Section 5 practice test
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
4 seconds
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
4 to 8 drills per workout
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
5 to 10 minutes
What is osteoporosis?
A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
What is the Valsalva maneuver?
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Adding a stabilization pause between rests
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
Stage 2
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position?
Static balance
What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?
Between 5 and 10 minutes
Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?
Concentric action
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Davis's law
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Stretch reflex
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?
The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
What is defined as an individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage?
Training intensity
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Transverse abdominis
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Eccentric action
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Gluteus medius
What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?
Ground reaction force
What is the number one cause of death in the United States?
Heart disease
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?
Instability training using a stability ball
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Intensity
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?
Isometrically contracted
What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?
It causes stress to the connective tissues
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
Perturbation
What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?
Postural distortions
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Power
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Power training
What is sarcopenia?
Age-related loss of muscle tissue
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Amortization
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
An RPE of 5 to 6
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
Ankle sprains
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
Arthrokinematics
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?
Muscular Development Training
Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position?
Quickness training
What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?
Rate of force production
What is plyometric training also known as?
Reactive training
What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?
Retraction
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Semi-dynamic balance
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Speed
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Spine
A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.