one sugar at a time. (c) The oligosaccharide needs to be further modified before it is mature. (d) The oligosaccharide needs a disulfide bond.

12-12 Which of the following statements about resting membrane potential is not true? (a) The resting membrane potential for most animal cells is 0 mV, because the positive and negative ions are in balance. (b) The resting membrane potential for most animal cells is positive, because Na+ ions are so plentiful inside cells. (c) The resting membrane potential for most animal cells is negative, because the inside of the cell is more negatively charged than the outside of the cell. (d) At the resting membrane potential, no ions enter or exit the cell.

(c) The resting membrane potential for most animal cells is negative, because the inside of the cell is more negatively charged than the outside of the cell.

15-56 Which of the following statements about secretion is true? (a) The membrane of a secretory vesicle will fuse with the plasma membrane when it discharges its contents to the cell's exterior. (b) Vesicles for regulated exocytosis will not bud off the trans Golgi network until the appropriate signal has been received by the cell. (c) The signal sequences of proteins destined for constitutive exocytosis ensure their packaging into the correct vesicles. (d) Proteins destined for constitutive exocytosis aggregate as a result of the acidic pH of the trans Golgi network.

(c) The signal sequences of proteins destined for constitutive exocytosis ensure their packaging into the correct vesicles.

8-37 The expression of the BRF1 gene in mice is normally quite low, but mutations in a gene called BRF2 lead to increased expression of BRF1. You have a hunch that nucleosomes are involved in the regulation of BRF1 expression and so you investigate the position of nucleosomes over the TATA box of BRF1 in normal mice and in mice that lack either the BRF2 protein (BRF2-) or part of histone H4 (HHF-) (histone H4 is encoded by the HHF gene). Table Q8-37 summarizes your results. A normal functional gene is indicated by a plus sign (+).Which of the following conclusions cannot be drawn from your data? Explain your answer. (a) BRF2 is required for the repression of BRF1. (b) BRF2 is required for the specific pattern of nucleosome positions over the BRF1 upstream region. (c) The specific pattern of nucleosome positioning over the BRF1 upstream region is required for BRF1 repression. (d) The part of histone H4 missing in HHF- mice is not required for the formation of nucleosomes.

7-14 Which one of the following is the main reason that a typical eukaryotic gene is able to respond to a far greater variety of regulatory signals than a typical prokaryotic gene or operon? (a) Eukaryotes have three types of RNA polymerase. (b) Eukaryotic RNA polymerases require general transcription factors. (c) The transcription of a eukaryotic gene can be influenced by proteins that bind far from the promoter. (d) Prokaryotic genes are packaged into nucleosomes.

11-54 Both glycoproteins and proteoglycans contribute to the carbohydrate layer on the surface of the cell. Which of the following is not true of glycoproteins? (a) They can be secreted into the extracellular environment. (b) They have only one transmembrane domain. (c) They have long carbohydrate chains. (d) They are recognized by lectins.

8-46 Which of the following statements about how fruit flies can develop an eye in the middle of a leg is true? (a) When the Ey gene is expressed in adult leg cells, these cells de-differentiate and become eye cells. (b) The Ey gene encodes a transcription regulator that is the only transcription regulator used to produce a fruit-fly eye. (c) When the Ey gene is introduced into cells that would normally give rise to a leg, the transcription regulators used to control its expression in the leg are different from those that are normally used to control Ey expression in the eye. (d) All the eye cells found in the adult leg are a single cell type and have identical characteristics.

(c) When the Ey gene is introduced into cells that would normally give rise to a leg, the transcription regulators used to control its expression in the leg are different from those that are normally used to control Ey expression in the eye.

15-57 Figure Q15-57 shows the orientation of the Krt1 protein on the membrane of a Golgi-derived vesicle that will fuse with the plasma membrane.Figure Q15-57Given this diagram, which of the following statements is true? (a) When this vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane, the entire Krt1 protein will be secreted into the extracellular space. (b) When this vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane, the C-terminus of Krt1 will be inserted into the plasma membrane. (c) When this vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane, the N-terminus of Krt1 will be in the extracellular space. (d) When this vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane, the N-terminus of Krt1 will be cytoplasmic.

11-14 Three phospholipids X, Y, and Z are distributed in the plasma membrane as indicated in Figure Q11-14. For which of these phospholipids does a flippase probably exist?Figure Q11-14 (a) X only (b) Z only (c) X and Y (d) Y and Z

7-45 A strain of yeast translates mRNA into protein inaccurately. Individual molecules of a particular protein isolated from this yeast have variations in the first 11 amino acids compared with the sequence of the same protein isolated from normal yeast cells, as listed in Figure Q7-45. What is the most likely cause of this variation in protein sequence? (a) a mutation in the DNA coding for the protein (b) a mutation in the anticodon of the isoleucine-tRNA (tRNAIle) (c) a mutation in the isoleucyl-tRNA synthetase that decreases its ability to distinguish between different amino acids (d) a mutation in the isoleucyl-tRNA synthetase that decreases its ability to distinguish between different tRNA molecules

15-23 Most proteins destined to enter the endoplasmic reticulum _________. (a) are transported across the membrane after their synthesis is complete. (b) are synthesized on free ribosomes in the cytosol. (c) begin to cross the membrane while still being synthesized. (d) remain within the endoplasmic reticulum.

8-3 The human genome encodes about 21,000 protein-coding genes. Approximately how many such genes does the typical differentiated human cell express at any one time? (a) 21,000—all of them (b) between 18,900 and 21,000—at least 90% of the genes (c) between 5000 and 15,000 (d) less than 2100

8-11 Operons ___________________________. (a) are commonly found in eukaryotic cells. (b) are transcribed by RNA polymerase II. (c) contain a cluster of genes transcribed as a single mRNA. (d) can only be regulated by gene activator proteins.

11-23 New membrane phospholipids are synthesized by enzymes bound to the _____________ side of the _________________ membrane. (a) cytosolic, mitochondrial (b) luminal, Golgi (c) cytosolic, endoplasmic reticulum (d) extracellular, plasma

11-35 Unlike soluble, cytosolic proteins, membrane proteins are more difficult to purify. Which of the following substances is most commonly used to help purify a membrane protein? (a) high salt solution (b) sucrose (c) detergent (d) ethanol

15-41 Your friend has just joined a lab that studies vesicle budding from the Golgi and has been given a cell line that does not form mature vesicles. He wants to start designing some experiments but wasn't listening carefully when he was told about the molecular defect of this cell line. He's too embarrassed to ask and comes to you for help. He does recall that this cell line forms coated pits but vesicle budding and the removal of coat proteins don't happen. Which of the following proteins might be lacking in this cell line? (a) clathrin (b) Rab (c) dynamin (d) adaptin

(c) dynaminGiven that coated pits can form but no vesicle budding is seen, dynamin is the most likely answer. Since coated pits are formed, clathrin and adaptin are unlikely to be the answer, because they are involved in the initial shaping of the vesicle into the pit [choices (a) and (d)]. Rab proteins are involved in the recognition of the transport vesicle with its target membrane and not with vesicle budding [choice (b)].

15-13 Signal sequences that direct proteins to the correct compartment are _________. (a) added to proteins through post-translational modification. (b) added to a protein by a protein translocator. (c) encoded in the amino acid sequence and sufficient for targeting a protein to its correct destination. (d) always removed once a protein is at the correct destination.

You are interested in understanding the gene regulation of Lkp1, a protein that is normally produced in liver and kidney cells in mice. Interestingly, you find that the LKP1 gene is not expressed in heart cells. You isolate the DNA upstream of the LKP1 gene, place it upstream of the gene for green fluorescent protein (GFP), and insert this entire piece of recombinant DNA into mice. You find GFP expressed in liver and kidney cells but not in heart cells, an expression pattern similar to the normal expression of the LKP1 gene. Further experiments demonstrate that there are three regions in the promoter, labeled A, B, and C in Figure Q8-21, that contribute to this expression pattern. Assume that a single and unique transcription factor binds each site such that protein X binds site A, protein Y binds site B, and protein Z binds site C. You want to determine which region is responsible for tissue-specific expression, and create mutations in the promoter to determine the function of each of these regions. In Figure Q8-21, if the site is missing, it is mutated such that it cannot bind its corresponding transcription factor.8-21 Which of the following proteins is likely to act as a gene repressor? (a) factor X (b) factor Y (c) factor Z (d) none of the above

12-66 Which of the following gated ion channels are involved in inhibitory synaptic signaling? (a) voltage-gated Na+ channels (b) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels (c) glycine-gated Cl- channels (d) glutamate-gated cation channels

You are interested in understanding the gene regulation of Lkp1, a protein that is normally produced in liver and kidney cells in mice. Interestingly, you find that the LKP1 gene is not expressed in heart cells. You isolate the DNA upstream of the LKP1 gene, place it upstream of the gene for green fluorescent protein (GFP), and insert this entire piece of recombinant DNA into mice. You find GFP expressed in liver and kidney cells but not in heart cells, an expression pattern similar to the normal expression of the LKP1 gene. Further experiments demonstrate that there are three regions in the promoter, labeled A, B, and C in Figure Q8-21, that contribute to this expression pattern. Assume that a single and unique transcription factor binds each site such that protein X binds site A, protein Y binds site B, and protein Z binds site C. You want to determine which region is responsible for tissue-specific expression, and create mutations in the promoter to determine the function of each of these regions. In Figure Q8-21, if the site is missing, it is mutated such that it cannot bind its corresponding transcription factor.8-24 In what tissue is factor Z normally present and bound to the DNA? (a) kidney (b) liver (c) heart (d) none of the above

15-25 In which cellular location would you expect to find ribosomes translating mRNAs that encode ribosomal proteins? (a) the nucleus (b) on the rough ER (c) in the cytosol (d) in the lumen of the ER

7-4 RNA in cells differs from DNA in that ___________________. (a) it contains the base uracil, which pairs with cytosine. (b) it is single-stranded and cannot form base pairs. (c) it is single-stranded and can fold up into a variety of structures. (d) the sugar ribose contains fewer oxygen atoms than does deoxyribose.

8-61 Which of the following statements about miRNAs is false? (a) One miRNA can regulate the expression of many genes. (b) miRNAs are transcribed in the nucleus from genomic DNA. (c) miRNAs are produced from rRNAs. (d) miRNAs are made by RNA polymerase.

15-6 Which of the following organelles is not part of the endomembrane system? (a) Golgi apparatus (b) the nucleus (c) mitochondria (d) lysosomes

8-32 Which proteins do you predict are bound to the promoter in experiment #8? (a) only H and J (b) only G and H (c) only G and J (d) only J

11-46 The lateral movement of transmembrane proteins can be restricted by several different mechanisms. Which mechanism best describes the process by which neutrophils are recruited by endothelial cells? (a) proteins are tethered to the cell cortex (b) proteins are tethered to the extracellular matrix (c) proteins are tethered to the proteins on the surface of another cell (d) protein movement is limited by the presence of a diffusion barrier

11-48 The lateral movement of transmembrane proteins can be restricted by several different mechanisms. Which mechanism best describes the process by which an antigen-presenting cell triggers an adaptive immune response? (a) proteins are tethered to the cell cortex (b) proteins are tethered to the extracellular matrix (c) proteins are tethered to the proteins on the surface of another cell (d) protein movement is limited by the presence of a diffusion barrier

7-51 Which of the following statements is true? (a) Ribosomes are large RNA structures composed solely of rRNA. (b) Ribosomes are synthesized entirely in the cytoplasm. (c) rRNA contains the catalytic activity that joins amino acids together. (d) A ribosome binds one tRNA at a time.

7-22 The sigma subunit of bacterial RNA polymerase ___________________. (a) contains the catalytic activity of the polymerase. (b) remains part of the polymerase throughout transcription. (c) recognizes promoter sites in the DNA. (d) recognizes transcription termination sites in the DNA.

12-15 Some cells have aquaporins—channels that facilitate the flow of water molecules through the plasma membrane. For these cells, what regulates the rate and direction of water diffusion across the membrane? (a) aquaporin conformation (b) resting membrane potential (c) solute concentrations on either side of the membrane (d) availability of ATP

7-58 The concentration of a particular protein, X, in a normal human cell rises gradually from a low point, immediately after cell division, to a high point, just before cell division, and then drops sharply. The level of its mRNA in the cell remains fairly constant throughout this time. Protein X is required for cell growth and survival, but the drop in its level just before cell division is essential for division to proceed. You have isolated a line of human cells that grow in size in culture but cannot divide, and on analyzing these mutants, you find that levels of X mRNA in the mutant cells are normal. Which of the following mutations in the gene for X could explain these results? (a) the introduction of a stop codon that truncates protein X at the fourth amino acid (b) a change of the first ATG codon to CCA (c) the deletion of a sequence that encodes sites at which ubiquitin can be attached to the protein (d) a change at a splice site that prevents splicing of the RNA

8-1 A neuron and a white blood cell have very different functions. For example, a neuron can receive and respond to electrical signals while a white blood cell defends the body against infection. This is because ______. (a) the proteins found in a neuron are completely different from the proteins found in a white blood cell. (b) the neuron and the white blood cell within an individual have the same genome. (c) the neuron expresses some mRNAs that the white blood cell does not. (d) neurons and white blood cells are differentiated cells and thus no longer need to transcribe and translate genes.

12-21 The Na+-K+ ATPase is also known as the Na+-K+ pump. It is responsible for maintaining the high extracellular sodium ion concentration and the high intracellular potassium ion concentration. What happens immediately after the pump hydrolyzes ATP? (a) Na+ is bound (b) ADP is bound (c) the pump is phosphorylated (d) the pump changes conformation

12-63 Approximately, how many distinct synapses are established on the dendrites and cell body of a motor neuron in the spinal cord? (a) tens (b) hundreds (c) thousands (d) millions

12-53 Figure Q12-53 illustrates changes in membrane potential during the formation of an action potential. What membrane characteristic or measurement used to study action potentials is indicated by the arrow?Figure Q12-53 (a) effect of a depolarizing stimulus (b) resting membrane potential (c) threshold potential (d) action potential

8-41 In principle, how many different cell types can an organism having four different types of transcription regulator and thousands of genes create? (a) up to 4 (b) up to 8 (c) up to 16 (d) thousands

7-69 An extraterrestrial organism (ET) is discovered whose basic cell biology seems pretty much the same as that of terrestrial organisms except that it uses a different genetic code to translate RNA into protein. You set out to break the code by translation experiments using RNAs of known sequence and cell-free extracts of ET cells to supply the necessary protein-synthesizing machinery. In experiments using the RNAs below, the following results were obtained when the 20 possible amino acids were added either singly or in different combinations of two or three:RNA 1: 5′-GCGCGCGCGCGCGCGCGCGCGCGCGCGC-3′RNA 2: 5′-GCCGCCGCCGCCGCCGCCGCCGCCGCCGCC-3′Using RNA 1, a polypeptide was produced only if alanine and valine were added to the reaction mixture. Using RNA 2, a polypeptide was produced only if leucine and serine and cysteine were added to the reaction mixture. Assuming that protein synthesis can start anywhere on the template, that the ET genetic code is nonoverlapping and linear, and that each codon is the same length (like the terrestrial triplet code), how many nucleotides does an ET codon contain? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6

(d) 5

You are interested in examining the Psf gene. It is known that Psf is normally produced when cells are exposed to high levels of both calcium (Ca2+) and magnesium (Mg2+). MetA, MetB, and MetC are important for binding to the promoter of the Psf gene and are involved in regulating its transcription. MetA binds to the "A" site in the promoter region, MetB to the "B" site, and MetC to the "C" site. You create binding-site mutations in the A, B, and C sites and observe what happens to transcription of the Psf gene. Your results are summarized in Table Q8-17.8-17 Which of the following proteins are likely to act as gene activators? (a) MetA only (b) MetB only (c) MetC only (d) Both MetA and MetC

(d) Both MetA and MetC

12-11 Negatively charged ions are required to balance the net positive charge from metal ions such as K+, Na+, and Ca2+. Which of the following negatively charged ions is the most abundant outside the cell and which ion does most often neutralize (written in parentheses)? (a) Cl- (Ca2+) (b) PO43- (K+) (c) PO43- (Ca2+) (d) Cl- (Na+)

(d) Cl- (Na+)

7-68 You have discovered an alien life-form that surprisingly uses DNA as its genetic material, makes RNA from DNA, and reads the information from RNA to make protein using ribosomes and tRNAs, which read triplet codons. Because it is your job to decipher the genetic code for this alien, you synthesize some artificial RNA molecules and examine the protein products produced from these RNA molecules in a cell-free translation system using purified alien tRNAs and ribosomes. You obtain the results shown in Table Q7-68.From this information, which of the following peptides can be produced from poly UAUC? (a) Ile-Phe-Val-Tyr (b) Tyr-Ser-Phe-Ala (c) Ile-Lys-His-Tyr (d) Cys-Pro-Lys-Ala

(d) Cys-Pro-Lys-Ala

15-47 Which of the following statements about disulfide bond formation is false? (a) Disulfide bonds do not form under reducing environments. (b) Disulfide bonding occurs by the oxidation of pairs of cysteine side chains on the protein. (c) Disulfide bonding stabilizes the structure of proteins. (d) Disulfide bonds form spontaneously within the ER because the lumen of the ER is oxidizing.

(d) Disulfide bonds form spontaneously within the ER because the lumen of the ER is oxidizing.

15-36 Which of the following choices reflects the appropriate order of locations through which a protein destined for the plasma membrane travels? (a) lysosome => endosome =>plasma membrane (b) ER => lysosome => plasma membrane (c) Golgi => lysosome => plasma membrane (d) ER => Golgi => plasma membrane

(d) ER => Golgi => plasma membrane

11-58 We can estimate the relative mobility of a population of molecules along the surface of a living cell by fluorescently labeling the molecules of interest, bleaching the label in one small area, and then measuring the speed of signal recovery as molecules migrate back into the bleached area. What is this method called? What does the abbreviation stand for? (a) SDS (b) SPT (c) GFP (d) FRAP

(d) FRAPfluorescence recovery after photobleaching

8-52 Which of the following statements about DNA methylation in eukaryotes is false? (a) Appropriate inheritance of DNA methylation patterns involves maintenance methyltransferase. (b) DNA methylation involves a covalent modification of cytosine bases. (c) Methylation of DNA attracts proteins that block gene expression. (d) Immediately after DNA replication, each daughter helix contains one methylated DNA strand, which corresponds to the newly synthesized strand.

(d) Immediately after DNA replication, each daughter helix contains one methylated DNA strand, which corresponds to the newly synthesized strand.

12-28 Cells make use of H+ electrochemical gradients in many ways. Which of the following proton transporters is used to regulate pH in animal cells? (a) light-driven pump (b) H+ ATPase (c) H+ symporter (d) Na+-H+ exchanger

(d) Na+-H+ exchanger

7-60 Which of the following methods is not used by cells to regulate the amount of a protein in the cell? (a) Genes can be transcribed into mRNA with different efficiencies. (b) Many ribosomes can bind to a single mRNA molecule. (c) Proteins can be tagged with ubiquitin, marking them for degradation. (d) Nuclear pore complexes can regulate the speed at which newly synthesized proteins are exported from the nucleus into the cytoplasm.

(d) Nuclear pore complexes can regulate the speed at which newly synthesized proteins are exported from the nucleus into the cytoplasm.

15-49 Different glycoproteins can have a diverse array of oligosaccharides. Which of the statements below about this diversity is true? (a) Extensive modification of oligosaccharides occurs in the extracellular space. (b) Different oligosaccharides are covalently linked to proteins in the ER and the Golgi. (c) A diversity of oligosaccharyl transferases recognizes specific protein sequences, resulting in the linkage of a variety of oligosaccharides to proteins. (d) Oligosaccharide diversity comes from modifications that occur in the ER and the Golgi of the 14-sugar oligosaccharide added to the protein in the ER

(d) Oligosaccharide diversity comes from modifications that occur in the ER and the Golgi of the 14-sugar oligosaccharide added to the protein in the ER

15-27 You are interested in Fuzzy, a soluble protein that functions within the ER lumen. Given that information, which of the following statements must be true? (a) Fuzzy has a C-terminal signal sequence that binds to SRP. (b) Only one ribosome can be bound to the mRNA encoding Fuzzy during translation. (c) Fuzzy must contain a hydrophobic stop-transfer sequence. (d) Once the signal sequence from Fuzzy has been cleaved, the signal peptide will be ejected into the ER membrane and degraded.

(d) Once the signal sequence from Fuzzy has been cleaved, the signal peptide will be ejected into the ER membrane and degraded.

8-34 You know that Gip1 is only expressed in adult liver cells and not in the liver of embryos. You also know that Jk8 and Pa5 behave similarly on other promoters in the embryo or in the adult, in terms of whether they act as repressors or gene activators. Given the data, use of which of the following mechanisms would make the most sense for regulating the Jk8 and Pa5 proteins: (a) Jk8 is ubiquitylated and targeted for destruction in adult cells. (b) Jk8, but not Pa5, is transcribed in embryonic liver cells. (c) Jk8 binds to the promoter of the gene that encodes Jk8 in embryonic liver cells. (d) Pa5 binds to the promoter of the gene that encodes Jk8 in embryonic liver cells.

(d) Pa5 binds to the promoter of the gene that encodes Jk8 in embryonic liver cells.

7-12 Unlike DNA, which typically forms a helical structure, different molecules of RNA can fold into a variety of three-dimensional shapes. This is largely because ___________________. (a) RNA contains uracil and uses ribose as the sugar. (b) RNA bases cannot form hydrogen bonds with each other. (c) RNA nucleotides use a different chemical linkage between nucleotides compared to DNA. (d) RNA is single-stranded.

(d) RNA is single-stranded.

12-48 In a method called patch-clamping, a glass capillary can be converted into a microelectrode that measures the electrical currents across biological membranes. Which of the following is not true about the patch-clamp method? (a) The glass capillary adheres to a "patch" of membrane through the application of suction. (b) The aperture in the glass capillary used to make a microelectrode is about 1 μm in diameter. (c) If the experimental conditions are held constant, fluctuations in electrical currents across the patch of membrane are still observed. (d) Single-channel patch-clamp recordings have demonstrated that gated membrane channels will only open and close in response to specific stimuli.

(d) Single-channel patch-clamp recordings have demonstrated that gated membrane channels will only open and close in response to specific stimuli.

8-5 Which of the following statements about differentiated cells is true? (a) Cells of distinct types express nonoverlapping sets of transcription factors. (b) Once a cell has differentiated, it can no longer change its gene expression. (c) Once a cell has differentiated, it will no longer need to transcribe RNA. (d) Some of the proteins found in differentiated cells are found in all cells of a multicellular organism.

(d) Some of the proteins found in differentiated cells are found in all cells of a multicellular organism.

15-28 Which of the following statements about a protein in the lumen of the ER is false? (a) A protein in the lumen of the ER is synthesized by ribosomes on the ER membrane. (b) Some of the proteins in the lumen of the ER can end up in the extracellular space. (c) Some of the proteins in the lumen of the ER can end up in the lumen of an organelle in the endomembrane system. (d) Some of the proteins in the lumen of the ER can end up in the plasma membrane.

(d) Some of the proteins in the lumen of the ER can end up in the plasma membrane.

12-29 Which of the following statements is true? (a) Amoebae have transporter proteins that actively pump water molecules from the cytoplasm to the cell exterior. (b) Bacteria and animal cells rely on the Na+-K+ pump in the plasma membrane to prevent lysis resulting from osmotic imbalances. (c) The Na+-K+ pump allows animal cells to thrive under conditions of very low ionic strength. (d) The Na+-K+ pump helps to keep both Na+ and Cl- ions out of the cell.

(d) The Na+-K+ pump helps to keep both Na+ and Cl- ions out of the cell.

12-51 Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the events involved in the propagation of an action potential? (a) An initial influx of Na+ through a small cluster of channels causes local depolarization of the membrane. (b) Local depolarization causes nearby Na+ channels to open. (c) Channels in depolarized regions of the membrane are inactivated until the resting membrane potential is reestablished. (d) The opening of transmitter-gated K+ channels helps to repolarize the membrane.

(d) The opening of transmitter-gated K+ channels helps to repolarize the membrane.

12-43 K+ leak channels are found in the plasma membrane. These channels open and close in an unregulated, random fashion. What do they accomplish in a resting cell? (a) They set the K+ concentration gradient to zero. (b) They set the membrane potential to zero. (c) They disrupt the resting membrane potential. (d) They keep the electrochemical gradient for K+ at zero

(d) They keep the electrochemical gradient for K+ at zero.

12-64 Which of the following statements about GABA receptors is not true? (a) They are located on postsynaptic membranes. (b) They are ligand-gated channels. (c) They inhibit synaptic signaling. (d) They promote neuronal uptake of Na+.

(d) They promote neuronal uptake of Na+.

7-11 Which of the following statements is false? (a) A new RNA molecule can begin to be synthesized from a gene before the previous RNA molecule's synthesis is completed. (b) If two genes are to be expressed in a cell, these two genes can be transcribed with different efficiencies. (c) RNA polymerase is responsible for both unwinding the DNA helix and catalyzing the formation of the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. (d) Unlike DNA, RNA uses a uracil base and a deoxyribose sugar.

(d) Unlike DNA, RNA uses a uracil base and a deoxyribose sugar.

7-23 Which of the following might decrease the transcription of only one specific gene in a bacterial cell? (a) a decrease in the amount of sigma factor (b) a decrease in the amount of RNA polymerase (c) a mutation that introduced a stop codon into the DNA that precedes the gene's coding sequence (d) a mutation that introduced extensive sequence changes into the DNA that precedes the gene's transcription start site

(d) a mutation that introduced extensive sequence changes into the DNA that precedes the gene's transcription start site

12-55 Figure Q12-55 illustrates changes in membrane potential during the formation of an action potential. What membrane characteristic or measurement used to study action potentials is indicated by the arrow?Figure Q12-55 (a) effect of a depolarizing stimulus (b) resting membrane potential (c) threshold potential (d) action potential

(d) action potential

15-40 Which of the following protein families are not involved in directing transport vesicles to the target membrane? (a) SNAREs (b) Rabs (c) tethering proteins (d) adaptins

(d) adaptins

11-51 Diversity among the oligosaccharide chains found in the carbohydrate coating of the cell surface can be achieved in which of the following ways? (a) varying the types of sugar monomers used (b) varying the types of linkages between sugars (c) varying the number of branches in the chain (d) all of the above

(d) all of the above

15-24 After isolating the rough endoplasmic reticulum from the rest of the cytoplasm, you purify the RNAs attached to it. Which of the following proteins do you expect the RNA from the rough endoplasmic reticulum to encode? (a) soluble secreted proteins (b) ER membrane proteins (c) plasma membrane proteins (d) all of the above

(d) all of the above

8-29 Which proteins are likely to act as gene activators? (a) G (b) H (c) J (d) both H and J

(d) both H and J

12-60 Both excitatory and inhibitory neurons form junctions with muscles. By what mechanism do inhibitory neurotransmitters prevent the postsynaptic cell from firing an action potential? (a) by closing Na+ channels (b) by preventing the secretion of excitatory neurotransmitters (c) by opening K+ channels (d) by opening Cl- channels

(d) by opening Cl- channels

7-34 snRNAs ___________________. (a) are translated into snRNPs. (b) are important for producing mature mRNA transcripts in bacteria. (c) are removed by the spliceosome during RNA splicing. (d) can bind to specific sequences at intron-exon boundaries through complementary base-pairing.

(d) can bind to specific sequences at intron-exon boundaries through complementary base-pairing.

11-6 Which of the following membrane lipids does not contain a fatty acid tail? (a) phosphatidylcholine (b) a glycolipid (c) phosphatidylserine (d) cholesterol

(d) cholesterol

12-6 Below is a list of molecules with different chemical characteristics. Knowing that all molecules will eventually diffuse across a phospholipid bilayer, select the option below that most accurately predicts the relative rates of diffusion of these molecules (fastest to slowest).alanine estrogen propanol sodium (a) alanine > propanol > sodium > estrogen (b) sodium > propanol > alanine > estrogen (c) estrogen > propanol > sodium > alanine (d) estrogen > propanol > alanine > sodium

(d) estrogen > propanol > alanine > sodium

11-12 Some lipases are able to cleave the covalent bonds between the glycerol backbone and the attached fatty acid. What final products do you expect to accumulate through the action of the enzyme monoacylglycerol lipase? (a) phosphoglycerol and free fatty acid (b) sterol and glycerol (c) free phosphate and glycerol (d) glycerol and free fatty acid

(d) glycerol and free fatty acid

8-4 Which of the following is not a good example of a housekeeping protein? (a) DNA repair enzymes (b) histones (c) ATP synthase (d) hemoglobin

(d) hemoglobin

12-13 A hungry yeast cell lands in a vat of grape juice and begins to feast on the sugars there, producing carbon dioxide and ethanol in the process:C6H12O6 + 2ADP + 2Pi + H+ 2CO2 + 2CH3CH2OH + 2ATP + 2H2OUnfortunately, the grape juice is contaminated with proteases that attack some of the transport proteins in the yeast cell membrane, and the yeast cell dies. Which of the following could account for the yeast cell's demise? (a) toxic buildup of carbon dioxide inside the cell (b) toxic buildup of ethanol inside the cell (c) diffusion of ATP out of the cell (d) inability to import sugar into the cell

(d) inability to import sugar into the cell

7-28 Total nucleic acids are extracted from a culture of yeast cells and are then mixed with resin beads to which the polynucleotide 5′-TTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTT-3′ has been covalently attached. After a short incubation, the beads are then extracted from the mixture. When you analyze the cellular nucleic acids that have stuck to the beads, which of the following is most abundant? (a) DNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) mRNA

(d) mRNAonly one with polyA tail!

11-21 Cholesterol serves several essential functions in mammalian cells. Which of the following is not influenced by cholesterol? (a) membrane permeability (b) membrane fluidity (c) membrane rigidity (d) membrane thickness

(d) membrane thickness

7-63 According to current thinking, the minimum requirement for life to have originated on Earth was the formation of a _______________. (a) molecule that could provide a template for the production of a complementary molecule. (b) double-stranded DNA helix. (c) molecule that could direct protein synthesis. (d) molecule that could catalyze its own replication.

(d) molecule that could catalyze its own replication.

7-5 Transcription is similar to DNA replication in that ___________________. (a) an RNA transcript is synthesized discontinuously and the pieces are then joined together. (b) it uses the same enzyme as that used to synthesize RNA primers during DNA replication. (c) the newly synthesized RNA remains paired to the template DNA. (d) nucleotide polymerization occurs only in the 5′-to-3′ direction.

(d) nucleotide polymerization occurs only in the 5′-to-3′ direction.

8-51 Which of the following is not a general mechanism that cells use to maintain stable patterns of gene expression as cells divide? (a) a positive feedback loop, mediated by a transcriptional regulator that activates transcription of its own gene in addition to other cell-type-specific genes (b) faithful propagation of condensed chromatin structures as cells divide (c) inheritance of DNA methylation patterns when cells divide (d) proper segregation of housekeeping proteins when cells divide

(d) proper segregation of housekeeping proteins when cells divide

11-47 The lateral movement of transmembrane proteins can be restricted by several different mechanisms. Which mechanism best describes the process by which nutrients are taken up at the apical surface of the epithelial cells that line the gut and released from their basal and lateral surfaces? (a) proteins are tethered to the cell cortex (b) proteins are tethered to the extracellular matrix (c) proteins are tethered to the proteins on the surface of another cell (d) protein movement is limited by the presence of a diffusion barrier

(d) protein movement is limited by the presence of a diffusion barrier

11-25 Membrane curvature is influenced by the differential lipid composition of the two membrane monolayers. Which factor do you think has the largest impact on the curvature of biological membranes? (a) amount of cholesterol (b) charge of the lipid head group (c) length of the hydrocarbon tails (d) size of the lipid head group

(d) size of the lipid head group

11-41 Red blood cells have been very useful in the study of membranes and the protein components that provide structural support. Which of the following proteins is the principal fibrous protein in the cortex of the red blood cell? (a) tubulin (b) attachment proteins (c) actin (d) spectrin

(d) spectrin

12-39 The stimulation of auditory nerves depends on the opening and closing of channels in the auditory hair cells. Which type of gating mechanism do these cells use? (a) voltage-gated (b) extracellular ligand-gated (c) intracellular ligand-gated (d) stress-gated

(d) stress-gated

15-45 N-linked oligosaccharides on secreted glycoproteins are attached to ________. (a) nitrogen atoms in the polypeptide backbone. (b) the serine or threonine in the sequence Asn-X-Ser/Thr. (c) the N-terminus of the protein. (d) the asparagine in the sequence Asn-X-Ser/Thr.

(d) the asparagine in the sequence Asn-X-Ser/Thr.

7-20 You have a segment of DNA that contains the following sequence:5′-GGACTAGACAATAGGGACCTAGAGATTCCGAAA-3′3′-CCTGATCTGTTATCCCTGGATCTCTAAGGCTTT-5′You know that the RNA transcribed from this segment contains the following sequence:5′-GGACUAGACAAUAGGGACCUAGAGAUUCCGAAA-3′Which of the following choices best describes how transcription occurs? (a) the top strand is the template strand; RNA polymerase moves along this strand from 5′ to 3′ (b) the top strand is the template strand; RNA polymerase moves along this strand from 3′ to 5′ (c) the bottom strand is the template strand; RNA polymerase moves along this strand from 5′ to 3′ (d) the bottom strand is the template strand; RNA polymerase moves along this strand from 3′ to 5′

(d) the bottom strand is the template strand; RNA polymerase moves along this strand from 3′ to 5′

8-55 Using genetic engineering techniques, you remove the sequences that code for the ribosome-binding sequences of the bacterial LacZ gene. The removal of these sequences will lead to ___________. (a) more LacZ protein produced due to faster ribosome movement across the LacZ mRNA. (b) transcriptional repression, resulting in fewer mRNA molecules produced from this gene. (c) a longer half-life for the LacZ mRNA. (d) translational inhibition of the LacZ mRNA.

(d) translational inhibition of the LacZ mRNA.

15-11 Proteins that are fully translated in the cytosol do not end up in _______. (a) the cytosol. (b) the mitochondria. (c) the interior of the nucleus. (d) transport vesicles.

(d) transport vesicles

12-52 Which of the following is required for the secretion of neurotransmitters in response to an action potential? (a) neurotransmitter receptors (b) Na+-K+ pumps (c) voltage-gated K+ channels (d) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

(d) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

12-31 For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase selected from the list below. Not all words or phrases will be used; each word or phrase should be used only once.For an uncharged molecule, the direction of passive transport across a membrane is determined solely by its __________________ gradient. On the other hand, for a charged molecule, the __________________ must also be considered. The net driving force for a charged molecule across a membrane therefore has two components and is referred to as the __________________ gradient. Active transport allows the movement of solutes against this gradient. The transporter proteins called __________________ transporters use the movement of one solute down its gradient to provide the energy to drive the uphill transport of a second solute. When this transporter moves both ions in the same direction across the membrane, it is considered a(n) __________________; if the ions move in opposite directions, the transporter is considered a(n) __________________.antiport coupled membrane potentialATP hydrolysis electrochemical symportconcentration light-driven uniport

12-31 For an uncharged molecule, the direction of passive transport across a membrane is determined solely by its concentration gradient. On the other hand, for a charged molecule, the membrane potential must also be considered. The net driving force for a charged molecule across a membrane therefore has two components and is referred to as the electrochemical gradient. Active transport allows the movement of solutes against this gradient. The transporter proteins called coupled transporters use the movement of one solute down its gradient to provide the energy to drive the uphill transport of a second solute. When this transporter moves both ions in the same direction across the membrane, it is considered a symport; if the ions move in opposite directions, the transporter is considered an antiport.

12-40 For each of the following sentences, fill in the blank with the appropriate type of gating for the ion channel described. You can use the same type of gating mechanism more than once. A. The acetylcholine receptor in skeletal muscle cells is a(n) _________ ion channel. B. _________ ion channels are found in the hair cells of the mammalian cochlea. C. _________ ion channels in the mimosa plant propagate the leaf-closing response. D. _________ ion channels respond to changes in membrane potential. E. Many receptors for neurotransmitters are _________ ion channels.

12-40 A. The acetylcholine receptor in skeletal muscle cells is a ligand-gated ion channel.B. Stress-gated ion channels are found in the hair cells of the mammalian cochlea.C. Voltage-gated ion channels in the mimosa plant propagate the leaf-closing response.D. Voltage-gated ion channels respond to changes in membrane potential.E. Many receptors for neurotransmitters are ligand-gated ion channels.

12-57 For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase selected from the list below. Not all words or phrases will be used; each word or phrase should be used only once.The action potential is a wave of __________________ that spreads rapidly along the neuronal plasma membrane. This wave is triggered by a local change in the membrane potential to a value that is __________________ negative than the resting membrane potential. The action potential is propagated by the opening of __________________-gated channels. During an action potential, the membrane potential changes from __________________ to __________________. The action potential travels along the neuron's __________________ to the nerve terminals. Neurons chiefly receive signals at their highly branched __________________.anions hyperpolarization neutralaxon less positivecytoskeleton ligand pressuredendrites more synaptic vesicledepolarization negative voltage

12-57 The action potential is a wave of depolarization that spreads rapidly along the neuronal plasma membrane. This wave is triggered by a local change in the membrane potential to a value that is less negative than the resting membrane potential. The action potential is propagated by the opening of voltage-gated channels. During an action potential, the membrane potential changes from negative to positive. The action potential travels along the neuron's axon to the nerve terminals. Neurons chiefly receive signals at their highly branched dendrites.

12-61 For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase selected from the list below. Not all words or phrases will be used; each word or phrase should be used only once.Neurons communicate with each other through specialized sites called __________________. Many neurotransmitter receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that open transiently in the __________________ cell membrane in response to neurotransmitters released by the __________________ cell. Ligand-gated ion channels in nerve cell membranes convert __________________ signals into __________________ ones. Neurotransmitter release is stimulated by the opening of voltage-gated __________________ in the nerve-terminal membrane.acetylcholine receptor GABA receptor postsynapticCa2+ channels K+ channels presynapticchemical Na+ channels synapseselectrical

12-61 Neurons communicate with each other through specialized sites called synapses. Many neurotransmitter receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that open transiently in the postsynaptic cell membrane in response to neurotransmitters released by the presynaptic cell. Ligand-gated ion channels in nerve cell membranes convert chemical signals into electrical ones. Neurotransmitter release is stimulated by the opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the nerve-terminal membrane.

15-37 For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase selected from the list below. Not all words or phrases will be used; use each word or phrase only once.Proteins are transported out of a cell via the __________________ or __________________ pathway. Fluids and macromolecules are transported into the cell via the __________________ pathway. All proteins being transported out of the cell pass through the __________________ and the __________________. Transport vesicles link organelles of the __________________ system. The formation of __________________ in the endoplasmic reticulum stabilizes protein structure.carbohydrate Golgi apparatusdisulfide bonds hydrogen bondsendocytic ionic bondsendomembrane lysosomeendoplasmic reticulum proteinendosome secretoryexocytic

15-37 Proteins are transported out of a cell via the secretory or exocytic pathway. Fluid and macromolecules are transported into the cell via the endocytic pathway. All proteins being transported out of the cell pass through the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus. Transport vesicles link organelles of the endomembrane system. The formation of disulfide bonds in the endoplasmic reticulum stabilizes protein structure.

15-5 For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase selected from the list below. Not all words or phrases will be used; use each word or phrase only once.The __________________ makes up about half of the total cell volume of a typical eukaryotic cell. Ingested materials within the cell will pass through a series of compartments called __________________ on their way to the __________________, which contains digestive enzymes and will ultimately degrade the particles and macromolecules taken into the cell and will also degrade worn-out organelles. The __________________ has a cis and trans face and receives proteins and lipids from the __________________, a system of interconnected sacs and tubes of membranes that typically extends throughout the cell.cytosol Golgi apparatus nucleusendoplasmic reticulum lysosome peroxisomesendosomes mitochondria plasma membrane

15-5 The cytosol makes up about half of the total cell volume of a typical eukaryotic cell. Ingested materials within the cell will pass through a series of compartments called endosomes on their way to the lysosome, which contains digestive enzymes and will ultimately degrade the particles and macromolecules taken into the cell and will also degrade worn-out organelles. The Golgi apparatus has a cis and trans face and receives proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum, a system of interconnected sacs and tubes of membranes that typically extends throughout the cell.

15-60 For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase selected from the list below. Not all words or phrases will be used; each word or phrase should be used only once.Eukaryotic cells are continually taking up materials from the extracellular space by the process of endocytosis. One type of endocytosis is __________________, which uses __________________ proteins to form small vesicles containing fluids and molecules. After these vesicles have pinched off from the plasma membrane, they will fuse with the __________________, where materials that are taken into the vesicle are sorted. A second type of endocytosis is __________________, which is used to take up large vesicles that can contain microorganisms and cellular debris. Macrophages are especially suited for this process, as they extend __________________ (sheetlike projections of their plasma membrane) to surround the invading microorganisms. chaperone Golgi apparatus pseudopods cholesterol mycobacterium rough ER clathrin phagocytosis SNARE endosome pinocytosis transcytosis

15-60 Eukaryotic cells are continually taking up materials from the extracellular space by the process of endocytosis. One type of endocytosis is pinocytosis, which uses clathrin proteins to form small vesicles containing fluids and molecules. After these vesicles have pinched off from the plasma membrane, they will fuse with the endosome, where materials that are taken into the vesicle are sorted. A second type of endocytosis is phagocytosis, which is used to take up large vesicles that can contain microorganisms and cellular debris. Macrophages are especially suited for this process, as they extend pseudopods (sheetlike projections of their plasma membrane) to surround the invading microorganisms.

15-9 For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase selected from the list below. Not all words or phrases will be used; use each word or phrase only once.Plasma membrane proteins are inserted into the membrane in the __________________. The address information for protein sorting in a eukaryotic cell is contained in the __________________ of the proteins. Proteins enter the nucleus in their __________________ form. Proteins that remain in the cytosol do not contain a __________________. Proteins are transported into the Golgi apparatus via __________________. The proteins transported into the endoplasmic reticulum by __________________ are in their __________________ form.amino acid sequence Golgi apparatus sorting signalendoplasmic reticulum plasma membrane transport vesiclesfolded protein translocators unfolded

15-9 Plasma membrane proteins are inserted into the membrane in the endoplasmic reticulum. The address information for protein sorting in a eukaryotic cell is contained in the amino acid sequence of the proteins. Proteins enter the nucleus in their folded form. Proteins that remain in the cytosol do not contain a sorting signal. Proteins are transported into the Golgi apparatus via transport vesicles. The proteins transported into the endoplasmic reticulum by protein translocators are in their unfolded form.

12-7 For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase selected from the list below. Not all words or phrases will be used; each word or phrase should be used only once.A molecule moves down its concentration gradient by __________________ transport, but requires __________________ transport to move up its concentration gradient. Transporter proteins and ion channels function in membrane transport by providing a __________________ pathway through the membrane for specific polar solutes or inorganic ions. __________________ are highly selective in the solutes they transport, binding the solute at a specific site and changing conformation so as to transport the solute across the membrane. On the other hand, __________________ discriminate between solutes mainly on the basis of size and electrical charge. active hydrophilic noncovalent amino acid hydrophobic passive amphipathic ion channels transporter proteins

A molecule moves down its concentration gradient by passive transport, but requires active transport to move up its concentration gradient. Transporter proteins and ion channels function in membrane transport by providing a hydrophilic pathway through the membrane for specific polar solutes or inorganic ions. Transporter proteins are highly selective in the solutes they transport, binding the solute at a specific site and changing conformation so as to transport the solute across the membrane. On the other hand, ion channels discriminate between solutes mainly on the basis of size and electrical charge.

8-35 Label the following structures in Figure Q8-35.

A—1; B—4; C—3; D—2

15-53 Match the set of labels below with the numbered label lines on Figure Q15-53.Figure Q15-53 A. cisterna B. Golgi stack C. secretory vesicle D. trans Golgi network E. cis Golgi network

A—3; B—1; C—5; D—4; E—2

11-17 Membranes undergo spontaneous rearrangement if torn. Which of the following would happen if a cell membrane had a large tear?

T/F The differences in permeability between artificial lipid bilayers and cell membranes arise from variations in phospholipid content.

False

T/F Transporters are similar to channels, except that they are larger, allowing folded proteins as well as smaller organic molecules to pass through them.

False

T/F CO2 and O2 are water-soluble molecules that diffuse freely across cell membranes.

True

T/F Cells expend energy in the form of ATP hydrolysis so as to maintain ion concentrations that differ from those found outside the cell.

True

T/F Facilitated diffusion can be described as the favorable movement of one solute down its concentration gradient being coupled with the unfavorable movement of a second solute up its concentration gradient.

false

T/F The net negative charge on the cytosolic side of the membrane enhances the rate of glucose import into the cell by a uniporter.

false

t/f Cytosolic Ca2+ concentration is kept low by the use of chelators such as EDTA.

false

t/f The primary mechanism by which Ca2+ acts as a signaling molecule is by increasing the net charge in the cytosol.

false

T/F The electrochemical gradient for K+ across the plasma membrane is small. Therefore, any movement of K+ from the inside to the outside of the cell is driven solely by its concentration gradient.

true

T/F Transporters undergo transitions between different conformations, depending on whether the substrate-binding pocket is empty or occupied.

true

t/f The extracellular concentration of Ca2+ is approximately 104-fold higher than the concentration of Ca2+ in the cytosol.

true

t/f The low cytosolic Ca2+ concentration sensitizes the cell to an influx of Ca2+, ensuring a rapid response to environmental stimuli.

true

12-50 Indicate whether the statements below are true or false. If a statement is false, explain why it is false. A. Neurotransmitters are small molecules released into the synaptic cleft after the fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane. B. Action potentials are usually mediated by voltage-gated Ca2+ channels. C. Voltage-gated Na+ channels become automatically inactivated shortly after opening, which ensures that the action potential cannot move backward along the axon. D. Voltage-gated K+ channels also open immediately in response to local depolarization, reducing the magnitude of the action potential.

true, false, true, false

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