Security + Questions 1000

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich security protocol uses CCMP block cipher mode to encrypt wireless network traffic and provides message integrity using CBC-MAC? A) WPA3 B) WEP C) WPA D) WPA2

D) WPA2 is the correct answer. WPA2 uses CCMP block cipher mode to encrypt wireless network traffic and provides message integrity using CBC-MAC. WEP, choice (B), is an older and less secure encryption protocol that should not be used. WPA and WPA3, choices (C) and (A) respectively, use different encryption and message authentication protocols than WPA2. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-cryptography/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes wardriving? A) Gathering information about wireless networks while walking around a city B) Gathering information about wireless networks while driving around a city C) Gathering information about wired networks while driving around a city D) Gathering information about wired networks while walking around a city

"Answer: B) Gathering information about wireless networks while driving around a city. Explanation: Wardriving is the process of using Wi-Fi analysis with GPS locations to determine the location of wireless networks, including information about the network itself such as the name of the wireless network, the access points' location, and the frequencies in use. It is typically done while driving around the city, and this method can be combined with drones to collect data on organizations' wireless details. Answer choice A is incorrect because wardriving is done while driving, not walking. Answer choice C and D are both incorrect because wardriving specifically focuses on gathering information about wireless networks, not wired networks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes dynamic analysis in application security testing? A. Identifying vulnerabilities by examining the application's source code B. Identifying vulnerabilities by analyzing the application's behavior while it's running C. Scanning the application for known vulnerabilities using automated tools D. Verifying that the application is the original code signed by the developer"

"Answer: B. Identifying vulnerabilities by analyzing the application's behavior while it's running. Explanation: Dynamic analysis, also known as runtime analysis, involves analyzing the behavior of an application while it is running to identify any vulnerabilities or unexpected behavior. This can be done using techniques like fuzzing, where random data is injected into the application to see how it reacts. Static analysis (choice A) involves analyzing the source code of an application without actually executing it. Scanning for known vulnerabilities (choice C) is a form of automated testing, but it is not specific to dynamic analysis. Verifying the application's code signature (choice D) is a separate security measure that does not involve analyzing the behavior of the application. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) if the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) for laptop theft is 7 and the single loss expectancy (SLE) is $1,000? A) $14,000 B) $7,000 C) $8,000 D) $9,000

"B) $7,000. The ALE is calculated by multiplying the ARO with the SLE. In this scenario, the ARO is 7 and the SLE is $1,000, so ALE = 7 * $1,000 = $7,000. A) $14,000 is incorrect because it is double the actual ALE because it mistakenly multiplied the SLE by 2 instead of multiplying the ARO and SLE. C) $8,000 is incorrect because it is not the correct calculation of ALE. D) $9,000 is incorrect because it's multiplied 9 with 1000 which leads to this amount which is not correct as per the formula for calculating ALE. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes a risk matrix or heat map? A) It uses only a quantitive values to rate each risk event B) It visually assesses the likelihood of an event based on the color of the risk matrix C) It determines inherent and residual risk D) It assesses only external disasters

"B) It visually assesses the likelihood of an event based on the color of the risk matrix. A risk matrix or heat map allows you to visually determine the risk assessment and see how risky something might be based on the color of the risk matrix. This allows you to combine the likelihood of an event with the consequences of that event, and the same scales can be used to compare different events. While there are some quantitative values associated with the risk matrix, it's the visual comparison that is most important. Choice A is incorrect because a risk matrix may also use qualitative analysis, not just quantitative. Choice C is incorrect as it describes inherent and residual risk, which are separate concepts from a risk matrix. Choice D is incorrect as the text does not mention only assessing external disasters. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a primary function of Software Defined Visibility (SDV) in cloud-based architecture? A. Restricting the use of specific applications B. Understanding and monitoring traffic flows between application instances C. Ensuring vendor lock-in with proprietary SDN technologies D. Reducing the need for Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B. Understanding and monitoring traffic flows between application instances SDV allows for monitoring and understanding traffic flows between different application instances within cloud-based architecture. It helps deploy security devices, such as next-generation firewalls, intrusion prevention systems, and web application firewalls, while simultaneously enabling visibility into the types of data flowing between systems. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Restricting the use of specific applications - SDV's primary function is not to restrict the use of applications, but to monitor and understand traffic flows between application instances. C. Ensuring vendor lock-in with proprietary SDN technologies - SDV does not ensure vendor lock-in; in fact, it is important for the entire process of automated deployment to follow a set of open standards to avoid vendor lock-in. D. Reducing the need for Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems - SDV does not reduce the need for SIEM systems. Instead, it works alongside SIEM systems to consolidate data from different sources into a central database, allowing for better visibility and analysis. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/infrastructure-as-code/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following resources is an excellent source for learning about very specific aspects of security technologies and obtaining detailed information about them? A) National Vulnerability Database B) Vendor's website C) Academic journals D) Local industry groups"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Academic journals Academic journals are written by industry experts and provide detailed information about security technologies. They often evaluate different types of security technologies, providing deep dives into specific aspects of these technologies, making them an excellent resource for learning about very specific aspects of security technologies and obtaining detailed information about them. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) National Vulnerability Database: The National Vulnerability Database is a comprehensive database of vulnerabilities, which keeps a list of CVEs or Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures. It is a great resource for tracking vulnerabilities but not specifically focused on detailed information about security technologies. B) Vendor's website: Vendors' websites are a good place to learn about threats associated with operating systems or applications. They often have a page to track known vulnerabilities and provide notifications. While they provide useful information about their specific products, they don't generally offer the same level of detail about security technologies as academic journals. D) Local industry groups: Local industry groups or user group meetings are valuable for staying up-to-date on the latest news, networking with local professionals, and learning from presentations. While they offer valuable technical information, they do not necessarily provide the same depth of information on specific security technologies as academic journals. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-research/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a privacy notice? A) A legal agreement a user commonly has to agree to prior to using a service B) A separate set of documentation that documents how the organization is going to manage the data that you provide to them C) A document that outlines the organization's sales and marketing strategy D) A document that outlines the organization's financial statements"

"Correct Answer: B) A separate set of documentation that documents how the organization is going to manage the data that you provide to them Explanation: A privacy notice, also known as a privacy policy, is a document that outlines how an organization is going to manage the data that you provide to them. It provides information on what data is collected, how it is used, who it is shared with, and how it is protected. It also gives you options on what you can do to help protect your data, and who you can contact in that organization for more information. Privacy notices are required by law in certain countries and jurisdictions. Incorrect Answers: A) A legal agreement a user commonly has to agree to prior to using a service: This describes the terms of service, not the privacy notice. C) A document that outlines the organization's sales and marketing strategy: This is not related to the privacy notice. D) A document that outlines the organization's financial statements: This is not related to the privacy notice. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of identity theft as discussed in the text? A) The Bank of Bangladesh losing $81 million due to SWIFT vulnerabilities B) Equifax losing personal information of millions of people to attackers C) Banco Estado being attacked with ransomware and being unable to process anything on their internal network D) The Uber breach where attackers gained access to customer names, email addresses, and mobile phone numbers

"Correct Answer: B) Equifax losing personal information of millions of people to attackers Explanation: The text mentions that the Equifax breach resulted in attackers gaining access to names, social security numbers, birth dates, address information, and more, which could be used to steal people's identities. Choice A is an example of financial loss due to SWIFT vulnerabilities, choice C is an example of availability loss due to ransomware, and choice D is an example of a breach resulting in loss of personal information but not necessarily identity theft. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-impacts/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an effective way to train users to identify and prevent phishing attacks? A. Job rotation B. Dual control C. Computer-based training (CBT) D. Clean desk policy

"Correct Answer: C Explanation: Computer-based training (CBT) can be a useful way to train users on how to identify and prevent phishing attacks. This type of training can provide users with scenarios that simulate real-world phishing attacks and can teach them how to recognize and avoid these attacks in the future. Job rotation is a policy used to minimize risk by having people rotate through different jobs, whereas dual control and clean desk policy are policies used to separate duties and limit access to sensitive information. Incorrect Answers: A: Job rotation is a policy used to minimize risk by having people rotate through different jobs. B: Dual control is a policy used to separate duties and limit access to sensitive information. D: Clean desk policy is a policy used to limit access to sensitive information by ensuring a user's desk is clear of any paperwork or documents when they are away. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) deployment model? A. The organization chooses the device for the employee to use for both personal and corporate use. B. The employee brings their own personal device to work for both personal and corporate use. C. The employee chooses the device they want to use for both personal and corporate use, and the organization purchases the device for them. D. The organization owns the device and it can only be used for corporate use.

"Correct Answer: C Explanation: In the Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) deployment model, the employee gets to choose the device they want to use for both personal and corporate use, and the organization purchases the device for them. This allows the employee to use a device they are comfortable with and ensures that the organization has some control over the device's security. The device is owned by the organization, so they can decide what information is stored on it. Incorrect Answers: A. This describes COPE where the organization chooses the device for the employee to use for both personal and corporate use. B. This describes BYOD where the employee brings their own personal device to work for both personal and corporate use. D. This describes a corporate-owned deployment where the organization owns the device and it can only be used for corporate use. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-deployment-models/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following data classifications is the most sensitive? A) Public B) Restricted C) Confidential D) Private

"Correct Answer: C) Confidential Explanation: The most sensitive data classification is ""confidential,"" as it contains highly sensitive information that should only be viewed by individuals who have been granted the correct permissions. Confidential data might be intellectual property, personally identifiable information (PII), or protected health care information (PHI). Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Public: Public data is unclassified and can be accessed by anyone. This is the least sensitive data classification. B) Restricted: Restricted data should only be shown to certain individuals, but it is less sensitive than confidential data. D) Private: Private data is similar to restricted data, but it is still less sensitive than confidential data. Private data may be proprietary information that is unique to an organization and not available elsewhere. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an important step to take during a penetration test? A) Only test during non-working hours B) Use all known information about the system being tested C) Create a backdoor for persistent access D) Use the same technique repeatedly until access is gained

"Correct Answer: C) Create a backdoor for persistent access Explanation: During a penetration test, it is important to create persistence, which involves creating a backdoor or modifying existing accounts or passwords to ensure access to the system is maintained, even after the test is complete. Option A is incorrect as testing during working hours is a common practice. Option B is also incorrect as the tester may deliberately work in unknown environments to simulate an attacker's approach. Option D is incorrect as a good penetration test will try many different techniques to gain access. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following types of organizations would be most concerned with protecting personal financial details? A) Healthcare organizations B) Government agencies C) Financial institutions D) Educational institutions

"Correct Answer: C) Financial institutions Explanation: Financial institutions would be most concerned with protecting personal financial details as they deal with customers' financial information, including bank account details, credit card details, and other sensitive financial data. They would need to implement strong security controls to protect this information from unauthorized access, theft, or misuse. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Healthcare organizations: While healthcare organizations deal with protected health information (PHI), they may also collect personal financial information, but it is not their primary concern. B) Government agencies: While government agencies collect and store personal financial information for certain purposes, such as tax collection or business registration, they are not solely focused on protecting personal financial details. D) Educational institutions: Educational institutions collect personal information from students, including financial information for financial aid, but it is not their primary focus. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes the role of a Data Protection Officer (DPO) in an organization? A) Responsible for defining the privacy policies of a specific department within the organization. B) Responsible for ensuring that all data is accurate and secure. C) Responsible for implementing security controls and determining who has access to information. D) Responsible for defining the privacy policies of the organization and ensuring processes are in place to keep data private.

"Correct Answer: D Explanation: A data protection officer (DPO) is a higher-level manager who is responsible for the organization's overall data privacy policies. This person will define exactly what the privacy policies are for your organization, make sure processes are in place so that all of the data remains private, and have procedures for handling data throughout the workday. Choice A is incorrect because a DPO is responsible for the entire organization, not just a specific department. Choice B is incorrect because that is the role of a data custodian or data steward. Choice C is incorrect because that is the role of a data controller. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-roles-and-responsibilities/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a concern when using third-party libraries or software development kits (SDKs) in application development? A) Third-party libraries and SDKs are always secure and do not introduce any security vulnerabilities. B) Using third-party libraries and SDKs slows down the development process. C) Third-party libraries and SDKs are not useful in extending the functionality of programming languages. D) Third-party libraries and SDKs may contain security vulnerabilities that can be exploited.

"Correct Answer: D Explanation: While third-party libraries and SDKs can speed up application development and extend the functionality of programming languages, it's important to research their security before using them. Third-party libraries and SDKs may contain security vulnerabilities that could be exploited, which can introduce security risks to an application. Therefore, it's important for developers to carefully evaluate the security of any third-party library or SDK they plan to use in their application. Incorrect Answers: A) Third-party libraries and SDKs are not always secure and can introduce security vulnerabilities. B) Using third-party libraries and SDKs can actually speed up the development process. C) Third-party libraries and SDKs are often used to extend the functionality of programming languages. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-coding-techniques-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a screening done prior to employment to verify the information provided by the applicant? A) Least Privilege Policy B) Social Media Analysis C) Non-Disclosure Agreement D) Background Check

"Correct Answer: D) Background Check Explanation: A background check is a screening done prior to employment to verify the information provided by the applicant. Background checks can provide credit information, identify any criminal history, or other information that can help the employer make a decision on whether to hire that person. The details of what an organization may be able to discover with a background check will vary from location to location, so it's important to check with the rules and regulations in your geography to see what options are available for you. A) Least Privilege Policy: This refers to configuring each user with a least privileged policy, meaning the rights and permissions for that user should only allow them to do their job and nothing beyond that. B) Social Media Analysis: This refers to evaluating someone's presence on social media during the hiring process to understand more about their presence on the internet. C) Non-Disclosure Agreement: This refers to a confidentiality agreement between two parties where both sides agree what information can be shared, and what information should be kept private. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a common chemical fire suppressant used for areas with electronic equipment? A) Water B) Halon C) Smoke detector D) DuPont's FM-100

"Correct Answer: D) DuPont's FM-100 Explanation: When dealing with a fire in an area with electronics, using water might cause damage to the equipment. Chemical fire suppressants, such as DuPont's FM-100, are a better option in such cases. While halon was used previously, it's no longer widely used due to environmental concerns. Smoke detectors are only used as a warning or alarm that the potential for fire exists. Therefore, the correct answer is D) DuPont's FM-100. Incorrect Answers: A) Water - Using water might cause damage to the equipment. B) Halon - Halon has been replaced by more environmental-friendly options. C) Smoke detector - Smoke detectors are only used as a warning or alarm that the potential for fire exists. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a consideration when implementing cryptography regarding computational overhead? A) Implementing the same type of cryptography for all applications B) Ignoring the amount of data that may be encrypted being less than the size of the block C) Using weak keys to make it easier to brute force D) Ensuring the application can handle the encryption and decryption process

"Correct Answer: D) Ensuring the application can handle the encryption and decryption process Explanation: One of the considerations to keep in mind when implementing cryptography is speed. The encryption and decryption process of data will add additional load on the CPU, use more power, and reduce battery life. Therefore, it's important to ensure that the application can handle the encryption and decryption process and that there is enough power in the system to support it. Incorrect Answers: A) Implementing the same type of cryptography for all applications - This is not true because cryptography should be customized according to the application. There can be a big difference in the way that cryptography has been implemented in different applications. B) Ignoring the amount of data that may be encrypted being less than the size of the block - This is not true because if the block cipher is 16 bytes in size, then the amount of data that's encrypted has to be 16 bytes. If we're encrypting less than the size of the block, we have to fill in the other remaining bytes, which will increase the storage size of what we happen to be saving. C) Using weak keys to make it easier to brute force - This is not true because larger keys will make it much more difficult to brute force. Weak keys can result in cryptographic vulnerabilities that make it very easy for someone to gain access to our data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-limitations/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is NOT a type of firewall? A) Appliance-based firewall B) Host-based firewall C) Virtual firewall D) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

"Correct Answer: D) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) Explanation: A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters inbound and outbound network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies. There are three types of firewalls - Appliance-based, Host-based, and Virtual. An IPS is a network security/threat prevention technology that examines network traffic flows to detect and prevent vulnerability exploits. IPS is different from a firewall as it focuses on detecting and preventing threats rather than solely filtering network traffic. Incorrect answers: A) Appliance-based firewall: This is a hardware device designed to act as a firewall. B) Host-based firewall: This is a software application installed on individual hosts or servers to control incoming and outgoing network traffic. C) Virtual firewall: This is a firewall that is implemented within a virtualized environment and can control traffic between virtual machines. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following statements is true about providing proper lighting for security purposes? A) Attackers are attracted to well-lit areas, making lighting a poor security control. B) Infrared cameras require as much lighting as possible to get the best picture. C) Lighting angles are not important for facial recognition purposes. D) Proper lighting is one of the best security controls you can have.

"Correct Answer: D) Proper lighting is one of the best security controls you can have. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Attackers avoid well-lit areas because they don't want to be seen, making lighting a good security control. B) Infrared cameras can see in low light conditions, but if you're not using infrared cameras then you'll want as much lighting as possible to get the best possible picture. C) Lighting angles are important for facial recognition purposes, especially if there are shadows and glare that can affect the quality of the picture. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which authentication method generates a pseudo-random set of numbers that are used during the login process and changes every 30 seconds? A) SMS B) Push notification C) HOTP D) TOTP

"Correct Answer: D) TOTP Explanation: Time-based One-Time Password algorithm (TOTP) is an authentication method that generates a pseudo-random set of numbers that are used during the login process and changes every 30 seconds. This method is commonly used in multifactor authentication from Google, Microsoft, Facebook, and others. During the login process, the user puts in their username, password, and then opens up their app, finds the number, and adds that number into a field on the login page. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) SMS - SMS or Short Message Service is a less secure method of authentication where a message is sent to the user's phone over a text message or SMS. There's usually a code contained within that text message, and the user would put that code into the login form to confirm that they are the person who has that phone in their possession. This method is less secure than TOTP because it's relatively easy for someone to reassign a phone number so that the SMS message is redirected into another person's phone. B) Push notification - This method uses a mobile device app to be able to receive the pushed message and display the authentication information. There are also some security concerns associated with push notifications, such as the application receiving the push notification might have vulnerabilities that would allow a third party to view that information. This method is generally more secure than SMS but less secure than TOTP. C) HOTP - HMAC-based One-Time Password algorithm (HOTP) is an authentication method that provides the user with a sheet of numbers that they're able to use during the login process, and then they use each one of those numbers each time they authenticate to the system. This is a similar authentication process to TOTP. The app will tell the user what the next number is on their list. However, this number does not change every 30 seconds like TOTP, and it is used one time during the authentication process, and then it is thrown away and never used again. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of using stored procedures for database calls in an application? A) To improve application performance B) To simplify the codebase C) To enable code reuse across applications D) To prevent clients from modifying database query parameters

"Correct Answer: D) To prevent clients from modifying database query parameters Using stored procedures for database calls helps to prevent clients from modifying the parameters of the database call, thus making the application more secure. Stored procedures are created on the database server, and the application only sends a message to call the stored procedure. This method prevents users from making any direct database calls. Incorrect Answers: A) To improve application performance While stored procedures may have some performance benefits, their primary purpose is to enhance security by preventing clients from modifying query parameters. B) To simplify the codebase Stored procedures don't necessarily simplify the codebase, as they require developers to create separate procedures for every database query that could be called by the application. C) To enable code reuse across applications Stored procedures are not primarily meant for code reuse across applications, but for improving the security of database calls within an application. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-coding-techniques-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of hashing function in blockchain technology? A) To store transaction information B) To validate mined blocks C) To add transactions to the block D) To provide integrity to the process

"Correct Answer: D) To provide integrity to the process Explanation: Hashing is a process of taking input data, such as a file or message, and producing a fixed-size output called a hash value. The hash value is a unique digital fingerprint of the data, and any modifications to the data will result in a different hash value. In the context of blockchain technology, one of the concerns with having a distributed ledger is that any of these nodes on the network might want to make changes to something that has already been verified. That's why the hash was added to each one of these blocks, so that if any changes are made we'll know immediately that this information has been modified. And since we're able to verify the hashes that are part of every block, we will know immediately if any changes have been made to any of this verified information. And we can discard anything that doesn't match or verify with that existing hash. Incorrect Answers: A) To store transaction information - This is not the primary purpose of a hashing function in blockchain technology. While transaction information is included in the hash, it is not the primary objective. B) To validate mined blocks - validating mined block is a separate process altogether, and hashing would only be used as part of that process to validate the content of the block, but it is not the primary purpose. C) To add transactions to the block - Hashing function doesn't add transactions to the block. It's just used to create a unique identifier for each block (digital fingerprint) once the block has been created, including transactions. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/blockchain-technology/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of orchestration in the provisioning and deprovisioning process of an application? A. To manually configure security components for an application B. To increase the maximum number of transactions per second the application can handle C. To automate the provisioning and deprovisioning of applications and their security components D. To create secure VLANs for application instances

"Correct answer with explanation: C. To automate the provisioning and deprovisioning of applications and their security components Orchestration is the key to cloud computing as it enables the automation of the provisioning and deprovisioning process for applications, including their security components. This allows for a seamless and efficient management of application instances without the need for human intervention. Explanation of the incorrect answers: A. To manually configure security components for an application Orchestration automates the provisioning and deprovisioning process, including the configuration of security components, eliminating the need for manual intervention. B. To increase the maximum number of transactions per second the application can handle Orchestration is focused on automating the provisioning and deprovisioning process, not directly increasing the number of transactions per second. However, it can help deploy multiple application instances to handle increased workload, which indirectly affects the maximum number of transactions per second. D. To create secure VLANs for application instances While secure VLANs may be a part of the overall security strategy for an application, orchestration's primary purpose is automating the provisioning and deprovisioning process, which includes security components and other aspects of the application. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/provisioning-and-deprovisioning-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes an Indicator of Compromise (IOC)? A. A specific attack signature B. A large amount of data used to analyze potential threats C. Unusual patterns of user logins or file executions D. A real-time map of ongoing cyber attacks

"Correct answer with explanation: C. Unusual patterns of user logins or file executions An Indicator of Compromise (IOC) is a specific activity or pattern that suggests a network has been breached. Examples include unusual patterns of user logins, file executions, or changes in files' hash values. These indicators help security professionals identify when an attacker might be inside their network. Incorrect answer explanations: A. A specific attack signature An attack signature refers to a specific pattern of activity associated with a known attack type. While it is important to detect such patterns, it is not the same as an IOC, which focuses on activities suggesting a network breach. B. A large amount of data used to analyze potential threats While analyzing large amounts of data is crucial for identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities, it is not the same as an IOC, which refers to specific activities indicating a network compromise. D. A real-time map of ongoing cyber attacks A real-time map of ongoing cyber attacks is a visual representation of current cyber threats worldwide. Although it provides valuable information for security professionals, it is not the same as an IOC, which focuses on specific activities suggesting a network breach. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the main difference between an incremental backup and a differential backup? A) An incremental backup only backs up the changes since the last incremental backup, while a differential backup backs up everything that's changed since the last full backup. B) An incremental backup only backs up the changes since the last full backup, while a differential backup backs up everything on the system. C) An incremental backup is performed after a differential backup, while a differential backup is performed after an incremental backup. D) An incremental backup and a differential backup are the same thing."

"Correct answer: A) An incremental backup only backs up the changes since the last incremental backup, while a differential backup backs up everything that's changed since the last full backup. Explanation of incorrect answers: B) An incremental backup does not back up everything on the system, but only the changes since the last full or incremental backup. C) An incremental backup and a differential backup are independent backup types and are not necessarily performed in relation to each other. D) An incremental backup and a differential backup are not the same thing. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a common cryptographic constraint associated with low-cost embedded devices? A) They may not have direct access to the operating system B) They may not have additional memory or communications capabilities C) They may have limited cryptographic capabilities D) They may not be upgradable

"Correct answer: C) They may have limited cryptographic capabilities. Explanation: Low-cost embedded devices often lack additional cryptographic hardware or functionality beyond what is built into the CPU. This means that if additional cryptography is needed, it may not be possible to add it using the hardware on the device. Incorrect answer A) is incorrect because it refers to direct access to the operating system, which is a separate issue from cryptographic capabilities. Incorrect answer B) is incorrect because it refers to the device's ability to store or communicate data, which is not related to cryptography. Incorrect answer D) is incorrect because it refers to the upgradability of the device, which is not related to cryptography. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-constraints/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich command allows you to view only the first five lines of a file? A) tail B) grep C) cat D) head

"D) head The head command allows you to view only the first few lines of a file. In the example given, the user can view the first five lines of a particular file by using the command ""head -5 filename"". The tail command, on the other hand, allows you to view only the last few lines of a file. The grep command is used to search for a particular pattern or text within a file. The cat command is used to display the entire contents of a file. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following allows users to download and install apps directly outside of the App Store? A. Rooting or jailbreaking the system B. Unlocking the phone for use on a different carrier C. OTA firmware updates D. USB OTG connections

A is the correct answer. Rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device allows users to install apps directly outside of the App Store because it replaces the current operating system with a specialized firmware that allows users access to the operating system. This can circumvent existing security systems and provide access to apps that may not be secure. B is incorrect because unlocking a phone for use on a different carrier does not allow users to install apps directly outside of the App Store. C is incorrect because OTA firmware updates do not allow users to download and install apps directly outside of the App Store. D is incorrect because USB OTG connections allow users to transfer data between two devices but do not allow users to download and install apps directly outside of the App Store. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following protocols is used for single sign-on (SSO) authentication? A) OAuth B) PAP C) CHAP D) LDAP

A) OAuth is a protocol used for delegated authorization and authentication. It allows a user to authenticate to one application and then use that authentication to access other applications without needing to re-enter credentials. OAuth is commonly used for SSO authentication. B) PAP is a very basic method for authentication and does not provide any encryption for protecting the username or password during the authentication process. C) CHAP is a more secure authentication method that provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network. However, CHAP is not typically used for SSO authentication. D) LDAP is a directory service protocol used for managing and accessing distributed directory information services. While LDAP can be used for authentication, it is not typically used for SSO authentication. Therefore, the correct answer is A) OAuth. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/oauth-and-openid-connect/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Two-person integrity/control? A) It refers to the policy where two individuals must be present at a specific physical location to access sensitive information. B) It refers to the policy where two servers are used to handle user requests, ensuring that if one server fails, the requests are still processed by the other server. C) It refers to the policy where two passwords are required to access a user account, making it more difficult for attackers to gain access. D) It refers to the policy where two data centers are used, ensuring that if one data center is offline or lost, the other one is available, and the data is still accessible.

Answer: A) It refers to the policy where two individuals must be present at a specific physical location to access sensitive information. Explanation of incorrect options: B) This describes the concept of server redundancy or failover. While it's important for high availability, it's not related to two-person integrity/control. C) This describes multi-factor authentication, which requires two or more factors to authenticate a user. While it's related to security, it's not the same as two-person integrity/control. D) This describes the concept of data center redundancy or backup. It's a crucial part of disaster recovery planning, but it's not related to two-person integrity/control. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a tabletop exercise? A. A full-scale drill involving all resources and players in an organization B. A walkthrough exercise where all processes and procedures are tested with everyone responding to a security incident C. A simulation where a particular security event is pretended to occur to see how people in the organization respond D. A group of people specifically trained to deal with security incidents in an organization

Answer: C Explanation: A tabletop exercise involves getting everyone around the table, presenting a particular scenario, and stepping through what would be done if that particular incident occurred. It is a type of simulation exercise where people can discuss the process with others in the organization and work out any issues with the current process and procedure. A is incorrect because it describes a full-scale drill, not a tabletop exercise. B is incorrect because it describes a walkthrough exercise, not a tabletop exercise. D is incorrect because it describes an incident response team, not a tabletop exercise. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following protocols provides both integrity and encryption for an IPsec tunnel? A) FTPS B) SFTP C) Authentication header (AH) D) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

Answer: C) Authentication header (AH) Explanation: IPsec includes two main protocols for implementing a secure tunnel: Authentication header (AH) and Encapsulation Security Payload (ESP). AH provides integrity by adding a digital signature to each packet, while ESP provides encryption by encapsulating the original packet and adding confidentiality information. FTPS and SFTP are both secure file transfer protocols, but they use SSL and SSH respectively for encryption. SMTP is a protocol for email transfer and does not provide any encryption or security. Incorrect Answers: A) FTPS: Provides encryption, but not integrity for files B) SFTP: Provides encryption, but not integrity for files D) SMTP: Not applicable to the scenario given, protocol does not provide encryption or security Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a nondisclosure agreement (NDA)? A. An agreement that sets a minimum set of service terms for a particular service or product B. An agreement that creates confidentiality between parties and ensures that information is not disclosed to others C. An agreement that assesses the quality of the process used in measurement systems D. An agreement that provides details about what the owners stake might be in a business partnership

B is the correct answer. A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) creates confidentiality between parties and ensures that information is not disclosed to others. NDAs are usually formal contracts, and a signature is commonly required. They can be one-way agreements, where only one person is required to maintain privacy, or mutual nondisclosure agreements where both parties agree to maintain privacy. Nondisclosure agreements may also apply to a single party as a unilateral agreement or to multiple parties, such as a bilateral or multilateral agreement. A is incorrect because it describes a service level agreement (SLA). C is incorrect because it describes a measurement system analysis (MSA). D is incorrect because it describes a business partnership agreement (BPA). Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a Multi-function Device (MFD)? A) An operating system that's designed to work on a very deterministic schedule B) An embedded device that has a scanner, a printer, a fax machine, and other features all in a single device C) A device used for both commercial and non-commercial uses that requires a federal license to fly in the United States D) An embedded device that uses security features and fail-safe functionality built-in to ensure safe operation when in use

B) An embedded device that has a scanner, a printer, a fax machine, and other features all in a single device. The correct answer is B. The text describes Multi-function Devices (MFDs) as embedded devices that have a scanner, a printer, a fax machine, and other features all in a single device. Due to the complexity of MFDs, they have very sophisticated firmware that can store images and logs. A) describes a Real-Time Operating System (RTOS), which is not related to MFDs. C) describes drones which are not related to MFDs. D) describes drones which are not related to MFDs. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the electronic codebook block cipher mode? A) Each block is encrypted with a unique key and a unique method. B) Each block is encrypted with the same key and the same method. C) Each block is XORed with the previous ciphertext block. D) Each block uses an incremental counter to add randomization to the encryption process.

B) Each block is encrypted with the same key and the same method. Explanation of A): This description is incorrect as ECB uses a single key and performs the same encryption method for every block in the series, not a unique key or unique method for each block. Explanation of C): This description is incorrect as Cipher Block Chaining adds some randomization by XORing each block with the previous ciphertext block, not ECB. Explanation of D): This description is incorrect as counter mode, or CTR, uses an incremental counter to add randomization to the encryption process but does not use electronic codebook. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Elliptic Curve Cryptography mainly used for in web servers? A) Providing symmetric encryption every time a session is created. B) Preventing decryption of all network traffic based on a single server private key. C) Creating a single public and private key pair for every session. D) Generating an SSL certificate that shows ECDHE is being used.

B) Preventing decryption of all network traffic based on a single server private key. Explanation: Elliptic Curve Cryptography or Diffie-Hellman ephemeral is used to implement Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) in web servers. PFS changes the encryption process so that a different set of encryption keys is used for every session. This prevents decryption of all network traffic based on a single server private key. Option A is incorrect because providing symmetric encryption every time a session is created is a result of implementing PFS but is not the main use of Elliptic Curve Cryptography. Option C is incorrect because a different public and private key pairs are created for each session. Option D is incorrect because an SSL certificate shows that the website is using HTTPS and that data is encrypted in-transit, but it does not specifically show that ECDHE is being used for PFS. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/hashing-and-digital-signatures-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is residual risk in the context of IT security? A) Risk that exists in the absence of security controls B) Risk that remains after security controls have been implemented C) Risk associated with disasters or environmental threats D) Risk associated with human intent or security breaches

B) Risk that remains after security controls have been implemented is the correct answer. Residual risk combines the risk inherent in a situation with the effectiveness of existing security controls to determine the actual risk after controls have been put in place. Option A describes inherent risk, which exists before security controls are added. Option C describes environmental risks while option D describes person-made threats. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is East-West traffic in a data center? A) Traffic that is inbound or outbound from our data center B) Traffic between devices that are in the same data center C) Traffic that is designed to keep the internal part of our network safe D) Traffic that is used to provide company or employee information

B) Traffic between devices that are in the same data center is defined as East-West traffic. This traffic is usually local inside of that same building, resulting in fast response times between those devices. North-South traffic refers to data that is either inbound or outbound from our data center. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe East-West traffic. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/network-segmentation-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a common file extension for Python scripts? A) .sh B) .bat C) .py D) .ps1

C) .py is the correct answer. The text states that Python files usually have a .py file extension to easily recognize them as Python scripts. A) .sh is incorrect because the .sh file extension is commonly used for shell scripts on Linux and Unix systems, not for Python scripts. B) .bat is incorrect because the .bat file extension is commonly used for batch files on Windows systems, not for Python scripts. D) .ps1 is incorrect because the .ps1 file extension is commonly used for PowerShell scripts on Windows systems, not for Python scripts. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/shell-and-script-environments/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a primary benefit of using hashing in combination with encryption to create digital signatures? A) Decreased file size B) Increased file speed C) Authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation D) Reduced likelihood of collisions

C) Authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation are the primary benefits of using hashing in combination with encryption to create digital signatures. Hashing provides integrity, while encryption provides confidentiality. Together, they can be used to create a digital signature that demonstrates both the source of the data and its authenticity. Non-repudiation is an important aspect of digital signatures, which ensures that the signer cannot deny having signed the data. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the benefits of using hashing in combination with encryption to create digital signatures. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is the most volatile data that needs to be gathered first during a forensic investigation? A) Router tables B) Physical configuration of the device C) CPU registers and CPU cache D) Backups and archival media

C) CPU registers and CPU cache are the most volatile data that needs to be collected first during a forensic investigation. This data is stored in the CPU and may only be present for a few moments. The next most volatile data is information such as router tables, ARP cache, process tables, and memory. Temporarily stored files and other information on the drive come next, with the physical configuration of the device and typology of the network being the least volatile. Backups and archival media would contain information that could be around for years. Therefore, the option that is the most volatile and needs to be gathered first is the CPU registers and CPU cache. A) Router tables would be next in order of volatility after CPU registers and CPU cache. B) The physical configuration of the device and typology of the network are the least volatile data and can be collected last. D) Backups and archival media would contain information that could be around for years and are the least volatile data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich protocol can be used to communicate with a centralized directory on a network, and has a non-standard version that utilizes SSL for secure communication? A) SMTP B) FTPS C) LDAP D) DNSSEC

C) LDAP is the correct answer. LDAP stands for Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, and it is used to communicate with a centralized directory on a network. LDAP also has a non-standard version that utilizes SSL for secure communication, called LDAPS. SMTP is used to send and receive email, FTPS and SFTP are secure file transfer protocols, and DNSSEC is a security extension for DNS. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is used to send and receive email, but does not relate to centralized directories. B) FTPS is the File Transfer Protocol Secure and is used to transfer files securely, but does not relate to centralized directories. D) DNSSEC is a security extension for DNS and provides a way to validate information from DNS servers to ensure that it has not been modified in transit, but does not relate to centralized directories. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is an important factor to consider when storing backups offsite to maintain security and control over the data? A. The encryption algorithm used for backups B. The geographical location of the offsite storage C. The number of backup copies made D. The frequency of automatic updates

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. The geographical location of the offsite storage The geographical location of the offsite storage is important to consider when storing backups offsite. This is because different locations may have different legalities and regulations concerning data storage, access, and control. Additionally, the geographical location may affect how quickly and easily personnel can access the site in case of a disaster or attack, and whether they will need travel documentation, such as a passport, to reach the location. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. The encryption algorithm used for backups is important for securing the data itself, but it is not directly related to the geographical considerations mentioned in the text. C. The number of backup copies made can be a factor in ensuring data redundancy and availability, but it does not specifically address the geographical considerations discussed in the text. D. The frequency of automatic updates can help maintain the most recent data in backups, but it is not directly related to the geographical considerations discussed in the text. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a direct access attack vector that involves the use of a removable media device? A. Evil twin B. KRACK C. Keylogger D. Infecting a USB drive and using it to transfer data

Correct Answer with Explanation: D. Infecting a USB drive and using it to transfer data In the given text, it is mentioned that attackers can use USB connections to gather information and circumvent existing security controls. They can plug in an infected USB drive to infect a system and then have it communicate out to the attacker. This is a direct access attack vector that involves the use of a removable media device. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Evil twin - An evil twin is a rogue access point designed to look similar to the legitimate corporate access points on a network. It aims to fool users into connecting to it instead of the legitimate access point. This is a wireless network attack vector and not related to removable media. B. KRACK - KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack) is a vulnerability found in WPA2 networks that allows attackers to gain access to encrypted data. This is a wireless network attack vector and not related to removable media. C. Keylogger - A keylogger is a device or software used to record keystrokes made on a keyboard. The text describes a scenario where a keylogger is attached to a keyboard to capture usernames and passwords. Although this is a direct access attack vector, it does not involve removable media. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-vectors/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a common constraint for embedded devices? A) Range B) Computing power C) Memory D) Security

Correct Answer: A) Range Explanation: Range is a common constraint for embedded devices as their geographical location can limit what type of networking can be used by the device. The type of network and speeds available for communication to the embedded device may be affected by its location. Incorrect Answer: B) Computing power is a constraint associated with embedded devices, but it is not the most common constraint. C) Memory is also a constraint associated with embedded devices, but it is not the most common constraint. D) Security is an important aspect of embedded devices, but it is not a constraint. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-constraints/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a type of firewall that performs Network address translation (NAT) gateway? A) Stateful Inspection Firewall B) Proxy Firewall C) Packet Filtering Firewall D) Application Firewall

Correct Answer: A) Stateful Inspection Firewall Explanation: A Stateful Inspection Firewall not only examines the incoming packets but also verify whether the outgoing packets are legitimate and are part of a preapproved session. It can also perform Network address translation (NAT) gateway, which can change the source address of the IP packet to ensure that the private IP addresses in the packet are not exposed to external networks. Proxy Firewalls require the user to establish a proxy connection and do not perform NAT. Packet Filtering Firewall uses an access control list to filter traffic based on IP address, port numbers, and protocol type. Application Firewalls limit the application-level traffic and does not perform NAT. Incorrect Answers: B) Proxy Firewall Explanation: Proxy Firewalls require the user to establish a proxy connection and do not perform NAT. C) Packet Filtering Firewall Explanation: Packet Filtering Firewall uses an access control list to filter traffic based on IP address, port numbers, and protocol type. It does not perform NAT. D) Application Firewall Explanation: Application Firewalls limit the application-level traffic and does not perform NAT. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is chain of custody in the context of digital forensics? A) The process of documenting the data acquisition process B) The process of analyzing the collected data C) The process of interviewing witnesses D) The process of collecting data from security cameras

Correct Answer: A) The process of documenting the data acquisition process Explanation: Chain of custody is the process of documenting the data acquisition process, which ensures that the data collected is not compromised in any way and can be used as evidence in court. It involves documenting everything that has happened since the data was collected, including who has had access to it, where it has been stored, and what has been done with it. This ensures that the authenticity and integrity of the data is maintained. Incorrect Answer Explanation: B) The process of analyzing the collected data - While analyzing the data is an important part of the digital forensics process, it is not related to the chain of custody. Chain of custody is all about how the data is collected, stored and documented, not how it is analyzed. C) The process of interviewing witnesses - While interviews of witnesses is a method of gathering information during a digital forensics investigation, it is not related to chain of custody. D) The process of collecting data from security cameras - Collecting data from security cameras is a form of evidence collection during the digital forensics process, but it is not directly related to chain of custody, which is focused on how data is collected, stored and documented. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a potential security risk associated with specialized smart meters? A) They use outdated communication protocols B) They are usually connected to a private network C) They are too expensive to hack D) They are designed to self-update regularly

Correct Answer: A) They use outdated communication protocols Explanation: Specialized smart meters, used to measure energy consumption, are often connected to a communication network using outdated protocols, such as GSM or GPRS, that do not have strong security measures in place. This can make them vulnerable to hacking attempts, potentially allowing unauthorized access to the grid or even causing power outages. Option B is incorrect as smart meters are often connected to a public network. Option C is incorrect as the cost to hack a device is unrelated to the security risk. Option D is incorrect as these types of devices often lack the ability to self-update. Reference: https://www.techrepublic.com/article/smart-meters-the-security-risks-of-leaving-water-gas-and-electricity-to-hackers/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberLockout Question:What is the purpose of an account lockout policy? A) To prevent an attacker from logging in with a stolen password B) To ensure that users change their password regularly C) To prevent users from accessing certain resources on the network D) To allow service accounts to continue working even after a brute force attack

Correct Answer: A) To prevent an attacker from logging in with a stolen password Explanation: An account lockout policy is designed to prevent an attacker from using a live system to perform a brute force attack. After a certain number of incorrect passwords, the account is automatically locked, making it unreachable to the attacker, even if the correct password is eventually guessed. This is an important security measure to prevent unauthorized access to the system. Incorrect Answers: B) To ensure that users change their password regularly - This is incorrect because regular password changes are achieved through password expiration policies, not through account lockout policies. C) To prevent users from accessing certain resources on the network - This is incorrect because access control policies are used to control user access to network resources, not account lockout policies. D) To allow service accounts to continue working even after a brute force attack - This is incorrect because service accounts should also be subject to account lockout policies to prevent unauthorized access to the system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/account-policies-and-lockout/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an important consideration for security when using Voice over IP (VoIP) in a home or business? A) VoIP phones are standalone computers B) VoIP uses analog phone lines C) VoIP is only used in industrial settings D) VoIP does not require any security controls

Correct Answer: A) VoIP phones are standalone computers Explanation: VoIP phones are standalone computers that require separate security controls, such as antivirus software and firewalls. VoIP uses digital signals instead of analog phone lines, so option B is incorrect. Option C is incorrect because VoIP is commonly used in both industrial and non-industrial settings. Option D is incorrect because VoIP does require security controls to prevent unauthorized access and eavesdropping. Incorrect Answers: B) VoIP uses analog phone lines - VoIP uses digital signals instead of analog phone lines. C) VoIP is only used in industrial settings - VoIP is commonly used in both industrial and non-industrial settings. D) VoIP does not require any security controls - VoIP requires security controls to prevent unauthorized access and eavesdropping. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) Deployment Model? A) Employees are purchasing their own devices to use for personal purposes only. B) Employees are using devices purchased by their organization for both personal and professional use. C) Employees are choosing their own device and their organization is purchasing it for them. D) Employees are using devices that store data and information separately from the device itself.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: The BYOD deployment model is where employees are using their personal devices for both personal and corporate purposes. This presents security challenges as the data on the device needs to be protected for both personal and corporate information. This is usually managed using Mobile Device Management (MDM). Another similar deployment model is Corporate Owned, Personally Enabled (COPE) but with COPE, the company purchases the device, and you use it both for personal and professional purposes. Choice A is incorrect because, in BYOD, employees are using their devices for corporate use as well. Choice C is incorrect because, in Choose Your Own Device (CYOD), employees get to choose the device they want, and the organization purchases it. Choice D is incorrect because Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) or Virtual Mobile Infrastructure (VMI) separates the data and stores it externally from the device, reducing the risk in case of device loss. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) This is incorrect because in Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model, employees are using their personal devices for corporate use as well. C) This is incorrect because in Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) deployment model, employees get to choose the device they want, and the organization purchases it. D) This is incorrect because this is not a description of Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. Instead, it is Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) or Virtual Mobile Infrastructure (VMI) where the data is stored separately from the device itself. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-deployment-models/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the main difference between FTPS and SFTP? A) FTPS uses SSH to provide encryption, while SFTP uses SSL. B) SFTP includes additional capabilities for managing files. C) Both protocols use SSL to encrypt information. D) FTPS and SFTP are identical protocols.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: The main difference between FTPS and SFTP is that SFTP includes additional capabilities for managing files, such as resuming interrupted transfers, getting a listing of directories, and removing files and directories. FTPS uses SSL to encrypt information, while SFTP uses SSH. Both protocols are not identical, although their names are similar. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) This answer is incorrect because it states that FTPS uses SSH to provide encryption, while SFTP uses SSL. The opposite is true. C) This answer is incorrect because it states that both protocols use SSL to encrypt information. Only FTPS uses SSL, while SFTP uses SSH. D) This answer is incorrect because it states that FTPS and SFTP are identical protocols. They are not identical, although their names are similar. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich authentication protocol sends all login credentials in plaintext, making it a very weak authentication scheme? A) 802.1X B) PAP C) CHAP D) MS-CHAP

Correct Answer: B Explanation:PAP, or Password Authentication Protocol, is a very basic method for providing authentication between devices. However, it sends all login credentials in plaintext, making it a very weak authentication scheme. Incorrect Answers: A) 802.1X: This is not the correct answer, as 802.1X is a standard for port-based network access control. C) CHAP: CHAP, or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network, which adds additional security over what you might find with PAP. D) MS-CHAP: While MS-CHAP uses encryption, it is an old implementation of security and uses the data encryption standard for encryption, which is a very weak type of encryption. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/pap-and-chap/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an air gap and how is it used in network security? A) A connection between secure and insecure networks to prevent access B) A physical separation between devices or networks to restrict access C) An electronic firewall between different customers' networks D) A secure room for storing backup tapes and other protected resources"

Correct Answer: B) A physical separation between devices or networks to restrict access Explanation: An air gap network is used to physically disconnected resources or devices in order to restrict access. This is especially important in environments where access to resources can have catastrophic consequences, like stock market networks or nuclear power plants. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This describes a firewall, not an air gap. C) This describes a virtual barrier, not an air gap. D) This describes a secure room, not an air gap network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Asset management? A) A process to manage changes to software and hardware devices in an organization B) A process to identify, track and manage all hardware, software, and data assets of an organization C) A process to manage the movement of physical assets in an organization D) A process to manage the licensing of software applications in an organization

Correct Answer: B) A process to identify, track and manage all hardware, software, and data assets of an organization Explanation: Asset management is a process to identify, track and manage all hardware, software, and data assets of an organization. It helps in understanding where assets are, tracking their movement, and managing their use. It includes managing the hardware on these devices, as well as the applications and data that are on these devices. Asset management can also help in understanding how much of an application is in use, what devices are being used, what version of software is running, and if any security patches need to be pushed out to that device. Incorrect Answers: A) Change management manages the changes to software and hardware devices in an organization, not asset management. C) Asset tracking is a part of asset management, but it is not the only purpose of asset management. D) License management is a part of asset management, but it is not the only purpose of asset management. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/organizational-policies/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is HVAC? A) Hardware and Virtual Advanced Controllers B) Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning C) High-value Asset Control D) Home Video Automation Center

Correct Answer: B) Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning Explanation: HVAC stands for Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning, which refers to the systems that manage temperature, humidity, and air quality in buildings. These systems are often monitored and maintained by computers, which are vulnerable to security threats that could affect the safety and comfort of people in the building. It is important to apply the proper security to HVAC monitoring systems to prevent unauthorized access from outside attackers. Incorrect Answers: A) Hardware and Virtual Advanced Controllers - This is not a common or relevant term in the context of the given text. C) High-value Asset Control - This is not related to HVAC or embedded systems. D) Home Video Automation Center - This is not the definition of HVAC. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a common technique for hardening network applications? A) Opening all available ports on a device B) Limiting access to only well-known ports C) Using outdated versions of operating systems D) Allowing all applications to flow over a particular IP address and port number

Correct Answer: B) Limiting access to only well-known ports Explanation: One common technique for hardening network applications is to limit what ports may be accessible on a device. This is usually done by closing all available ports on that device, except the ones that can provide exactly the services needed by that application. This is commonly done with a firewall, where you can limit what IP addresses and port numbers are accessible. In some cases, you can use a next-generation firewall to also limit the applications that can flow over that particular IP address and port number. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Opening all available ports on a device: This is not a common technique for hardening network applications. It is actually the opposite of what should be done for network security. C) Using outdated versions of operating systems: Using outdated versions of operating systems can lead to security vulnerabilities, which is why keeping operating systems up to date is a common technique for hardening them. D) Allowing all applications to flow over a particular IP address and port number: This is not a common technique for hardening network applications. It can actually increase the risk of attacks by allowing unrestricted access to all applications. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of a technical control? A) Security Awareness Training B) Security Cameras C) Access Control Policy D) Security Guards

Correct Answer: B) Security Cameras Explanation: Technical controls are security measures that are implemented using technology. Security cameras are an example of a technical control, as they rely on technology to monitor and record activity. Security awareness training, access control policy, and security guards are all examples of other types of controls. Incorrect Answer A) Security Awareness Training: This is an example of an operational control, not a technical control. Incorrect Answer C) Access Control Policy: This is an example of a managerial control, not a technical control. Incorrect Answer D) Security Guards: This is an example of an operational control, not a technical control. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the false rejection rate in biometric authentication? A) The rate at which a biometric system approves an unauthorized user B) The rate at which a biometric system rejects an authorized user C) The rate at which a biometric system produces false positives D) The rate at which a biometric system produces false negatives

Correct Answer: B) The rate at which a biometric system rejects an authorized user Explanation: The false rejection rate (FRR) in biometric authentication is the rate at which a biometric system rejects an authorized user. This occurs when the system fails to recognize the biometric characteristic of an authorized user, and thus denies them access. A high FRR can be frustrating for users and may prevent them from accessing areas where they are authorized to go. It is common to decrease the sensitivity of the biometric system to reduce the number of false rejections. Incorrect Answers: A) The rate at which a biometric system approves an unauthorized user is the false acceptance rate (FAR). C) The rate at which a biometric system produces false positives is also the false acceptance rate (FAR). D) The rate at which a biometric system produces false negatives is not a term used in biometric authentication. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is defined in the rules of engagement for a penetration test? A) The type of exploit to be used B) The time of day the test will be performed C) The number of devices to be attacked D) The amount of sensitive information discovered

Correct Answer: B) The time of day the test will be performed Explanation: Rules of engagement defined the purpose of the test, and what the scope will be for the people who are performing this test on the network. This means that everybody will be aware of what systems will be considered, and perhaps the time of day that will be used to perform these tests. Hence, the correct answer is B. Incorrect answers explained: A) The type of exploit to be used may be defined in the rules of engagement, but it is not a necessary condition. The focus is on defining the purpose and scope of the test. C) The number of devices to be attacked may be defined in the rules of engagement, but it is not a necessary condition. The focus is on defining the purpose and scope of the test. D) The amount of sensitive information discovered may be listed in the rules of engagement, but it is not the primary focus. The rules of engagement mainly outline the purpose and scope of the test. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a monitoring service in network security? A. A software program that monitors the priority of QoS applications. B. A tool that is used to tap into a network to receive all traffic going over it. C. An organization that constantly monitors the security on a network and can quickly react to any problems that might occur. D. A type of real-time file integrity monitoring found in Linux.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A monitoring service is an organization that constantly monitors the security on a network, performs ongoing security checks, and can quickly react to any problems that might occur. They also monitor traffic going in and out of the network to identify any increase in threats or anybody attempting to attack parts of the network. Additionally, they maintain compliance requirements, such as HIPAA or PCI DSS. Incorrect answers: A. QoS applications prioritization is a process network administrators perform to set priorities for different applications. It is not a monitoring service. B. A tool that taps into the network to receive all traffic going over it is called a tap or port mirror. It is not a monitoring service. D. File integrity monitoring is a technique used to constantly monitor the files on a system, and it includes a type of real-time monitoring found in Linux with the tripwire application, but it is not a monitoring service in and of itself. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-networking-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a password vault? A) A physical device used for hardware-based authentication B) A personal identification number used for additional authentication C) A password manager that allows you to store all passwords in one secure area D) A feature that provides additional secure cryptography functions for full-disk encryption

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A password vault is a password manager that allows you to store all of your passwords in one central secure area. This allows you to set different passwords for every location you log into, preventing unauthorized access. The core database of this password manager would all be encrypted data, so even if somebody gained access to your password vault, they still would not be able to see any of the passwords that you use. There are often cloud synchronization options available with the software so that you could set up passwords, encrypt them on your local machine, and that encrypted information would be shared in the cloud. This would allow you to access those passwords from wherever you happened to be. And the passwords themselves would all be stored safely in the cloud. Incorrect Answers: A) A physical device used for hardware-based authentication: This form of authentication is mentioned in the text, but it is not what a password vault is. B) A personal identification number used for additional authentication: This is mentioned in the text but is not what a password vault is. D) A feature that provides additional secure cryptography functions for full-disk encryption: This is also mentioned in the text, but it is not what a password vault is. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is residual risk? A) The risk that exists in the absence of security controls B) The risk you would take by connecting your organization to the internet without a firewall in place C) The risk you have left after you take the inherent risk and combine it with the effectiveness of your security controls D) The amount of risk an organization may be willing to take

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Residual risk is the risk you have left after you take the inherent risk and combine it with the effectiveness of your security controls. It is the risk that remains after you have implemented controls to mitigate the original risk. Incorrect Answers: A) Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of security controls, not residual risk. B) This describes the inherent risk, not residual risk. D) Risk appetite describes how much risk an organization may be willing to take, not residual risk. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of an IoT device that may be used for facility automation? A) A laptop computer B) A desktop computer C) A smart thermostat D) A printer

Correct Answer: C) A smart thermostat Explanation: A smart thermostat is an example of an IoT device that may be used for facility automation. It can manage the heating, ventilation, and air conditioning of a building through the use of sensors and automation. A laptop computer, desktop computer, and printer are not IoT devices designed for facility automation. Incorrect Answers: A) A laptop computer is not an IoT device designed for facility automation. B) A desktop computer is not an IoT device designed for facility automation. D) A printer is not an IoT device designed for facility automation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes an incremental backup? A) Backs up all data on the system each time a backup is performed B) Backs up all data modified since the last full backup C) Backs up new files and all files that have been modified since the last incremental backup D) Backs up an exact duplicate of the entire file system

Correct Answer: C) Backs up new files and all files that have been modified since the last incremental backup. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Backing up all data on the system each time a backup is performed describes a full backup, not an incremental backup. B) Backing up all data modified since the last full backup describes a differential backup, not an incremental backup. D) Backing up an exact duplicate of the entire file system describes an image backup, not an incremental backup. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is DNSSEC? A) A protocol for renaming domain names B) A mechanism for preventing DNS server overload C) A security extension for the Domain Name System D) A tool for monitoring file integrity

Correct Answer: C) Explanation: DNSSEC is a security extension for the Domain Name System that uses public key cryptography and digital signatures to authenticate DNS responses and ensure data integrity. It allows the DNS servers to confirm the responses received are authentic and exactly what that server has sent. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) DNSSEC is not a protocol for renaming domain names, it is a security extension for the Domain Name System. B) DNSSEC is not a mechanism for preventing DNS server overload, it is a mechanism for ensuring security in the DNS responses. D) File integrity monitoring (FIM) is a technique for constantly monitoring the files on a system and detecting any unauthorized file modifications. DNSSEC and FIM are not related. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-networking-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a benefit of consolidating log files into a Security Information and Event Manager (SIEM)? A) It makes the log files less secure. B) It increases the likelihood of information being lost or corrupted. C) It allows for easier filtering and viewing of data. D) It increases the amount of time needed to analyze the log files.

Correct Answer: C) It allows for easier filtering and viewing of data. Explanation: Consolidating log files into a SIEM can make it easier to filter and analyze the data. It can also help identify trends and patterns across multiple systems. However, if not properly secured, consolidating log files in one place can pose a security risk. It can also be time-consuming to analyze large amounts of data. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Incorrect Answers: A) It makes the log files less secure: Consolidating log files into a SIEM can pose a security risk if not properly secured. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. B) It increases the likelihood of information being lost or corrupted: Consolidating log files into a SIEM does not increase the likelihood of information being lost or corrupted. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. D) It increases the amount of time needed to analyze the log files: Consolidating log files into a SIEM can make it easier to filter and analyze the data, which can reduce the amount of time needed to analyze the log files. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a characteristic of a site-to-site VPN? A) It is primarily used for individual users working remotely B) It commonly uses SSL for communication C) It encrypts data between two networks D) It is designed for end-user use

Correct Answer: C) It encrypts data between two networks Explanation: Site-to-site VPNs are used to encrypt data between two networks, typically a corporate network and a remote site. It is not primarily used for individual users working remotely, which is the purpose of remote access VPNs that commonly use SSL for communication. Site-to-site VPNs are not designed for end-user use, but rather for the secure communication between networks. Incorrect Answers: A) It is primarily used for individual users working remotely - This is incorrect because site-to-site VPNs are primarily used to encrypt data between two networks. B) It commonly uses SSL for communication - This is incorrect because site-to-site VPNs commonly use L2TP with IPSec for the tunnel between sites to provide encryption capabilities. D) It is designed for end-user use - This is incorrect because site-to-site VPNs are not designed for end-user use, but rather for the secure communication between networks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich protocol uses SSL to communicate securely with an LDAP server? A) TLS B) SRTP C) LDAPS D) SASL

Correct Answer: C) LDAPS Explanation: LDAPS or LDAP Secure is a non-standard version of LDAP that uses SSL to communicate securely with an LDAP server. Option A, TLS or Transport Layer Security, is a cryptographic protocol that provides communication security over a computer network, but it is not specifically related to LDAP. Option B, SRTP or Secure Real-time Transport Protocol, is used to ensure secure communications for real-time media such as voice and video, but it is also not directly related to LDAP. Option D, SASL or Simple Authentication and Security Layer, is a framework used by LDAP to communicate securely but it is not used with SSL specifically. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich protocol uses SSH to encrypt information during file transfer? A) FTP B) FTPS C) SFTP D) DNS

Correct Answer: C) SFTP Explanation: SFTP or SSH File Transfer Protocol uses SSH to encrypt information during file transfer. FTPS, on the other hand, uses SSL to encrypt information. DNS, or Domain Name System, is a legacy protocol that was originally created without any security features, while FTP, or File Transfer Protocol, does not use encryption to secure information during transfer. Incorrect Answers: A) FTP: File Transfer Protocol does not use SSH or SSL to encrypt information during transfer. B) FTPS: FTPS uses SSL, not SSH, to encrypt information during file transfer. D) DNS: DNS is a protocol used for domain name resolution, not for file transfer security. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: In the application development process, what is the primary purpose of the staging environment? A. To allow developers to test their code in an isolated environment B. To bring all the code together and test how different parts interact with each other C. To perform a final test of the application in a real-world environment before deployment D. To perform integrity checks in the production environment

Correct Answer: C. To perform a final test of the application in a real-world environment before deployment Explanation: The staging environment is used to test the application in a real-world environment that closely mimics the production environment. This allows the team to see how the application performs with production data and to verify the features and usability before it is handed over to the end-users. This is the last chance to ensure the application is ready to go into production. Incorrect Answers: A. To allow developers to test their code in an isolated environment This describes the sandbox environment, not the staging environment. B. To bring all the code together and test how different parts interact with each other This describes the testing environment, which is a more formal stage where developers can check if the features and functions of the application are working as expected. D. To perform integrity checks in the production environment Integrity checks are performed after the application has been deployed into production. The staging environment is used for testing the application before it is deployed. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-deployments-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Where should IT professionals start when looking for information about threats associated with a specific operating system or application? A. RFC documents B. Hacker groups on Twitter C. Vendor websites D. Academic journals

Correct Answer: C. Vendor websites Explanation: The correct answer is vendor websites. IT professionals should start with the companies that wrote the operating system or the application when looking for information about threats associated with those products. Vendors are often the first to know about vulnerabilities and they usually maintain a page on their website where they keep track of known vulnerabilities, as well as provide notifications for newly discovered vulnerabilities. Incorrect Answers: A. RFC documents: Although RFC documents can provide detailed analysis of certain types of threats and help in understanding standards and vulnerabilities within those standards, they are not the primary source of information about threats associated with specific operating systems or applications. B. Hacker groups on Twitter: While hacker groups on social media may provide information about recent vulnerabilities they have discovered or recent attacks they have completed, they are not the ideal starting point for researching threats associated with a specific operating system or application. D. Academic journals: Academic journals can offer detailed information about attack types, security technologies, and other specific aspects of technology, but they are not the primary source to consult when looking for information about threats associated with a specific operating system or application. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-research/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a SIEM dashboard? A) A tool used to create reports over a long period of time B) A centralized reporting tool used to consolidate logs from multiple sources C) A device used to parse data and put it into different categories D) A tool used to create real-time alerts and alarming based on parsed data

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A SIEM dashboard is a tool used to create real-time alerts and alarming based on data parsed from logs gathered from multiple sources. It can also create reports over a long period of time and categorize data. However, the primary purpose of a SIEM dashboard is to provide real-time information about potential security issues. Incorrect Answers: A) While a SIEM dashboard can create reports over a long period of time, this is not its primary purpose. B) This statement accurately describes the purpose of a SIEM dashboard. C) While a SIEM dashboard can categorize data, this is not its primary purpose. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/siem-dashboards/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true regarding continuous deployment? A) It involves automating the testing and release of an application, but requires a human to manually push it to production. B) It requires the developer to perform security checks before checking in new code. C) It is a manual process that involves a human pushing the application to production after it has been tested. D) It involves automating the testing and deployment process, and if all automated security checks go through, the application is automatically pushed to production.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Continuous deployment is a process where the entire testing and deployment process is automated, and if all the automated security checks go through without any issues, the application is automatically pushed to production without any human intervention. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the continuous deployment process. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/automation-and-scripting/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich command can be used to query a DNS server and determine names and IP addresses? A. pathping B. netstat C. arp -a D. nslookup

Correct Answer: D Explanation:The nslookup command is used to query a DNS server and determine names and IP addresses. It is common in Windows, Linux, Mac OS, and other operating systems. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A. The pathping command merges together the functionality of ping and traceroute to create a single command that runs a traceroute to a destination IP address and measures the round trip time to every hop along the way. B. The netstat command is used to show active network connections on a device. C. The arp -a command is used to show devices and their MAC addresses in the local ARP cache. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/reconnaissance-tools-part-1/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a method of providing redundancy for network drives? A) Striping B) Mirroring C) RAID D) Multipath I/O

Correct Answer: D) Multipath I/O Explanation: Multipath I/O or Multipath Input/Output allows us to create other routes on the network that we can use to work around any problems we might have. This is done by configuring multiple links in the network to provide redundancy if one part of the network fails. For example, if we have a Fiber Channel network we might have multiple Fiber Channel switches, that way if we lose one switch we can redirect the traffic through the other switch. Incorrect Answers: A) Striping is a method used in RAID 0 that allows for high performance reading and writing of data to an array, but does not provide any redundancy. B) Mirroring is a type of RAID where we can take one physical drive and duplicate all of the data on that physical drive to a separate physical drive. RAID 1 uses mirroring to provide redundancy for data. C) RAID is a method of providing redundancy by using multiple drives within a single array to store some or even all of that data on that redundant drive. There are different RAID levels available such as RAID 0, RAID 1, RAID 5, and combinations of these RAID types. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/disk-redundancy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat type of control is a security guard in front of a data center? A) Managerial control B) Operational control C) Technical control D) Physical control

Correct Answer: D) Physical control Explanation: A physical control is something in the real world that prevents a security event, such as a fence or a door lock, which would certainly prevent someone from physically gaining access to a facility. A security guard in front of a data center would be considered a physical control. Incorrect Answers: A) Managerial control: A managerial control focuses on the design of the security or the policy implementation associated with the security, such as security policies or standard operating procedures. B) Operational control: An operational control is managed by people, such as security guards or awareness programs to let people know that phishing is a significant concern. C) Technical control: A technical control uses systems to prevent security events from occurring, such as antivirus on workstations or a firewall connecting to the internet. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes the role of a compiler in achieving software diversity? A) A compiler is used to find vulnerabilities in a particular application. B) A compiler is used to create different versions of an application on different machines. C) A compiler is used to update operating systems and applications. D) A compiler is used to test an application for security vulnerabilities.

Correct answer: B) A compiler is used to create different versions of an application on different machines. Explanation: In the context of software diversity, the compiler is used to create different versions of the same application on different machines. By using different tricks in the compilation process, the compiler can change where the paths go during the compilation process, resulting in a different final binary file. This means that if an attacker finds a vulnerability in the binary file on one machine, they may not be able to use that same exploit on a different machine running a different version of the binary file. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) This is not the role of a compiler in achieving software diversity. A compiler is used to create different versions of the same application on different machines, not to find vulnerabilities in the application. C) Updating operating systems and applications is important for patching vulnerabilities, but it is not directly related to achieving software diversity. D) While testing an application for security vulnerabilities is an important part of secure software development, it is not directly related to achieving software diversity. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/software-diversity/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of adding salt to password hashes? A) To make passwords easier to guess B) To make all password hashes the same C) To slow down attackers attempting to crack passwords D) To reduce the security of password hashes

Correct answer: C) To slow down attackers attempting to crack passwords Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Adding salt to password hashes would not make passwords easier to guess. B) Adding salt to password hashes would make all password hashes unique, not the same. D) Adding salt to password hashes actually increases the security of the password hashes, rather than reducing it. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/hashing-and-digital-signatures-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a security policy used to minimize risk by having employees rotate through different jobs, thus limiting the chance for someone to take advantage of a particular security issue? A) Dual control B) Split knowledge C) Least privileged policy D) Job rotation

Correct answer: D) Job rotation. Explanation: Job rotation is a security policy that helps to minimize risk by having employees rotate through different jobs, thus limiting the chance for someone to take advantage of a particular security issue. With job rotation, there would always be someone new in a position, and it would limit the opportunity for any one person to commit a type of fraud. A) Dual control refers to a security policy where two people have to be there in person to perform a particular business function, such as opening a safe, and is not related to job rotation. B) Split knowledge refers to a security policy where one person might have some of the details, and another person would have the other part of the details, and is not related to job rotation. C) Least privileged policy refers to a security policy where each user is configured with the least privileged access required to perform their job, and is not related to job rotation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a device that is specifically designed to help manage and control a large number of keys and certificates in an environment? A) Log collector B) Jump server C) Firewall D) Hardware security module (HSM)

D) Hardware security module (HSM) is a specialized device that is designed to help manage and control a large number of keys and certificates in an environment. It usually has specialized hardware inside that is designed for cryptography and can provide secure storage. This is a perfect place to keep private keys used for web servers, and many environments configure it as a cryptographic accelerator. A) Log collector is a device that centralizes all the important statistics that are being gathered by all devices on a network. It usually receives all sensor data, passes it through the data, and presents a representation of that data on the screen. B) Jump server is a secure device that allows access usually internal devices through a private connection that is made to a single device on the inside. C) Firewall is a device that is designed to prevent unauthorized access while allowing authorized communications. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a common technique to harden all operating systems? A) Use self-encrypting drives B) Install every available security patch and fix C) Open all available ports on the device D) Grant all user accounts unlimited access to the network

The correct answer is B) Install every available security patch and fix. One common technique to harden all operating systems is to always keep the operating system up to date with the latest versions. These can be updates to the core operating system itself, they may be deployed using service packs, or they may be individual security patches that are installed one by one. Patch management is so important in these operating systems that it is a standard part of the operating system, and it's built into the scheduling and automated systems within the OS. A) Use self-encrypting drives is incorrect. While it is a technique to prevent third-party access to data that we store on our computers, it is not a common technique to harden all operating systems. C) Open all available ports on the device is incorrect. Opening all available ports on a device is not a technique to harden any operating system. Rather, it increases the attack surface and the chances of an attacker exploiting the system. D) Grant all user accounts unlimited access to the network is incorrect. Granting all user accounts unlimited access to the network is not a technique to harden any operating system. It makes the system more vulnerable to attacks and potential data breaches. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich security control can allow or disallow access for applications and data on mobile devices, no matter where the device is taken? A) SSL decryption B) NAC implementation C) MDM configuration changes D) Honeypot deployment

The correct answer is C) MDM configuration changes. Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows the IT security administrator to set policies on all mobile devices, including allowing or disallowing access for applications and data. This ensures that devices are protected from malicious software, no matter where the device is taken. A) SSL decryption is incorrect because it is a security measure that allows the decryption of SSL encrypted traffic to ensure it is not malicious. It is not related to MDM configuration changes. B) NAC implementation is incorrect because Network Access Control (NAC) ensures that devices attempting to access the network meet certain security requirements before being granted access. It is not related to MDM configuration changes. D) Honeypot deployment is incorrect because honeypots are decoys used to detect or deflect attacks, and they do not provide security controls for mobile devices. It is not related to MDM configuration changes. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of Elliptic-Curve Cryptography (ECC) in relation to low power devices? A) To create even larger prime numbers than with traditional asymmetric encryption B) To enable symmetric key encryption on low power devices C) To reduce the computing power and resources needed for encryption on low power devices D) To provide additional security features to low power devices

The correct answer is C) To reduce the computing power and resources needed for encryption on low power devices. Explanation for A: This is incorrect and contradicts the text, which states that ECC uses curves instead of large prime numbers to create asymmetric keys. Explanation for B: This is incorrect because ECC is used specifically for asymmetric encryption and not symmetric key encryption. Explanation for D: This is incorrect because while ECC can allow low power devices access to powerful features of asymmetric encryption, it is not providing additional security features beyond what is already offered by asymmetric encryption. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/symmetric-and-asymmetric-cryptography/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of a managerial control? A) Firewall B) Security Guard C) Antivirus Software D) Security Policy

The correct answer is D) Security Policy. Managerial controls focus on the design of security policies or policy implementation associated with security. Security policies are an example of a managerial control, as they set the framework and expectations for how an organization should approach security. Option A) Firewall is an example of a technical control, which is designed to use technology to prevent security events. Option B) Security guard is an example of an operational control, which is managed by people. Option C) Antivirus software is another example of a technical control, as it uses software to prevent malware and other security events. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is OpenSSL primarily used for? A. Encrypting PowerShell scripts B. Managing SSL/TLS certificates C. Automating cloud-based systems D. Orchestration of operating systems

B. Managing SSL/TLS certificates is the primary use of OpenSSL. It is a library and series of utilities that allows for the management of X.509 certificates, certificate signing requests (CSRs), and certificate revocation lists (CRLs). OpenSSL also has cryptographic libraries for hashing and encryption/decryption. A is incorrect because PowerShell scripts can be encrypted with other tools, but not OpenSSL specifically. C and D are incorrect because neither automation of cloud-based systems nor orchestration of operating systems are related to OpenSSL. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/shell-and-script-environments/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich command can be used to map an entire path between two devices and determine what routers may be between point A and point B? A. ipconfig B. nslookup C. ping D. traceroute

D. Traceroute (or tracert in Windows) can be used to map an entire path between two devices and determine what routers may be between point A and point B. It uses the Time To Live (TTL) parameter to cause routers to create an error message, which is then used to build the route. ICMP Time Exceeded messages are commonly received via routers on the network. The incorrect options are ipconfig, nslookup, and ping, which are not used to map an entire path between two devices but to gather different types of network information. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/reconnaissance-tools-part-1/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich tool can be used to enumerate DNS information from a DNS server and perform a brute force to find subdomains? A. Nessus B. Cuckoo C. Hping D. dnsenum

D. dnsenum dnsenum is a tool that can enumerate DNS information from a DNS server and perform a brute force to find subdomains. Nessus is a vulnerability scanner, Cuckoo is a sandbox to run potentially malicious executables, and Hping is a tool for sending customized packets and performing port scans. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is NOT a common type of personally identifiable information (PII) that can be used in identity theft? A) Name B) Social security number C) Favorite color D) Bank account number

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Favorite color A person's favorite color is not considered personally identifiable information (PII) because it cannot be used to access a person's financial resources or directly identify them. PII generally includes information like a person's name, date of birth, social security number, driver's license number, bank account or credit card numbers, PINs, electronic signatures, fingerprints, and passwords. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Identity_theft) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Name This answer is incorrect because a person's name is considered PII and can be used in identity theft. B) Social security number This answer is incorrect because a person's social security number is considered PII and can be used in identity theft. D) Bank account number This answer is incorrect because a person's bank account number is considered PII and can be used in identity theft. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Identity_theft"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: How can attackers exploit familiarity/liking to successfully execute a social engineering attack? A) By pretending to be a known individual or organization B) By creating a sense of urgency C) By exploiting the victim's lack of knowledge about uncommon attacks D) By pretending to have power or control over the victim"

"Correct Answer: A) By pretending to be a known individual or organization Explanation: Attackers exploit familiarity/liking by pretending to be a known individual or organization to gain the trust of the victim. By establishing trust, the attacker can more easily manipulate the victim into providing sensitive information or access to systems without raising suspicion. Incorrect Answers: B) Creating a sense of urgency is not directly related to familiarity/liking. Urgency involves making the victim believe that they must act quickly, without fully evaluating the situation. C) Exploiting the victim's lack of knowledge about uncommon attacks is related to the principle of scarcity, not familiarity/liking. D) Pretending to have power or control over the victim is a tactic based on the principle of authority, not familiarity/liking. Reference URL: https://www.examcollection.com/certification-training/security-plus-social-engineering-attacks-associated-effectiveness-with-each-attack.html"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary goal of spyware? A. To encrypt user data and demand a ransom B. To gather information about a person or organization and send it to another entity in a harmful way C. To create a botnet for launching DDoS attacks D. To delete or modify files on a targeted computer

"Correct answer with explanation: B. To gather information about a person or organization and send it to another entity in a harmful way Spyware is software with malicious behavior that aims to gather information about a person or organization and send it to another entity in a way that harms the user, such as by violating their privacy or endangering their device's security. Incorrect answers explanation: A. To encrypt user data and demand a ransom Incorrect because this describes the behavior of ransomware, not spyware. C. To create a botnet for launching DDoS attacks Incorrect because this describes the behavior of botnet-related malware, not spyware. D. To delete or modify files on a targeted computer Incorrect because this is more characteristic of a computer virus or worm, not spyware. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spyware"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of keystroke logging? A. To encrypt user data and demand a ransom B. To gather information on a person's keyboard usage for research purposes C. To record the keys struck on a keyboard, typically covertly, for monitoring or stealing information D. To create a botnet for launching DDoS attacks"

"Correct answer with explanation: C. To record the keys struck on a keyboard, typically covertly, for monitoring or stealing information Keystroke logging, or keylogging, is the action of recording the keys struck on a keyboard, usually covertly, so that the person using the keyboard is unaware their actions are being monitored. Data can then be retrieved by the person operating the logging program, and keyloggers are often used for stealing passwords and other confidential information. Incorrect answers explanation: A. To encrypt user data and demand a ransom Incorrect because this describes the behavior of ransomware, not keystroke logging. B. To gather information on a person's keyboard usage for research purposes Incorrect because, while keylogging can be used for such research purposes, its primary purpose is covert monitoring or stealing information. D. To create a botnet for launching DDoS attacks Incorrect because this describes the behavior of botnet-related malware, not keystroke logging. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Keystroke_logging"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What differentiates a computer worm from other types of malware in terms of its propagation method? A. Computer worms require a host program to spread. B. Computer worms rely on user interaction to spread. C. Computer worms replicate themselves and use networks to spread. D. Computer worms spread through email attachments only.

Correct answer with explanation: C. Computer worms replicate themselves and use networks to spread. A computer worm is a standalone malware program that replicates itself to spread to other computers. It often uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it. Worms can cause harm to the network, even if only by consuming bandwidth, and can spread without requiring a host program or user interaction. Incorrect answers explanation: A. Computer worms require a host program to spread. Incorrect because worms do not require a host program to spread; they are standalone malware programs. B. Computer worms rely on user interaction to spread. Incorrect because worms can spread without user interaction, often exploiting security vulnerabilities in networks. D. Computer worms spread through email attachments only. Incorrect because, although worms can spread through email attachments, they can also exploit other methods, such as vulnerabilities in network protocols or services. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_worm

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the concept of isolation in network security? A) Moving a device into an area where it has limited or no access to other resources. B) Running every application in its own sandbox. C) Creating segmented networks for different devices. D) Integrating multiple third party tools and automating security processes.

"A) Moving a device into an area where it has limited or no access to other resources is the concept of isolation in network security. Isolation is a key strategy, especially when fighting malicious software that's constantly trying to communicate back to a command and control location. One might use isolation if someone's trying to connect to the network and doesn't have the correct security posture on their device. By putting the device on a separate remediation VLAN, it can be given access to update the signatures. If we identify a process running on that device that seems suspicious, we can disallow any access from that process to the rest of the network as well. B) Running every application in its own sandbox is the concept of application containment, a way to prevent the spread of malicious software by limiting the access of the software to the operating system and other processes. C) Creating segmented networks for different devices is one of the ways to enhance internal network security. This is done by putting different devices into their own segmented and protected areas of the network. D) Integrating multiple third-party tools and automating security processes is done through SOAR, which is a security orchestration, automation, and response mechanism. The runbooks and playbooks define the sequence of steps to be executed by the tools. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following authentication methods is considered to be relatively safe and more secure than using SMS? A) Push notifications B) SMS messages C) HOTP D) Phone calls

"A) Push notifications is the correct answer. Push notifications use a mobile device app to receive the pushed message and display the authentication information. Although there are some security concerns associated with push notifications, such as the app receiving the push notification might have vulnerabilities or the app is not using encryption, with the right app, this is a relatively safe process and probably more secure than something like SMS. B) SMS messages are less secure than other methods. It's relatively easy for someone to reassign a phone number, so the SMS message is redirected into another person's phone. SMS messages can sometimes also be intercepted by a third party, giving them access to a code that normally only you would have available. C) HOTP is an authentication type that uses a number that you would use one time during the authentication process and then throw away that number and never use it again. It is similar to TOTP, which uses a number that changes every 30 seconds. You would log in with your username, your password, and then provide your HOTP passcode. D) Phone calls have similar disadvantages as SMS or text messages for authentication. Someone can modify the phone configurations or configure forwarding on your phone number so that they receive the phone call rather than you. Phone numbers can sometimes also be added to other phones so that when the phone rings, it rings across multiple devices simultaneously, and someone can intercept that call before you have a chance to hear it. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a benefit of NIC teaming? A) Increased bandwidth between server and switch B) Decreased throughput on the server C) Decreased redundancy on the server D) Increased latency on the server

"Answer: A) Increased bandwidth between server and switch Explanation: NIC teaming allows for increased throughput and redundancy on a server by using multiple network interface cards simultaneously and aggregating the bandwidth between them. This provides increased bandwidth between the server and the switch. The other answer choices are incorrect because NIC teaming doesn't decrease throughput, redundancy, or increase latency on the server. Incorrect Answers: B) Decreased throughput on the server - Incorrect, NIC teaming actually provides increased throughput on the server. C) Decreased redundancy on the server - Incorrect, NIC teaming actually provides increased redundancy on the server. D) Increased latency on the server - Incorrect, NIC teaming doesn't increase latency on the server. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/network-redundancy/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the difference between Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and Protected Health Information (PHI)? A) PII includes health insurance information, while PHI includes name, address, and telephone number. B) PII is not tied to an individual, while PHI is associated with an individual's health records. C) PII is not as sensitive as PHI, as it does not involve personal health information. D) PII and PHI are the same thing."

"Answer: B) PII is not tied to an individual, while PHI is associated with an individual's health records. Explanation: PII is any type of data that could be tied back to an individual or person, such as name, address, and telephone number. PHI, on the other hand, is health records associated with an individual, and it obviously has a very high level of privacy associated with it. Information about an individual's health status, details of their health insurance, or anything associated with their health records, would be PHI. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. A) is incorrect because PII does not typically include health insurance information. B) is the correct answer. C) is incorrect because PII can still be sensitive information, even if it does not involve personal health information. D) is incorrect because PII and PHI are not the same thing, as explained in the correct answer. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is privileged access management (PAM)? A) A type of access control where the owner of an object assigns rights and permissions to it B) A type of access control associated with the role that an employee might have in a company C) A centralized way of handling elevated access to system resources for administrators D) A type of access control where users must meet a number of different parameters to gain access to a resource

"Answer: C) A centralized way of handling elevated access to system resources for administrators Explanation:Privileged access management (PAM) is a type of access control that is specifically designed for administrators to elevate access to system resources in a centralized way. Administrators don't automatically have administrator rights, they must access a centralized digital vault for privileged access to be checked out to them to be able to use. These privileges only last for a certain amount of time and then they're revoked by the system. PAM gives us much more control over what someone with administrator access may be allowed to do. It provides a centralized password management function, allows for the automation of services that need administrator access, and allows for the management of administrator access for each individual administrator on the system. A is describing discretionary access control (DAC), B is describing role-based access control (RBAC), and D is describing attribute-based access control (ABAC). Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/access-control-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Subject Alternative Name Certificate? A) A certificate that allows you to encrypt communication to an email server. B) A certificate that enables additional features on a website. C) A certificate that can support many different DNS names into the configuration. D) A certificate that verifies the software being installed is exactly the same as the one distributed by the manufacturer.

"Answer: C) A certificate that can support many different DNS names into the configuration. Explanation: The subject alternative name (SAN) extension in a digital certificate allows the owner of the certificate to add many different DNS names in the certificate's configuration. This means a single certificate could support connectivity for many different websites. This is common to see on sites like Cloudflare, which is providing a reverse proxy service. A) This answer describes an email certificate, not a Subject Alternative Name Certificate. B) This answer describes an extended validation certificate, not a Subject Alternative Name Certificate. D) This answer describes a code signing certificate, not a Subject Alternative Name Certificate. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of containment? A) Configuring a firewall to block access to a known malicious website B) Deploying certificates to trusted devices and services C) Running every application in its own sandbox to prevent the spread of malware D) Creating segmented networks to protect different devices in different networks

"Answer: C) Running every application in its own sandbox to prevent the spread of malware. Explanation: Containment refers to the ability to isolate a device, application or network segment to prevent the spread of malware or other malicious software. Running every application in its own sandbox is an example of application containment, which limits an application's access to other applications and the operating system. This means that if an application is infected with malware, the malware will not be able to spread to other applications or the local machine. The other choices (A, B, and D) are examples of other security controls such as URL filtering, certificate deployment, and segmented networks, but they are not examples of containment. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes Federation in the context of authentication methods? A) The use of SMS messages for authentication B) The use of smart cards for authentication C) The coordination of the authentication and authorization process between two organizations to allow users to authenticate using credentials stored with a third party D) The use of pseudo-random token generators for authentication

"Answer: C) The coordination of the authentication and authorization process between two organizations to allow users to authenticate using credentials stored with a third party. Explanation: Federation is a way to allow someone to authenticate to your network using credentials that are stored with a third party. This involves coordinating the authentication and authorization process between your organization and the third party that's providing these credentials. Once this process is complete, someone can log in with that third-party username and password, and users can choose the authentication type that works best for them, using those credentials to gain access to your network. This eliminates the need for organizations to maintain their own database of usernames and passwords. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) The use of SMS messages for authentication is incorrect because it is not the correct definition of Federation. B) The use of smart cards for authentication is incorrect because it is not the correct definition of Federation. D) The use of pseudo-random token generators for authentication is incorrect because it is not the correct definition of Federation. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of a third-party not following security policies and causing a security breach? A) Signing a nondisclosure agreement with a vendor B) Creating a firewall between a business partner's network and the corporate network C) Assessing security risks throughout the supply chain process D) An HVAC vendor connecting to the Target network with infected workstations

"Answer: D Explanation: The correct answer is D. This is exemplified by the Target breach where an HVAC vendor was able to infect Target's network through an email attachment and then connect to the Target network with infected workstations that did not have any antivirus or anti-malware installed on them. This allowed the malware to jump from the vendor network to the corporate network, ultimately collecting over 110 million credit card numbers. A is incorrect because signing a nondisclosure agreement is an agreement to keep information confidential, but it does not necessarily address the issue of a security breach. B is incorrect because creating a firewall is a way to manage traffic between two networks, but it does not address the issue of a third-party not following security policies and causing a security breach. C is incorrect because assessing security risks throughout the supply chain process is important, but it does not address the specific scenario described in the question. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich authentication method can be linked to a user's identity across multiple authentication systems? A) EAP-FAST B) PEAP C) EAP-TTLS D) Federation"

"Answer: D) Federation is an authentication method that links a user's identity across multiple authentication systems. RADIUS Federation commonly uses EAP to authenticate and is used with 802.1X authentication. EAP-FAST, PEAP, and EAP-TTLS are different forms of the EAP framework used for authentication but are not specifically used for Federation. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) EAP-FAST is a form of EAP authentication that uses a shared secret called a Protected Access Credential (PAC) to securely transfer information between the authentication server and the supplicant using a Transport Layer Security (TLS) tunnel. B) PEAP is a form of EAP authentication that uses a digital certificate on the server for TLS encryption, and it can be used with Microsoft's Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 (MS-CHAPv2) or a Generic Token Card (GTC). C) EAP-TTLS is a tunneled TLS authentication method that tunnels other authentication protocols through an existing TLS tunnel but requires only a single digital certificate on the authentication server. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-authentication-protocols-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an important factor to consider when using block cipher encryption? A) The size of the encrypted data B) The type of encryption used C) The strength of the random number generation D) The amount of time it takes to perform encryption or decryption

"Answer: D) The amount of time it takes to perform encryption or decryption Explanation of correct answer: It's important to consider the amount of time it takes to perform encryption or decryption because larger files will take longer, and different types of encryption may take longer than others. If the encryption or decryption process takes too long, it may not be practical to use, which could lead to the use of less secure alternatives. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) The size of the encrypted data is important to consider, but it is not the most important factor when using block cipher encryption. B) The type of encryption used is important to consider, but it is not the most important factor when using block cipher encryption. C) The strength of the random number generation is important to consider, but it is not specifically related to the use of block cipher encryption. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-limitations/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich group is responsible for identifying the requester, performing validation, and deciding if a certificate should be signed? A. Certificate Authority (CA) B. Registration Authority (RA) C. Root CA D. Intermediate CA

"B is the correct answer. The Registration Authority (RA) is responsible for identifying the requester, performing validation, and deciding if a certificate should be signed. The RA is a critical part of the certificate authority's trust process, and if someone is performing additional checks and balances, it can strengthen the level of trust for the signed certificate. The RA is also responsible for revoking certificates and managing the expiration of certificates. A is incorrect because the Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating the keys, generating the certificates, and securely distributing those keys. Although the CA creates the foundation of trust for all certificates, its role is not to identify and validate the requester. C and D are incorrect because Root CA and Intermediate CA are both types of CAs and not synonymous with RA. Root CA is the top-level CA in a hierarchy, and Intermediate CA is a subordinate CA that sits between the Root and Leaf CA. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is object detection in the context of physical security? A) A feature that enables cameras to constantly monitor an area and inform if there is any type of motion detection B) A feature that recognizes whether something moving through the camera range is an automobile or a person's face and tracks it as it moves C) A way to minimize the exposure someone might have by requiring two separate security guards to enter a locked area D) A method of preventing a piece of equipment from being stolen by connecting it to a sturdy object through a cable lock

"B) A feature that recognizes whether something moving through the camera range is an automobile or a person's face and tracks it as it moves. Explanation: Object detection in physical security refers to the feature of a camera that can recognize whether something moving through the camera range is an automobile or a person's face and track it as it moves. This feature can provide an additional layer of security by allowing the camera to lock onto specific objects and monitor their movements. Options A, C, and D do not refer to object detection. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is biometrics? A) An automated robot that replaces a human during physical security rounds B) A way to store a mathematical representation of a physical characteristic unique to an individual C) A type of traditional lock and key for securing a facility D) A keyless lock that requires a personal identification number

"B) A way to store a mathematical representation of a physical characteristic unique to an individual. Biometrics refers to the use of a physical characteristic unique to an individual, such as a fingerprint, retina, or voice print, to verify identity. This physical characteristic is stored as a mathematical representation, rather than an actual image of the characteristic, for security purposes. While biometrics are a powerful physical control, they are not foolproof and are often paired with other forms of authentication, such as a personal identification number. A) An automated robot that replaces a human during physical security rounds, is incorrect because it is referring to the use of robots in physical security rounds, which is not the same as biometrics. C) A type of traditional lock and key for securing a facility, is incorrect because it is referring to a different type of physical security control than biometrics. D) A keyless lock that requires a personal identification number, is incorrect because it is only one example of how an electronic lock might function and doesn't fully describe what biometrics are. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is true about Infrared? A) Infrared is no longer used in mobile devices. B) Infrared provides a one-to-one connection between two devices. C) Infrared is commonly used in cellular networks. D) Infrared has robust security controls built in.

"B) Infrared provides a one-to-one connection between two devices. Infrared is still used in some cases, particularly for controlling devices in an entertainment center. However, it is not as commonly used as 802.11 and Bluetooth. Infrared provides a one-to-one connection between two devices, which can be used to transfer files between them. It should be noted that Infrared doesn't have a lot of security controls built into it, so other devices could potentially control your infrared devices using IR. A is incorrect because Infrared is still used in some cases, as discussed above. C is incorrect because Infrared is not commonly used in cellular networks, but rather for controlling devices. D is incorrect because Infrared doesn't have a lot of security controls built into it. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a heat map used for in wireless site surveys? A) To detect interference caused by electronic devices near the access points B) To visually display the location of wireless signals and their signal strength C) To capture wireless packets being sent over the network D) To monitor the utilization and channel information of wireless devices

"B) To visually display the location of wireless signals and their signal strength. A heat map is a visual representation of a wireless signal's strength in a particular location. It can help identify areas with low or no coverage, areas with high signal strength, and areas with interference or overlaps. By creating a heat map, network administrators can optimize their wireless network and improve performance. A) is incorrect because heat maps do not detect interference caused by electronic devices but show areas with interference. C) is incorrect because capturing wireless packets is done using a wireless packet analyzer and not a heat map. D) is incorrect because monitoring utilization and channel information is also not done using a heat map. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/installing-wireless-networks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a potential issue with using the same key for encryption in multiple mechanisms? A. It can slow down the encryption process B. It can allow access to all encrypted data if the key is compromised C. It can cause the encryption to use too much memory D. It can make the encryption easier to predict

"B. It can allow access to all encrypted data if the key is compromised. Using the same key in multiple encryption mechanisms means that if someone gains access to that key, they would effectively have access to everything that was encrypted using that key. Although changing the key may add additional overhead, it provides significant security advantages. A is incorrect because using the same key doesn't affect the speed of the encryption process. C is incorrect because the issue with the key is not related to memory usage. D is incorrect because using the same key doesn't make the encryption easier to predict. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-limitations/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following statements is true about SIEM dashboards: Correlation? A. SIEM correlation is only possible between log files from operating systems such as Windows and Linux, and not from other devices on the network. B. SIEM dashboards allow us to consolidate log information from multiple devices in order to create real-time security alerts and historical reports. C. SIEM databases can only store information from a single device and cannot correlate data from different devices. D. SIEM dashboards do not have the ability to parse and categorize log entries.

"B. SIEM dashboards allow us to consolidate log information from multiple devices in order to create real-time security alerts and historical reports. This is specifically stated in the text: ""This allows us to perform analysis of the data to create security alerts and real time information about what's happening on the network right now...And of course, if we have some type of security event, we can go back through these logs to determine what happened during that time frame, and what other details can we gather about this specific security issue."" A. is incorrect because SIEM correlation is possible between log files from a variety of devices, including switches, routers, and firewalls. The text states: ""We're bringing together data from firewalls, servers, switches, routers, and other devices on the network. This allows us to correlate data together that normally would be completely separate."" C. is incorrect because SIEM databases can store information from multiple devices and correlate data between them, as stated in the text: ""We're bringing together data from firewalls, servers, switches, routers, and other devices on the network. This allows us to correlate data together that normally would be completely separate."" D. is incorrect because SIEM dashboards do have the ability to parse and categorize log entries, as stated in the text: ""It's important to use a SIEM that is able to parse the data, and perhaps put the information into different categories. Perhaps some of these log entries can be categorized as informational. Others might have a warning category. And others could be categorized as urgent."" Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/siem-dashboards/ -------------------"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of using a chain of trust when working with digital certificates? A. To validate if a certificate may have been revoked B. To confirm that we're communicating with the intended server C. To have the status information stored on the local server for validation D. To maintain the scalability across multiple certificate authorities"

"B. To confirm that we're communicating with the intended server. The chain of trust allows us to validate that the intermediate or hierarchical CA we're using is original to the root CA. The chain starts with the SSL certificate we're connecting to and ends with the root CA, allowing us to list all certificates between the server we're connecting to and the root certificate authority. This way, we can confirm that we're talking directly to the web server without someone in the middle modifying our conversation. A is incorrect because this is achieved through OCSP stapling, not the chain of trust. C is incorrect because this is also describing OCSP stapling, not the purpose of the chain of trust. D is incorrect because scalability is not the primary purpose of the chain of trust, rather it's used as a method to confirm the authenticity of certificates in the hierarchy. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-concepts/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the difference between WPA2 and WPA3? A. WPA2 uses a different block cipher mode called GCMP, while WPA3 uses the Counter mode with Cipher block chaining Message authentication code Protocol. B. WPA2 uses CBC-MAC for message integrity check while WPA3 uses Galois message authentication code. C. WPA2 uses simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE) method to generate session key while WPA3 uses a hash-based message authentication code (HMAC) to generate session key. D. WPA2 uses perfect forward secrecy while WPA3 does not.

"B. WPA2 uses CBC-MAC for message integrity check while WPA3 uses Galois message authentication code. Explanation: WPA2 and WPA3 both use AES for confidentiality. However, they differ in terms of message integrity check. WPA2 uses CBC-MAC while WPA3 uses Galois message authentication code. The significant security feature of WPA3 is that it doesn't use a pre-shared key, it uses simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE) method to generate a session key. Perfect forward secrecy (PFS) is included in both WPA2 and WPA3 protocols, which means that a unique session key is generated for each session, ensuring that if one key were compromised, it would only impact that session. (Option A is incorrect) WPA2 does not use the hash-based message authentication code (HMAC) to generate session keys; instead, it uses the pre-shared key generator (PSK), which is subject to brute-force attacks that could compromise the entire Wi-Fi network. (Option C is incorrect) Lastly, option D is incorrect because PFS is included in both protocols. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-cryptography/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an important step to be taken during the off-boarding process of an employee? A. Delete all of the employee's data and encryption keys B. Make a copy of the employee's data and store it on a personal device C. Disable the employee's account and verify the return of any devices D. Allow the employee to keep all of their devices and access to company resources"

"C is the correct answer. During the off-boarding process of an employee, it is important to disable their account and verify the return of any devices to ensure that company resources are not accessed by unauthorized personnel. Deleting the employee's data and encryption keys or making a copy of the employee's data and storing it on a personal device can result in a breach of confidentiality and pose a security risk to the organization. Allowing the employee to keep all of their devices and access to company resources can also pose security risks. A is incorrect because deleting all of the employee's data and encryption keys can pose a security risk and lead to data loss. B is incorrect because making a copy of the employee's data and storing it on a personal device can breach confidentiality and pose a security risk. D is incorrect because allowing the employee to keep all of their devices and access to company resources can pose security risks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question Which of the following best describes an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)? A) A short-term attack focused on immediate financial gain B) An insider threat who gains unauthorized access to the company's network C) A prolonged and sophisticated attack aimed at a specific target D) A random attack launched by a script kiddie hoping to find vulnerabilities"

"C) A prolonged and sophisticated attack aimed at a specific target - An Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) is a type of cyber threat characterized by its advanced capabilities, prolonged presence in a target's network, and usually focused on achieving a specific goal. APT attackers are often well-funded and highly skilled, making them difficult to detect and defend against. A) A short-term attack focused on immediate financial gain - This type of attack is not an APT, as APTs are characterized by their long-term presence in a target's network and strategic objectives. B) An insider threat who gains unauthorized access to the company's network - While insider threats can be dangerous, they are not typically characterized as APTs, which are more focused on external attackers with advanced capabilities and long-term objectives. D) A random attack launched by a script kiddie hoping to find vulnerabilities - A script kiddie is a novice attacker who uses pre-made scripts and tools to launch random attacks, hoping to find vulnerabilities. This type of attacker is not associated with APTs, which are sophisticated, targeted, and persistent threats. [Reference URL] https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following security controls is responsible for identifying and blocking the transfer of personally identifiable information (PII)? A) Firewall B) URL filter C) DLP D) Process isolation

"C) DLP is responsible for identifying and blocking the transfer of personally identifiable information (PII). This is important in preventing the transfer of sensitive information like personal records, social security numbers, and credit card numbers. Firewalls do not have this specific capability, while URL filters only block access to known malicious sites based on their URLs. Process isolation also does not directly address the transfer of PII. A) Firewall - Incorrect, as stated above, firewall's do not have this specific capability. B) URL filter - Incorrect, as stated above, URL filters only block access to known malicious sites based on their URLs. D) Process isolation - Incorrect, as stated above, process isolation does not directly address the transfer of PII. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a device that is specifically designed to help manage and control a large number of keys and certificates in a network with many web servers and cryptographic keys? A) Jump server B) Switch C) Hardware security module (HSM) D) Sensor

"C) Hardware security module (HSM) Explanation: A Hardware security module (HSM) is specifically designed for managing and controlling a large number of cryptographic keys and certificates. It's usually installed in clusters with redundancy, and has specialized hardware for encryption and decryption. It also provides secure storage for private keys and can work as a cryptographic accelerator. On the other hand, the jump server is used for secure administration of internal network devices, whereas switches and sensors are used for network management and security operations respectively. Incorrect Answers: A) Jump server: Although a jump server is used for secure administration of internal network devices, it does not provide management and control of cryptographic keys and certificates. B) Switch: A switch is a network device used to connect multiple devices on the same network and facilitate communication between them. It does not manage and control cryptographic keys and certificates. D) Sensor: A sensor is used for gathering network statistics and security-related logs to provide a broader perspective of what's happening on the network, but it is not used for managing and controlling cryptographic keys and certificates. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is the most volatile type of data that needs to be collected first during data acquisition? A) Files stored on the system's hard drive or SSD B) Physical configuration of the device or the typology of the network C) Information that is in the CPU, such as CPU registers or CPU cache D) Information that could be around for years such as backups and archival media"

"C) Information that is in the CPU, such as CPU registers or CPU cache, is the most volatile type of data that needs to be collected first during data acquisition. This is because the data in CPU registers and CPU cache may be here for only a few moments before it is removed from the system. The other answer choices are less volatile types of data that can be collected later. A) Files stored on the system's hard drive or SSD are less volatile and can be collected after more volatile data such as data in CPU registers and CPU cache. B) Physical configuration of the device or the typology of the network rarely changes, so it can be collected after more volatile data. D) Information that could be around for years, such as backups and archival media, is the least volatile data and can be collected last. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the difference between inherent and residual risk? A) Inherent risk is the risk that exists with security controls in place, while residual risk is the risk that exists without any security controls. B) Inherent risk is when risks are reduced by security controls, while residual risk is when risks are increased without security controls. C) Inherent risk is risk that exists in the absence of security controls, while residual risk is when you combine the inherent risk with the effectiveness of your security controls. D) Inherent risk is the risk that comes from disasters, while residual risk is the risk that comes from human-made threats.

"C) Inherent risk is risk that exists in the absence of security controls, while residual risk is when you combine the inherent risk with the effectiveness of your security controls. Inherent risk is the risk that exists without any additional security controls in place, while residual risk takes into account the effectiveness of those security controls. Residual risk can never be eliminated completely, but it can be reduced to an acceptable level based on an organization's risk appetite. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately define inherent or residual risk. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following sensors might be useful to gain access to a secured room? A) Motion detection sensor B) Temperature sensor C) Proximity reader D) Noise detection sensor

"C) Proximity reader is the correct answer. A proximity reader is an electronic code reader that has a sensor inside that recognizes the RFID chip that's in your access card. This would be very useful for gaining access to a secured room. A motion detection sensor is used to detect motion, a temperature sensor detects the temperature, and a noise detection sensor detects the noise. None of these would be helpful in gaining access to a secured room. A) and D) are incorrect because they are not useful in gaining access to a secured room. B) is incorrect because it is useful for monitoring temperature. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following describes sentiment analysis in relation to security? A) Sentiment analysis is the examination of how people are using the network to determine potential security risks. B) Sentiment analysis is the identification of patterns in large amounts of diverse data to determine potential security risks. C) Sentiment analysis is the measurement of how the public views a particular organization to determine potential security risks. D) Sentiment analysis is the configuration and automation of security processes through the use of SOAR.

"C) Sentiment analysis is the measurement of how the public views a particular organization to determine potential security risks. Sentiment analysis in security refers to the examination of the public's opinion of an organization, which may attract hackers and create security risks. Being able to measure the public's opinion on social media may impact the type of security needed on the network. Choices A and B describe user and entity behavior analytics and big data analytics, respectively. Choice D refers to the use of SOAR for security orchestration, automation, and response. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-information-and-event-management/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a common security measure for mobile devices managed through Mobile Device Management (MDM)? A) Allowing unlimited screen lock attempts B) Disabling biometric authentication for all devices C) Separating personal and company data through containerization D) Enabling push notifications from all applications

"C) Separating personal and company data through containerization is a common security measure for mobile devices managed through Mobile Device Management (MDM). This enables the administrator to click a button and remove all of the company information from the device's container, while leaving all of the private information intact. This is especially important during offboarding processes to ensure that the corporate data is deleted, but personal data is not removed from the user's private phone. A) Allowing unlimited screen lock attempts is incorrect because this would make the device less secure. The MDM administrator could configure a screen lockout policy that locks the phone and requires administrative access to unlock and use that mobile device again, which is a more secure option. B) Disabling biometric authentication for all devices is incorrect because biometric authentication can provide an additional layer of security. However, biometric authentication may not be the most secure method, and some organizations may prefer other types of authentication instead of biometrics. D) Enabling push notifications from all applications is incorrect because this can be a potential privacy concern and the administrator may choose to disable all notifications except those that are pushed directly from the MDM. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is attestation in the context of network security? A) The process of confirming a user's identity with a third-party provider. B) The use of a push notification to provide authentication information. C) The confirmation that the hardware connecting to a network is trustworthy and allowed access. D) The use of a one-time passcode provided through a phone call for authentication."

"C) The confirmation that the hardware connecting to a network is trustworthy and allowed access. Attestation is a security process that confirms the identity and trustworthiness of a hardware device connecting to a network. Remote attestation involves checks on the remote device and providing a report to a verification server for allowing or preventing access to the network. The attestation report is encrypted and digitally signed using keys located on the Trusted Platform Module of that remote device. A) The process of confirming a user's identity with a third-party provider is incorrect because it refers to Federation, not attestation. B) The use of a push notification to provide authentication information is incorrect because it refers to a different type of authentication, not attestation. D) The use of a one-time passcode provided through a phone call for authentication is incorrect because it refers to a different type of authentication, not attestation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is one method an attacker can use to poison a DNS server, as described in the text? A) Injecting malware into the website's source code B) Modifying the DNS configuration files on the server C) Crashing the DNS server with a DDoS attack D) Encrypting the DNS server's data with ransomware"

"Correct Answer and Explanation: B) Modifying the DNS configuration files on the server An attacker can poison a DNS server by gaining access to the server and modifying the DNS configuration files so that the server provides an incorrect IP address for a domain, redirecting users to a malicious website. This method is mentioned in the text as one way to poison a DNS server. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Injecting malware into the website's source code Injecting malware into a website's source code would not poison the DNS server directly. It may compromise the website itself and affect the reputation of the web server, but it wouldn't cause DNS queries to be redirected. C) Crashing the DNS server with a DDoS attack Crashing the DNS server with a DDoS attack would make the server unavailable, but it would not poison the DNS server or cause URL redirection. D) Encrypting the DNS server's data with ransomware Encrypting the DNS server's data with ransomware would not poison the DNS server or cause URL redirection. It would make the server's data inaccessible until the ransom is paid or the data is decrypted, but it wouldn't directly affect the DNS resolution process. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/dns-attacks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What are the primary components provided by a cloud service provider in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model? A) CPU, storage, and networking connectivity B) Operating system, middleware, and runtime C) Complete applications and data management D) Building blocks for application development

"Correct Answer with Explanation: A) CPU, storage, and networking connectivity In an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the cloud service provider provides the hardware components such as CPU, storage, and networking connectivity. The customer is responsible for the operating system and the applications that run on the infrastructure, as well as data security. Incorrect Answer Explanations: B) Operating system, middleware, and runtime These components are the customer's responsibility in an IaaS model. The cloud service provider is not responsible for these components. C) Complete applications and data management This choice describes Software as a Service (SaaS) model, not the IaaS model. In SaaS, the cloud provider manages applications and data for the customer. D) Building blocks for application development This choice describes Platform as a Service (PaaS) model, not the IaaS model. In PaaS, the cloud provider offers building blocks and tools for customers to develop their own applications. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary advantage of using the Diffie-Hellman key exchange for sharing symmetric keys? A. It allows symmetric keys to be shared without ever being sent across the network B. It eliminates the need for private keys C. It ensures that public and private keys never change D. It provides perfect forward secrecy

"Correct Answer with Explanation: A. It allows symmetric keys to be shared without ever being sent across the network The Diffie-Hellman key exchange enables two parties, such as Bob and Alice, to generate an identical symmetric key on each side without sending the key itself over the network. This is achieved by combining each party's private key with the public key of the other side. Incorrect Answer Explanations: B. It eliminates the need for private keys The Diffie-Hellman key exchange still requires private keys. Each party involved in the exchange has their own private key. C. It ensures that public and private keys never change The Diffie-Hellman key exchange does not ensure that public and private keys never change. In fact, not changing keys can create vulnerabilities, as mentioned in the text. D. It provides perfect forward secrecy The Diffie-Hellman key exchange itself does not provide perfect forward secrecy. Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) is an additional measure implemented by some web servers to prevent decryption after the fact by changing the encryption process and not using the same private key every time. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/hashing-and-digital-signatures-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of macros in applications, and how can attackers exploit them? A) To improve the application's performance; attackers exploit them by overloading the application B) To automate certain functions within the application; attackers exploit them by embedding malicious payloads C) To provide additional features to the application; attackers exploit them by hijacking the features D) To encrypt sensitive data within the application; attackers exploit them by decrypting the data"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B) To automate certain functions within the application; attackers exploit them by embedding malicious payloads Macros are designed to make applications easier to use by automating certain functions within the application itself. However, attackers have found that they can use macros to perform malicious attacks against the applications as well. They just need the user to open the file containing the macro, and once the macro executes, the malicious payload embedded inside the macro will execute on the user's workstation. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) To improve the application's performance; attackers exploit them by overloading the application - This is incorrect because macros are designed for automating functions, not necessarily for improving performance. Also, the exploitation method mentioned is not related to macros. C) To provide additional features to the application; attackers exploit them by hijacking the features - This is incorrect because macros are primarily designed for automating functions, not providing additional features. The exploitation method mentioned is not specific to macros. D) To encrypt sensitive data within the application; attackers exploit them by decrypting the data - This is incorrect because the primary purpose of macros is to automate functions within the application, not to encrypt sensitive data. The exploitation method mentioned is unrelated to macros. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/malicious-scripts/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of obfuscation in application development? A) To enhance application performance B) To make the code difficult for humans to read and understand C) To prevent code reuse D) To validate input data

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B) To make the code difficult for humans to read and understand Obfuscation is a technique used by application developers to make their code difficult to read and understand for humans. The primary purpose is to make it harder for potential attackers to identify security vulnerabilities within the application code. The computer still understands the obfuscated code perfectly, so it does not affect the application's functionality. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) To enhance application performance Obfuscation does not enhance application performance; its main purpose is to make the code more difficult for humans to read and understand. C) To prevent code reuse Obfuscation is not specifically designed to prevent code reuse. It primarily aims to make the code harder to read and understand for humans, which can hinder attackers from identifying security vulnerabilities. D) To validate input data Obfuscation does not validate input data. Input validation is a separate process in application development that checks the format and correctness of data entered by users to prevent potential security issues. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-coding-techniques-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which step is crucial in response and recovery processes for an organization dealing with a security attack? A. Training employees to use SSL for all communications B. Documenting the entire response and recovery process C. Ensuring all employees have valid passports D. Storing sensitive data on local devices only

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B. Documenting the entire response and recovery process Documenting the entire response and recovery process is crucial for an organization dealing with a security attack. This documentation helps in understanding and identifying when an attack is occurring, containing it, and limiting the scope of the attack. Having a well-documented process also ensures that everyone knows the next steps to be taken during an attack. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Training employees to use SSL for all communications is important for securing data transmission, but it doesn't directly address response and recovery processes during a security attack. C. Ensuring all employees have valid passports is relevant when dealing with geographical considerations for recovery and maintenance, but it is not the crucial step in response and recovery processes during a security attack. D. Storing sensitive data on local devices only may reduce the risk of unauthorized access, but it doesn't directly address the response and recovery processes during a security attack. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-security/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which document type can provide a detailed analysis of certain types of threats and help understand how standards are supposed to operate and the vulnerabilities that may exist within the standards themselves? A. Academic journals B. RFCs C. Vendor's websites D. Conference presentations"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B. RFCs RFCs, or Request for Comments, are a way to track and formalize a set of standards that anyone on the internet can use. Some of these RFCs provide a detailed analysis of certain types of threats, allowing you to understand how these standards are supposed to operate and the vulnerabilities that may exist within the standards themselves (e.g., RFC 3833 is the threat analysis of the domain name system). Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Academic journals Academic journals provide information about existing security technologies, deep dives into malware, and other detailed information about technologies. They don't specifically focus on analyzing threats within standards. C. Vendor's websites Vendor's websites usually have a page where they keep track of known vulnerabilities in their products and offer a notification process for new vulnerabilities. They don't provide detailed analysis of threats within standards. D. Conference presentations Conference presentations provide the latest information on vulnerabilities, trends, and recent hacks. They offer valuable insights but don't specifically focus on analyzing threats within standards. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-research/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following techniques can an attacker use to amplify the impact of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack? A. Zip bomb B. Rapid elasticity C. DDoS amplification D. Spanning Tree Protocol

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C DDoS amplification DDoS amplification is a technique used by attackers to increase the amount of traffic sent during a DDoS attack. This involves reflecting a specific type of protocol from one service onto the victim's machine. Examples of protocols that can be used for amplification include ICMP, DNS, and NTP. By sending a small amount of information into a service, the attacker can cause a much larger amount of information to be sent to the victim's computer, overwhelming their resources. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Zip bomb A zip bomb is a compressed file that expands to a much larger size when uncompressed. It is an example of an application Denial-of-Service attack and not a technique for amplifying a DDoS attack. B. Rapid elasticity Rapid elasticity is a feature of cloud-based services that automatically adds more resources as an application becomes busier. Attackers can exploit this feature to increase the costs and resource usage of the targeted service, but it is not a technique for amplifying a DDoS attack. D. Spanning Tree Protocol Spanning Tree Protocol is a network protocol that prevents loops in Ethernet networks. It is a recommended practice to avoid inadvertently causing network outages, but it is not a technique for amplifying a DDoS attack. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/denial-of-service-6/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes a hot site in the context of disaster recovery? A) A site with only racks and no equipment or data B) A site with some equipment and infrastructure, but not a complete replica of the production environment C) A site that is an exact replica of the production environment, including duplicate hardware and servers D) A site where you only need to bring configurations to plug into the provided equipment

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) A site that is an exact replica of the production environment, including duplicate hardware and servers A hot site is an exact replica of the production environment, which means it has duplicate hardware, servers, and all necessary infrastructure. The goal is to maintain synchronization between the production site and the hot site so that operations can be easily switched over in case of a disaster. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) A site with only racks and no equipment or data This describes a cold site, which is essentially an empty space with racks, but no equipment or data. To use a cold site, you would need to bring your own equipment, data, and personnel. B) A site with some equipment and infrastructure, but not a complete replica of the production environment This describes a warm site, which is somewhere between a hot site and a cold site. It has some equipment and infrastructure, but it's not a complete replica of the production environment. The extent of available equipment at a warm site is typically specified in the disaster recovery contract. D) A site where you only need to bring configurations to plug into the provided equipment This is also describing a warm site, where some equipment is available, and you only need to bring your configurations to plug into the provided equipment. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/site-resiliency/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary role of a Managed Security Service Provider (MSSP) in relation to cloud services? A) Providing network connectivity management B) Offering a Platform as a Service (PaaS) C) Focusing on IT security management for clients D) Ensuring the scalability of an organization's infrastructure"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Focusing on IT security management for clients An MSSP, or managed security service provider, is a niche of managed service providers (MSPs) that primarily focuses on IT security. They manage firewalls, add and remove rules from the firewall rule-base, provide patch management, conduct security audits of clients' systems, and offer emergency response services related to IT security. Incorrect Answers with Explanation: A) Providing network connectivity management While this is a traditional role of a managed service provider (MSP), it is not the primary focus of an MSSP, which specializes in IT security management. B) Offering a Platform as a Service (PaaS) Platform as a Service is a cloud computing model, not a primary role of an MSSP. It can be offered by some MSPs, but is not the main focus of MSSPs. D) Ensuring the scalability of an organization's infrastructure While MSPs may help with growth management and planning, this is not the primary role of an MSSP, which is focused on IT security management. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of a sandbox environment in the application development process? A) To train end-users on new features B) To perform final testing with production data C) To test the code in an isolated environment without affecting other parts of the system D) To establish a security baseline for the application

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) To test the code in an isolated environment without affecting other parts of the system Explanation: In the application development process, a sandbox environment is an isolated testing environment used by developers to test different aspects of the application they're building. They can try out various ideas and concepts with their code without worrying about affecting any other parts of the production environment or anything outside of development. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Training end-users on new features is a task performed when the application is transitioning into the production environment, not during the sandbox phase of development. B) Performing final testing with production data is part of the staging environment, not the sandbox environment. The staging environment tests the application in a real-world environment that closely resembles the production environment. D) Establishing a security baseline for the application is a crucial step before deploying the application into production. It is not the primary purpose of a sandbox environment, which focuses on code testing in isolation. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-deployments-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which resource is an ideal source for detailed information about attack types and insights into how people have dealt with them? A. National Vulnerability Database B. Vendor websites C. Academic journals D. RFC documents

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Academic journals Academic journals are ideal sources for detailed information about attack types and how people have dealt with them. These periodicals or online resources are authored by industry experts and provide in-depth knowledge about existing security technologies, evaluations of different security technologies, and insights into specific malware types, including their deconstruction and operation. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. National Vulnerability Database: While the National Vulnerability Database is a comprehensive database of vulnerabilities, it does not specifically focus on detailed information about attack types or how people have dealt with them. B. Vendor websites: Vendor websites are useful for learning about threats associated with specific operating systems or applications, as the vendors are the ones who create these products. However, they are not primarily focused on detailed information about attack types and people's experiences dealing with them. D. RFC documents: RFCs (Request for Comments) are documents that formalize a set of standards that anyone on the internet can use. They include various types of documents, such as Experimental, Best Current Practice, Standard Track, and Historic Documents. Some RFCs provide detailed analysis of certain types of threats, but they are not specifically focused on providing detailed information about attack types and how people have dealt with them. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-research/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following methods is commonly used by administrators to restrict the execution of applications based on specific criteria such as application hash, digital signature, or storage location? A. Fuzzing B. Static Application Security Testing (SAST) C. Allow and Deny Lists D. Code Signing

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Allow and Deny Lists Administrators often use allow and deny lists to control the execution of applications based on specific criteria. Applications in the allow list can run without any issue, while those not on the list are prevented from executing. Criteria can include application hash, digital signature, or storage location, among others. Incorrect Answers: A. Fuzzing Fuzzing is a dynamic analysis technique that involves inputting random data into an application to identify potential vulnerabilities such as buffer overflows or crashes. It does not restrict the execution of applications based on specific criteria. B. Static Application Security Testing (SAST) SAST is an automated process that analyzes the source code of an application to identify potential vulnerabilities like buffer overflows or database injections. It does not restrict the execution of applications based on specific criteria. D. Code Signing Code signing is a process that involves using a trusted certificate authority to sign a developer's public key. This allows users to verify that the application they are running is the original version deployed by the developer and has not been tampered with. It does not restrict the execution of applications based on specific criteria. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following social media attack vectors could be used to compromise multifactor authentication? A. Attaching a keylogger to a keyboard B. Inserting an infected USB drive into a computer C. Gaining information about a person's birthplace or school mascot from their profile D. Connecting an unauthorized wireless access point"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Gaining information about a person's birthplace or school mascot from their profile Attackers can gather a lot of information from social media profiles that could help them compromise multifactor authentication. By knowing where someone was born, when they were born, or the name of their school mascot based on their profile, attackers can use this information during a password reset to gain access to the target's account. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: A. Attaching a keylogger to a keyboard This is a direct access attack vector that involves recording the keystrokes made by a user, which can include usernames and passwords. Although it can be a security risk, it is not specifically related to social media or compromising multifactor authentication. B. Inserting an infected USB drive into a computer This attack vector involves infecting a system with malware or stealing data by connecting a USB drive to it. It does not directly involve social media or compromising multifactor authentication. D. Connecting an unauthorized wireless access point This wireless network attack vector involves plugging in an unauthorized access point to allow unauthorized users to connect to the network. This method does not specifically target social media or compromise multifactor authentication. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-vectors/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following threat actor categories is likely to have a lower level of sophistication in their attacks, but possesses insider knowledge of the organization's network and security tools? A. Nation State B. Hacktivist C. Insider D. Organized Crime"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Insider An insider threat actor may not have the same level of sophistication in their attacks as other threat actors, but they have the advantage of knowing the organization's network design, security tools, and where the data center is located. This allows them to target vulnerable systems or the ones they have the most access to (source). Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Nation State: Nation state threat actors are usually government entities with access to substantial resources and highly skilled technologists, making their attacks more sophisticated. B. Hacktivist: Hacktivist threat actors are often politically or socially motivated, and their attacks can be very sophisticated and focused on a single message or theme. D. Organized Crime: Organized crime threat actors are professional criminals with financial motivation. They often have the resources to hire the best hackers and conduct highly sophisticated attacks. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following methods can be used by an attacker to poison a DNS server? A. Modifying the host file on each individual device B. Performing an on-path attack to modify the query being sent to a client C. Modifying the DNS information on the legitimate DNS server itself D. Gaining access to the domain registrar's account and changing the domain configuration"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Modifying the DNS information on the legitimate DNS server itself An attacker can poison a DNS server by gaining access to it and modifying the DNS configuration files on the server. This causes subsequent requests to the DNS server to be responded to with incorrect IP addresses, effectively redirecting users to a malicious website controlled by the attacker. Incorrect Answers: A. Modifying the host file on each individual device While modifying the host file on each individual device can redirect traffic to an attacker's website, this method does not poison the DNS server itself. B. Performing an on-path attack to modify the query being sent to a client An on-path attack can be used to modify a query being sent to a client, but it does not poison the DNS server itself. D. Gaining access to the domain registrar's account and changing the domain configuration Gaining access to the domain registrar's account and changing the domain configuration can lead to domain hijacking. Although it affects how users access a website, it does not poison the DNS server itself. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/dns-attacks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following threat actors is primarily motivated by financial gain and often has a well-structured organization similar to a legitimate business? A. Hacktivist B. Script Kiddie C. Organized Crime D. Competitor

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Organized Crime - Organized crime refers to a group of professional criminals who are primarily motivated by financial gain. They often have access to significant funds and resources to carry out their attacks and maintain a well-structured organization similar to a legitimate business. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: A. Hacktivist - A hacktivist is a threat actor who is a combination of a hacker and an activist. They usually have a purpose or goal in performing attacks against a third party, which is commonly associated with a political or social message. Financial gain is not their primary motivation. B. Script Kiddie - A script kiddie is a threat actor who uses simple scripts to attempt to gain access to someone's network. They usually lack knowledge and experience in hacking and are motivated by the process itself or bragging rights, not financial gain. D. Competitor - A competitor is a threat actor who is interested in disrupting or causing harm to a rival business. They may have financial resources to apply towards these types of threats, but their primary motivation is to gain a competitive advantage, not solely financial gain. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of the staging environment in the application development process? A. To perform initial tests on the application's code B. To allow developers to test different aspects of the application in isolation C. To check the application's performance and features in a real-world environment D. To train end-users on the new features and changes in the application"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C. To check the application's performance and features in a real-world environment The staging environment is used before deploying the application into the production environment. It allows the team to test the application in a real-world environment, simulating the production environment's capabilities. This phase helps ensure the application's performance, features, and usability are tested, providing a final chance to identify and fix any issues before releasing the application to the end-users. Incorrect Answers: A. To perform initial tests on the application's code This describes the early stages of development when developers test the code in the sandbox environment. B. To allow developers to test different aspects of the application in isolation This is the purpose of the sandbox environment, which provides developers an isolated space to test different aspects of the application without affecting the production environment. D. To train end-users on the new features and changes in the application End-user training occurs after the application has been deployed to the production environment, not during the staging phase. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-deployments-2"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following sources of information can be useful for learning about new vulnerabilities and understanding attacker's tactics on social media? A. National Vulnerability Database B. Academic journals C. Twitter D. RFCs"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Twitter Twitter can be a valuable source of information about new vulnerabilities and attacks. Large hacker groups often share details about recent vulnerabilities they have discovered or attacks they have completed. You can also find honeypot accounts on Twitter that inform you when new exploits are being attempted against them. Additionally, the search feature on Twitter can be used to find discussions about specific vulnerabilities or threats. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. National Vulnerability Database: While the National Vulnerability Database is a comprehensive source of vulnerability information, it is not a social media platform. It is maintained by the National Institute of Standards and Technology and lists Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs). B. Academic journals: Academic journals provide in-depth information about existing security technologies and various aspects of security. Although they are valuable resources for understanding specific security aspects, they are not considered social media platforms. D. RFCs: Request for Comments (RFCs) are documents that track and formalize internet standards and methods of performing specific tasks. Some RFCs provide detailed analyses of certain types of threats, but they are not social media platforms for learning about new vulnerabilities and understanding attacker's tactics. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-research/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which cloud computing model allows organizations with similar goals to pool their resources together to create shared cloud services that all members can use? A) Public Cloud B) Private Cloud C) Hybrid Cloud D) Community Cloud

"Correct Answer with Explanation: D) Community Cloud A community cloud model is where several organizations with similar goals or interests pool their resources together to create a shared set of cloud services that all members can use. This allows them to share the costs and resources needed to create cloud services tailored to their specific needs. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Public Cloud: A public cloud service is available to anyone on the internet, making it accessible to everyone. This does not cater specifically to organizations with similar goals pooling resources together. B) Private Cloud: A private cloud service is internal to an organization's own data center and only accessible by the organization itself. This model does not involve multiple organizations sharing resources. C) Hybrid Cloud: A hybrid cloud model is a mix between public and private cloud models. An organization might use both public and private cloud services for different purposes, but this model does not involve multiple organizations pooling resources together for shared cloud services. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of the boot attestation process? A) Ensuring that the BIOS update comes from the manufacturer B) Verifying the digital signature of the operating system kernel C) Checking the digital signatures of hardware drivers D) Comparing the system's boot report to known trusted information"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: D) Comparing the system's boot report to known trusted information Boot attestation is a process where a device provides a central management server with a verification report, which includes information about the firmware, boot drivers, and other components loaded during the secure boot and trusted boot processes. The attestation server compares this information to known trusted information, allowing system administrators to identify if any unauthorized changes have occurred on the system. Incorrect Answers: A) Ensuring that the BIOS update comes from the manufacturer This is a function of the UEFI BIOS, which checks for a digital signature on BIOS updates to ensure they come from the manufacturer. B) Verifying the digital signature of the operating system kernel This is part of the trusted boot process, where the bootloader verifies the digital signature of the operating system kernel to ensure it has not been modified. C) Checking the digital signatures of hardware drivers This is part of the early launch anti-malware (ELAM) process, which checks the digital signatures of hardware drivers before loading them. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/boot-integrity/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is Information Rights Management (IRM) primarily used for in the context of data security? A) Encrypting data in transit B) Tokenizing sensitive data C) Protecting data at rest D) Restricting actions within documents

"Correct Answer with Explanation: D) Restricting actions within documents Information Rights Management (IRM) is a technology used to limit the scope of what users can do with a document. This includes preventing copying and pasting, controlling screenshots, managing the printing process, and restricting users from making changes to the document itself. The main goal of IRM is to ensure that even if an attacker gains access to a user's workstation, they can only manipulate the document based on the user's rights and permissions. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Encrypting data in transit: Data encryption in transit is achieved through technologies such as TLS (Transport Layer Security) and IPsec (Internet Protocol Security), not IRM. B) Tokenizing sensitive data: Tokenization is the process of replacing sensitive data, such as credit card numbers or Social Security numbers, with a completely different set of data to protect the original information. IRM does not perform tokenization. C) Protecting data at rest: Data at rest is protected through methods such as whole disk encryption, encryption built into databases, or assigning permissions to specific files and folders on storage devices. IRM does not protect data at rest. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/protecting-data/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the responsibilities of a user in a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud model? A. Managing the operating system, middleware, and runtime B. Developing and maintaining the applications and their data C. Configuring the operating system and writing the application D. Simply logging in and using the provided application

"Correct Answer with Explanation: D. Simply logging in and using the provided application In a Software as a Service (SaaS) model, the user's responsibility is to simply log in and use the provided application. The cloud service provider takes care of managing the operating system, application, and data. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Managing the operating system, middleware, and runtime - This is incorrect because in a SaaS model, the user is not responsible for managing these components. The cloud service provider takes care of this. B. Developing and maintaining the applications and their data - This is incorrect because in a SaaS model, the user is not responsible for developing or maintaining applications or data. The cloud service provider manages these. C. Configuring the operating system and writing the application - This is incorrect because in a SaaS model, the user is not responsible for configuring the operating system or writing the application. The cloud service provider takes care of this. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is object detection in the context of video surveillance? A) A camera feature that recognizes whether something moving through the camera range is an automobile or a person's face. B) A camera feature that constantly monitors an area and only informs you if there is motion detection. C) A camera feature that captures footage from multiple cameras and brings them back to a single recording device. D) A camera feature that recognizes when there is an emergency and immediately contacts authorities."

"Correct Answer: A) A camera feature that recognizes whether something moving through the camera range is an automobile or a person's face. Explanation: Object detection is a camera feature that can recognize whether something moving through the camera range is an automobile or a person's face and be able to lock onto that and track it as it moves from place to place. It is a useful tool for video surveillance in identifying specific objects or individuals in a given area. Incorrect Answer Explanation: B) This describes motion detection, which is a camera feature that constantly monitors an area and only informs you if there is motion detection. C) This describes a video surveillance feature that captures footage from multiple cameras and brings them back to a single recording device. D) This answer describes a hypothetical camera feature that recognizes when there is an emergency and immediately contacts authorities. While this could potentially be a feature of some video surveillance systems, it is not described in the text and is not a commonly implemented feature. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberAccess Policies:Which of the following password implementations is considered the strongest? A) A password that contains a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. B) A password that contains a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters and numbers. C) A password that contains a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters and a few special characters. D) A password that contains only lowercase letters and numbers.

"Correct Answer: A) A password that contains a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. Explanation: The strongest password implementation is one that contains a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters because it increases the entropy of the password and makes it more difficult to guess or perform a brute force attack. Using only lowercase letters and numbers or using only a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters and a few special characters would make the password less strong and easier to guess or attack. Incorrect Answer Explanation: B) A password that contains a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters and numbers - While this is a better password than using only lowercase letters and numbers, it's still not the strongest option because it lacks the additional complexity of special characters. C) A password that contains a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters and a few special characters - While this is better than using only uppercase and lowercase letters or only lowercase letters and numbers, it's still not the strongest implementation because it lacks the use of additional special characters. D) A password that contains only lowercase letters and numbers - This is not a strong password implementation because it lacks complexity and is easy to guess and attack. Reference:https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/password-security-4/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one potential consequence of a data breach? A) Decrease in the stock price of an organization. B) Increase in the amount of intellectual property owned by an organization. C) Decrease in the number of public disclosure laws. D) Increase in the number of organizations trusted to store data.

"Correct Answer: A) Decrease in the stock price of an organization. Explanation: One potential consequence of a data breach is damage to an organization's reputation, which could lead to a decrease in trust from the public and a subsequent decrease in the organization's stock price. Additionally, data breaches can result in fines, lawsuits, and the cost of providing credit monitoring for affected individuals. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: B) Increase in the amount of intellectual property owned by an organization - This answer is incorrect because a data breach could result in the loss or theft of intellectual property, not an increase in the amount owned. C) Decrease in the number of public disclosure laws - This answer is incorrect because data breaches often lead to an increase in public disclosure laws and regulations. D) Increase in the number of organizations trusted to store data - This answer is incorrect because a data breach can damage an organization's reputation and subsequently decrease the number of organizations trusted to store data. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of a potential security issue in the supply chain? A) Installing keyloggers on systems B) Using a VPN to access data C) Storing code on a centralized cloud-based server D) Applying encryption to healthcare data

"Correct Answer: A) Installing keyloggers on systems Explanation: Integrators who have access to a company's systems may have the ability to install malware or use software such as keyloggers, which would allow them to capture data directly from the network without needing to go through any type of security controls. It is important to maintain security controls for all aspects of the supply chain to prevent these types of security breaches. Explanation of incorrect answers: B) Using a VPN to access data: While using a VPN to access data is a way to secure access to data, it is not an example of a security issue in the supply chain. C) Storing code on a centralized cloud-based server: While storing code on a centralized cloud-based server is important, it is not an example of a security issue in the supply chain. D) Applying encryption to healthcare data: Applying encryption to healthcare data is important, but it is not an example of a security issue in the supply chain. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a method used to prevent broadcast storms on a switch network? A) Spanning Tree Protocol B) MAC filtering C) PortFast D) DHCP snooping

"Correct Answer: A) Spanning Tree Protocol Explanation: A broadcast storm can occur when there are many broadcasts traversing the network, causing every device on the network to examine the information inside each packet. Spanning Tree Protocol is a standard created by Radia Perlman to prevent loops on any type of switch network. It can also be used to control the amount of broadcasts on the network by blocking certain ports. This prevents broadcast storms and maintains the availability of the communication across the network. Incorrect Answer B) MAC filtering: MAC filtering allows the administrator to either allow or disallow traffic based on the MAC address that's communicating through the network. This is not related to broadcast storm prevention. Incorrect Answer C) PortFast: PortFast is a Cisco feature that can be used to reduce the time it takes for a device to be connected to the network. However, if someone plugs in a switch, this can create a loop over the connection. This is not related to broadcast storm prevention. Incorrect Answer D) DHCP snooping: DHCP snooping is used to prevent unauthorized DHCP servers from being connected to the network, which could cause a denial of service or a security issue. This is not related to broadcast storm prevention. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/port-security-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat does the term ""risk appetite"" refer to in IT security? A) The amount of risk a company may be willing to take B) The likelihood of an event occurring C) The consequences of an event D) The effectiveness of security controls"

"Correct Answer: A) The amount of risk a company may be willing to take Explanation: Risk appetite refers to the amount of risk that an organization is willing to take on, typically in pursuit of a specific objective. This can vary greatly depending on the company's objectives, resources, and overall strategy. For example, a startup may be willing to take on higher levels of risk in order to break into a new market, while a more established company may prioritize stability and minimize risk wherever possible. Incorrect Answers: B) The likelihood of an event occurring - This describes the probability of a particular risk event occurring, but is not directly related to risk appetite. C) The consequences of an event - While consequences of a particular risk event should inform an organization's risk decisions, it is not the same as risk appetite. D) The effectiveness of security controls - This describes the measure of how well security controls are working to mitigate risk, but is not directly related to risk appetite. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a key difference between a stateless firewall and a stateful firewall? A) A stateless firewall evaluates traffic based on session information, whereas a stateful firewall evaluates traffic based only on individual packet information. B) A stateless firewall evaluates traffic based on individual packet information, whereas a stateful firewall evaluates traffic based on session information. C) A stateless firewall is a more secure option than a stateful firewall. D) A stateful firewall requires more complex rule bases than a stateless firewall.

"Correct Answer: B Explanation: A stateless firewall doesn't have any idea about the flows of communication, so it needs a rule base that covers all communication in both directions. A stateful firewall, on the other hand, is much more secure and intelligent about how it allows traffic through the network. It evaluates traffic based on session information, which means it doesn't need a rule base that covers all communication in both directions, unlike a stateless firewall. Incorrect Answer A: This option describes a stateful firewall, not a stateless firewall. Incorrect Answer C: This option is incorrect as a stateful firewall is more secure than a stateless firewall. Incorrect Answer D: A stateless firewall requires a more complex rule base than a stateful firewall because it needs a rule base that covers all communication in both directions. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/firewalls-4/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberGeotagging Multiple Choice Practice Question:What is geotagging? A. A policy that uses geofencing to determine a user's physical location B. Location information added to the metadata of documents stored on a device C. A policy that locks a user's account after a certain number of incorrect login attempts D. A technique used to increase password entropy"

"Correct Answer: B Explanation: Geotagging is the act of adding location information (latitude and longitude coordinates) to the metadata of a document, such as a photo or video, stored on a device. This allows users to easily view where the document was created or captured. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A. Geofencing is a policy that sets restrictions based on a user's physical location. C. Account lockout policies prevent brute force attacks by locking an account after a certain number of incorrect login attempts. D. Password entropy refers to the measure of how unpredictable a password is, which can be increased through techniques such as using a mix of character types and lengthy phrases. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/user-and-password-policies/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes obfuscation? A) Obfuscation is the process of making information impossible to understand. B) Obfuscation is the process of making information more difficult to understand. C) Obfuscation is the process of making information more accessible. D) Obfuscation is a way of storing information in plaintext.

"Correct Answer: B Explanation: Obfuscation is the process of taking something that would commonly be relatively easy to understand and making it very difficult to understand. This doesn't make it impossible to understand. But it does make it a lot more difficult for humans to be able to look at or read through some information and be able to understand exactly what that information is saying. Incorrect Answers: A) This is incorrect because obfuscation doesn't make information impossible to understand; it just makes it more difficult to understand. C) This is incorrect because obfuscation doesn't make information more accessible; it makes it less accessible. D) This is incorrect because obfuscation doesn't involve storing information in plaintext. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/steganography-4/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the command to view the last five lines of a file? A) head -n 5 filename B) tail -n 5 filename (CORRECT) C) cat filename | more D) grep ""text"" filename"

"Correct Answer: B Explanation: The tail command allows you to view the last part of a file, while the head command allows you to view the first part of a file. To view the last five lines of a file, use the command ""tail -n 5 filename"". Option A is incorrect because the head command is used to view the first part of a file. Option C is incorrect because it pipes the contents of the file to the more command, allowing you to view the contents of the file a page at a time. Option D is incorrect because grep is used to search for a specific pattern or text within a file. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following can the Mobile Device Manager (MDM) control with regards to USB OTG (On-The-Go)? A) Limit the number of times it can be used B) Block all access to USB OTG C) Configure USB OTG access based on user location D) Allow unrestricted access to USB OTG

"Correct Answer: B) Block all access to USB OTG Explanation: The Mobile Device Manager (MDM) can allow or disallow access to USB OTG from a mobile device. Therefore, the MDM can block all access to USB OTG if they believe this feature poses a security risk. They could also configure USB OTG access based on device-level or user-level policies. A is incorrect because there is no option to limit the number of times USB OTG can be used. C is incorrect because the Mobile Device Manager (MDM) can't configure USB OTG access based on user location because USB OTG doesn't interact with GPS data. D is incorrect because unrestricted access to USB OTG isn't a security best practice. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a common vulnerability associated with cloud-based data storage? A) Outdated operating systems on legacy systems B) Inadequate encryption protocols C) Default usernames and passwords on IoT devices D) Weaknesses in firewall rule sets

"Correct Answer: B) Inadequate encryption protocols Explanation: Cloud-based data storage has become increasingly popular in recent years, and it's important to ensure that the proper security measures are in place to protect sensitive data stored in the cloud. One common vulnerability associated with cloud-based data storage is inadequate encryption protocols. Just because data is encrypted doesn't necessarily mean it's well protected; it's important to use strong encryption protocols, such as AES and triple DES, and ensure that the length of the encryption key is sufficient. In addition, it's important to avoid using outdated hashes and to keep up to date with the latest wireless encryption protocols when communicating over a wireless network. A) Outdated operating systems on legacy systems is not directly related to cloud-based vulnerabilities and is not the correct answer. C) Default usernames and passwords on IoT devices are a common vulnerability, but it's not specifically associated with cloud-based data storage, and therefore, it is not the correct answer. D) Weaknesses in firewall rule sets are another common vulnerability, but it is not specifically related to cloud-based data storage, and therefore, it is not the correct answer. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a common constraint for authentication on embedded devices? A) Limited CPU power B) Limited cryptographic capabilities C) Limited networking options D) Limited access to the operating system

"Correct Answer: B) Limited cryptographic capabilities Explanation: The text states that these low cost embedded devices don't have a lot of additional cryptographic capabilities, and that there's usually no additional cryptography hardware on that device unless it's been designed that way from the very beginning. Authentication on embedded devices may be limited due to this constraint. Incorrect Answers: A) Limited CPU power is a constraint related to the processing power of the device and may impact performance, but it is not directly related to authentication. C) Limited networking options are a constraint related to the type of communication that the device can use and may impact the way the device is able to communicate with other systems, but it is not directly related to authentication. D) Limited access to the operating system is a constraint that may impact the ability to audit and maintain the device, but it is not directly related to authentication. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-constraints/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following allows for management of applications on mobile devices while still maintaining security posture on those devices? A) HSM B) MAM C) SEAndroid D) UEM

"Correct Answer: B) MAM Explanation: Mobile Application Management (MAM) allows for management of applications on mobile devices while still maintaining security posture on those devices. It allows managing the applications that are running on those mobile devices. For example, organizations can maintain an app catalog that's specific to them, and one can connect to the corporate app catalog, download the applications that they need to use, and use those. This allows administrators to monitor how the applications are being used and if there are any problems with the applications. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) HSM: The Hardware Security Module is a physical device that provides cryptographic features for one's computer. While it provides security for cryptographic functions, it is not related to MAM or UEM. C) SEAndroid: Security Enhancements for Android (SEAndroid) prevents direct access to the Android operating system's kernel by protecting privileged demons. It is a security feature, but it is not related to MAM or UEM. D) UEM: Unified Endpoint Management (UEM) is used to maintain security across all of various devices such as tablets, mobiles, etc. While it provides security management to devices, it is not related to the management of applications running on those devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-security-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a challenge associated with patching embedded devices? A) The devices often require high-speed CPU B) The devices have limited cryptographic capabilities C) The devices have physical keyboard and mouse D) The devices have direct access to the operating system

"Correct Answer: B) The devices have limited cryptographic capabilities Explanation: Patching embedded devices can be a challenge due to their limited cryptographic capabilities. The CPU on these devices is often limited, and there may be no additional cryptography hardware on the device, making it difficult to add or change cryptographic functionality. Additionally, these devices may not have a physical keyboard or mouse and may not have direct access to the operating system, making it difficult to perform tasks such as firmware upgrades. Incorrect Answers: A) The devices often require high-speed CPU: This is not correct. Low-speed CPUs tend to create less heat, and this may be an advantage, especially for smaller devices. C) The devices have physical keyboard and mouse: This is not correct. Many of these purpose-built devices have no physical keyboard or mouse, which complicates their upgradability. D) The devices have direct access to the operating system: This is not correct. With many of these embedded devices, you don't have direct access to the operating system or the software that's running on that device, making it difficult to audit the device or make sure the operating system is up to date. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-constraints/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a false acceptance rate (FAR) in biometric authentication? A) The rate at which an authorized user is rejected by the biometric system. B) The rate at which an unauthorized user is approved by the biometric system. C) The rate at which both authorized and unauthorized users are rejected by the biometric system. D) The rate at which both authorized and unauthorized users are approved by the biometric system.

"Correct Answer: B) The rate at which an unauthorized user is approved by the biometric system. Explanation: False acceptance rate (FAR) is a metric used in biometric authentication to measure how often an unauthorized user is approved by the system by looking at biometric values. This is obviously not something you would want to happen in your network, as it could result in a security breach. Therefore, it's common to increase the sensitivity of the biometric reader to reduce the FAR. The false rejection rate (FRR) is the opposite of FAR, measuring how often an authorized user is rejected by the biometric system. The crossover error rate (CER) is the point where the FAR and the FRR meet right in the middle, indicating a good balance between the two rates. Incorrect Answers: A) The rate at which an authorized user is rejected by the biometric system - This is the false rejection rate (FRR). C) The rate at which both authorized and unauthorized users are rejected by the biometric system - This is not a defined term, as there are separate metrics for measuring the rejection of authorized and unauthorized users (FRR and FAR, respectively). D) The rate at which both authorized and unauthorized users are approved by the biometric system - This is not a defined term, as there are separate metrics for measuring the approval of authorized and unauthorized users (FRR and FAR, respectively). Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a CASB? A. A security appliance that's local on our corporate network B. A physical firewall used in a cloud environment C. A cloud access security broker used to enforce security policies for data stored in the cloud D. A software that's running on individual devices

"Correct Answer: C Explanation: A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a software tool or service that sits between an organization's on-premises infrastructure and a cloud provider's infrastructure. The CASB provides visibility, compliance, and security between the cloud provider and the organization. The CASB can also be used to enforce security policies that have been created. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A. A security appliance refers to a hardware device, while a CASB is a software tool, so this option is incorrect. B. While firewalls, physical or virtual, provide security in cloud environments, they are not referred to as CASB, so this option is incorrect. D. There is no mention of a software that's running on individual devices that performs the same functions as a CASB in the text, so this option is incorrect. Reference:https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-solutions/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is true about quantum computing? A) Quantum computing uses classical physics to perform calculations B) Quantum computing is an upgrade to existing computing systems C) Quantum bits are somewhere between 1 and 0 at the same time D) Quantum computing is not scalable

"Correct Answer: C Explanation: In quantum computing, we have something called quantum bits, or qubits. These bits are not 1s, and they're not 0s, but instead, they exist somewhere in the middle between 1 and 0. They are effectively a 0 and a 1 at the same time. This is what makes quantum computing so complex and powerful. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This is false. Quantum computing is not based on classical physics, but uses quantum physics instead. B) This is false. Quantum computing is not an upgrade to existing computing systems, but is an entirely new way of performing calculations. D) This is false. Quantum computing is highly scalable due to the nature of qubits, which means it's possible to represent a very large number of values using a relatively small number of qubits. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/quantum-computing/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a benefit of using cloud native controls over third-party solutions in a cloud environment? A) More granular control over user access B) Easier integration with existing systems C) Reduced risk of vendor lock-in D) Better compatibility with legacy applications

"Correct Answer: C Explanation: One of the benefits of using cloud native controls over third-party solutions in a cloud environment is reduced risk of vendor lock-in. Using cloud native controls means that you are using the tools and services provided by your cloud provider, which reduces the risk of getting locked into a specific vendor's solution. Third-party solutions may be less compatible with other services and may be more difficult to integrate with existing systems. Incorrect Answers: A) More granular control over user access is not a benefit of using cloud native controls over third-party solutions. Both options can provide granular control over user access. B) Easier integration with existing systems is not a benefit of using cloud native controls over third-party solutions. Third-party solutions can be specifically designed for easy integration with existing systems. D) Better compatibility with legacy applications is not a benefit of using cloud native controls over third-party solutions. Third-party solutions can be specifically designed for compatibility with legacy applications. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-controls/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true regarding patch management in operating systems? A) Patch management is not important in operating systems. B) Patch management is important only for third-party applications. C) Security patches and fixes are automatically deployed to systems, and many operating systems have monthly updates. D) Auto-updates are always recommended for enterprise environments.

"Correct Answer: C Explanation: Patch management is important in operating systems, and it is a standard part of the operating system that is built into the scheduling and automated systems within the OS. Security patches and fixes are automatically deployed to systems, and many operating systems have monthly updates. This helps keep the update process manageable for the operating system administrators and ensures that all systems are up-to-date and protected from vulnerabilities. While auto-updates can be useful, it's not always recommended for enterprise environments as the IT department may first test all updates before pushing them out to ensure they don't cause any problems. Incorrect Answers: A) Patch management is not important in operating systems - This statement is false. Patch management is important in operating systems to ensure that the operating system and its components are up to date with the latest versions and protected from vulnerabilities. B) Patch management is important only for third-party applications - This statement is false. Patch management is important for both operating systems and third-party applications to ensure that all software is up to date and protected from vulnerabilities. D) Auto-updates are always recommended for enterprise environments - This statement is false. While auto-updates can be useful, it's not always recommended for enterprise environments as the IT department may first test all updates before pushing them out to ensure they don't cause any problems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is the best way to centrally manage secrets in a cloud-based environment? A) Store all secrets in a single file on a shared drive that is accessible by all members of the organization. B) Allow everyone in the organization to access all secrets, but only allow them to use the secrets if they have a valid need. C) Have a separate service that manages all secrets for everyone in the organization, and only allow access to secrets specific to each user's job function. D) Require each user to keep track of their own secrets in whatever way they choose."

"Correct Answer: C Explanation: The most secure and efficient way to manage secrets in a cloud-based environment is to have a separate service that manages all secrets for everyone in the organization. This allows you to limit access to secrets based on each user's job function, and provides a centralized location for managing all secrets. It is important to limit what type of secrets are available to each user, and to have an audit trail and logging to track who has accessed which secrets. Storing all secrets in a single file on a shared drive or requiring each user to keep track of their own secrets are both insecure and inefficient methods of managing secrets. Incorrect Answers: A) Storing all secrets in a single file on a shared drive is not secure or efficient, as it provides little control over who can access the secrets and no way to track who has accessed them. B) Allowing everyone to access all secrets is not secure or efficient, as it provides no way to limit access to specific secrets based on job function. D) Requiring each user to keep track of their own secrets is not secure or efficient, as it provides no centralized location for managing secrets and no way to limit access to specific secrets based on job function. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-controls/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes how a digital signature is created and verified? A) The sender encrypts the message with their private key and the receiver decrypts the message with the sender's public key. B) The sender hashes the message with their private key and the receiver hashes the message with the sender's public key. C) The sender encrypts the hash with their private key and the receiver decrypts the hash with the sender's public key. D) The sender hashes the message and the receiver decrypts the hash with the sender's private key."

"Correct Answer: C Explanation: To create a digital signature, the sender first hashes the plain text message with a hashing algorithm. Next, the sender encrypts the hash that was just created with their private key. This encrypted hash is what the sender sends along with the plain text message; this combination of plain text and digital signature is what the receiver will see. To verify the signature, the receiver first decrypts the digital signature with the sender's public key. The decrypted signature is then compared with a new hash of the received plain text message. If the two hashes match, then the message is identical to what the sender originally hashed and digitally signed, and it was not modified in transit. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This option describes encryption and decryption of the message itself, which is not how digital signatures work. B) This option describes two parties hashing the message with each other's keys, which is not a correct description of digital signatures. D) This option describes the receiver decrypting a hash with the sender's private key, which is not how digital signatures are verified. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/hashing-and-digital-signatures-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a walkthrough? A) A process of testing your incident response team by simulating a security incident in a controlled environment B) A tabletop exercise where all stakeholders are involved in the planning process for security events C) A process of testing all processes and procedures by using all tools and resources available to respond to a security incident D) An ongoing simulation to see how people in your organization respond to a simulated phishing attack or a password request

"Correct Answer: C Explanation:A walkthrough is a process of testing all processes and procedures by using all the tools and resources that respond to a security incident. This allows you to go through every process and procedure and see how it would work if you were to actually perform it. It involves all the different parts of the organization and tests whether all the software and hardware you're using is up to date and working properly. It is an extension of tabletop exercises and helps to find logistical issues more effectively. Incorrect Answers: A) This describes a controlled and simulated environment where an incident response team is tested. B) This is a tabletop exercise where all stakeholders are involved in the planning process for security events. D) This is an ongoing simulation to see how people in your organization respond to a simulated phishing attack or a password request. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) framework, and who developed it? A) A framework for commercial implementations, developed by NIST. B) A standard for Information Security Management Systems, developed by ISO/IEC. C) A framework for security in the cloud, developed by the Cloud Security Alliance. D) An auditing standard for trust services criteria, developed by the AICPA.

"Correct Answer: C Explanation:The Cloud Security Alliance created the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) framework to provide a comprehensive set of controls based on best practices aligned with various security standards. The framework maps controls to standards, regulations, and best practices required for securing cloud computing. It includes methodologies and metrics for assessing an organization's cloud security capabilities, build a roadmap, and improve the security of its cloud infrastructure. Incorrect Answers: A) A framework for commercial implementations, developed by NIST. This answer describes the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, not the Cloud Controls Matrix. B) A standard for Information Security Management Systems, developed by ISO/IEC. This answer describes the ISO/IEC 27001 standard for Information Security Management Systems, not the Cloud Controls Matrix. D) An auditing standard for trust services criteria, developed by the AICPA. This answer describes the SOC 2 auditing standard for trust services criteria, not the Cloud Controls Matrix. Reference: https://cloudsecurityalliance.org/research/cloud-controls-matrix/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a concern with rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device? A. It could cause the device to stop working altogether. B. It could allow for easy side loading of apps. C. It could limit the control of the MDM administrator. D. It could breach carrier lock settings.

"Correct Answer: C When a user roots or jailbreaks their mobile device, they gain access to the operating system and are able to go outside the scope of the App Store and download and install apps directly. This also means that the MDM administrator doesn't have much control over the security systems in place. Limiting control for the MDM administrator is a concern with rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device. Incorrect Answers: A. Rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device may cause problems, but it will not necessarily cause the device to stop working altogether. B. Side loading of apps is actually made easier when rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device, making this a potential benefit rather than a concern. D. Breaching carrier lock settings is also possible with rooting or jailbreaking, but it is not mentioned as a concern in this specific text. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Faraday cage? A) A cage used to trap animals that could interfere with electronic equipment B) A type of firewall that blocks all incoming network traffic C) A method of signal suppression that restricts or prevents radio signals from traversing through D) A type of authentication protocol used to verify a user's identity"

"Correct Answer: C) A method of signal suppression that restricts or prevents radio signals from traversing through Explanation of Correct Answer: A Faraday cage is a mesh of conductive material that restricts or prevents radio signals from traversing through. It is a physical security control used to protect against electromagnetic interference. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Incorrect because a Faraday cage is not used to trap animals that could interfere with electronic equipment. B) Incorrect because a Faraday cage is not a firewall that blocks all incoming network traffic. D) Incorrect because a Faraday cage is not a type of authentication protocol used to verify a user's identity. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes fuzzing? A) A technique for identifying vulnerabilities in application code by examining the source code for potential security flaws. B) A process that ensures all data input into an application is within the defined scope of what it should be. C) A method of testing that involves randomizing input into an application to identify potential vulnerabilities. D) A list of applications that have been tested and can be trusted to not contain malicious software.

"Correct Answer: C) A method of testing that involves randomizing input into an application to identify potential vulnerabilities. Explanation of Correct Answer: Fuzzing is a technique used in testing an application's security by providing it with random data inputs to identify vulnerabilities. The attackers can use fuzzers to inject random data and identify the unexpected behavior of the application to exploit its vulnerabilities. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This answer describes Static Application Security Testing (SAST), which is a technique for identifying vulnerabilities in the application code by analyzing the source code for security flaws. B) This answer describes normalization, a process that ensures all data input into an application is within the defined scope of what it should be. D) This answer describes allow and deny lists, which are used to specify a list of applications that are allowed or not allowed to execute on a system based on specific criteria. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis? A) A framework for understanding pre-compromise mitigations B) A mathematical framework for understanding intrusion analysis C) A model designed to help understand intrusions that have occurred D) A framework for understanding the stages of a cyber kill chain

"Correct Answer: C) A model designed to help understand intrusions that have occurred Explanation: The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a model designed to help understand intrusions that have already occurred. It was created by the US federal government's intelligence community and uses scientific principles to help focus on understanding more about these intrusions. The Diamond Model includes four corners: adversary, capability, victim, and infrastructure. There is a relationship between each of these points on the diamond, and documentation is filled in at each one of these points to help understand more about who the adversary was, what part of the infrastructure they used, who was the specific victim, and what capabilities did they use to be able to gain access. This helps to better understand how the attack occurred so that it can be prevented in the future. Incorrect Answers: A) A framework for understanding pre-compromise mitigations: This is incorrect, as the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is not specifically focused on pre-compromise mitigations. B) A mathematical framework for understanding intrusion analysis: This is incorrect, as the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is not specifically a mathematical framework. D) A framework for understanding the stages of a cyber kill chain: This is incorrect, as the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is not specifically focused on the stages of a cyber kill chain. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-frameworks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is nmap? A) A threat intelligence platform B) A malware scanner C) A port scanner D) A firewall

"Correct Answer: C) A port scanner Explanation: Nmap (Network Mapper) is a free and open-source tool used for network exploration and security auditing. It scans networks to identify hosts and the services they are running, as well as the operating systems they are using. It also discovers open ports on the host's system. Incorrect Answers: A) A threat intelligence platform: This is incorrect because nmap is not a threat intelligence platform. Threat intelligence platforms are used to collect and analyze threat data in order to improve cybersecurity posture. B) A malware scanner: This is incorrect because nmap is not a malware scanner. Malware scanners are used to detect and remove malware from systems. D) A firewall: This is incorrect because nmap is not a firewall. Firewalls are used to protect networks by controlling incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)? A) A regulation created by the Payment Card Industry to provide protection for credit card transactions. B) A set of guidelines for managing access control in organizations that store credit card information. C) A set of rules and regulations that allow someone in the EU to control what happens with their private information. D) A series of regulations regarding the type of data that an organization saves.

"Correct Answer: C) A set of rules and regulations that allow someone in the EU to control what happens with their private information. Explanation: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a set of rules and regulations created by the European Union to provide protection for individuals' private information. It allows individuals to control what happens with their private information and requires websites to provide detailed information about their privacy policy. Option A is referring to the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), which is focused on protecting credit card transactions. Option B is a part of the PCI DSS guidelines that focuses on managing access control in organizations that store credit card information. Option D is a general statement about compliance regulations and does not specifically refer to GDPR. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-regulations-and-standards-sy0-601-comptia-security-5-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes a USB data blocker? A) A software application that detects and blocks malicious USB devices from connecting to a computer B) A device that blocks physical access to USB ports on a computer C) A small cable that connects to the power lines of a USB connection and not the data connections D) A type of encryption method used to secure USB data transfers

"Correct Answer: C) A small cable that connects to the power lines of a USB connection and not the data connections Explanation of correct answer: A USB data blocker is a small cable that connects to a USB port and only allows for power transfer, while blocking data transfer. This is useful to prevent juice jacking, an exploit where a charging USB port also transfers data without the user's knowledge. By only allowing the power transfer, the user can charge their device without the risk of data theft. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) While there are software applications that can detect and block malicious USB devices, this is not a USB data blocker. B) A physical USB port blocker prevents physical access to the USB ports on a computer. This is different from a USB data blocker that only blocks data transfer. D) Encryption methods can be used to secure data transfers, but a USB data blocker is a physical device that blocks data transfer altogether. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card? A) A device that provides remote access to HVAC systems in a building. B) A device used to remotely control drones. C) A small chip used in mobile devices to authenticate the device and subscriber to a mobile network. D) A specialized sensor used in aircraft to monitor various aspects of the aircraft.

"Correct Answer: C) A small chip used in mobile devices to authenticate the device and subscriber to a mobile network. Explanation: A Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card is a small chip that is inserted into a mobile device and is used to authenticate the device and subscriber to a mobile network. SIM cards store information such as the subscriber's phone number, network authorization data, and user security keys. This allows mobile network providers to ensure that only authorized users can access their networks. Incorrect Answers: A) A device that provides remote access to HVAC systems in a building - This answer describes a remote access device for HVAC systems and is not related to SIM cards. B) A device used to remotely control drones - This answer describes a device used to remotely control drones and is not related to SIM cards. D) A specialized sensor used in aircraft to monitor various aspects of the aircraft - This answer describes a specialized sensor used in aircraft to monitor various aspects of the aircraft and is not related to SIM cards. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-security-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Next-generation secure web gateway (SWG)? A) A firewall that is only available for cloud-based applications B) An application that is used for cloud-based data loss prevention C) A tool that provides security for all users across all devices, regardless of where they are connecting from D) An SWG is not used in cloud security

"Correct Answer: C) A tool that provides security for all users across all devices, regardless of where they are connecting from Explanation: The Next-generation secure web gateway (SWG) is a tool that provides security for all users across all devices, regardless of where they are connecting from. It provides detailed information about how API's are being queried, examines API calls, looks at the JSON strings, provides granular controls for individual users or groups of users, and can examine exactly what type of API requests are being made. It can make a decision about whether this type of traffic is allowed or if it might be malicious. Additionally, the secure web gateway gets into the details of the data that is being transferred through the network. It also allows us to control exactly what data is being transferred. Therefore, Option C is the correct answer. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This option is incorrect because the text specifically says that firewalls in a cloud-based environment do not need physical components. B) This option is incorrect because data loss prevention can be implemented on a cloud access security broker (CASB); whereas, the SWG provides security solutions for cloud users. D) This option is incorrect because an SWG is used in cloud security. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-solutions/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a common directory service used by many operating systems? A) Secure Shell (SSH) B) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) C) Active Directory (AD) D) Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

"Correct Answer: C) Active Directory (AD) Explanation: Active Directory (AD) is a common directory service used by many operating systems. AD stores usernames, passwords, computers, printers, and other devices that might be connected to the network in a central database, which is distributed across multiple devices. It is commonly used with the Kerberos protocol or LDAP to access the database from an external device. Option A) SSH and Option B) RDP are remote access protocols, not directory services. Option D) LDAP is a protocol used to access directory services, but it is not a directory service itself. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) Secure Shell (SSH) - SSH is a remote access protocol used to access a remote device's command-line interface. B) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) - RDP is a remote access protocol used to access a remote desktop environment. D) Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) - LDAP is a protocol used to access directory services. While LDAP can be used to access Active Directory, it is not a directory service itself. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA)? A) An assessment of an organization's financial impact if a data breach occurs. B) An assessment of an organization's reputation impact if a data breach occurs. C) An assessment of how new processes or products will affect the privacy of customers' data. D) An assessment of how new processes or products will affect the profitability of the organization."

"Correct Answer: C) An assessment of how new processes or products will affect the privacy of customers' data. Explanation: A Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) is an assessment of how new processes or products will affect the privacy of customers' data. It helps organizations understand how the data flows will occur prior to implementing these particular projects, so they have the ability to fix these privacy concerns before they actually become an issue. This also gives organizations a chance to show others how they're taking care of their data, and they can show them the process they went through to ensure that all of their data remains private. This privacy impact assessment might also allow organizations to stop a data breach since they can find all of these privacy concerns prior to implementing this project. Incorrect Answers: A) An assessment of an organization's financial impact if a data breach occurs - While the financial impact of a data breach is an important consideration, a Privacy Impact Assessment is specifically focused on assessing the impact on the privacy of customers' data. B) An assessment of an organization's reputation impact if a data breach occurs - While the reputation impact of a data breach is an important consideration, a Privacy Impact Assessment is specifically focused on assessing the impact on the privacy of customers' data. D) An assessment of how new processes or products will affect the profitability of the organization - While the profitability impact of new processes or products is an important consideration, a Privacy Impact Assessment is specifically focused on assessing the impact on the privacy of customers' data. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is an RTOS? A) An operating system that allows any process to take control of the system B) An operating system that is designed to work on a very indeterminate schedule C) An operating system that is designed to work on a very deterministic schedule D) An operating system that is designed for personal computers

"Correct Answer: C) An operating system that is designed to work on a very deterministic schedule. Explanation: RTOS stands for Real-Time Operating System. It is an operating system that is designed to work on a very deterministic schedule. This means that the hardware and software of this device is able to operate with very specific scheduling. There's no process on this particular device that would override or take control of the system and not allow other parts of the system to operate. A good example of this is the Real-Time Operating System that's used for the anti-lock brakes that are in our automobiles because those need very specific updates on the wheel slippage that is occurring when someone's trying to brake their car. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because an RTOS doesn't allow any process to take control of the system. Option B is incorrect because an RTOS is designed to work on a very deterministic schedule, not an indeterminate schedule. Option D is incorrect because RTOS is not designed for personal computers, but for embedded systems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of a person-made disaster? A) Earthquake B) Tornado C) Arson D) Flood

"Correct Answer: C) Arson Explanation: Person-made disasters refer to the disasters that humans cause intentionally or unintentionally, such as arson, crime, fires, and other concerns. Earthquakes, tornadoes, and floods are natural disasters caused by natural forces. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Earthquake: Earthquakes are natural disasters caused by the movement of tectonic plates beneath the Earth's surface. B) Tornado: Tornadoes are natural disasters caused by atmospheric conditions that create powerful rotating wind funnels. D) Flood: Floods are also natural disasters caused by excessive rainfall, coastal storms, or the overflow of rivers and lakes. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a feature of a network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS)? A) Analyzes traffic in a passive monitoring mode B) Only alerts when a problem occurs C) Blocks traffic in real-time as it goes through the IPS D) Cannot identify unusual network behavior

"Correct Answer: C) Blocks traffic in real-time as it goes through the IPS Explanation: A network-based intrusion prevention system is designed to look at traffic going through your network and block or mitigate known attacks in real-time. Unlike an intrusion detection system, which only alerts when a problem occurs and does not commonly have a way to block that communication in real-time, an intrusion prevention system has the ability to block information in real-time as it's going through the IPS. This prevention capability is valuable in ensuring that no malicious traffic gets into your network. A is incorrect because passive monitoring mode does not allow for real-time blocking of traffic. B is incorrect because an intrusion detection system only alerts when a problem occurs and does not block traffic in real-time. D is incorrect because anomaly-based detection can identify unusual network behavior and trigger the IPS to block traffic. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/intrusion-prevention/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)? A) Contractual agreement with a third-party to evaluate one's social media presence B) Security policy for minimizing risk in an organization C) Confidentiality agreement between two parties on what information can be shared D) Screening done prior to employment to verify information"

"Correct Answer: C) Confidentiality agreement between two parties on what information can be shared Explanation of Correct Answer: A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) is a confidentiality agreement between two parties on what information can be shared. This is a common contract used to ensure privacy between two parties. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Contractual agreement with a third-party to evaluate one's social media presence - This is incorrect because it refers to a different concept, social media analysis, which is not related to a Non-Disclosure Agreement. B) Security policy for minimizing risk in an organization - This is incorrect because it refers to a different concept, security policy, which is not related to a Non-Disclosure Agreement. D) Screening done prior to employment to verify information - This is incorrect because it refers to a different concept, background check, which is not related to a Non-Disclosure Agreement. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What are secure cookies? A) Cookies that are encrypted and can only be accessed by the user who created them B) Cookies that are stored in a secure folder on the user's computer C) Cookies that have an attribute marked as ""secure"" and are sent over an encrypted connection using HTTPS D) Cookies that store sensitive information and are only accessible to trusted users"

"Correct Answer: C) Cookies that have an attribute marked as ""secure"" and are sent over an encrypted connection using HTTPS. Explanation: Secure cookies are cookies that have an attribute marked as ""secure"" and are sent over an encrypted connection using HTTPS. This ensures that the information stored in the cookie is protected and cannot be intercepted by unauthorized parties. It's important to note that while secure cookies are designated as such, the information they contain doesn't necessarily need to be sensitive or private. Secure cookies are commonly used to keep track of information that is only used for a limited amount of time, such as session management information or tracking details. The use of secure cookies helps to ensure the security of this information during transmission. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) Cookies that are encrypted and can only be accessed by the user who created them - This answer is incorrect because it doesn't specifically refer to cookies that have the ""secure"" attribute marked on them. While cookies can be encrypted and may only be accessible by the user who created them, this doesn't necessarily mean that they are ""secure"" cookies. B) Cookies that are stored in a secure folder on the user's computer - This answer is also incorrect because it doesn't refer to the ""secure"" attribute on cookies or their transmission over an encrypted connection. D) Cookies that store sensitive information and are only accessible to trusted users - This answer is incorrect because it implies that all ""secure"" cookies store sensitive information and are only accessible to trusted users, which is not necessarily the case. Secure cookies are simply cookies that have an attribute marked as ""secure"" and are sent over an encrypted connection using HTTPS. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a common technique used in Penetration Testing to gain access to a system? A) Installing Antivirus software on the system B) Performing regular backups of the system C) Creating a backdoor or pivot point to gain access later D) Scanning the system for open ports

"Correct Answer: C) Creating a backdoor or pivot point to gain access later Explanation: Creating a backdoor or pivot point is a common technique used in Penetration Testing to gain access to a system. After gaining access, the tester may reconfigure an existing account, change or configure default passwords for a particular service, or create a backdoor to allow access to the system later, even if the exploit is fixed. This is done to test the organization's ability to detect and respond to an attacker who has gained access to the system. The other options, such as installing antivirus software, performing regular backups, and scanning for open ports, are all important security measures, but they are not specific to Penetration Testing. Incorrect Answers: A) Installing Antivirus software on the system - Installing antivirus software is an important security measure to protect against malware and other threats, but it is not a technique used in Penetration Testing to gain access to a system. B) Performing regular backups of the system - Performing regular backups is important to protect against data loss and other issues, but it is not a technique used in Penetration Testing to gain access to a system. D) Scanning the system for open ports - Scanning the system for open ports is an important security measure to identify potential vulnerabilities, but it is not a technique used in Penetration Testing to gain access to a system. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following security features of DNS ensures that the information came from the correct server and was not changed as it traversed the network? A) DNS redirection B) DNS poisoning C) DNSSEC D) DNS caching

"Correct Answer: C) DNSSEC Explanation: DNSSEC is the domain name system security extension that provides a way to validate the information received from a DNS server so that it really did come from the server that was requested and that the information was not changed as it went through the network. This is done using public key cryptography to add digital signatures to the information being added to a DNS server. The recipient can then verify the information based on these digital signatures. Incorrect answers: A) DNS redirection: This security exploit allows attackers to redirect traffic to their preferred server. B) DNS poisoning: This security exploit allows attackers to modify DNS records and redirect traffic. D) DNS caching: This is a mechanism used by DNS servers to store previously resolved queries to reduce the time required to resolve a domain name's IP address. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one potential consequence of a data breach? A) An increase in stock price for a public company B) Improved customer loyalty and trust C) Damage to an organization's reputation D) Decreased likelihood of a future breach"

"Correct Answer: C) Damage to an organization's reputation Explanation: One potential consequence of a data breach is damage to an organization's reputation. This can impact trust in the organization, potentially leading to a decrease in customers and revenue. It can also have legal and financial consequences such as fines and lawsuits. The other options given are incorrect because an increase in stock price and improved customer loyalty are not consequences of a data breach, and there is no guarantee that a data breach will decrease the likelihood of a future breach. Incorrect Answers: A) An increase in stock price for a public company - This is incorrect because a data breach could potentially lead to a decrease in stock price for a public company. B) Improved customer loyalty and trust - This is incorrect because a data breach could potentially lead to a decrease in customer loyalty and trust. D) Decreased likelihood of a future breach - This is incorrect because there is no guarantee that a data breach will decrease the likelihood of a future breach. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one consequence of a data breach? A) Increased stock prices B) Improved reputation C) Damage to reputation D) Decreased need for credit monitoring

"Correct Answer: C) Damage to reputation Explanation: A consequence of a data breach is damage to one's reputation. If an organization is not trusted to store data, it could have a negative impact on how others view them. This could also affect the products and services that they sell, as people may no longer have the same level of trust in the organization. If the organization is a public company, this can also affect the stock price. In addition to reputation damage, there might also be fines or lawsuits associated with the data breach. The incorrect answers are:A) Increased stock prices, B) Improved reputation, and D) Decreased need for credit monitoring. These answers are all incorrect because they are the opposite of what happens in the event of a data breach. In fact, a data breach can lead to decreased stock prices, damaged reputation, and an increased need for credit monitoring. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following authentication methods uses a pseudo-random token generator that creates a random set of numbers, usually changing every 30 seconds? A) SMS B) Push notification C) HOTP D) Phone call

"Correct Answer: C) HOTP Explanation: HOTP or HMAC-based One-Time Password algorithm is an authentication method that uses a pseudo-random token generator to create a random set of numbers. This number is usually used one time during the authentication process, and then it is never used again. The numbers are provided on a sheet of paper or stored in an app, and each time a user authenticates to the system, they use the next available number on their list. The numbers are cross-checked off the list once they have been used. TOTP, which is similar to HOTP, generates a new number every 30 seconds instead of using one-time codes. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) SMS is a less secure authentication method that uses a short message service to send a code to the user's phone, which they then enter into the login form. However, it is relatively easy for someone to reassign a phone number so that the SMS message is redirected to another person's phone, and SMS messages can sometimes be intercepted by a third party. B) Push notifications are similar to SMS but are considered more secure. However, there are still some security concerns associated with push notifications, such as vulnerabilities in the application receiving the notification or the lack of encryption used. D) Phone call authentication is also similar to SMS but shares the same security concerns such as phone number reassignment or forwarding and interception by a third party. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat does HTTPS stand for in the context of secure web communications? A) HTTP encrypted B) HTTP tunnel C) HTTP secured D) HTTP firewall

"Correct Answer: C) HTTP secured Explanation: HTTPS stands for ""HTTP secure"" and is used to encrypt data transmitted over a network. It uses a public key encryption method, in which public and private keys are paired to transfer symmetric keys across the network. Basically, HTTPS provides a secure communication channel over HTTP. Incorrect Answers: A) HTTP encrypted - this is not the correct definition of HTTPS. HTTPS is HTTP over SSL or TLS, not just a basic encryption of HTTP. B) HTTP tunnel - while tunnels are used for secure communication, HTTPS is a protocol that provides security for HTTP data, not a tunnel for HTTP data. D) HTTP firewall - firewalls are security solutions that can be used to protect networks, but they are not related to the protocol used for secure web communications. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a threat actor that is both a hacker and an activist? A) Insider Threat B) Script Kiddie C) Hacktivist D) Organized Crime

"Correct Answer: C) Hacktivist Explanation: Hacktivists are threat actors who are both hackers and activists. These individuals have a purpose or goal in performing these attacks against a third party, which is commonly associated with a political or social message. These attacks can be very sophisticated and are very focused on a single message or theme. The motivation for hacktivists is not usually financial gain, so they often have to go outside of the organization to try to raise funds to continue their activities. Incorrect Answers: A) Insider Threat - Refers to a threat actor who is an entity with access to an organization's network or data who misuses that access to cause harm to the organization. B) Script Kiddie - Refers to a threat actor who may not have the knowledge or experience to gain access to someone's network, so they use pre-written scripts to attempt to gain access. D) Organized Crime - Refers to a group of professional criminals who make a living from committing crimes for financial gain. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What should organizations do to ensure security when working with third-party vendors? A) Trust that vendors are taking care of their own security B) Plan for best-case scenarios and hope for the best C) Implement security policies and procedures that account for potential vendor risks D) Assume all vendors are malicious and avoid working with them altogether

"Correct Answer: C) Implement security policies and procedures that account for potential vendor risks Explanation: Organizations should always plan for the worst possible scenario and make sure that their security policies and procedures are expecting those types of problems when working with third-party vendors. Vendors may be handling hosting services, development work, or other important aspects of an organization's security, and as such, security controls should be put in place to account for potential risks associated with these vendors. While it's important to trust vendors to maintain the security of the systems they're providing, it's equally important to ensure that vendors are aware of potential problems and can react to them quickly. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Trusting vendors to take care of their own security is not sufficient, as vendors may not be aware of potential security risks or may not be motivated to fix those risks in a timely manner. B) Planning for best-case scenarios is not effective in mitigating potential risks associated with third-party vendors. D) Assuming all vendors are malicious and avoiding working with them altogether is not practical or necessary, as many vendors can be trusted to maintain the security of the systems they're providing. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is IPsec? A) FTPS B) SFTP C) Internet Protocol Security D) HTTP over SSL

"Correct Answer: C) Internet Protocol Security Explanation: IPsec or Internet Protocol Security allows you to send information across this layer 3 public internet but encrypt the data so that all of that information remains confidential. IPsec also includes packet signing for integrity and anti-replay features. One nice part of IPsec is that it is so standardized and you can use different manufacturers' equipment on both ends of the tunnel, and both of those manufacturers will be able to communicate with each other using IPsec because this is such a well-known and well-established standard. Incorrect Answers: A) FTPS: FTPS or File Transfer Protocol Secure is a secure protocol for transferring files between devices. It uses SSL to encrypt the information that we're sending using that FTP client. B) SFTP: SFTP or SSH File Transfer Protocol is a secure protocol for transferring files between devices. SFTP is using SSH to provide that encryption. D) HTTP over SSL: HTTPS or HTTP over TLS/SSL is a secure protocol for sending encrypted data over a connection. It's using the HTTPS secure protocol that stands for HTTP over TLS or HTTP over SSL and sometimes referred to as HTTP secure. It's a way to communicate between two locations across the internet in a secure form. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a way to achieve high availability in cloud-based applications? A) Using a single availability zone for all applications B) Running applications in active/passive mode only C) Load balancing the application across different servers and availability zones D) Allowing unrestricted user and administrative access to cloud resources

"Correct Answer: C) Load balancing the application across different servers and availability zones Explanation: In cloud-based applications, we can achieve high availability by using multiple availability zones and load balancing. Each availability zone is self-contained, so if anything happens in one zone, it will have no effect on other zones. Additionally, we can configure an application to run in active/active or active/passive mode and use a load balancer not only to distribute the load for the application but to provide additional high availability. If we lose one of the servers served as part of that load balancer, the load balancer will automatically transfer the load to the remaining servers on that system. A) Using a single availability zone for all applications is incorrect because having only one availability zone means there is no redundancy or high availability. A failure in one zone could potentially take down the entire application. B) Running applications in active/passive mode only is incorrect because it does not provide full redundancy and high availability. Active/active mode is preferable because both instances can serve traffic, which provides the highest availability. D) Allowing unrestricted user and administrative access to cloud resources is incorrect because it can lead to security vulnerabilities and breaches. It's important to have proper identity and access management in place to manage access to cloud resources. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-controls/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of passive footprinting? A) Sending packets into a network to gather information B) Scanning a network for open ports C) Looking at social media pages for an organization D) Analyzing DNS information from local DNS servers

"Correct Answer: C) Looking at social media pages for an organization Explanation: Passive footprinting refers to gathering information in a way that would not be seen by the victim. This includes using data that's located in the open source areas to be able to understand more about the systems you'll be attacking. An example of passive footprinting might be to look at social media pages for a particular organization. This is a non-invasive way of gathering information about an organization's potential vulnerabilities. Other options, such as sending packets into a network to gather information (A) or scanning a network for open ports (B), are examples of active footprinting. Analyzing DNS information from local DNS servers (D) can also be a form of active footprinting as it involves sending out queries to the DNS server. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a risk associated with software compliance/licensing? A) Losing customer data B) Disruption of services C) Overpaying for licenses D) All of the above

"Correct Answer: C) Overpaying for licenses Explanation: One of the risks associated with software compliance is overpaying for licenses. If you don't follow correct licensing procedures, you could end up paying for licenses that are not needed in your organization or paying too much for the licenses you do need. It's important to understand your licensing requirements and manage them properly. Incorrect Answers: A) Losing customer data - While this is a risk associated with security events, it is not specifically related to software compliance/licensing. B) Disruption of services - While this is a risk associated with security events, it is not specifically related to software compliance/licensing. D) All of the above - While losing customer data and disruption of services are risks associated with security events, they are not specifically related to software compliance/licensing. Only option C is directly related to software compliance/licensing. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a weakness of Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)? A) PAP uses a three-way handshake that occurs B) PAP provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network C) PAP sends all information through the network in the clear D) PAP is commonly used with Microsoft's Point to Point Tunneling Protocol"

"Correct Answer: C) PAP sends all information through the network in the clear. Explanation: PAP is an extremely basic method to provide the authentication process, and it sends all of the information through the network in the clear without any encryption. This makes PAP a weak authentication scheme in terms of security. It was originally designed for use with analog dial-up lines and not with internet-connected networks. Therefore, PAP needs to be replaced with more secure authentication methods, such as Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), L2TP, IPsec, or 802.1X. Incorrect Answers: A) PAP uses a three-way handshake that occurs: This answer is incorrect. This is a characteristic of CHAP, not PAP. B) PAP provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network: This answer is incorrect. This is a characteristic of CHAP, not PAP. D) PAP is commonly used with Microsoft's Point to Point Tunneling Protocol: This answer is incorrect. PAP is not commonly used with any specific protocol. It can be used with any authentication system that supports it. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/pap-and-chap/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberPassword History Question:Which of the following is a best practice for password policies? A) All users should have the same password for ease of use B) Passwords should be changed every six months C) Passwords should not be re-used within a certain time frame D) Passwords should be written down for safekeeping

"Correct Answer: C) Passwords should not be re-used within a certain time frame Explanation: To increase the security of passwords, it's important to not reuse them within a certain time frame. For example, if a user changes their password every 90 days, they should not be allowed to use any of their previous passwords from the last 12 months. This prevents attackers from using a previously compromised password to gain access to the system. A) is incorrect because using the same password for all users reduces security. B) is incorrect because changing passwords too frequently can lead users to choose weaker passwords or reuse old passwords. D) is incorrect because writing down passwords can lead to them being compromised. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives-2.0/identity-and-access-management/compare-and-contrast-aaa-and-idm-concepts#user_access_policy"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a technique used by penetration testers to gain access to other trusted systems on the inside of a network? A) Social engineering B) Password brute-force C) Pivot point D) Database injections

"Correct Answer: C) Pivot point Explanation: Penetration testers use a pivot point, which is a system that they have already gained access to, as the jumping-off point to get to any other system that's on the inside of the network. They could use this as a proxy, they could use it as a relay, but it will be the central point that they can start their efforts on the inside of the network and from there they're able to gain access to other trusted systems on the inside. Incorrect Answer A) Social engineering: Social engineering involves manipulating people to give up sensitive information or perform an action that is not authorized. This is not specifically related to pivoting in a penetration test. Incorrect Answer B) Password brute-force: Password brute-force involves trying all possible combinations of passwords until the correct one is found. While this can be a technique used in a penetration test, it is not specifically related to pivoting. Incorrect Answer D) Database injections: Database injections involve exploiting vulnerabilities in software to execute malicious code on a database. While this can be a technique used in a penetration test, it is not specifically related to pivoting. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is (likely) the most important step in the incident response process? A) Recovery B) Monitoring C) Preparation D) Reconstitutio

"Correct Answer: C) Preparation Explanation: The most important step in the incident response process is preparation. The key to handling a security incident properly is to make sure you're well prepared. There needs to be all of the right people and processes in place so you know exactly what to do when the incident occurs. This would include communication methods, hardware and software tools, documentation of the organization's network, and policies and procedures so that everyone knows exactly what they should be doing when a security incident occurs. Recovery and reconstitution come later in the process, while monitoring is important for identifying security incidents, but preparation is necessary for a successful incident response. Incorrect Answers: A) Recovery - While recovering from a security incident is important, it is not the most important step in the incident response process. B) Monitoring - Monitoring is important for identifying security incidents, but preparation is necessary for a successful incident response. D) Reconstitution - Reconstitution comes after the recovery process and is not the most important step in the incident response process. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-process-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich part of the eye is used as a biometric authentication factor? A) Cornea B) Pupil C) Retina D) Lens

"Correct Answer: C) Retina Explanation: The retina is a part of the eye that is used as a biometric authentication factor. The retina is the capillaries in the back of the eye that are relatively unique to each individual and don't often change, making them an excellent biometric factor for authentication. Incorrect Answer A) Cornea: The cornea is the transparent outermost layer of the eye that covers the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber. It is not used as a biometric authentication factor. Incorrect Answer B) Pupil: The pupil is the black circular opening in the center of the iris that regulates the amount of light entering the eye. It is not used as a biometric authentication factor. Incorrect Answer D) Lens: The lens is a transparent, flexible structure located behind the iris that helps to focus light onto the retina. It is not used as a biometric authentication factor. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following contracts establishes a minimum set of service terms for a particular service or product with a third-party vendor? A) Measurement System Analysis (MSA) B) Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) C) Service Level Agreement (SLA) D) Business Partnership Agreement (BPA)

"Correct Answer: C) Service Level Agreement (SLA) Explanation: A Service Level Agreement (SLA) sets a minimum set of service terms for a particular service or product with a third-party vendor. It outlines what the minimum service level should be, and what happens if that service level isn't met. An MSA is used to evaluate and assess the quality of the process used in a company's measurement systems, while an MOU is an informal letter of intent that may not necessarily have the binding qualities of a contract. A BPA provides details about what the owners stake might be, what the contractual agreement is for finances, and contingency arrangements. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is NOT a recommended step in incident response planning? A) Perform tabletop exercises to determine the organization's response to a particular scenario. B) Involve all stakeholders in the planning process. C) Store data without backups, since it is a costly and time-consuming process. D) Maintain a good line of communication with stakeholders."

"Correct Answer: C) Store data without backups, since it is a costly and time-consuming process. Explanation: Backing up data is a critical aspect of incident response planning as it helps in data recovery during a disaster or security incident. The process may involve having on-site and off-site copies of data, depending on how it's stored. Backing up data can also help in compliance with regulatory requirements and restore data that has been accidentally deleted. Storing data without backups is not a recommended step in incident response planning. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Performing tabletop exercises is a recommended step in incident response planning to help determine the organization's response to a particular scenario. B) Involving all stakeholders in the planning process is a recommended step in incident response planning to establish effective communication and resolve process or procedure problems before an actual incident occurs. D) Maintaining a good line of communication with stakeholders is a recommended step in incident response planning to mitigate the problems that can occur during a high-stress event. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following authentication methods generates a pseudo-random number that changes every 30 seconds? A) SMS B) Push notification C) TOTP D) HOTP

"Correct Answer: C) TOTP Explanation: Time-based-One-Time Password algorithm (TOTP) generates a pseudo-random number that changes every 30 seconds. This type of authentication method is commonly used with an app that provides the user with the current number for authentication. The app is synchronized with the Authentication Server during the first use, and the Authentication Server and the app will then generate the same code based on the time of day. SMS and push notifications are not examples of TOTP authentication methods. HOTP generates a pseudo-random number that is used one time during the authentication process, and then the number is discarded. Incorrect Answers Explanation: A) SMS is not an authentication method that generates a pseudo-random number that changes every 30 seconds. It relies on sending a text message to the user's phone containing a code that is used for authentication. B) Push notifications are not an authentication method that generates a pseudo-random number that changes every 30 seconds. It relies on a server pushing authentication information to the user's mobile device app. D) HOTP generates a pseudo-random number that is used one time during the authentication process, and then the number is discarded. It is not an authentication method that generates a pseudo-random number that changes every 30 seconds. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of an ""in the clear"" protocol that sends information over the network without encryption? A) SSH B) SFTP C) Telnet D) IMAPS"

"Correct Answer: C) Telnet Explanation: Telnet is an example of an ""in the clear"" protocol that sends information over the network without encryption. Telnet sends data in clear text and anyone on the network can read it. Telnet is a remote login protocol used to log in to a remote computer over a network. It is not secure and should not be used to transmit sensitive information. SSH, SFTP, and IMAPS are examples of secure protocols that encrypt data in transit over the network. SSH is a secure shell protocol used for remote login, SFTP is a secure file transfer protocol used for file transfers, and IMAPS is a secure protocol used for email communication. Incorrect Answers: A) SSH: SSH is a secure protocol used for remote login that encrypts data in transit over the network. It is not an ""in the clear"" protocol. B) SFTP: SFTP is a secure file transfer protocol used for file transfers that encrypts data in transit over the network. It is not an ""in the clear"" protocol. D) IMAPS: IMAPS is a secure protocol used for email communication that encrypts data in transit over the network. It is not an ""in the clear"" protocol. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of an authentication attribute? A) A username and password B) A fingerprint scan C) The location of the user D) The type of device being used

"Correct Answer: C) The location of the user Explanation: An authentication attribute is a bit more fluid and may not necessarily be directly associated with an individual, but can be used to help prove someone's identity when combined with other authentication factors. Location is an example of an attribute that can be used in the authentication process. While a username and password (A) and a fingerprint scan (B) are examples of authentication factors, the type of device being used (D) is not an authentication factor or attribute. Incorrect Answers Explanation: A) A username and password are examples of authentication factors, not authentication attributes. B) A fingerprint scan is an example of an authentication factor, not an authentication attribute. D) The type of device being used is not an authentication factor or attribute. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a key factor to consider when assessing the severity of risk for an organization? A) The age of the employees in the organization B) The number of computers in the organization C) The potential impact on the organization's assets D) The geographic location of the organization"

"Correct Answer: C) The potential impact on the organization's assets Explanation: When assessing the severity of risk for an organization, it's important to consider the potential impact on the organization's assets. This includes hardware, customer data, intellectual property, and any other valuable resources that could be affected by a security event. Understanding the risk associated with each asset can help organizations make business decisions on how to better protect those assets. While factors like the age of employees and the number of computers in the organization are important, they are not directly related to assessing the severity of risk for an organization. Incorrect Answers: A) The age of the employees in the organization: While the age of employees in an organization may be a factor to consider for certain types of risk, it is not directly related to assessing the severity of risk for an organization. B) The number of computers in the organization: While the number of computers in an organization may be a factor to consider for certain types of risk, it is not directly related to assessing the severity of risk for an organization. D) The geographic location of the organization: While the geographic location of an organization may be a factor to consider for certain types of risk, it is not directly related to assessing the severity of risk for an organization. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is HIPAA? A) The regulation that describes the disclosure of information breaches B) The regulation associated with protecting someone's personal and financial information C) The regulation that covers the privacy of patient health records D) The regulation that gives you control over where your data may be stored"

"Correct Answer: C) The regulation that covers the privacy of patient health records Explanation: HIPAA is the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, a regulation that covers many different areas, but from an IT perspective, it deals with the privacy of patient health records. This includes not only how you provide that information to others but also how that information is stored and how the network is secured when that information is sent across the network. A) describes disclosure regulations in general, not HIPAA specifically. B) is a bit too broad - while HIPAA does include protection of personal and financial information, that's not the primary focus. D) describes GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), not HIPAA. Incorrect Answers: A) The regulation that describes the disclosure of information breaches - This describes disclosure regulations in general, not HIPAA specifically. B) The regulation associated with protecting someone's personal and financial information - While HIPAA does include protection of personal and financial information, that's not the primary focus. D) The regulation that gives you control over where your data may be stored - This describes GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), not HIPAA. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an important piece of information to document for the chain of custody when collecting and protecting digital forensic evidence? A) The device's serial number B) The device's manufacturer C) The time zone information associated with the device D) The software version on the device"

"Correct Answer: C) The time zone information associated with the device Explanation: One concern when collecting and protecting digital forensic evidence is ensuring that the data has not been changed or tampered with in any way. To verify this, documentation called a chain of custody is created to show that nothing has been changed since the time the data was collected. Time stamps are an important piece of information to document for the chain of custody. Specifically, documenting the time zone information associated with the device is important because time offsets can be different depending on the operating system, file system, or location of the device. It's important to know if a timestamp is local time or GMT, so that the data can be accurately analyzed at a later time. Incorrect Answers: A) The device's serial number may be important for identifying the device, but it is not as important as documenting the time zone information for the chain of custody. B) The device's manufacturer is also not as important as documenting the time zone information for the chain of custody. D) The software version on the device may be important for analyzing the data or identifying a vulnerability, but it is not as important as documenting the time zone information for the chain of custody. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of an attribute that could be associated with an individual to help understand their identity during authentication? A) The local network they are connecting from B) The internet service provider they use C) Their job title within an organization D) The type of device they are using

"Correct Answer: C) Their job title within an organization Explanation: During authentication, gathering attributes associated with the user allows for identification of the user. Some examples of attributes that could be used include an individual's name, email address, phone number, employee ID, job title, or department they belong to. Job title is a specific attribute that could provide useful information about the user's identity in an organizational context. The other answer choices (A, B, and D) are not examples of attributes that could be associated with an individual to understand their identity during authentication. Incorrect Answers: A) The local network they are connecting from is not an attribute specific to an individual and does not help identify the person's identity. B) The internet service provider they use is not an attribute specific to an individual and does not help identify the person's identity. D) The type of device they are using is not an attribute specific to an individual and does not help identify the person's identity. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/identity-controls/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a type of risk that organizations should be concerned about in terms of IP theft? A) Only external threats are a concern for IP theft B) Disgruntled employees never pose a risk for IP theft C) Third parties could gain access to intellectual property through a variety of ways D) Legacy systems never pose a threat for IP theft

"Correct Answer: C) Third parties could gain access to intellectual property through a variety of ways Explanation: Intellectual property theft is a type of risk that organizations should be concerned about. Third parties can gain access to intellectual property through a variety of ways, including mistakes made when setting up permissions in the cloud, active hacking, or employees who have access taking advantage of it. It is important for organizations to identify their intellectual property so that they can take measures to protect it. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This answer is incorrect because IP theft can come from both external and internal threats. We should be concerned about both types of threats. B) This answer is incorrect because disgruntled employees can also pose a risk for IP theft, especially if they have access to the internals of an organization's network. D) This answer is incorrect because legacy systems can pose a risk for IP theft, especially if they are running outdated operating systems or software that is no longer supported by the manufacturer. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the role and responsibility of a data controller in an organization? A) To keep track of all laws and regulations associated with data. B) To identify or set labels associated with data to determine who has access to it. C) To define the privacy policies for the organization and ensure all data remains private. D) To process data on behalf of the data processors.

"Correct Answer: C) To define the privacy policies for the organization and ensure all data remains private. Explanation: Data controllers are responsible for the purposes and means by which the data is processed. They define how the data is used and ensure that all data remains private. In other words, they are responsible for the organization's overall data privacy policies. They determine who can access the data and implement the security controls for it. A and B are responsibilities of data custodians or data stewards, while D is the responsibility of data processors. Incorrect Answers: A) Keeping track of all laws and regulations associated with data is a responsibility of data custodians or data stewards, not data controllers. B) Identifying or setting labels associated with data to determine who has access to it is a responsibility of data custodians or data stewards, not data controllers. D) Processing data on behalf of the data controllers is the responsibility of data processors, not data controllers. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-roles-and-responsibilities/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the responsibility of the blue team in an organization that has a red team and a blue team? A) To perform the penetration test on systems and find vulnerabilities B) To perform research on all exploits seen on the network C) To perform day-to-day operational security and respond to incidents D) To oversee and manage the red and blue teams' activities on the network"

"Correct Answer: C) To perform day-to-day operational security and respond to incidents Explanation of Correct Answer: In an organization that has a red team and a blue team, the blue team's primary responsibility is to perform day-to-day operational security and respond to incidents. The blue team is responsible for protecting themselves against the attacks coming from the red team, making sure that systems are patched and up to date, and putting together information about what happened during an attack and what they were able to do to stop it. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) To perform the penetration test on systems and find vulnerabilities: This is the responsibility of the red team, not the blue team. B) To perform research on all exploits seen on the network: This is a responsibility that may be assigned to a research team, but not the blue team. D) To oversee and manage the red and blue teams' activities on the network: This is the responsibility of the white team, not the blue team. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-teams/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a way to confirm that you're communicating directly with a web server and not with someone in the middle? A) Use OCSP stapling B) Create a hierarchical model of certificate authorities C) Use certificate pinning D) Use a web of trust"

"Correct Answer: C) Use certificate pinning. Explanation: Certificate pinning is a way to confirm that you're communicating directly with a web server and not with someone in the middle. This involves compiling the certificate inside of the application that you're using and comparing that to the certificate that you're seeing when that application connects to the server. If the certificates don't match, the application can decide what to do. It may show an error message on the screen or it may shut down the application and prevent it from running. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they don't involve certificate pinning. Incorrect Answers: A) Use OCSP stapling: OCSP stapling is a way to determine if a certificate may have been revoked. This involves using the online certificate status protocol to check the revocation status of a certificate. This is different from certificate pinning, which is used to confirm that you're communicating directly with a web server and not with someone in the middle. B) Create a hierarchical model of certificate authorities: A hierarchical model of certificate authorities involves having intermediate CAs and leaf CAs so that you can limit the scope of any type of compromise. This means your users and devices are probably receiving certificates from a leaf CA, which was created from an intermediate CA, and of course, the intermediate CA was created from a root CA. This is different from certificate pinning, which is used to confirm that you're communicating directly with a web server and not with someone in the middle. D) Use a web of trust: A web of trust is a trust model used in PGP, which involves signing certificates of people you know and those people signing certificates of people they know, etc. This means if you have a CA certificate from someone you don't know, but that certificate has been signed by someone you do know, then there is a level of trust associated with that. This is different from certificate pinning, which is used to confirm that you're communicating directly with a web server and not with someone in the middle. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-concepts/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the best practice when using administrator or root accounts? A) Use them as default accounts for all users B) Use them for all day to day operations C) Use them only when it's required D) Use them only for accessing third-party accounts"

"Correct Answer: C) Use them only when it's required Explanation: The best practice when using elevated accounts, such as administrator or root accounts, is to use them only when it's required. Elevated accounts provide complete access to the operating system, and running with them for day to day operations could cause significant damage to the operating system, as well as increase the scope of a virus outbreak. Therefore, it's recommended to run with a user account for normal operations and only use the elevated accounts when it's required. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Using administrator or root accounts as default accounts for all users would give everyone complete access to the operating system, which would not only be unnecessary but also highly insecure. B) Using elevated accounts for all day to day operations is highly discouraged, as it increases the likelihood of causing significant damage to the operating system, and also provides malicious software with enhanced access to the system. D) Using elevated accounts only for accessing third-party accounts is not a standard security practice, as these accounts are usually not associated with administrative privileges, and it's better to use unique user accounts for each individual accessing the system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/credential-policies/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich command allows you to change the mode of a file system object in Linux or Mac OS? A) tar B) sudo C) chmod D) grep

"Correct Answer: C) chmod Explanation: The chmod command allows you to change the mode of a file system object, which means to set the permissions for the file to be read, write or execute. This command can be used to set specific permissions for the user, group, or others. The binary patterns of these permissions can be set, or octal notation can be used to set them for each individual. The other options listed in the possible answers are not related to modifying file permissions. Incorrect answers: A) tar is a command-line utility for archiving files and directories into a single file, often called a tarball. It is used for compressing and/or decompressing files in Linux or Mac OS. B) sudo, short for ""superuser do"", is used to execute commands with administrative or superuser permissions. It is used to temporarily elevate privileges beyond what a normal user has. D) grep is a command-line utility that allows you to search for text in one or more files or streams. It can be used to find specific patterns or pieces of text within a file, and is often used with the output of other commands to filter out certain lines. It is not related to modifying file permissions. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat impact does quantum computing have on cryptography? A. Quantum computing doesn't have any impact on cryptography B. Quantum computing increases the security of existing cryptography methods C. Quantum computing renders existing cryptography methods useless D. Quantum computing only impacts certain types of cryptography"

"Correct Answer: C. Quantum computing renders existing cryptography methods useless. Explanation: With the scalability of quantum computing, it would be able to brute force all of our existing encrypted data very, very quickly, rendering all of our existing cryptography methods useless. Researchers are looking at new ways to provide cryptography in this new world of quantum computing, such as using NTRU, a new way of performing encryption that uses a closest vector problem instead of very large prime numbers. Other ideas are being developed to help maintain the privacy and encryption technologies we need, even in this newer generation of quantum computing. Incorrect Answers: A. Quantum computing doesn't have any impact on cryptography - this is incorrect as quantum computing has a direct impact on cryptography, particularly with the scaling potential of quantum computing in brute forcing existing encrypted data. B. Quantum computing increases the security of existing cryptography methods - this is incorrect as quantum computing renders existing cryptography methods useless, which is why researchers are looking at new ways to provide cryptography in this new world of quantum computing. D. Quantum computing only impacts certain types of cryptography - this is incorrect as quantum computing has a direct impact on all existing cryptography methods. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/quantum-computing/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a best practice for shared accounts and credentials? A) Assign the shared account to a specific identification number. B) Store the shared password in a commonly accessible location. C) Inform all users of the shared account whenever the password changes. D) Avoid using shared accounts altogether.

"Correct Answer: D Explanation: A best practice for shared and generic accounts/credentials is to simply not use them at all. Everyone should have their own personal account associated with them as an individual. Shared accounts make it difficult to assign proper permissions, keep track of changes, and identify who performed a particular action. Storing the password in a commonly accessible location is a bad habit, and informing all users of the shared account whenever the password changes is impractical. Incorrect Answers: A) Assign the shared account to a specific identification number: While user accounts are assigned to a specific identification number, shared accounts are not recommended, to begin with. B) Store the shared password in a commonly accessible location: Storing passwords in commonly accessible locations is not a best practice since it makes it easier for attackers to access the password. C) Inform all users of the shared account whenever the password changes: This is highly impractical since it's difficult to keep track of and ensure everyone is informed, plus it would be quite an ordeal to keep up with if done regularly. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/account-types-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberNetwork Location Practice Question:What is a geofencing policy? A. A policy that checks an IP address and determines the physical location of a user B. A set of policies associated with a user based on their location C. A policy that uses GPS coordinates to add location information to files and documents D. A policy that sets specific rules based on a user's location"

"Correct Answer: D Explanation: A geofencing policy sets specific rules based on a user's location, such as allowing access to certain resources only when the user is in a certain physical location or restricting access when the user is outside of a specified area. This can be useful for organizations that need to control access to sensitive data or resources. Incorrect Answer Choices: A. While checking an IP address can help determine the physical location of a user, it is not a geofencing policy. B. This describes a general concept but not a specific policy. C. Adding location information to files is not related to geofencing policies. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/user-account-policies-and-network-location/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is attribute-based access control (ABAC)? A) Access control where users are assigned a minimum type of access based on their security clearance level B) Access control where users have complete control over who has access to their created objects C) Access control where users are assigned rights and permissions based on their role in the organization D) Access control where users are allowed access to resources based on a set criteria that evaluates different parameters

"Correct Answer: D Explanation: Attribute-based access control (ABAC) is a type of access control where a set of criteria is defined that determine whether a user is allowed access to a resource. This criteria could include the type of resource being accessed, the IP address from which the access is requested, the time of day, and the relationship of the user to the data. If the user meets all of the criteria, they are granted access to the resource. Incorrect Answers: A) This describes mandatory access control (MAC) where a user's access is determined by their assigned security clearance level. B) This describes discretionary access control (DAC) where the owner of an object has complete control over who has access to it. C) This describes role-based access control (RBAC) where a user's access is determined by their assigned role in the organization. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/access-control-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the importance of documenting time offsets in digital forensics? A) It helps in identifying the witnesses who were present at the time of the incident. B) It ensures that the device is not contaminated after the incident. C) It helps in identifying the location of the device at the time of the incident. D) It helps in determining the time when a particular event occurred.

"Correct Answer: D Explanation: Documenting time offsets become very important while investigating a security event. Different operating systems, file systems, and even different locations may have different time offsets from Greenwich Mean Time, and some timestamps may be stored in local time while others may be in GMT. Hence, it's crucial to document the time zone information associated with the device being examined, to make sure that the information remains valid over time. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Witness identification is not related to time offset documentation. B) Contamination of the device is a concern while acquiring data, and is not directly related to documentation of time offsets. C) Location identification is not related to time offset documentation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a common training technique used in organizations to test users' awareness of phishing attempts? A. Social media analysis B. Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) C. Job rotation D. Phishing simulations"

"Correct Answer: D Explanation: Phishing simulations are a popular training technique used to test users' awareness of phishing attempts. These simulations involve sending phishing emails to users and by tracking who clicks on the links, and we can identify who may need additional training or education. These types of simulations can also help users understand the various tactics used by attackers to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information. Incorrect Answers: A. Social media analysis is a common technique used by organizations to evaluate an applicant's online presence and social media activities. It is not related to training. B. Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) is a confidentiality agreement common between parties who would like to limit the information that could be shared. It is not related to training for user awareness. C. Job rotation is a security policy in place in some organizations to help minimize risk. It is not related to training for user awareness. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Cloud Security Alliance's cloud controls matrix framework (CCM)? A) A federal government framework designed for security and privacy B) A commercial implementation framework based on the cybersecurity framework (CSF) C) An international standard for Information Security Management Systems (ISMS) D) A framework mapping controls to standards, best practices, and regulations for cloud security"

"Correct Answer: D Explanation: The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) creates a cloud controls matrix (CCM) framework to map controls to standards, best practices, and regulations for cloud security. This framework covers a broad scope of security for cloud computing, including methodologies and tools that you can use, ways to assess your internal IT organization and the cloud providers you're going to use, how to determine the security capabilities for a particular implementation, and how to build a roadmap so you can continually improve the security for your cloud computing infrastructure. Incorrect Answers: A) The federal government framework designed for security and privacy is the National Institute of Standards and Technology Risk Management Framework (NIST RMF). B) The commercial implementation framework based on the cybersecurity framework (CSF) is the NIST CSF. C) The international standard for Information Security Management Systems (ISMS) is the ISO/IEC 27001. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-frameworks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one of the considerations to keep in mind when implementing cryptography on a network, firewall, or VPN? A) The amount of storage space required for encrypted data B) The type of cryptography originally implemented C) The color of the server rack D) The speed of the application with the chosen cryptography

"Correct Answer: D Explanation: When implementing cryptography, it's important to keep in mind the speed of the application with the chosen cryptography. There will be additional load on the CPU, which will use more power and battery life. We need to ensure that we choose a type of cryptography that can be implemented in a quick enough manner. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) The amount of storage space required for encrypted data is not necessarily a consideration when implementing cryptography. B) While it is important to consider the original implementation of cryptography, it is not the specific consideration being discussed in this text. C) The color of the server rack is not at all related to cryptography or security. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the common name (CN) attribute on a digital certificate? A) The public key associated with the certificate B) The certificate authority that issued the certificate C) The email address associated with the certificate D) The fully qualified domain name associated with the certificate

"Correct Answer: D The common name (CN) is the fully qualified domain name associated with the certificate. This allows the certificate to be associated with a specific website or server. If the CN on a certificate does not match the domain name in the user's browser, they may see errors or warnings about the connection not being private or secure. The common name is an important attribute on a certificate and must be configured correctly for proper encryption and authentication. Incorrect Answers: A) The public key associated with the certificate - This is incorrect because the public key is a separate attribute on the certificate that is used for encryption and decryption. B) The certificate authority that issued the certificate - This is incorrect because the certificate authority (CA) information is listed separately on the certificate. C) The email address associated with the certificate - This is incorrect because the email address is usually listed separately as part of the subject or subject alternative name (SAN) attributes on the certificate. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an accurate description of a binary file? A) A file that is only executable on a specific type of operating system B) A file that is used for backup purposes only C) A file that can be read and edited by a text editor D) A file that contains machine-readable code

"Correct Answer: D) A file that contains machine-readable code Explanation: A binary file is a type of file that contains machine-readable code. This code is in a format that can be directly executed by a computer's processor. Binary files are different from text files, which can be read and edited by a text editor. Binary files are often used for executable code, such as applications or operating systems. A) is incorrect because while some binary files may only be executable on a specific operating system, this is not a defining characteristic of a binary file. B) is incorrect because binary files are not exclusively used for backup purposes. C) is incorrect because binary files cannot be read or edited by a text editor. Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binary_file"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is GPS? A) A one-to-one wireless connection used for connecting buildings B) A cellular network used for mobile devices C) A two-way wireless communication used for payment systems D) A technology created by the US Department of Defense that provides precise location information for mobile devices

"Correct Answer: D) A technology created by the US Department of Defense that provides precise location information for mobile devices. Explanation of correct answer: GPS (Global Positioning System) is a technology created by the US Department of Defense that provides precise location information for mobile devices. GPS can determine a device's latitude, longitude, and altitude by using timing differences from the signals of at least four satellites. GPS is commonly used for maps and directions, and can be used in conjunction with other types of networks such as Wi-Fi and cellular tower triangulation. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) A one-to-one wireless connection used for connecting buildings is referring to a point-to-point wireless network, which is not related to GPS. B) A cellular network used for mobile devices is referring to a cellular network, which is not related to GPS. C) A two-way wireless communication used for payment systems is referring to NFC (Near Field Communication), which is not related to GPS. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a reward provided by the owner of a system to people who identify vulnerabilities or exploits? A) Ransomware B) Trojan horse C) Spear phishing D) Bug bounty

"Correct Answer: D) Bug bounty Explanation: A bug bounty is a reward or compensation provided by the owner of a system to individuals or researchers who identify vulnerabilities or exploits. Bug bounty programs incentivize researchers to report security flaws to the organization that owns the system, so that the flaws can be patched before they are exploited by malicious actors. The more exploits identified, the more bug bounties a researcher can submit, and the more money they can earn. Ransomware, Trojan horses, and spear phishing are all types of cyber attacks and not related to bug bounties. Incorrect Answers Explanation: A) Ransomware: Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts a victim's files or computer and demands payment in exchange for the decryption key. B) Trojan horse: A Trojan horse is a type of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software, but once installed, can open a backdoor to allow attackers to gain unauthorized access to a victim's system. C) Spear phishing: Spear phishing is a targeted form of phishing in which an attacker sends a personalized message to a specific individual or organization, often with the intent of obtaining sensitive information or login credentials. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a relatively simple integrity check that can be done with network communication to ensure that information has not been corrupted during transmission? A) Encryption B) Digital signature C) Hashing D) Checksum

"Correct Answer: D) Checksum Explanation: A checksum is a simple integrity check that can be done with network communication to make sure that information hasn't been corrupted during transmission. This isn't designed to replace a hash, but it does provide a simple integrity check that might be useful in certain situations. Encryption is a way to protect data in transit or at rest. Digital signature is a digital method to verify the authenticity and integrity of a message, software, or digital document. Hashing is a way to cryptographically verify that data collected is exactly the same as the data being examined later. Incorrect Answers: A) Encryption is not a simple integrity check that can be done with network communication to ensure that information has not been corrupted during transmission. B) Digital signature is not a simple integrity check that can be done with network communication to ensure that information has not been corrupted during transmission. C) Hashing provides cryptographically verify that data collected is exactly the same as the data being examined later, but it's not a simple integrity check that can be done with network communication to ensure that information has not been corrupted during transmission. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a business policy that may be implemented for security reasons, especially in an environment dealing with sensitive data? A) Limiting access in an operating system B) Social media analysis during the hiring process C) Non-disclosure agreements D) Clean desk policy

"Correct Answer: D) Clean desk policy Explanation: In environments where sensitive data is being dealt with, a clean desk policy may be implemented. This means that if an employee gets up and leaves their desk, they have to ensure that no information is left on their desk before leaving. This policy limits the chances of confidential information being compromised in the event that an employee's desk is unattended. Incorrect answers: A) Limiting access in an operating system refers to assigning each user with a least privileged policy, which limits their access to only the areas necessary for their job. It is not directly related to a clean desk policy. B) Social media analysis during the hiring process is a procedure that helps employers understand more about a potential hire's online presence. It is not related to a clean desk policy. C) Non-Disclosure Agreements (NDAs) are confidentiality agreements that detail what information can be shared between parties. While NDAs may be implemented in organizations, they are not directly related to a clean desk policy. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a potential impact of a security vulnerability on an organization's reputation? A) Loss of data B) Financial loss C) Downtime and unavailability of systems D) Negative public perception"

"Correct Answer: D) Negative public perception Explanation: A security vulnerability that leads to a breach or other security incident can damage an organization's reputation, particularly if the breach is publicized in the media or disclosed to customers. This negative publicity can lead to a loss of trust and confidence in the organization and its ability to protect sensitive information. In the case of Uber, their decision to conceal the breach and pay off the hackers further damaged their reputation when the breach was eventually disclosed. Loss of data, financial loss, and downtime are also potential impacts of security vulnerabilities, but do not directly affect an organization's reputation. Incorrect Answer A) Loss of data: While loss of data can be a serious consequence of a security vulnerability, it does not directly impact an organization's reputation. Incorrect Answer B) Financial loss: Similar to loss of data, financial loss is a potential consequence of security vulnerabilities, but does not necessarily affect an organization's reputation. Incorrect Answer C) Downtime and unavailability of systems: Downtime and unavailability of systems can have significant impacts on an organization's operations, but these consequences do not necessarily affect the organization's reputation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-impacts/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which authentication method involves an automated phone call that provides a pseudo-random number for authentication? A) SMS message authentication B) TOTP authentication C) HOTP authentication D) Phone call authentication

"Correct Answer: D) Phone call authentication Explanation: Phone call authentication involves an automated process calling the user and providing a pseudo-random number that can be used for authentication. However, this authentication method has similar disadvantages as SMS message authentication, as the phone number can be easily manipulated, and the call can be intercepted or redirected by unauthorized parties. A) SMS message authentication is a less secure authentication method than other methods as it is relatively easy for someone to redirect the SMS message to another person's phone, giving them access to the code that normally only the user would have. B) TOTP authentication generates a pseudo-random number that is available for a certain amount of time, usually about 30 seconds, and after that period, a new number is generated. This type of authentication is often done using an app that uses the TOTP algorithm, and it is commonly used by multifactor authentication systems such as Google Authenticator or Microsoft Authenticator. C) HOTP authentication generates a pseudo-random number that can be used only once during the authentication process, and then the number is discarded. Usually, the user is provided with a list of numbers they can use, and once they use a number, they cross it off their list. HOTP passcodes can be stored inside an app, which tells the user what the next number on their list is. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a type of guide that can help an IT professional configure a web server to be more secure? A) Syslog configuration guide B) Database configuration guide C) Network segmentation guide D) Platform/vendor-specific guide

"Correct Answer: D) Platform/vendor-specific guide Explanation: IT professionals can find platform/vendor-specific guides to help them configure a web server securely. These guides provide instructions on how to configure a specific vendor's software, such as Microsoft's Internet Information Server or Apache HTTP Server. These guides will also include best practices for configuring the web server and making it as secure as possible. The other options are not specific to web server configuration and are not relevant to this question. A) Syslog configuration guide - This type of guide provides instructions on how to configure syslog, which is a way to collect and store system logs. B) Database configuration guide - This type of guide provides instructions on how to configure a database, which is not relevant to web server configuration. C) Network segmentation guide - This type of guide provides instructions on how to segment a network, which is not relevant to web server configuration. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is true about the Purple team in an organization that follows the red team, blue team, and white team structure? A) The Purple team competes with the Blue team for the security of the organization. B) The Purple team handles the scoring process for the performance of the Red team and Blue team. C) The Purple team performs penetration testing and vulnerability scanning on the organization's systems. D) The Purple team combines the efforts of the Red team and Blue team to facilitate a common goal."

"Correct Answer: D) The Purple team combines the efforts of the Red team and Blue team to facilitate a common goal. Explanation: In an organization that follows the red team, blue team, and white team structure, the Purple team is responsible for facilitating a common goal between the Red team and Blue team. The Purple team combines the efforts of the Red team and Blue team to share information about what they find on the network and fix the applications, secure the data, and make sure that everything remains secure that much faster. Option A is incorrect because the Purple team doesn't compete with the Blue team. Option B is incorrect because the White team handles the scoring process for the performance of the Red team and Blue team. Option C is incorrect because the Purple team doesn't perform penetration testing and vulnerability scanning on the organization's systems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-teams/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which team oversees what's happening with both the red team and the blue team, on the network, and is in charge of putting together the results of a particular penetration test to identify what worked well and what didn't? A) The red team B) The blue team C) The purple team D) The white team"

"Correct Answer: D) The white team is responsible for overseeing what's happening with both the red team and the blue team, on the network, and is in charge of putting together the results of a particular penetration test to identify what worked well and what didn't. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) The red team is responsible for performing the penetration test themselves, finding vulnerabilities in the systems, and trying to gain access to these systems using exploits. B) The blue team is responsible for performing day-to-day operational security to keep devices and data safe and responding to incidents that may occur in the organization. C) The purple team is a combination of the red team and the blue team, and they work together to share information about what they find on the network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-teams/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of internal risk? A) A hacker group attempting to gain access to your data B) A former employee using their knowledge of your infrastructure for personal gain C) A third party gaining access to your intellectual property through cloud misconfigurations D) Using outdated software on legacy systems

"Correct Answer: D) Using outdated software on legacy systems Explanation: Internal risk refers to risks that come from within an organization. In this case, using outdated software on legacy systems is an example of internal risk because the organization is using outdated resources that may be vulnerable to security threats. This could lead to a security event caused by an insider who gains access to the organization's systems because they know how to exploit vulnerabilities that the software has. The other options listed are examples of external risks. Incorrect Answers: A) A hacker group attempting to gain access to your data - This is an example of an external risk because it involves an outside entity attempting to gain access to an organization's data. B) A former employee using their knowledge of your infrastructure for personal gain - This is an example of an external risk because it involves an individual who is no longer part of the organization using their knowledge of the infrastructure to exploit vulnerabilities in the organization's systems. C) A third party gaining access to your intellectual property through cloud misconfigurations - This is an example of an external risk because it involves a third party gaining access to the organization's intellectual property through a misconfiguration in the cloud, which is outside of the organization's control. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the potential security risk associated with reusing code between different applications? A. Client-side input validation is bypassed B. Memory leaks may occur C. Stored procedures are not used D. Security vulnerabilities may be spread to multiple applications

"Correct Answer: D. Security vulnerabilities may be spread to multiple applications Explanation: Reusing code between different applications can spread security vulnerabilities to multiple applications if the original code has a security vulnerability associated with it. By copying and pasting the code into other applications, the vulnerability is also replicated, potentially making multiple apps insecure. Incorrect Answers: A. Client-side input validation is bypassed Explanation: Reusing code doesn't necessarily lead to bypassing client-side input validation. Input validation is a separate concept that deals with validating user inputs before processing them in the application. B. Memory leaks may occur Explanation: Memory leaks are not directly related to code reuse. They occur when a program does not release memory that it has allocated but no longer needs, leading to decreased performance or crashes. C. Stored procedures are not used Explanation: Stored procedures are a way to create more secure database calls, but their use or absence is not directly related to code reuse. While using stored procedures can enhance security, the act of reusing code doesn't inherently mean stored procedures are not being used. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-coding-techniques-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a common attribute that can be associated with an individual's identity in an organization? A) Phone number, credit card number, and social security number B) Home address, mother's maiden name, and date of birth C) Name, email address, and employee ID D) Bank account number, passport number, and driver's license number"

"Correct Answer:C) Name, email address, and employee ID Explanation:Attributes that can be associated with an individual's identity in an organization can include their name, email address, phone number, employee ID, department, job title, and mail stop. Combining these attributes allows us to understand and identify a particular entity. Options A, B, and D include personal information that is sensitive and should not be used for identifying an individual's identity in an organization. Incorrect Answers: A) Phone number, credit card number, and social security number - These are personal information that is sensitive and should not be used for identifying an individual's identity in an organization. B) Home address, mother's maiden name, and date of birth - These are personal information that is sensitive and should not be used for identifying an individual's identity in an organization. D) Bank account number, passport number, and driver's license number - These are personal information that is sensitive and should not be used for identifying an individual's identity in an organization. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/identity-controls/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the purpose of threat maps in the context of cybersecurity? A) To display real-time data about attack origins and frequencies B) To provide a standardized format for threat data exchange C) To evaluate the vulnerabilities in an organization's network D) To store source code for potential exploits and vulnerabilities"

"Correct answer with explanation: A) To display real-time data about attack origins and frequencies Threat maps provide a visual perspective of where attacks may be originating and their frequencies. They are created from real-time data pulled from various sources, providing another piece of intelligence to help protect your network. Incorrect answers with explanation: B) To provide a standardized format for threat data exchange This is incorrect because STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression) is the standardized format for exchanging threat data, not threat maps. C) To evaluate the vulnerabilities in an organization's network This is incorrect because threat maps do not evaluate vulnerabilities within a network. Vulnerability databases like the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) database serve this purpose. D) To store source code for potential exploits and vulnerabilities This is incorrect because threat maps do not store source code. Online code repositories like GitHub are sometimes used by hackers to find vulnerabilities or source code for potential exploits. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following sources can help an IT professional understand and identify vulnerabilities specific to their environment and stay informed when new vulnerabilities are disclosed? A. National Vulnerability Database B. Academic Journals C. Local User Group Meetings D. Social Media

"Correct answer with explanation: A. National Vulnerability Database - The National Vulnerability Database, maintained by the National Institute of Standards and Technology, is a comprehensive source of information on Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs). IT professionals can use this database, along with third-party feeds, to stay informed about new vulnerabilities and identify those specific to their environment. Incorrect answers with explanation: B. Academic Journals - While academic journals provide detailed information about security technologies, attack types, and malware analysis, they don't specifically provide up-to-date vulnerability information tailored to an IT professional's environment. C. Local User Group Meetings - These meetings offer valuable networking opportunities and technical information, but they do not focus on providing specific vulnerability information related to an IT professional's environment. D. Social Media - Social media platforms like Twitter can be a source of information on recent vulnerabilities, attacks, and ongoing discussions among professionals. However, they do not specifically provide a comprehensive list of vulnerabilities applicable to an individual's environment. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-research/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What type of issue could a vulnerability scan help identify in a device's security controls? A) Hardware malfunction B) Lack of antivirus, anti-malware, and personal firewall C) Physical access restrictions D) Data storage capacity"

"Correct answer with explanation: B) Lack of antivirus, anti-malware, and personal firewall A vulnerability scan can help identify issues with a device's security controls, such as a lack of antivirus, anti-malware, and personal firewall. These security measures are essential to protect a system from threats and maintain a secure environment. Incorrect answers: A) Hardware malfunction While hardware malfunctions can pose security risks, a vulnerability scan primarily focuses on identifying software vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and missing security controls. C) Physical access restrictions Vulnerability scans focus on software vulnerabilities and security controls, not physical access restrictions. Implementing physical access restrictions is a separate aspect of maintaining a secure environment. D) Data storage capacity A vulnerability scan is designed to identify software vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and security controls, not data storage capacity or related issues. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-scans/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a major advantage that insider threat actors have over external threat actors? A) They have more advanced hacking skills B) They know the inner workings of the network C) They have access to unlimited financial resources D) They have the ability to shut down an organization's manufacturing process"

"Correct answer with explanation: B) They know the inner workings of the network Insider threat actors have a major advantage because they have knowledge of the organization's network design, security tools, and the location of valuable assets. This allows them to focus their efforts on the most vulnerable systems or those they have the most access to. Incorrect answers explanation: A) They have more advanced hacking skills Insider threat actors may not have as advanced hacking skills as other threat actors, as they might have a different primary job within the organization. C) They have access to unlimited financial resources Insider threat actors do not necessarily have access to unlimited financial resources. This advantage is more related to nation-states or organized crime groups. D) They have the ability to shut down an organization's manufacturing process While an insider threat actor might cause disruptions, this is not a unique advantage they have over external threat actors. Competitors or nation-states could also cause such disruptions. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of a honeypot in the context of network security? A) To provide a backup location for the organization's data B) To act as a decoy system, attracting attackers away from the production environment C) To prevent unauthorized access to network devices D) To monitor network traffic for potential threats"

"Correct answer with explanation: B) To act as a decoy system, attracting attackers away from the production environment A honeypot is a system or series of systems designed to look attractive to attackers, luring them away from the actual production environment. The attackers may attempt to gain access to these fake honeypot systems, allowing security professionals to monitor and analyze the attackers' methods and techniques. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) To provide a backup location for the organization's data This option does not accurately describe the purpose of a honeypot. Honeypots are not designed for data backup; instead, they act as decoys to attract attackers away from the production environment. C) To prevent unauthorized access to network devices While honeypots can help to divert attackers, their primary purpose is not to prevent unauthorized access. They are designed to act as decoys and gather information about the attackers' methods and techniques. D) To monitor network traffic for potential threats Honeypots do not primarily monitor network traffic for potential threats. Instead, they serve as decoy systems to attract attackers and allow security professionals to analyze attackers' methods and techniques. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/honeypots-and-deception/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the main purpose of SSL/TLS inspection? A) To compress data for faster transmission B) To analyze encrypted data for potential malicious content C) To ensure data is only sent to trusted certificate authorities D) To generate digital signatures for secure communication

"Correct answer with explanation: B) To analyze encrypted data for potential malicious content SSL/TLS inspection is a process where security professionals view and analyze the information within encrypted data to determine if there's anything malicious inside. By doing so, they can block such content from entering or leaving the network, maintaining the security of the data. Incorrect answers with explanation: A) To compress data for faster transmission SSL/TLS inspection is not meant for data compression but rather for analyzing encrypted data for potential threats. C) To ensure data is only sent to trusted certificate authorities Although the trust between the browser and the device it's connecting to is based on a list of certificate authorities, the main purpose of SSL/TLS inspection is to analyze encrypted data for potential malicious content. D) To generate digital signatures for secure communication SSL/TLS inspection is not focused on generating digital signatures; it is primarily used to analyze encrypted data for potential threats. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the main purpose of a honeyfile within a honeypot or honeynet? A) To provide a fake data storage location for the organization B) To attract attackers and trigger an alert when accessed C) To prevent unauthorized access to the honeypot or honeynet D) To analyze the network traffic for potential threats

"Correct answer with explanation: B) To attract attackers and trigger an alert when accessed Honeyfiles are placed inside honeypots and honeynets as attractive bait for attackers. These files may have appealing names like ""passwords.txt"" to entice attackers to access them. When a honeyfile is accessed, an alert can be generated, allowing security professionals to know that someone has tried to attack the system and gather information about the attack. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) To provide a fake data storage location for the organization Honeyfiles are not meant to be used as storage locations for the organization. Their primary purpose is to act as bait for attackers, allowing security professionals to monitor and analyze their activities. C) To prevent unauthorized access to the honeypot or honeynet The primary purpose of honeyfiles is to attract attackers, not to prevent unauthorized access. Honeypots and honeynets are designed to act as decoy systems, allowing security professionals to gather information about attackers' methods and techniques. D) To analyze the network traffic for potential threats Honeyfiles do not analyze network traffic for potential threats. They serve as attractive bait for attackers, enabling security professionals to monitor and analyze their activities within the honeypot or honeynet. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/honeypots-and-deception/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of attackers using fake telemetry in the context of machine learning-based security systems? A) To overload the system with irrelevant data B) To make the machine learning system classify malware as benign C) To cause a denial of service attack on the security system D) To redirect users to malicious websites

"Correct answer with explanation: B) To make the machine learning system classify malware as benign Attackers use fake telemetry to manipulate machine learning-based security systems. By adding fake telemetry data, attackers attempt to make the machine learning system believe that the malware is harmless. Once the training is over, the attacker can send their malicious software through, and the machine learning system will not be able to identify it as malicious. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) To overload the system with irrelevant data While adding fake telemetry may introduce some noise into the data, the primary purpose of using fake telemetry is to deceive the machine learning system into misclassifying malware as benign, not to overload the system with irrelevant data. C) To cause a denial of service attack on the security system Attackers use fake telemetry to manipulate the machine learning system's classification of malware, not to cause a denial of service attack on the security system. Denial of service attacks focus on overwhelming systems or networks to make them unavailable to users. D) To redirect users to malicious websites Redirecting users to malicious websites is a tactic associated with DNS sinkholes or other types of attacks, not with fake telemetry. The primary purpose of using fake telemetry is to deceive machine learning-based security systems into misclassifying malware as harmless. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/honeypots-and-deception/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of a thin client in a cloud-based infrastructure? A) To run multiple applications simultaneously in separate sandboxes B) To provide the remote desktop view of the desktop running in the cloud C) To manage multiple cloud service providers from a single interface D) To break up an application into individual services using APIs

"Correct answer with explanation: B) To provide the remote desktop view of the desktop running in the cloud A thin client is a lightweight device that is used to connect a keyboard, mouse, and monitor to a desktop running in the cloud. It doesn't require a high-end CPU or a lot of memory, as it simply provides the remote desktop view of the desktop running on the cloud service. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) To run multiple applications simultaneously in separate sandboxes This is a description of containerization, not the purpose of a thin client. C) To manage multiple cloud service providers from a single interface This refers to Service Integration and Management (SIAM), not the function of a thin client. D) To break up an application into individual services using APIs This describes the concept of Microservice Architecture, not the purpose of a thin client. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/designing-the-cloud/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which security measure can be used to specifically monitor and control communication to a user's data in web-based applications using an API? A) Next generation firewall B) Web application firewall C) Encrypted protocols D) Limited access based on user's rights and permissions"

"Correct answer with explanation: B) Web application firewall A web application firewall is commonly used to monitor and control communication to a user's data in API-based applications. It helps protect web-based and API-based applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between the application and the Internet. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) Next generation firewall A next generation firewall is primarily used to protect network traffic, rather than application-specific traffic such as API calls. C) Encrypted protocols While encrypted protocols are important for secure communication in API-based applications, they do not specifically monitor and control communication to a user's data. D) Limited access based on user's rights and permissions Limiting access based on user's rights and permissions is crucial for controlling what users can do within an API-based application, but it does not specifically monitor and control communication to a user's data. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes data in use protection mechanisms? A) Whole disk encryption B) Transport Layer Security (TLS) encryption C) Monitoring data in memory for unauthorized access D) Tokenization

"Correct answer with explanation: C) Monitoring data in memory for unauthorized access Data in use refers to data that is in the memory of our systems, such as system RAM, CPU registers, or caches. This data is usually in a decrypted or plaintext view to make it easier to perform calculations and read the information. Monitoring data in memory for unauthorized access helps protect data in use by detecting potential attacks that target this unencrypted data. Incorrect answer explanations: A) Whole disk encryption Whole disk encryption is used for protecting data at rest, which refers to data stored on a storage device, not data in use. B) Transport Layer Security (TLS) encryption TLS encryption is used for protecting data in transit or data in motion, which refers to data moving across the network, not data in use. D) Tokenization Tokenization involves replacing sensitive data with a completely different set of data. It's commonly used in credit card transactions, but it doesn't specifically target data in use protection. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/protecting-data/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the responsibilities of an organization using Platform as a Service (PaaS)? A) The organization manages the entire process from application development to infrastructure. B) The organization only has to connect to the system and begin using the on-demand software. C) The organization is responsible for creating and managing the application and the application's data. D) The organization is responsible for managing the system from the operating system up through the application."

"Correct answer with explanation: C) The organization is responsible for creating and managing the application and the application's data. In the PaaS model, the cloud service provider offers the infrastructure, operating system, virtualization services, and other building blocks needed for application development. The organization is responsible for creating and managing the application and its data, while the cloud service provider takes care of the underlying services. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) The organization manages the entire process from application development to infrastructure. This choice is incorrect because in PaaS, the cloud service provider manages the infrastructure, not the organization. B) The organization only has to connect to the system and begin using the on-demand software. This choice is incorrect because it describes Software as a Service (SaaS), not Platform as a Service (PaaS). D) The organization is responsible for managing the system from the operating system up through the application. This choice is incorrect because it describes Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), not Platform as a Service (PaaS). Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following describes an attack vector that took advantage of the supply chain in the 2013 credit card breach from Target? A. A USB drive was used to bypass security controls B. A rogue access point was connected to the network C. A vendor with access to Target's internal network was compromised D. Social media information was used to reset passwords"

"Correct answer with explanation: C. A vendor with access to Target's internal network was compromised In the 2013 credit card breach from Target, attackers exploited the supply chain by compromising a third-party vendor who had access to Target's internal network. Once inside the network, the attackers gained access to the cash registers at every Target location. Incorrect answers with explanations: A. A USB drive was used to bypass security controls This option refers to an attack vector where USB drives are used to bypass security measures or infect air-gapped systems. This was not the method used in the 2013 Target breach. B. A rogue access point was connected to the network This attack vector involves connecting an unauthorized wireless access point to the network, which was not the method used in the Target breach. D. Social media information was used to reset passwords This attack vector uses social media information to reset passwords and gain unauthorized access to accounts. It was not used in the 2013 Target credit card breach. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-vectors/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary responsibility of the Quality Assurance (QA) team in the application development process? A. Writing the application code B. Testing the application in a sandbox environment C. Ensuring the application works as expected and preventing old bugs from reappearing D. Deploying the application into the production environment

"Correct answer with explanation: C. Ensuring the application works as expected and preventing old bugs from reappearing The QA team is responsible for thoroughly testing the application, making sure new features work as intended, and ensuring that old bugs don't reappear in the updated software. They do this by putting the application through its paces and verifying that it works as expected. Explanation of the incorrect answers: A. Writing the application code Developers, not the QA team, are responsible for writing the application code. B. Testing the application in a sandbox environment Developers test the application in a sandbox environment during the development phase. The QA team tests the application after it has passed through the development phase. D. Deploying the application into the production environment The team responsible for transitioning the application into the production environment handles deployment. The QA team's responsibility is to ensure the application's quality before it reaches this stage. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-deployments-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is an attack vector associated with cloud-based applications? A. Attaching a keylogger to a keyboard B. Exploiting an air-gapped network with a USB drive C. Deploying an evil twin access point D. Misconfigurations leading to unauthorized access to data

"Correct answer with explanation: D. Misconfigurations leading to unauthorized access to data In the case of cloud-based applications, misconfigurations can lead to unauthorized access to data. These applications are often publicly-facing, and it's crucial to ensure the entire configuration of the application is secure, protecting data from prying eyes. Incorrect answers with explanation: A. Attaching a keylogger to a keyboard This attack vector is related to direct physical access to a system, rather than cloud-based applications. A keylogger is connected to a keyboard, recording keystrokes and potentially capturing sensitive information like usernames and passwords. B. Exploiting an air-gapped network with a USB drive This attack vector involves using a USB drive to circumvent security controls on an air-gapped network, which is not directly connected to the internet. It is not specific to cloud-based applications. C. Deploying an evil twin access point An evil twin access point is a malicious form of a rogue access point designed to emulate legitimate access points in a network. This attack vector targets wireless networks, not cloud-based applications. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-vectors/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is an example of a result of vulnerabilities that can be more damaging than losing money? A) A database being deleted without warning B) An organization's value being impacted in the stock market C) The loss of uptime and availability D) Identity theft"

"Correct answer: A) A database being deleted without warning. Explanation: Losing data can be more damaging than losing money. For example, in July 2020, the ""meow"" attack deleted thousands of databases that had no password or were using default passwords, and all of the information in those databases was replaced with the word ""meow."" This is an extreme example of what can happen if databases are not properly secured, and another reason why it's very important to always have a backup. Explanation of incorrect answers: B) An organization's value being impacted in the stock market - While losing money is a possible result of vulnerabilities, this answer is not specific to the text's context and is therefore incorrect. C) The loss of uptime and availability - This is a possible result of vulnerabilities, but it is not more damaging than losing money. This answer is also not specific to the text's context and is therefore incorrect. D) Identity theft - While identity theft is a result of vulnerabilities and a concern, it is not more damaging than losing money, and it is not the answer to the specific question asked. This answer is therefore incorrect. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-impacts/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is an allow list in the context of security? A) A list of applications that are allowed to run on a particular system B) A list of cookies that are marked as secure and encrypted using HTTPS C) A list of vulnerabilities found by static code analyzers during a SAST process D) A list of third-party tools used to randomize input into an application

"Correct answer: A) A list of applications that are allowed to run on a particular system Explanation: An allow list is a list of applications that are allowed to run on a particular system. This means that anything that's listed on the allow list can run with no problem on that particular system, but only applications in that allow list can operate. If someone tries to install a new application that's not on the allow list, that application will not execute. Most operating systems have methods built into the OS that allow the administrator to set up allow lists and deny lists. These lists can be based on many different types of criteria such as application hash, digital signature, folder location, and network zone. Explanation of incorrect answers: B) A list of cookies that are marked as secure and encrypted using HTTPS - This answer refers to secure cookies, not an allow list. Secure cookies are cookies that have an attribute on them that is marked as secure. This tells the browser that if this information is being sent across the network, it needs to be sent over an encrypted connection using HTTPS. C) A list of vulnerabilities found by static code analyzers during a SAST process - This answer refers to the output of a static code analyzer during a SAST process, not an allow list. D) A list of third-party tools used to randomize input into an application - This answer refers to fuzzing, not an allow list. Fuzzing is a process of checking and correcting the data that's being input into an application, where random data is simply being put into the input of an application using third-party tools, such as fuzzers, to be able to constantly try to randomize input into the application to see if perhaps they can make the application perform unexpectedly or in a way that they could replicate later on. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of anonymization? A) Replacing sensitive data with a completely different bit of data called a token B) Only collecting data that is necessary to perform a specific function C) Masking data in a way that shows it exists, but doesn't allow you to see any of it D) Using a consistent replacement name on the screen each time a record is accessed"

"Correct answer: A) Replacing sensitive data with a completely different bit of data called a token Explanation: Anonymization is a privacy-enhancing technology that involves taking existing data and making it impossible to identify anything associated with the original data that was saved. One way to anonymize data is to replace sensitive data with a completely different bit of data called a token. Tokens can't be used to derive the original data and are used to keep data safe. Option B is an example of data minimization, which means only collecting data that is necessary to perform a specific function. Option C is an example of data masking, which obfuscates data in a way that shows it exists, but doesn't allow you to see any of it. Option D is an example of pseudonymization, which involves using a consistent replacement name on the screen each time a record is accessed. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/enhancing-privacy/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the key to handling a security incident properly? A) Reacting quickly once an incident has occurred B) Knowing exactly what to do when an incident occurs C) Having a comprehensive list of all the people involved in the incident response team D) Monitoring network traffic 24/7 to detect security incidents

"Correct answer: B) Knowing exactly what to do when an incident occurs Explanation: The key to handling a security incident properly is to be well prepared and have all the right people and processes in place so that you know exactly what to do when the incident occurs. This includes communication methods, hardware and software tools, documentation of the organization's network, mitigation plans, and policies and procedures for everyone involved in the incident response team. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Reacting quickly once an incident has occurred: While it's important to react quickly to a security incident, it's not the key to handling it properly. Without proper preparation, a quick reaction could lead to further damage. C) Having a comprehensive list of all the people involved in the incident response team: While having a comprehensive list of people involved in the incident response team is important, it's not the key to handling a security incident properly. D) Monitoring network traffic 24/7 to detect security incidents: While monitoring network traffic is important, it's not the key to handling a security incident properly. It's just one of the ways to detect security incidents. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-process-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes end of service life (EOSL)? A. It is a phase where a manufacturer stops selling a product, but continues to support it. B. It is a phase where a manufacturer stops selling and supporting a product, but allows for continued security patches for an additional fee. C. It is a phase where a manufacturer stops selling and supporting a product, and there are no more security patches or updates, even with an additional fee. D. It is a phase where a manufacturer stops selling and supporting a product, but provides a replacement product for customers to migrate to.

"Correct answer: C Explanation: End of service life (EOSL) is the phase where a manufacturer stops selling and supporting a product, and there are no more security patches or updates, even with an additional fee. It is important for a security team to understand when a product's EOSL might be, so they can make arrangements to maintain the security of those systems. Incorrect answers: A. It is a phase where a manufacturer stops selling a product, but continues to support it. (This describes end of life, not end of service life.) B. It is a phase where a manufacturer stops selling and supporting a product, but allows for continued security patches for an additional fee. (While partly correct, it is incorrect in suggesting that continued security patches are available for an additional fee during EOSL.) D. It is a phase where a manufacturer stops selling and supporting a product, but provides a replacement product for customers to migrate to. (This is not necessarily the case during EOSL.) Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich email protocol provides public private key encryption mechanism for email security? A) POP 3 B) IMAP C) SMIME D) NTP

"Correct answer: C Explanation: SMIME stands for secure multipurpose internet mail extensions. This is a public private key encryption mechanism that allows you to protect the information using that encryption and to provide digital signatures for integrity. Incorrect answers: A) POP 3 is an email protocol that can use a start TLS extension to include SSL as part of that POP 3 communication. B) IMAP is an email protocol that can use a secure IMAP which also uses SSL. D) NTP is Network Time Protocol, which wasn't designed with any security features. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberQuestion: What is VDI and VMI in mobile deployment? A) Virtual Device Infrastructure or Virtual Mobile Infrastructure, which allows for personal and corporate use of a single device. B) A corporate-owned but personally enabled deployment model. C) Virtual Desktop Infrastructure or Virtual Mobile Infrastructure, which separates data and applications from the mobile device. D) Choose Your Own Device deployment, where the employee gets to choose which device they will use.

"Correct answer: C Explanation: VDI and VMI stand for Virtual Desktop Infrastructure and Virtual Mobile Infrastructure, respectively. This deployment model separates the data and applications from the mobile device, and all information is stored securely in an external data store. Applications are accessed through remote access software, making it easy for application updates and avoiding the need to deploy new apps to every user's mobile device. This model is useful for keeping data secure and separate from mobile devices and simplifying application management. Incorrect answers: A) This answer is partially correct in describing the aspects of VDI and VMI that relate to the use of a single device, but it is not a complete definition of the deployment model. B) COPE is described in the text as a corporate-owned but personally enabled deployment model, not VDI or VMI. D) CYOD, or Choose Your Own Device, is also described in the text but is not the correct answer to the question. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-deployment-models/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a digital certificate used for in identity and access management? A) To authenticate a user's password during the authentication process B) To store a user's personal information and attributes C) To confirm the owner of the certificate is trustworthy and provide identification D) To manage all of a user's public and private keys centrally"

"Correct answer: C Explanation:A digital certificate is used to confirm that the owner of the certificate is someone that can be trusted. It allows us to identify a particular entity. The owner might also be able to perform other cryptographic functions with this certificate. For example, they can use this for encrypting data or to create digital signatures that can be trusted by a third party. This type of identity control requires that we put in some type of public Key Infrastructure or PKI. The CA is the central trusted entity for all of these digital certificates. Incorrect answer A: A digital certificate is not used to authenticate a user's password during the authentication process. Incorrect answer B: A digital certificate is not used to store a user's personal information and attributes. Incorrect answer D: A digital certificate is not used to manage all of a user's public and private keys centrally. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/identity-controls/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a Capture the Flag (CTF) in the context of security training? A) A simulation that involves users clicking on links in phishing emails to test their awareness. B) A training program for IT professionals to learn how to handle flags and banners. C) A competition where participants try to hack into a system to gain access to data. D) A training session that is specific to the role that a new employee has in an organization.

"Correct answer: C) A competition where participants try to hack into a system to gain access to data. Explanation: A Capture the Flag (CTF) is a type of security-related competition where participants attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in a system to find hidden ""flags"" (pieces of data) and gain points. This type of training helps security professionals to stay current with the latest vulnerabilities and attacks. Incorrect answers: A) This answer describes a phishing simulation, which is a different type of security training. B) This answer is incorrect as it is not related to security training or Capture the Flag. D) This answer is also incorrect as it describes a general type of training program and is not specific to security or Capture the Flag. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is tokenization in the context of privacy-enhancing technologies? A) A way to convert encrypted data back to its original form B) A technique used to shift data from one place to another C) A method of replacing sensitive data with a completely different bit of data called a token D) A process of collecting only the information that's needed"

"Correct answer: C) A method of replacing sensitive data with a completely different bit of data called a token. Explanation: Tokenization is a process of replacing sensitive data with a completely different bit of data called a token. For example, credit card processing commonly uses tokenization, where a token of the credit card number is used instead of the actual credit card number. This token cannot be used to purchase anything else, as there is no mathematical relationship between the token and the actual credit card number. Tokenization is not hashing or encryption, and there is no way to derive the original data from the tokenized version. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) This answer is incorrect because tokenization is not a way to convert encrypted data back to its original form. B) This answer is incorrect because shifting data from one place to another is not the definition of tokenization. D) This answer is incorrect because collecting only the information that's needed is the definition of data minimization, not tokenization. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/enhancing-privacy/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a data owner in an organization? A) A person responsible for processing the data B) A person responsible for storing the data C) A person responsible for a certain set of data D) A person responsible for securing the data

"Correct answer: C) A person responsible for a certain set of data. Explanation: A data owner in an organization is responsible for a certain set of data. They are accountable for ensuring the accuracy, privacy, and security of that data. Data owners are typically found at the management level of an organization and have the responsibility of defining policies for data management. Incorrect Answers: A) A person responsible for processing the data - This is the responsibility of data processors who work on behalf of data controllers. B) A person responsible for storing the data - This is the responsibility of data custodians or data stewards who are responsible for the accuracy and security of the data stored in an organization's systems. D) A person responsible for securing the data - While data owners are responsible for the security of the data they manage, there are usually separate roles within an organization for implementing security controls and ensuring the overall security of all data. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-roles-and-responsibilities/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is on-boarding in the context of IT security? A) A process of disabling user accounts before they leave the organization B) A training program for security professionals that includes a Capture The Flag competition C) A process of bringing on new employees or transferring existing employees to the organization D) A process of evaluating an individual's social media presence during the hiring process"

"Correct answer: C) A process of bringing on new employees or transferring existing employees to the organization Explanation: On-boarding is the process of bringing on new employees or transferring existing employees to the organization, and it involves a number of steps such as signing agreements like the employee handbook or an acceptable use policy, creating accounts for network access, and providing equipment like a desktop, laptop or mobile device for daily work. This process is critical for ensuring that employees have everything they need to do their jobs effectively and securely from the outset. Incorrect answers: A) The process of disabling user accounts before they leave the organization is actually part of the off-boarding process, which involves planning for the departure of employees to ensure that equipment is returned, data is protected, and accounts are disabled or deleted. B) A training program for security professionals that includes a Capture The Flag competition is a type of training called gamification, which can be used to keep skills up to date and help security professionals stay current with the latest vulnerabilities and attacks. D) Evaluating an individual's social media presence during the hiring process is a common practice, but it is not specifically related to the on-boarding process. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a privacy impact assessment (PIA)? A) A legal agreement and a user commonly has to agree to these terms and conditions prior to using a service. B) A document that explains how the organization is going to manage the data that you provide to them, and what you can do to help protect your data. C) A process that allows an organization to understand how new processes or products will affect the privacy of their customers' data. D) A document that gives you options on who you can contact in an organization for more information.

"Correct answer: C) A process that allows an organization to understand how new processes or products will affect the privacy of their customers' data. Explanation: A privacy impact assessment (PIA) is a process that allows an organization to understand how new processes or products will affect the privacy of their customers' data. It enables an organization to understand how data flows will occur before implementing a project, so privacy concerns can be fixed before they actually become an issue. PIAs can also help stop data breaches since all privacy concerns can be identified and addressed beforehand. A is incorrect because it describes a terms of service agreement. B is incorrect because it describes a privacy notice or privacy policy document. D is incorrect because it describes a part of a privacy notice or privacy policy that provides contact information for more information. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes code signing? A) A way to encrypt cookies stored on a user's computer to protect them from being accessed by unauthorized users B) A method of automatically analyzing source code to identify vulnerabilities in applications C) A process used to validate that code being executed is the same as the original code deployed by the application developer D) A technique used to restrict the execution of specific applications on a computer"

"Correct answer: C) A process used to validate that code being executed is the same as the original code deployed by the application developer Explanation: Code signing is a technique used to validate that the code being executed is the same as the original code deployed by the application developer. This involves using a trusted certificate authority to sign the developer's public key, which the developer then uses to sign any code they deploy. This allows users to validate that the code they are running is exactly what was deployed by the original developer. Code signing is commonly used when applications are installed, and if the validation fails, the user will be notified that the code signing signature is not valid. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Incorrect because code signing is not related to encrypting cookies stored on a user's computer. B) Incorrect because code signing is not related to automatically analyzing source code to identify vulnerabilities. D) Incorrect because code signing is not related to restricting the execution of specific applications on a computer. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the main difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption? A) Symmetric encryption requires multiple keys, while asymmetric encryption requires a single key. B) Symmetric encryption is more secure than asymmetric encryption. C) Asymmetric encryption requires more resources than symmetric encryption. D) Both symmetric and asymmetric encryption require the same amount of resources.

"Correct answer: C) Asymmetric encryption requires more resources than symmetric encryption. Explanation of correct answer: As stated in the text, asymmetric encryption requires more overhead and more work by the CPU, making it more resource-intensive than symmetric encryption. This is why asymmetric encryption is often combined with symmetric encryption, using asymmetric encryption to transfer a symmetric key to someone else. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) This answer is incorrect because symmetric encryption uses a single key, while asymmetric encryption uses multiple keys. B) This answer is incorrect because there is no clear-cut ""more secure"" encryption algorithm. Both symmetric and asymmetric encryption have their strengths and weaknesses. D) This answer is incorrect because, as stated in the text, asymmetric encryption requires more resources than symmetric encryption. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/symmetric-and-asymmetric-cryptography/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is responsible for managing data privacy, ensuring data accuracy, and deciding what sensitivity label to associate with data? A) Data Analyst B) Data Scientist C) Data Steward D) Data Architect

"Correct answer: C) Data Steward Explanation: The person in charge of managing data governance is the Data Steward. This person is responsible for data privacy, ensuring data accuracy, and deciding what sensitivity label to associate with data. They also determine what labels are associated with each data type, ensuring that data is used properly and secured properly. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Incorrect answers: A) Data Analyst: A Data Analyst is responsible for analyzing data to identify patterns, relationships, and trends to make data-driven decisions. B) Data Scientist: A Data Scientist is responsible for designing and implementing algorithms and models to extract insights from data. D) Data Architect: A Data Architect is responsible for designing and maintaining an organization's data architecture, including data storage, access, and security. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-data/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a valuable type of information to store in a SIEM from a security perspective? A) Personal information of network users B) Login credentials of network devices C) Denied outbound traffic flows D) Entertainment preferences of network users

"Correct answer: C) Denied outbound traffic flows Explanation: A SIEM is used to collect information from anything on the network that can create log files, security alerts, or any type of real-time information that can tell us about what's happening on the network right now. From a security perspective, it is valuable to store denied outbound traffic flows, attempts to authenticate into a server, VPN connectivity or firewall session logs, and a generic overview of network utilization to track and trend over time. It's also common to grab raw packet captures as well, especially if an event occurs, and you can add the packet captures into the event to add more information about what may have happened during that time frame. Therefore, option C) is the correct answer. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Personal information of network users: This is not a valuable type of information to store in a SIEM from a security perspective. Storing personal information of network users can violate privacy regulations, and it does not provide any useful information for network security. B) Login credentials of network devices: Storing login credentials of network devices is a security risk and can lead to a data breach. It is not a valuable type of information to store in a SIEM from a security perspective. D) Entertainment preferences of network users: Entertainment preferences of network users are not related to network security, and storing this information does not provide any useful information for network security. Therefore, this is not a valuable type of information to store in a SIEM from a security perspective. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-information-and-event-management/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following statements is true regarding guards in physical security? A) Guards are becoming obsolete due to the rise of biometric systems. B) Guards are the only effective physical security control for facilities. C) Guards can be replaced by robots for certain tasks, allowing them to perform more important tasks. D) Guards should always be armed in order to provide effective security.

"Correct answer: C) Guards can be replaced by robots for certain tasks, allowing them to perform more important tasks. Explanation: While guards are an important part of physical security, emerging technologies such as robots can be used to replace guards for certain tasks, allowing them to focus on other important tasks. Biometric systems can also be used for physical access control, but they are often combined with other types of authentication for increased security. It is not true that guards are becoming obsolete, nor are they the only effective physical security control. Furthermore, not all guards need to be armed; this is dependent on the facility's security needs and regulations. Incorrect answers: A) Guards are not becoming obsolete, but rather are still an important part of physical security. B) Guards are not the only effective physical security control, as there are many other types of controls such as biometric systems, locks, and surveillance cameras. D) Guards do not always need to be armed, as this is dependent on the security needs and regulations of the facility. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about IoT sensors? A) IoT sensors are not connected to the internet. B) IoT sensors are always connected to our home networks. C) IoT sensors are on the internet but not connected to our home networks. D) IoT sensors are only used in manufacturing facilities.

"Correct answer: C) IoT sensors are on the internet but not connected to our home networks. Explanation: IoT devices or sensors are connected to the internet but are not necessarily secure, and so there is a risk associated with them. Many IoT devices are on the internet, connected to our home networks, and so there is an important consideration for security. It's important to have separate networks set aside for IoT devices that are segmented from our local home network that has all of our computers on it to protect personal data. A) is incorrect because IoT sensors are connected to the internet. B) is incorrect because IoT sensors are not always connected to our home networks. D) is incorrect because IoT sensors are used in many different places and not only in manufacturing facilities. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a key benefit of using change control in an organization? A) It eliminates the need for documentation and fallback procedures B) It allows for changes to be made without prior approval C) It provides a clear process for managing changes and minimizing downtime D) It increases the risk of causing applications to fail and networks to break

"Correct answer: C) It provides a clear process for managing changes and minimizing downtime. Explanation: Change control is a formal process for managing changes in an organization's systems and infrastructure, and it provides a clear process for managing changes and minimizing downtime. By understanding the scope of a change, assessing associated risks, and creating a plan with user approval, an organization can manage the change process effectively and avoid unnecessary downtime and confusion. The change control board can review the plans and approve or deny the change, putting it on the calendar for execution. Having a fallback plan and documenting everything are also important steps in the process. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because documentation and fallback procedures are important steps in the change control process. Option B is incorrect because changes should not be made without prior approval. Option D is incorrect because implementing change control can help reduce the risk of causing applications to fail and networks to break. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/organizational-policies/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a recommended best practice for securing networking infrastructure devices? A) Leave the default username and password in place for easier management. B) Install antivirus software directly on the networking device. C) Keep the networking device's operating system up to date with the latest security patches. D) Use the same password for all user accounts on the networking device."

"Correct answer: C) Keep the networking device's operating system up to date with the latest security patches. Explanation: Networking infrastructure devices such as switches, routers, and firewalls have their own embedded operating systems, and it is important to keep these systems up to date with the latest security patches. This is because these devices are often targeted by attackers and can be used as a way to gain access to other systems on the network. Leaving the default username and password in place (A) is not recommended, as it can make it easier for attackers to gain access. Installing antivirus software directly on the networking device (B) is not typically possible, as these devices are not designed to run such software. Using the same password for all user accounts on the networking device (D) is also not recommended, as it can make it easier for attackers to gain access to multiple systems if they can obtain one password. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat might be a consequence of a data breach? A) Increased stock prices B) Enhanced reputation C) Lawsuits and fines D) Improved trust

"Correct answer: C) Lawsuits and fines Explanation: One consequence of a data breach could be lawsuits and fines. When data is breached and it falls into the hands of a third party, it is the responsibility of the organization to have a public disclosure so that everyone understands what has happened. Many of these public disclosure laws mandate that the organization must include credit monitoring so that everyone who is affected by this data breach can keep an eye on what is happening with their data. There might also be fines or lawsuits associated with the data breach. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Increased stock prices - This option is incorrect as a security breach can have an adverse impact on a publicly traded company's stock price. B) Enhanced reputation - This option is incorrect as a security breach can damage an organization's reputation as a keeper of valuable data. D) Improved trust - This option is incorrect as a security breach can distress the public's trust in an organization's ability to protect data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a benefit of using sandboxing for an application? A) Allows the application to access all data on the device B) Gives the application more permissions than it needs C) Limits the scope of an application from accessing data that is not part of that application D) Increases the attack surface of the application

"Correct answer: C) Limits the scope of an application from accessing data that is not part of that application. Explanation: Sandboxing is a security mechanism that restricts the ability of an application to access resources on a device, such as other applications, system files, or user data. By using sandboxing, the scope of an application is limited to only the data that is necessary for the application to function, which can help prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Allows the application to access all data on the device - This is incorrect because the purpose of sandboxing is to restrict the application's access to data on the device, not to allow it to access all data. B) Gives the application more permissions than it needs - This is incorrect because the purpose of sandboxing is to restrict the application's permissions to only what it needs, not to give it more permissions than necessary. D) Increases the attack surface of the application - This is incorrect because the purpose of sandboxing is to limit the attack surface of the application by restricting its access to resources on the device. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes continuous monitoring? A) Monitoring network traffic only during regular business hours B) Monitoring network traffic once a week C) Monitoring network traffic in real-time and continuously D) Monitoring network traffic only when there is a security incident

"Correct answer: C) Monitoring network traffic in real-time and continuously. Explanation: Continuous monitoring is the process of keeping track of events and system activities in real-time, using automated tools and processes. By doing so, an organization can detect security incidents and policy violations as soon as they occur, allowing them to respond quickly and reduce the impact of any security events. This is an important part of an organization's overall security strategy and helps to ensure that their systems and data are protected. Incorrect answers: A) Monitoring network traffic only during regular business hours - This is not continuous monitoring as it is not happening 24/7. B) Monitoring network traffic once a week - This is not continuous monitoring as it is not happening in real-time and not frequent enough. D) Monitoring network traffic only when there is a security incident - This is not continuous monitoring as it is only happening when a security incident occurs, rather than being an ongoing process. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/continuous-monitoring/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a feature that can be built into CCTV cameras? A) Automatic email alerts B) Voice recognition C) Object detection D) Wireless connectivity

"Correct answer: C) Object detection Explanation: CCTV cameras can have various features built into them. One such feature is object detection. This means that the camera can recognize whether something moving through the camera range is an automobile or a person's face and track it as it moves from place to place. This can be useful in detecting suspicious activity or identifying individuals. Incorrect answers: A) Automatic email alerts: Although some CCTV systems may have automatic email alerts, this is not a feature that is necessarily built into CCTV cameras themselves. B) Voice recognition: Voice recognition is not a feature that is typically built into CCTV cameras. D) Wireless connectivity: While some CCTV cameras may have wireless connectivity, this is not a feature that is necessarily built into CCTV cameras themselves. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Corporate-owned personally enabled (COPE) Deployment model? A) Employees are responsible for purchasing and bringing their own devices for both personal and corporate use. B) Employees can choose their own device to be purchased by the company for both personal and corporate use. C) The organization purchases a device for the employee to use only for corporate purposes. D) The organization separates data and applications from the mobile device and stores them externally.

"Correct answer: C) The organization purchases a device for the employee to use only for corporate purposes. Explanation:COPE stands for Corporate-owned Personally-enabled deployment model where the organization purchases a device for the employee to use as a corporate and personal device, but only for company purposes. The organization has full control over the device and what information is stored on it. Data needs to be separated between personal and corporate, and the device is managed through MDM. This type of deployment ensures security for the organization's data stored on that device. A) This answer describes the Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. B) This answer describes the Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) deployment model. D) This answer describes the Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) or Virtual Mobile Infrastructure (VMI) deployment model. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-deployment-models/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a commonly used method to ensure mobile device security through Mobile Device Management (MDM)? A) Allowing users to install any applications they want B) Enabling biometric authentication on all devices C) Utilizing containerization to separate personal and company information D) Disabling screen locks and passwords to make it easier for users to access their device

"Correct answer: C) Utilizing containerization to separate personal and company information Explanation: One way to manage the challenge of separating personal user data and sensitive company information on mobile devices is through containerization. This involves creating separate areas or partitions on the device where private information can be kept separate from company information. This method is important during the off-boarding process when the company information needs to be deleted while leaving the user's personal information intact. Enabling biometric authentication or disabling screen locks and passwords would not help separate personal and company information. Allowing users to install any applications they want would increase the risk of malicious software being installed on the device. Incorrect answers: A) Allowing users to install any applications they want - This is not a commonly used method in MDM as it increases the risk of malicious software being installed on the device. B) Enabling biometric authentication on all devices - While biometric authentication is an option, it may not be the most secure authentication method and could be circumvented on some devices. D) Disabling screen locks and passwords to make it easier for users to access their device - This would increase the risk of unauthorized access to the device and the sensitive information stored on it. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true regarding biometric authentication? A) The retina is an often-used biometric authentication factor. B) Gait analysis examines the different characteristics of a person's voice. C) Vascular scanners can determine a person's identity based on the unique layout of their veins. D) Biometric authentication is a certain science and doesn't require any adjustment."

"Correct answer: C) Vascular scanners can determine a person's identity based on the unique layout of their veins. Explanation: Vascular scanners can look at the blood vessels in a person's extremities, such as the arms, and determine their identity based on the unique layout of their veins. This is a relatively accurate biometric factor that is rarely used. The retina is also a biometric authentication factor, but it is not often used due to its intrusive nature. Gait analysis examines the different characteristics of a person's walk, not their voice. Biometric authentication is an uncertain science that requires adjustments to sensitivity levels to ensure correct access for users. Incorrect answer explanations: A) The retina is an often-used biometric authentication factor - The retina is a biometric authentication factor, but it is not often used due to its intrusive nature. B) Gait analysis examines the different characteristics of a person's voice - Gait analysis examines the different characteristics of a person's walk, not their voice. D) Biometric authentication is a certain science and doesn't require any adjustment - Biometric authentication is an uncertain science that requires adjustments to sensitivity levels to ensure correct access for users. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is MAC filtering in relation to network security? A. A protocol used to prevent loops on switch networks B. A standard used to limit the number of broadcasts on a network C. A mechanism used to prevent unauthorized DHCP servers from being on the network D. A technology used to allow or disallow traffic based on the MAC address that's communicating through the network

"Correct answer: D Explanation: MAC filtering is a technology used to allow or disallow traffic based on the MAC address that's communicating through the network. It's an administrative tool that can be used to control access to the network, but it's not a very strong security mechanism since there's no security mechanism at Layer 2 that can obscure or encrypt MAC addresses, which makes it easy to circumvent. A. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a protocol used to prevent loops on switch networks. B. Limiting the number of broadcasts on a network can be done by setting a certain finite value or by having the switch monitor the amount of broadcasts and removing them if necessary. C. DHCP snooping is a technology used to prevent unauthorized DHCP servers from being on the network. D. This is the correct answer. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/port-security-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is RFID? A. A wireless technology used to connect mobile devices and their accessories. B. A technology used to determine location information for mobile devices. C. A technology commonly used to transfer files between two devices via infrared communication. D. A technology used for tracking and identification using radio frequencies.

"Correct answer: D Explanation: RFID stands for Radio-frequency identification, and it is used for tracking and identification using radio frequencies. RFID chips are used in access badges, assembly lines, warehouses, and even pets. They work using radar technology, where information is transmitted back after an RFID device is powered from an RF signal. Some RFID tag formats don't require that you power them with the RF signal that you're sending originally. Instead, they may be locally powered, and they may have other methods in order to send their ID information. Option A is incorrect because it describes Bluetooth networks, option B describes GPS, and option C describes infrared communication. Incorrect answer explanation: A. Option A describes Bluetooth networks used to connect mobile devices and their accessories. B. Option B describes GPS, which is used to determine location information for mobile devices. C. Option C describes infrared communication, which is used to transfer files between two devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of availability loss due to a cyber attack? A) The Equifax data breach B) The meow attack C) The SWIFT attack on the Bank of Bangladesh D) The ransomware attack on Banco Estado

"Correct answer: D Explanation: The ransomware attack on Banco Estado caused the bank's internal systems to be taken down, resulting in an availability loss. The bank had to delete everything on their internal systems and restore from known good backups, causing the bank to be out of business for an extended period. The Equifax data breach, the meow attack, and the SWIFT attack on the Bank of Bangladesh all resulted in financial loss and/or loss of data, but not an availability loss. Incorrect answer explanation: A) The Equifax data breach resulted in a loss of data and financial loss, but not an availability loss. B) The meow attack resulted in a loss of data, but not an availability loss. C) The SWIFT attack on the Bank of Bangladesh resulted in financial loss, but not an availability loss. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-impacts/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a tabletop exercise? A) A full-scale drill that involves all parts of the organization B) A simulation where users are sent phishing emails to test their response C) A type of disaster recovery plan that involves manual transactions D) A discussion-based exercise where participants step through a scenario without physically performing tasks

"Correct answer: D) A discussion-based exercise where participants step through a scenario without physically performing tasks Explanation: A tabletop exercise is a type of security incident simulation where participants step through a scenario without physically performing tasks. This exercise is used to test the process followed when an incident occurs, and it involves everyone around a table being presented with a particular scenario, and then stepping through what they would do if this particular incident occurred, instead of actually performing the tasks. This exercise allows participants to discuss the process with others in the organization, and find places where the process being followed doesn't match what other people were expecting, and resolve those process and procedure problems before an actual incident occurs. Incorrect answers explained: A) A full-scale drill that involves all parts of the organization is referring to a walkthrough exercise, which involves all parts of the organization, and tests all processes and procedures, not just the process followed when an incident occurs. B) A simulation where users are sent phishing emails to test their response is referring to a phishing simulation exercise, where users are sent phishing emails to test their response and anti-phishing mechanisms. C) A type of disaster recovery plan that involves manual transactions is referring to continuity of operations planning, which involves using manual transactions that are created on paper receipts, and instead of using automated transaction approvals, picking up the phone and calling someone to get those approvals. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of user and entity behavior analytics in a SIEM system? A) Storing firewall session logs B) Collecting raw packet captures C) Monitoring social media sentiment D) Examining how people are using the network

"Correct answer: D) Examining how people are using the network. Explanation: User and entity behavior analytics examine how people are using the network, even if they're not directly attacking a device. It is a type of analytics that looks at patterns in user behavior that could potentially cause problems in the future. Options A and B describe types of information that would be valuable to store in a SIEM, but do not relate to user behavior analytics. Option C describes sentiment analytics, which examines how the public views a particular organization and is not related to user behavior analytics. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Option A and B are incorrect because they do not relate to user behavior analytics. Option C is incorrect because it describes sentiment analytics, which is not related to user behavior analytics. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-information-and-event-management/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of an ""open permissions"" problem? A) Attackers finding vulnerabilities hidden in software B) Mirai botnet taking advantage of default usernames and passwords C) Use of weak encryption protocols D) Information being put onto the internet with no security applied"

"Correct answer: D) Information being put onto the internet with no security applied Explanation: An ""open permissions"" problem is when information is put onto the internet with no security applied, making it very easy for anyone on the internet to access that information. This is becoming increasingly common with the increasing amount of data being stored on the cloud, and attackers spend a lot of time trying to find misconfigurations that would allow access to this data. The other answer choices are not examples of ""open permissions"" problems. Option A refers to attackers finding vulnerabilities hidden in software, Option B refers to attackers taking advantage of default usernames and passwords, and Option C refers to weak encryption protocols. These are all different types of vulnerabilities, but not specifically related to ""open permissions"" problems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat biometric authentication factor is used for facial recognition? A) Gait analysis B) Voice recognition C) Retina D) Iris

"Correct answer: D) Iris Explanation: The text states that if you have a mobile device, you may be using facial recognition, and the camera in your phone looks at the face of whoever's holding the phone, and is able to either allow or disallow access based on those facial features. This means that the biometric factor used for facial recognition is the face itself, specifically the features of the face that are captured by the camera. The iris, which is in the front of the eye and has specific textures and colors associated with it, is not used for facial recognition. Incorrect answers: A) Gait analysis is a biometric authentication factor that examines the different characteristics someone has when they're walking. B) Voice recognition is a biometric authentication factor that uses the unique features of a person's voice to authenticate them. C) Retina is a biometric authentication factor that uses the unique patterns of capillaries in the back of a person's eye to authenticate them. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a threat actor that is almost always motivated by financial gain and often structured like a normal business? A) Script Kiddie B) Nation State C) Hacktivist D) Organized Crime

"Correct answer: D) Organized Crime Explanation: Organized Crime is a type of threat actor that is almost always motivated by financial gain and has made a name in information technology. They are professional criminals, and because of the financial benefits associated with their attacks, they usually have enough money to purchase the best hackers. Additionally, this group may be structured just like any other business, with different roles such as someone who's hacking, another person managing the exploits, another person selling the data, and someone else handling customer support. From the outside, it may look like a normal company, but it's a threat actor that has access to a lot of funds and resources to keep these threats going. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Script Kiddie is a threat actor who may not necessarily be a kiddie but is focused on running very simple scripts to gain access to a network. They are usually on the outside trying to gain access to internal resources and are motivated by the process itself. B) Nation State is a government entity usually in charge of national security. They tend to have many resources available, which they can use to hire smart technologists and gather security experts in a particular area. C) Hacktivist is a threat actor that is both a hacker and an activist. They have a purpose or goal in performing these threats or attacks against a third party. This is commonly associated with a political or social message, and they may perform a denial of service or deface a website or find private information that can then be released to the public. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which team is responsible for performing penetration tests and social engineering attacks? A) Blue team B) White team C) Purple team D) Red team

"Correct answer: D) Red team Explanation: The red team is responsible for performing penetration tests and social engineering attacks. The red team's job is to try to find the holes that might be in the network and gain access to the systems using exploits. They might also perform other types of attacks such as social engineering attacks, to see how susceptible the organization might be to a third party, calling into the organization, or sending emails. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Blue team: The blue team is responsible for defending against attacks coming from the red team and performing day-to-day operational security to keep the devices and data safe. B) White team: The white team oversees both the red and blue teams and enforces any rules that may be in place between them. C) Purple team: The purple team is a combination of the red and blue teams, and they work together towards the common goal of keeping all systems and data safe. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-teams/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a technique used to add randomization to hashed passwords? A) Hashing B) Encryption C) Tokenization D) Salting

"Correct answer: D) Salting Explanation: Salting is the technique used to add randomization to hashed passwords. Each user will have a different salt associated with their account, and this will be used with the password that they've chosen to store a hash value in the database. This means that an attacker won't be able to use rainbow tables to quickly determine what the original password might have been. Instead, they will have to perform a slower brute-force attack to try to determine the original password. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Hashing is not the technique used to add randomization to hashed passwords. Hashing is the process of creating a fixed-length output from a variable-length input. B) Encryption is not the technique used to add randomization to hashed passwords. Encryption is the process of converting plaintext into ciphertext using an encryption algorithm and a key. C) Tokenization is not the technique used to add randomization to hashed passwords. Tokenization is the process of replacing sensitive data with a token that is not associated with the original value. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/database-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is EAP-FAST? A) An authentication method that uses a shared digital certificate for secure tunneling B) An authentication method that requires digital certificates on all devices for mutual authentication C) An authentication method that can be tunneled within an existing TLS tunnel D) An authentication method that uses a Protected Access Credential for secure tunneling

"D) An authentication method that uses a Protected Access Credential for secure tunneling is correct. Explanation:EAP-FAST stands for Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling. This authentication method is accomplished by setting up a Transport Layer Security Tunnel, which is similar to the TLS mechanism that's used to encrypt information within a browser. A shared secret referred to as a Protected Access Credential (PAC) is used to make sure that the authentication server and the supplicant are able to transfer information between each other over a secure tunnel. The PAC is used to encrypt and decrypt the authentication details that are sent over the TLS tunnel. EAP-FAST is commonly used with a centralized authentication server, such as RADIUS. A) An authentication method that uses a shared digital certificate for secure tunneling is incorrect because this describes the PEAP authentication method, not EAP-FAST. B) An authentication method that requires digital certificates on all devices for mutual authentication is incorrect because this describes the EAP-TLS authentication method, not EAP-FAST. C) An authentication method that can be tunneled within an existing TLS tunnel is incorrect because this describes the EAP-TTLS authentication method, not EAP-FAST. Reference:https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-authentication-protocols-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following stands for the domain name system security extensions and provides a way to validate the information received from a DNS server to ensure that it did come from the right server and was not changed as it moved through the network? A) DNSMASQ B) DNSRedir C) DNSleak D) DNSSEC

"D) DNSSEC stands for the domain name system security extensions and provides a means of verifying the information obtained from a DNS server, ensuring that it actually did come from the requested DNS server and that the data was unaltered as it passed through the network. DNSSEC uses public key cryptography to sign the data added to a DNS server, allowing the recipient of the data to verify its accuracy using those digital signatures. A) DNSMASQ is a lightweight service that provides network infrastructure services, including DNS services. B) DNSRedir redirects DNS traffic to a different DNS server. C) DNSleak is an issue in which DNS requests are made outside a VPN due to a misconfiguration, revealing the user's true location and potentially compromising their anonymity and security. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following devices is specifically designed for managing and controlling a large number of keys and certificates in a network environment? A) Firewall B) Switch C) Sensor D) Hardware Security Module (HSM)

"D) Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a device specifically designed for managing and controlling a large number of keys and certificates in a network environment. It is usually installed in clusters with redundancy so that access to the HSM is always available. An HSM can provide secure storage for private keys used in web servers and environments, making it a perfect place to keep these keys. It may also be configured as a cryptographic accelerator, performing encryption and decryption on the device, freeing up the server from the overhead of the encryption process. A) Firewall is incorrect because a firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies. B) Switch is incorrect because a switch is a networking device that connects devices together in a computer network by using packet switching to forward data to its destination. C) Sensor is incorrect because a sensor is a network security device that is installed on devices such as firewalls, routers, and switches to gather information and provide it to the collector. Reference:https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following devices is specifically designed to manage cryptographic keys and certificates in large environments? A) Firewall B) Jump server C) Intrusion prevention system D) Hardware security module (HSM)

"D) Hardware security module (HSM) is a device that is specifically designed to help manage and control numerous cryptographic keys and certificates in large organizations. HSMs use specialized hardware that's designed for cryptography and also provide secure storage of private keys. Moreover, HSMs are designed to perform encryption and decryption on the device rather than the server, which reduces the overhead of the encryption process. Compared to firewall, jump server, and intrusion prevention system, which are network security appliances that serve various security purposes, HSM is specifically designed to manage cryptographic keys and certificates in enterprise environments. A) Firewall is an appliance that provides traffic filtering, network address translations, and VPN management services to protect the network from unauthorized access and malicious traffic. It is not specifically designed to manage cryptographic keys and certificates in large environments. B) Jump server is a server dedicated to controlling access to other servers and devices within an internal network. Administrators who need access to these servers log into the jump server first, and then from there, they jump to other servers in the internal network. Although it provides secure access to network devices, it is not specifically designed to manage cryptographic keys and certificates in large environments. C) Intrusion prevention system (IPS) is an appliance that inspects the incoming network traffic and compares it against predefined rules to detect any malicious attempts to exploit system vulnerabilities. It is not specifically designed to manage cryptographic keys and certificates in large environments. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich type of access control requires administrators to configure separate security clearance levels and assign security labels to each object in the operating system? A) Discretionary access control (DAC) B) Role-based access control (RBAC) C) Attribute-based access control D) Mandatory access control (MAC)

"D) Mandatory access control (MAC) takes a different approach to access control by requiring administrators to configure separate security clearance levels and assign security labels to each object in the operating system. This means that every object that a user interacts with gets a security label, such as confidential, secret, top secret, or others. Users are assigned a minimum type of access, which they cannot change. Users with secret access may access confidential or secret objects, but not those labeled top secret. A) Discretionary access control (DAC) allows the owner of an object to assign rights and permissions, which provides a lot of flexibility, but weak security. B) Role-based access control (RBAC) assigns access control rights based on an employee's role in a company, which is usually managed through groups. C) Attribute-based access control evaluates different parameters to determine if a user should be granted access to a resource, which allows for a highly customizable system. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/access-control-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following authentication methods is generally considered less secure than other methods because it can easily be intercepted by a third party or redirected to another phone number? A) Push notification B) HOTP C) Smart card D) SMS

"D) SMS is generally considered less secure than other methods because it is relatively easy for someone to intercept or redirect an SMS message to another phone number. The SMS authentication process involves providing a username and password, and a message is then sent to the user's phone over a text message or SMS. There is usually a code contained within that text message, and the user would put that code into the login form to confirm that they are the person who has that phone in their possession, and they can now approve that they've received that text message. A) Push notification is a more secure authentication method than SMS because the server pushes down the authentication information to the user's mobile device using a mobile device app, which is usually more secure. However, there are also some security concerns associated with push notifications. B) HOTP is a type of authentication that uses a pseudo-random token generator to create a random set of numbers that are used during the login process, and once a number is used, it is thrown away and never used again. C) Smart cards are a secure authentication method because they contain a certificate that no one else has a copy of, but they can be lost or misplaced, and someone else could gain access to that card. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which authentication method uses a smart card for access control? A) SMS message B) Pseudo-random token generator C) Phone call authentication D) Smart card authentication

"Explanation: Smart card authentication is a type of authentication that requires a user to have a physical smart card that contains a certificate. This authentication method is based on something you have, and it is commonly used for access control cards that are used to gain access to laptops, computers, and other devices. By sliding the smart card into a laptop, for example, the user gains access to the device. The key to this authentication factor is that it contains a certificate on that card, and no one else has a copy of that card and that certificate. Smart cards are usually used with other authentication factors such as usernames, passwords, personal identification numbers, or fingerprints, to provide a more secure authentication process. SMS messages, pseudo-random token generators, and phone call authentication are other authentication methods that were discussed in the text, but they are not related to smart card authentication. Incorrect Answers: A) SMS message is a less secure method of authentication, which sends a code to a user's mobile phone via text message. It is relatively easy for someone to reassign a phone number so that the SMS message is redirected into another person's phone. B) Pseudo-random token generator is a type of authentication that creates a random set of numbers, which are used during the login process. The number changes every 30 seconds, and it is usually available as a login credential for a certain amount of time. This authentication factor is based on something you have, and it is commonly used with multifactor authentication systems. C) Phone call authentication is a type of authentication that requires an automated process to call a user and tell them the pseudo-random number that they need to use during the authentication process. The disadvantages of receiving phone calls for authentication are similar to the disadvantages of receiving an SMS or text message. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a commonly used attribute for identifying an individual in an organization? A) Job title B) Device ID C) Social security number D) Birth date

"The correct answer is A) Job title. Job title is a commonly used attribute for identifying an individual in an organization. Other attributes that can be used include an individual's name, email address, phone number, employee ID, department, and mail stop. These attributes are combined to form an identity that allows for proper identification of an entity. Public key cryptography can also be used to identify individuals through digital certificates assigned to a person or a device. This type of identity control requires a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which includes a Certificate Authority (CA). Incorrect answers: B) Device ID: Although device ID can be used as an identity attribute, it is not as commonly used as other attributes. C) Social security number: Social security number is a sensitive and personal attribute and is not typically used as an identity attribute in an organization. D) Birth date: Birth date is a personal attribute that can be used for identification, but it is not as commonly used as other attributes like job title or employee ID. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/identity-controls/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of an approach to allow access control to a network based on criteria other than being on the edge of the network? A) Only allowing those who have company-issued devices to connect to the network B) Checking the device for posture compliance before allowing network access C) Treating all devices as equally trustworthy and allowing them access to the full network D) Restricting access based on the device brand

"The correct answer is B) Checking the device for posture compliance before allowing network access. This passage discusses access control approaches that are based on criteria beyond simply being on the edge of the network, such as a user's username and group membership, as well as information about their device such as its posture and antivirus software. Posture assessments are a key part of determining whether a device can be trusted on the network, and can help ensure that malware or other threats are not introduced from external devices. A) Only allowing those who have company-issued devices to connect to the network is incorrect because while company-issued devices may be preferred, they are not the only devices that need to connect to the network. C) Treating all devices as equally trustworthy and allowing them access to the full network is incorrect because all devices are not equally trustworthy and can introduce malicious activity to the network D) Restricting access based on the device brand is incorrect because this is a narrow criterion that does not take into account other considerations for trustworthiness, such as antivirus software and posture assessment. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-networking-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following devices is specifically designed to help manage and control large numbers of keys and certificates in an environment with many web servers and devices that require cryptographic keys? A) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) B) Hardware Security Module (HSM) C) Firewall D) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

"The correct answer is B) Hardware Security Module (HSM). A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is specifically designed to manage and control large numbers of keys and certificates in an environment with many web servers and devices that require cryptographic keys. HSMs provide secure storage for private keys and perform encryption and decryption on the device, which keeps the overhead of the encryption process away from the server and focuses it on the device that has built-in hardware that's designed specifically for encryption and decryption. A) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is incorrect because it's a device that is designed to prevent unauthorized access to a network. It's a security solution that monitors network traffic for signs of malicious activity and can take action to block or prevent that activity. C) Firewall is incorrect because it's a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies. It helps to prevent unauthorized access to or from a private network. D) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) is incorrect because it's a software solution that provides centralized logging and analysis of security events on a network. It collects log files from various devices on a network, correlates the data, and provides a unified view of security events. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes containerization in the context of mobile devices? A) The use of small, lightweight virtual machines to deploy and run applications B) The process of segmenting a mobile device to keep private and company information separate C) The use of strong encryption to protect all data stored on a mobile device D) The practice of remotely wiping a device's data in the event of loss or theft"

"The correct answer is B) The process of segmenting a mobile device to keep private and company information separate. Containerization refers to the process of segmenting a mobile device into separate areas or partitions to keep private and company information separate. This allows for easy off-boarding of the device, as the MDM administrator can simply remove all company information from the company container while leaving the private container intact. Options A, C, and D are all incorrect as they do not accurately describe containerization. Option A refers to the use of virtual machines to deploy and run applications, which is not related to containerization. Option C refers to the use of encryption to protect data on the device, which is a separate security practice. Option D refers to the practice of remotely wiping a device's data, which is also a separate security practice. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberAudits Practice Question:What is the purpose of an account lockout policy? A) To prevent users from changing their passwords too frequently. B) To prevent brute force attacks by locking an account after too many incorrect password attempts. C) To permanently disable an account once a user has left the organization. D) To automatically log out inactive users after a period of time.

"The correct answer is B) To prevent brute force attacks by locking an account after too many incorrect password attempts. An account lockout policy is designed to prevent attackers from repeatedly guessing passwords in an attempt to gain access to a system. After a certain number of incorrect password attempts, the account is automatically locked, making it inaccessible even if the attacker was able to find the correct password. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) There is no requirement for users to change their passwords frequently in an account lockout policy, this is about trying to lock the account from use after a certain amount of incorrect password attempts. C) An account lockout policy is not about permanently disabling accounts, it's about locking accounts temporarily. D) Automatic logouts after a period of inactivity is not an account lockout policy. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/user-policies-and-procedures-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of a network segmentation technique that provides logical separation of devices within the same device? A) Physical segmentation B) VLAN segmentation C) Screened subnet D) Intranet

"The correct answer is B) VLAN segmentation. VLANs provide logical separation within the same device by creating virtual networks that act as if they are on separate physical devices. Physical segmentation (A) involves physically separating devices, while screened subnets (C) and intranets (D) are separate networks that are designed for specific purposes. A) Physical segmentation: As mentioned above, physical segmentation involves physically separating devices, such as using two separate switches or running a cable between two physically separate switches. C) Screened subnet: A screened subnet is a completely separate network designed to provide access to specific applications from the internet while still keeping the internal network separate and secure. D) Intranet: An intranet is a separate network that is only accessible from within the organization's internal network and is designed to provide access to internal company resources and information. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/network-segmentation-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an effective technique to limit the scope of malicious software on a user's workstation? A) Providing every user with administrator access B) Configuring least privileged policies for each user C) Allowing users to access data beyond the scope of their position D) Assigning dual control to every user in the organization"

"The correct answer is B, configuring least privileged policies for each user. By limiting the rights and permissions for each user to only what they need to do their job, the scope of any malicious software that gets onto their workstation will also be limited. If a user has full administrator access, then any malware that infects their workstation will also have full administrator access, which could be disastrous. By configuring each user with minimal privileges, we can limit the damage that can be done if their workstation is compromised. A) Providing every user with administrator access is incorrect because it would allow every user to access all of the data, which is not necessary for most users and could lead to disastrous consequences if a user's workstation is compromised. C) Allowing users to access data beyond the scope of their position is incorrect because it would give users access to information that they don't need, which could lead to data breaches and other security issues. D) Assigning dual control to every user in the organization is incorrect because it would be impractical and could lead to inefficiencies in the workplace. Dual control should only be used for specific business functions that require it. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a certificate signing request or CSR when working with PKI? A) A request to a registration authority to verify a certificate's validity B) A request to a certificate authority to sign a public key and create a digital certificate C) A request for a digital signature from a trusted third-party authority D) A request for a revocation of a compromised digital certificate"

"The correct answer is B. A certificate signing request or CSR is a request made by an applicant to a certificate authority to sign a public key and create a digital certificate for a particular entity. The CSR includes information such as the applicant's public key, the desired common name for the certificate, and other attributes. The certificate authority verifies the information in the CSR and, if it checks out, creates and signs the digital certificate. A) is incorrect because a registration authority's responsibility is to perform some level of validation on the requester's identity before a certificate is signed. C) is incorrect because a certificate signing request is not a request for a digital signature. A certificate signing request includes a public key and other information, but it does not request a digital signature from a third-party authority. D) is incorrect because a certificate signing request is not a request for certificate revocation or invalidation. A CSR is a request to create a new certificate, not to revoke an existing one. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following principles should be applied when configuring user accounts in an operating system to ensure the security of sensitive data? A. Administrator access for every user in the organization B. Configuring user accounts with least privilege C. Assigning permissions that go beyond the scope of a user's position D. Configuring applications to run with maximum privileges"

"The correct answer is B. Configuring user accounts with least privilege means that the rights and permissions for each user should only allow them to do their job and nothing beyond that. This ensures that users are not granted access to data or functionality that they do not need, reducing the risk of accidental or intentional damage. Option A, assigning administrator access to every user, is incorrect because it would give all users access to all data, which is not necessary and creates unnecessary risk. Option C, assigning permissions beyond a user's position, is also incorrect because it gives users access to data they do not need, which increases the risk of sensitive data being accidentally or intentionally compromised. Option D, configuring applications to run with maximum privileges, is incorrect because it would give applications access to data and functionality beyond what is necessary, which creates unnecessary risk. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the difference between inherent risk and residual risk? A) Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the presence of security controls, while residual risk is the risk that exists in the absence of security controls. B) Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of security controls, while residual risk is the risk that exists in the presence of security controls. C) Inherent risk and residual risk are the same thing and refer to the risk that exists before and after security controls are implemented. D) Inherent risk and residual risk refer to the likelihood of an event occurring and the consequences of that event, respectively.

"The correct answer is B. Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of security controls, while residual risk is the risk that exists after security controls have been implemented. In other words, inherent risk is the risk you would take if you had no security controls in place, while residual risk is the risk that remains even after security controls have been put in place to lessen the inherent risk. A is incorrect because inherent risk is the risk that exists without security controls, not with them. C is incorrect because inherent risk and residual risk are two distinct concepts that refer to different things. D is incorrect because it doesn't fully capture the difference between inherent risk and residual risk - while likelihood and consequences are factors in determining risk, they are not the same as inherent and residual risk. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a type of training that is often used in organizations to train and give people points, have them compete with others, and have them collect badges that show that they've progressed in the training? A) Job rotation training B) Least privileged policy training C) Capture The Flag training D) Background check training

"The correct answer is C) Capture The Flag training. Explanation: Capture The Flag (CTF) is a type of security-related competition where someone is trying to hack into a system to gain access to data. It is often used in organizations as a gamification style of training, where participants can train and earn points, compete with others, and collect badges that show they have progressed in their training. This type of training can help security professionals keep their skills up and stay aware of recent vulnerabilities and attacks. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Job rotation training is a policy in which people rotate through different jobs and never stay in the same job for any long period of time. This policy helps minimize risk, but it is not a type of training. B) Least privileged policy training is a policy that limits a user's access rights and permissions to only what is necessary to perform their job. It is not a type of training. D) Background check training is a screening that is done prior to employment to verify the information provided in an applicant's application and resume. It is not a type of training. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a consequence of a data breach that requires a public disclosure? A) Decreased employee morale B) Increased customer trust C) Damage to reputation D) Higher stock prices

"The correct answer is C) Damage to reputation. A data breach can cause damage to an organization's reputation if they are not trusted to store data securely. This can lead to a negative impact on how others view the organization and cause a decrease in customer trust. If the organization is a public company, this can also affect the stock price. When a data breach occurs and the data gets into the hands of a third party, it's the organization's responsibility to have a public disclosure so that everyone understands what's happened to the data. A) Decreased employee morale is incorrect because a data breach does not necessarily tie to the morale of the employees. B) Increased customer trust is incorrect because a data breach causes a decrease in customer trust, not an increase. D) Higher stock prices is incorrect because a data breach can lead to a negative impact on a public company's stock price. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the purpose of using a salt in the hashing process of passwords in a database? A) To make the hashing process faster B) To ensure that all passwords have the same hash value C) To add randomness to the hashed value and make it more difficult for attackers to brute force the original password D) To encrypt the hashed value to further protect the passwords

"The correct answer is C) To add randomness to the hashed value and make it more difficult for attackers to brute force the original password. A salt is added during the hashing process to make it more difficult for attackers to use rainbow tables or other precomputed sets of hashes to determine the original password. By adding a random salt, each password will have a unique hashed value even if the passwords are the same, which means attackers cannot easily determine the original password. A) To make the hashing process faster is incorrect because a salt actually adds some processing overhead to the hashing process. B) To ensure that all passwords have the same hash value is incorrect because a salt ensures that all passwords have a unique hash value, even if the passwords are the same. D) To encrypt the hashed value to further protect the passwords is incorrect because a hash value is already a one-way function, and it's not necessary to encrypt the hashed value. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/database-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a potential difference between open-source and proprietary firewalls? A. Open-source firewalls may not be as feature rich as proprietary firewalls. B. Open-source firewalls are more difficult to configure than proprietary firewalls. C. Proprietary firewalls may limit your ability to customize and modify the firewall. D. Proprietary firewalls are generally less expensive than open-source firewalls.

"The correct answer is C. Proprietary firewalls may limit your ability to customize and modify the firewall. The main difference between open-source and proprietary firewalls is that open-source firewalls provide access to the firewall's source code. This means that users can modify, customize, and even distribute the firewall without any restrictions. Proprietary firewalls, on the other hand, are owned by a single company and they control the source code. This can limit your ability to customize and modify the firewall to fit your specific needs. A is incorrect because open-source firewalls can be just as feature-rich as proprietary firewalls, if not more so. B is incorrect because open-source firewalls can often be easier to configure than proprietary firewalls, due to their open nature and community support. D is incorrect because the cost of a firewall can vary widely, regardless of whether it is open-source or proprietary. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberPermissions Practice Question:What is the purpose of implementing an account lockout policy? A. To disable user accounts after a certain period of inactivity. B. To prevent employees from accessing certain resources on the network. C. To automatically lock accounts after a certain number of incorrect password attempts. D. To monitor user activity on the network for auditing purposes.

"The correct answer is C. The purpose of implementing an account lockout policy is to automatically lock accounts after a certain number of incorrect password attempts. This is done to prevent a brute force attack on the system and to ensure that someone can't guess or hack their way into an account. Option A is incorrect because disabling user accounts after a certain period of inactivity is a separate policy known as an ""account expiration policy."" Option B is incorrect because permissions determine what resources users have access to on the network, and an account lockout policy does not affect these permissions. Option D is incorrect because monitoring user activity is not the primary purpose of an account lockout policy. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/account-policies-and-password-policy/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberPassword reuse are important for maintaining security on a system. Which of the following is a good best practice for password reuse? A. Allowing users to reuse their old passwords after a certain amount of time has passed. B. Allowing users to reuse their old passwords if they add a special character to the end of the password. C. Preventing users from reusing their old passwords. D. Allowing users to reuse their old passwords if they change one letter of the password.

"The correct answer is C: Preventing users from reusing their old passwords. This is a good best practice that prevents attackers from using an older password that could have already been identified. Reusing old passwords also increases the risk of a password being compromised. It is important to enforce this policy and prevent users from reusing their old passwords. Option A is incorrect because allowing users to reuse their old passwords makes it easier for attackers to compromise the system. Option B is incorrect because simply adding a special character to the end of a password does not significantly increase its security. Option D is incorrect because changing one letter of the password is not a significant enough change to improve the password's security. Reference: https://www.excelsior.edu/article/security-best-practices-password-policies-and-protection-techniques/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following describes a method used to prevent the execution of unapproved software on a computer system? A) Input validation B) Dynamic analysis C) Static code analysis D) Allow list/deny list

"The correct answer is D) Allow list/deny list. This is a security control that allows the administrator to set up lists of approved or disapproved applications that can run on a computer system. If an application is on the deny list, it will not be executed, and only applications listed on the allow list will be able to run on the system. Allow lists and deny lists can be based on different criteria such as application hash, digital signature, specific folder locations, or network zone. Option A) Input validation is a process of checking and correcting the data that's being input into an application. This process involves making sure that the application can handle the expected type and size of input. Option B) Dynamic analysis is a process of testing applications by using third-party tools such as fuzzers to input random data into the application and see if it can cause the application to behave unexpectedly. Option C) Static code analysis is a process of using tools to examine the source code of an application and identify potential vulnerabilities or coding errors. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of a biometric authentication factor? A) Smart card B) USB token C) Personal identification number D) Fingerprint

"The correct answer is D) Fingerprint. Biometric authentication factors are related to something you are, such as a fingerprint, iris scan, or voice print. Fingerprint is an example of biometric authentication factor. A) Smart card is an example of something you have authentication factor. This requires a device or system that is near you to be used for authentication. B) USB token is also an example of something you have authentication factor. This requires a certificate that's loaded on the USB drive to be used for authentication. C) Personal identification number is an example of something you know authentication factor. This is something that's in your brain and only you know what the particular value is. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a reason why using a VPC endpoint is important when accessing cloud data from a private subnet? A) It allows for communication between the private subnet and a public subnet B) It provides additional security control for cloud resources C) It allows for communication between containers and the cloud D) It allows for communication between the private subnet and another part of the connection that's in the cloud, such as a storage network"

"The correct answer is D) It allows for communication between the private subnet and another part of the connection that's in the cloud, such as a storage network. When accessing cloud data from a private subnet, a VPC endpoint is necessary to establish connectivity between the private subnet and another part of the connection that's in the cloud, such as a storage network. This is important because there might not be an internet connection in the middle that would allow direct communication. A VPC endpoint can provide this communication channel without the need for an internet connection. A) is incorrect because a VPC endpoint does not provide communication between public and private subnets. B) is a general statement and does not specifically relate to the use of VPC endpoints. C) is incorrect because VPC endpoints are used for communication between a private subnet and other parts of the cloud, not for communication between containers and the cloud. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/securing-compute-clouds/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following threat actors is usually motivated by a financial gain? A) Nation state B) Hacktivist C) Script Kiddie D) Organized crime

"The correct answer is D) Organized crime. Organized crime is a threat actor that is motivated by a financial gain. This is a set of professional criminals who make a living out of hacking and are almost always motivated by financial gain. They have enough money to purchase the best hackers, and may even be structured like a normal company, with someone managing exploits, someone selling data, and someone handling customer support. A) Nation state is incorrect because although they may be a threat actor, they are usually a government organization in charge of national security, and they are almost always motivated by political gain, not financial gain. B) Hacktivist is incorrect because they are usually motivated by a political or social message, and they do not have a financial gain as their main objective. C) Script Kiddie is incorrect because they may be on the outside trying to gain access to internal resources, but they don't have the knowledge or experience to know what to do to gain access. Their primary motivation is often the process itself, rather than any financial gain. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich hardware-based authentication might involve a physical device that you would plug into your USB drive that allows you access to a system and is used as part of the authentication process? A) Biometric authentication B) Password vault authentication C) Knowledge-Based Authentication D) Password key authentication

"The correct answer is D) Password key authentication. Password key authentication is a type of hardware-based authentication with a physical device that you would plug into a USB drive that allows you access to a system and is used as part of the authentication process. This would prevent someone else from logging into your account even if they had your username and password. A) Biometric authentication is the use of biological characteristics to authenticate a person's identity. B) Password vault authentication is a password manager that allows you to store all of your passwords in one central secure area. C) Knowledge-Based Authentication (KBA) is another authentication method based upon information that only you know, such as a secret that you previously configured in the system or dynamic KBA that uses an identity verification service to pose a question for you to answer. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-management/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a common procedure during the hiring process? A) Capturing the Flag B) Phishing Simulations C) Providing split knowledge for safe combinations D) Social media analysis

"The correct answer is D) Social media analysis. During the hiring process, employers may gather information from social media profiles like Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn, or Instagram to gain a better understanding of an individual's internet presence. A) Capturing the Flag is a type of security competition where someone tries to hack into a system to gain access to data. This is not a common procedure during the hiring process. B) Phishing simulations involve sending phishing emails to users to check if they click on the links in the email, which might bring them to a website that asks for their login credentials. This training is provided to the user community to make them aware of phishing tactics and not a common procedure during the hiring process. C) Providing split knowledge for safe combinations is a type of separation of duty policy where one person has some part of the safe combination, and another person has the other part of the combination to open a safe. This policy is used for very sensitive data in some organizations and not a common procedure during the hiring process. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an important security concern when working with third-parties? A) The color scheme of the vendor's logo B) The location of the vendor's office C) The vendor's favorite coffee order D) Understanding when a product's end of life might be"

"The correct answer is D) Understanding when a product's end of life might be. This is an important security concern when working with third-parties because it can affect the ongoing security of systems relying on that vendor to provide ongoing security patches. When a product reaches its end of life, the vendor stops selling and supporting the product, meaning no more security patches or software updates will be provided. It's important for security teams to understand when this will happen so they can make arrangements to maintain the security of those systems. A) The color scheme of the vendor's logo - This is an incorrect answer because the color scheme of a vendor's logo has nothing to do with third-party risk management or security concerns. B) The location of the vendor's office - This is an incorrect answer because the location of a vendor's office has nothing to do with third-party risk management or security concerns. C) The vendor's favorite coffee order - This is an incorrect answer because the vendor's favorite coffee order has nothing to do with third-party risk management or security concerns. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about VM replication? A) VM replication is only useful for maintaining consistency between separate virtual machines. B) If you change one file on a virtual machine, you must duplicate the entire VM from one place to the other. C) VM replication is not an efficient way of replicating data between virtual machines. D) VM replication allows updates to be rolled out to all virtual machines running in an environment.

"The correct answer is D) VM replication allows updates to be rolled out to all virtual machines running in an environment. Explanation: VM replication is a very efficient way of replicating data between virtual machines. Once you update the primary VM, all of those updates can be rolled out to every other virtual machine that you're running wherever it happens to be in the world. This allows you to maintain consistency between all of the separate virtual machines. This replicated VM also acts as a backup. If you happen to lose the primary virtual machine, you can roll a new virtual machine from the replication and continue to have uptime and availability on the new VM. If you change only one file on a virtual machine, you only have to copy those changes to all of the other VMs to maintain the replicated data. You don't have to duplicate the entire VM from one place to the other if the only thing that's changed is that single file. Option A is incorrect because VM replication not only maintains consistency between separate virtual machines, but it also acts as a backup. Option B is incorrect because you don't have to duplicate the entire VM from one place to the other if the only thing that's changed is that single file. Option C is incorrect because VM replication is a very efficient way of replicating data between virtual machines. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/replication/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes a Script Kiddie? A) A hacker who is both malicious and politically motivated. B) A professional criminal who is motivated by financial gain. C) An employee or contractor who has a lot of control over the organization's network. D) An attacker who may not have the knowledge or experience to gain access, and runs simple scripts to try to infiltrate a network."

"The correct answer is D. A Script Kiddie is an attacker who may not necessarily have the knowledge or experience to gain access to a network. They typically run simple scripts or use pre-packaged software to try to infiltrate a system, rather than crafting their own sophisticated attacks. They are motivated by the process of gaining access, rather than any financial gain. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) This answer describes a Hacktivist, who is a hacker who is both malicious and politically motivated. B) This answer describes Organized Crime, which is a set of professional criminals who are motivated by financial gain. C) This answer describes an Insider Threat, which is an employee or contractor who has a lot of control over an organization's network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich type of access control allows the owner of an object to assign rights and permissions to it in Microsoft Windows? A. Mandatory access control (MAC) B. Role-based access control (RBAC) C. Attribute-based access control (ABAC) D. Discretionary access control (DAC) - correct

"The correct answer is D. Discretionary access control (DAC) allows the owner of an object to assign rights and permissions to it in Microsoft Windows. With DAC, the owner controls who has access to the object and what actions they can perform on it. This provides a lot of flexibility for access control, but it also requires the owner to be responsible for the security of the object. Option A, Mandatory access control (MAC), requires separate security clearance levels and security labels for every object in the operating system. Option B, Role-based access control (RBAC), assigns rights and permissions based on the user's role in the company. Option C, Attribute-based access control (ABAC), evaluates a number of parameters to determine if a user should have access to a resource. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/access-control-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the utility called in Linux that allows you to query the system journal and provide output on what may be contained in there? A. rsyslog B. NetFlow C. metadata D. journalctl

"The correct answer is D. journalctl is the utility in Linux that allows you to query information that's in that system journal and provide output on what may be contained in there. It allows you to search and filter on those details, or view it as plain text. A is incorrect because rsyslog is a daemon available in Linux devices for log processing, not a utility for querying the system journal. B is incorrect because NetFlow is a standardized method of gathering network statistics from switches, routers, and other devices on your network. C is incorrect because metadata is data that describes other types of data contained within the files that we're using on our devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the main advantage of Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) over Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)? A. CHAP uses Encryption to protect passwords B. CHAP is faster than PAP C. CHAP does not require a server for authentication D. CHAP only requires a two-way handshake

A is the correct answer. The main advantage of CHAP over PAP is that it provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network. This adds additional security over what you might find with PAP. With CHAP, a challenge message is combined with a password hash, and the resulting hash is sent back to the server for authentication, instead of sending the password in plain text. Options B and C are incorrect. Although CHAP may require additional messages to be sent, resulting in slight latency, it is more secure than PAP. And, while PAP does not require a server for authentication, it also does not provide much security. Finally, option D is incorrect. CHAP uses a three-way handshake, not a two-way handshake. During this handshake, a challenge message is sent from the server to the client, and the client responds with the challenge hashed with its password. The hashed value is then evaluated by the server to authenticate the client. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/pap-and-chap/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich device can provide us with detailed information about every single traffic flow going through the network? A. Firewall B. Switch C. Router D. Domain Name System Server

A is the correct choice. Firewalls can give us information about traffic flows that may be allowed or blocked, provide information on website access that has been denied, and indicate what attacks may be underway. Detailed security information can be gathered from intrusion prevention systems, firewalls, or proxies. Logs and security details are created on security devices to provide detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. B, C, and D are incorrect. Although switches and routers can provide feedback about things that may be occurring on the network, they lack the specific security features to provide detailed security information on traffic flows going through the network. Domain Name System servers can provide information about queries made against them, but they do not gather security details. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a legal hold in digital forensics? A) A request to gather and maintain data for later use in digital forensics B) A request to analyze and report on data collected during a security event C) A request to preserve data for backup purposes D) A request to delete data that is no longer needed

A) A request to gather and maintain data for later use in digital forensics. A legal hold is often requested by legal counsel and describes what type of data needs to be preserved for later use. The data copied for the legal hold is often stored in a separate repository and referred to as electronically stored information (ESI). As a security professional, you have a responsibility to gather and maintain that data so that everything is preserved. B) Incorrect. A legal hold is a request to gather and maintain data, not analyze and report on data collected during a security event. C) Incorrect. A legal hold is not just a request to preserve data for backup purposes. It is specifically related to digital forensics and legal proceedings. D) Incorrect. A legal hold is a request to gather and maintain data, not delete it. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following terms describes a Windows boot option that can restore a previous known good state of the operating system configuration? A) Last known-good configuration B) Secure Boot C) System Restore D) Recovery Console

A) Last known-good configuration is the correct answer. Last known-good configuration is a Windows boot option that can restore a previous known good state of the operating system configuration. Secure Boot is a UEFI feature that helps to ensure that the system only boots software that is trusted by the system manufacturer. System Restore is a Windows feature that allows users to restore their system to a previous state, and the Recovery Console is a Windows tool used to repair a system that is unable to boot. B) Secure Boot, C) System Restore, and D) Recovery Console are all incorrect answers. Secure Boot is a UEFI feature that helps to ensure that the system only boots software that is trusted by the system manufacturer. System Restore is a Windows feature that allows users to restore their system to a previous state, and the Recovery Console is a Windows tool used to repair a system that is unable to boot. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following access control types is associated with assigning security clearance levels to objects in the operating system? A) Mandatory Access Control (MAC) B) Discretionary Access Control (DAC) C) Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) D) Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

A) Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is the correct answer. With MAC, security clearance levels are assigned to objects in the operating system, and users are assigned a minimum type of access. Users do not get to change their access level, and every object is labeled with a security label. Depending on their security clearance level, users may be able to access objects with the same or lower security clearance labels. This access control type is commonly used by highly secure organizations or government agencies. B) Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an access control type where the owner of an object assigns rights and permissions to it. This gives the owner complete control over who has access to the object. Although it provides flexibility for access control, it also requires the owner to be responsible for the security of the object, which may not be the best security option in many organizations. C) Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is associated with the role that an employee has in the organization. Users are assigned rights and permissions based on their role, and the system administrator assigns these access control rights. In Windows, this is managed through the use of groups. D) Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) allows the system administrator to define a number of different criteria that must be evaluated to allow someone access to a resource. Each parameter is checked and evaluated, and once the user meets all of the parameters that were previously defined, they would have access to that resource. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/access-control-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is inherent risk? A) Risk that exists in the absence of security controls B) Risk that is reduced by security controls C) Risk that is created by external threats D) Risk that is created by disasters

A) Risk that exists in the absence of security controls. Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists if there are no security controls in place. It is the risk we would assume if we decided to connect to the internet without a firewall. This risk can be reduced by adding security controls. B) Incorrect. This answer describes residual risk, which is the remaining risk after security controls have been applied. C) Incorrect. This answer describes external threats, which are threats that come from outside of the organization. D) Incorrect. This answer describes disasters, which can be environmental or person-made threats to an organization. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is API inspection and integration in cloud-based systems? A) The process of examining and monitoring API queries to ensure they are coming from the client B) The process of creating virtual switches and routers within a cloud-based system C) The process of connecting to virtual private clouds using a VPN connection D) The process of using rapid elasticity to automatically create new instances of cloud-based systems

A) The correct answer is the process of examining and monitoring API queries to ensure they are coming from the client. API inspection and integration refers to the process of managing API queries in a cloud-based system. It involves monitoring and examining API queries to ensure they are from the client and not from attackers attempting to circumvent the client and send their own customized calls to the API gateway. Excessive monitoring can cause latency and affect system performance. B) This answer describes the process of creating virtual switches and routers within a cloud-based system, which is discussed in the text but not related to API inspection and integration. C) This answer describes the use of VPN connections to connect to virtual private clouds, which is discussed in the text but not related to API inspection and integration. D) This answer describes the process of using rapid elasticity to automatically create new instances of cloud-based systems, which is discussed in the text but not related to API inspection and integration. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/securing-cloud-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is isolation as a security control? A. The concept of moving a device into an area where it has limited or no access to other resources. B. The process of preventing malicious software from infecting other devices on the network by placing it in its own sandbox. C. The creation of segmented networks to protect different devices in their own protected areas of the network. D. The use of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) to integrate multiple third-party tools and create a playbook.

A. The concept of moving a device into an area where it has limited or no access to other resources is known as isolation as a security control. It is a key strategy, especially when fighting malicious software or software that's constantly trying to communicate back to a command and control location. Isolation is used to protect the rest of the network from potential infection by moving an infected or suspicious device into an area where it cannot communicate with other devices. The device may also be put on a separate remediation VLAN that gives it access to update antivirus signatures or put in a process isolation where suspicious process activity is contained. B. Application containment is the process of placing every application that runs on your system in its own sandbox to prevent malware from infecting other applications or devices on the network. C. Segmentation is the creation of segmented networks where different devices are put into their own protected areas of the network. This ensures that, although someone from the outside may gain access to the internal network, they are unable to communicate in or out of the segmented area of the network. D. Security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) is the integration of multiple third-party tools and creation of a playbook to automate security processes. Although it may involve isolation as a security control, it is not the definition of isolation as a security control. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a valid concern when using key escrow? A. Trusting the third party holding the decryption keys B. Checking the revocation status of a certificate C. Compromising an intermediate CA D. Maintaining scalability across multiple CAs

A. Trusting the third party holding the decryption keys is a valid concern when using key escrow. Key escrow involves handing over private keys to a third party who will only use them in specific situations. To ensure the safety of the private keys, there needs to be specific processes and procedures in place to allow access to the data, and it is crucial to trust the party holding the keys. B is incorrect because checking the revocation status of a certificate is related to OCSP and is not directly related to key escrow. C is a concern when dealing with certificate authorities, but it is not directly related to key escrow. D is a valid concern when dealing with multiple CAs, but it is not directly related to key escrow. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-concepts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following can DNS log files help identify? A) Devices attempting to connect to a known malicious site B) What interfaces may be going up and down on the network C) Authentication issues with a VPN concentrator D) Cross-site scripting attacks on a web server

Answer: A) Devices attempting to connect to a known malicious site. Explanation: DNS log files can provide details about name resolution queries made against a DNS server. The IP address of the request can be seen, and these log files may also store the fully-qualified domain name for the request. This information can help identify if someone is attempting to perform a name resolution to a known malicious site or a site that has known command and control information. This may indicate that a device has already been infected on the inside of our network, and the list of blocked attempts can be used to identify potentially infected devices and remove them from the network. B) is incorrect because this refers to log files from a switch that give information about interfaces going up and down. C) refers to authentication issues with a VPN concentrator, and this information may occur in router logs. D) refers to cross-site scripting attacks on a web server and can be found in log files for a web application firewall. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following can trigger an alarm on a motion detection alarm system? A) Reflections B) Sound waves C) Touch D) All of the above

Answer: A) Reflections Explanation: Motion detection alarm systems can be set up to detect motion based on reflections or some type of infrared motion. This type of motion detection can help to detect movement of objects or people without any physical contact with the sensor. Sound waves and touch would not typically trigger a motion detection alarm system. Incorrect Answers: B) Sound waves - While sound waves can often be detected by sensors on an alarm system, they would not typically trigger a motion detection alarm system. C) Touch - Touching the sensor directly would likely trigger an alarm on an alarm system, but a motion detection alarm system does not rely on physical contact to detect motion. D) All of the above - While all of these options can trigger an alarm under certain circumstances, only reflections would typically be used for motion detection on an alarm system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a recovery point objective (RPO)? A. The maximum amount of time it will take to recover from a disaster B. The minimum set of requirements to get a system up and running C. The average time between failures of a system D. How much information is available to us at any particular time

Answer: B Explanation: A recovery point objective (RPO) is a set of minimum requirements to get a system up and running. This means that part of it may be available, but part of it may also be unavailable. We need to be able to understand how much information we have available to us at any particular time. And if we bring the system back online, how far back, or how available will that data be? Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) This describes a recovery time objective (RTO), not an RPO. C) This describes the mean time between failures (MTBF), not an RPO. D) This is not a definition of an RPO. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is OCSP stapling? A. A way to store root CA certificates safely B. A protocol for verifying digital certificate revocation status C. A technique for adding certificates to applications D. A method for creating a web of trust between certificate authorities

Answer: B Explanation: OCSP stapling is a protocol for verifying the revocation status of digital certificates, which can be stored locally on a server to avoid constantly checking back with the certificate authority. The status information is digitally signed by the CA, so it can be trusted without going to the CA for validation. Incorrect Answers: A. Storing root CA certificates safely is an important consideration for managing a certificate authority, but it is not specifically related to OCSP stapling. C. Adding certificates to applications is one way to confirm the authenticity of a web server, but it is not the same as OCSP stapling, which is focused on checking the revocation status of digital certificates. D. Creating a web of trust between certificate authorities is one way to establish trust in PGP, but it is not specifically related to OCSP stapling. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-concepts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Personal information exchange (PFX) certificate format? A) A binary format for encoding X.509 certificates B) A container format for holding multiple certificates, primarily used for transferring private and public key pairs C) An ASCII file format that allows for easy transfer of certificates over email D) A format primarily used in Windows for importing and exporting certificates, often containing just the public key

Answer: B Explanation: The Personal information exchange (PFX) certificate format is a container format for holding multiple certificates, which is primarily used for transferring private and public key pairs within the same container. It is usually sent as a .P12 or .PFX file, and supports password protection for private keys. PFX was extended from the Microsoft PFX format, and is often referenced interchangeably with it. A) This is incorrect because the binary format for encoding X.509 certificates is the DER format, not the PFX format. C) This is incorrect because the ASCII file format that allows for easy transfer of certificates over email is the PEM or base64 format, not the PFX format. D) This is incorrect because while the CSR format is primarily used in Windows for importing and exporting certificates, it does not refer to the PFX format. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-formats/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes inherent risk? A) Risk that exists after applying security controls B) Risk that exists in the absence of security controls C) Risk that has already been eliminated D) Risk that is only present in internal threats

Answer: B Explanation:Inherent risk is risk that exists in the absence of security controls. This means that without putting anything else in place there would be a certain amount of risk that we would undertake. A) This describes residual risk, not inherent risk. C) This answer is incorrect because inherent risk is a type of risk that exists even before it is mitigated through security controls. D) This answer is incorrect because inherent risk exists regardless of the source of the threat. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of performing a site survey before installing a wireless network? A. To determine which access points are in your control. B. To identify nearby access points that can create interference. C. To create a list of potential electronic devices that could cause interference. D. To find out what wireless signals are in other nearby buildings.

Answer: B Explanation:Performing a site survey before installing a wireless network allows us to get more information about the wireless infrastructure that may already be in place. There may be existing access points in the same building or location where we'll be installing additional access points, or there may be access points that are located nearby that aren't necessarily in our control. This means we may need to work around any frequencies that are already in use or we may have to put our access point in a location that will minimize the amount of interference. Therefore, identifying nearby access points that can create interference is the purpose of performing a site survey before installing a wireless network. Incorrect Answers: A. To determine which access points are in your control: This statement is incorrect. Even if we know which access points are in our control, we still need to perform a site survey to identify nearby access points to avoid interference. C. To create a list of potential electronic devices that could cause interference: This statement is incorrect. A site survey is performed to identify existing access points or other wireless networks that could cause interference. It is not used to create a list of electronic devices that could cause interference. D. To find out what wireless signals are in other nearby buildings: This statement is incorrect. A site survey is not used to find out what wireless signals are in other nearby buildings. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/installing-wireless-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a WiFi analyzer? A) A device that captures and analyzes wired network traffic. B) A device that captures and analyzes wireless network traffic. C) A device that creates a map of available wireless networks in the area. D) A software tool that manages wireless access points.

Answer: B) A device that captures and analyzes wireless network traffic. Explanation: A WiFi analyzer is a tool that captures and analyzes wireless network traffic. It can provide information about the frequencies in use, potential interference, and other details about the wireless network. These tools can be software-based or hardware-based, and they help users ensure that their wireless networks are optimized for performance and efficiency. Option A is incorrect because a wired network traffic analyzer is a different tool that captures and analyzes wired network traffic. Option C is incorrect because a heat map is the tool that creates a map of available wireless networks in the area. Option D is incorrect because a software tool that manages wireless access points is a wireless controller. Incorrect Answers: A) A device that captures and analyzes wired network traffic: This option is incorrect because a wired network traffic analyzer is a different tool that captures and analyzes wired network traffic. C) A device that creates a map of available wireless networks in the area: This option is incorrect because a heat map is the tool that creates a map of available wireless networks in the area. D) A software tool that manages wireless access points: This option is incorrect because a software tool that manages wireless access points is a wireless controller. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/installing-wireless-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Screened Subnet? A) A type of firewall that restricts access to certain types of traffic. B) A network that provides controlled access through a firewall to the internet but prevents access to the internal network. C) A protected distribution system that prevents physical access to network cables and infrastructure. D) A Faraday cage that restricts or prevents radio signals from traversing through a particular cage.

Answer: B) A network that provides controlled access through a firewall to the internet but prevents access to the internal network. Explanation of correct answer: A screened subnet, also known as a demilitarized zone (DMZ), is a network that provides controlled access through a firewall to the internet but prevents access to the internal network. This allows organizations to provide access and resources to people from the internet while keeping private resources private. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) A firewall is a security tool that can be used to restrict access to certain types of traffic, but it is not the definition of a screened subnet. C) A protected distribution system (PDS) is a system that prevents physical access to network cables and infrastructure, but it is not the definition of a screened subnet. D) A Faraday cage is a mesh of conductive material that either restricts or prevents radio signals from traversing through a particular cage, but it is not the definition of a screened subnet. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an unknown environment in penetration testing? A) A test where the person performing the test knows everything about the environment. B) A test where the person performing the test is blind and has no information about the environment. C) A mix of known and unknown, where the tester has some information about the environment. D) A test where the person performing the test has access to sensitive information about the environment.

Answer: B) A test where the person performing the test is blind and has no information about the environment. Explanation: An unknown environment in penetration testing refers to a test where the person performing the test has no information about the environment. In this type of test, the tester has to go into the test completely blind and build out the database of everything they find as they go. This type of test is often used to simulate the perspective of an external attacker who has no knowledge of the target environment. Choice A is incorrect because it describes a test where the tester knows everything about the environment. Choice C is incorrect because it describes a mix of known and unknown environments. Choice D is incorrect because it describes a scenario where the tester has access to sensitive information about the environment, which is not necessarily related to an unknown environment in penetration testing. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an air gap network? A) An electronic barrier B) A way to provide physical separation between devices or between networks C) An opening in a firewall D) A type of cryptography

Answer: B) A way to provide physical separation between devices or between networks Explanation for incorrect answers: A) An electronic barrier is not the same thing as an air gap network. An air gap network requires a physical separation between devices, not an electronic one. C) An opening in a firewall is not the same thing as an air gap network. A firewall is a security device, but it does not necessarily provide physical separation between devices or networks. D) A type of cryptography is not the same thing as an air gap network. Cryptography involves encryption and decryption of data, whereas an air gap network involves physically isolating networks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following authentication protocols provides a more secure way to transmit passwords over the network than PAP? A) PAP B) CHAP C) MS-CHAP D) L2TP

Answer: B) CHAP Explanation: CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network, which adds additional security over what you might find with PAP. CHAP has a three-way handshake that occurs and the client combines the password and the challenge to respond to the CHAP server. Unlike PAP, CHAP does not send the password in the clear across the network. MS-CHAP (Microsoft CHAP) is a very old implementation of security that uses a weak encryption method, and for that reason, it is commonly not used anymore. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) is a secure communication protocol used to support virtual private networks. Incorrect Answers: A) PAP: PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) is an extremely basic method to provide authentication, but it sends all of this information through the network in the clear without any encryption. C) MS-CHAP: MS-CHAP uses a weak encryption method (data encryption standard) and it is commonly not used anymore. D) L2TP: L2TP is a secure communication protocol used to support virtual private networks, but it is not an authentication protocol. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/pap-and-chap/ -------------------

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat are Security Benchmarks? A) Reports outlining potential security threats. B) Guidelines for configuring systems or software to be as secure as possible. C) Data logs that report on access and error activity for servers. D) A type of antivirus software designed for servers.

Answer: B) Guidelines for configuring systems or software to be as secure as possible. Explanation: Security benchmarks are a set of guidelines that help individuals and organizations better understand what features need to be enabled and disabled to make a system, software, or device as safe as possible. These guidelines usually come from the manufacturer or developer, and they can be found online through various resources. Security benchmarks are an effective way to ensure that systems and software are configured securely by following a set of established guidelines or standards. A) Reports outlining potential security threats - Although potential security threats are part of the overall security posture of a system or software, this answer choice is incorrect because it does not accurately describe security benchmarks. C) Data logs that report on access and error activity for servers - While access and error logs are part of the overall security of a system or software, this answer choice is incorrect because it does not accurately describe security benchmarks. D) A type of antivirus software designed for servers - While antivirus software is a component of the overall security of a system or software, this answer choice is incorrect because it does not accurately describe security benchmarks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations-2/ -------------------

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an advantage of using a dual power supply in a server system? A) It provides multiple PDUs to distribute power B) It allows for hot-swapping power supplies C) It eliminates the need for a UPS D) It increases the battery capacity of the system

Answer: B) It allows for hot-swapping power supplies Explanation: A dual power supply system in a server provides redundancy in case one of the power supplies fails. This allows the system to continue running without interruption, as the other power supply takes over. Additionally, the power supplies are often designed to be hot-swappable, which means that they can be replaced without shutting down the server. This reduces downtime and ensures that the system remains available. Option A is incorrect because a power distribution unit (PDU) provides multiple power outlets, not power sources. Option C is incorrect because a UPS is still recommended for a dual power supply system as a backup power source in case of a prolonged power outage. Option D is incorrect because battery capacity is not directly related to the use of a dual power supply system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/power-redundancy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat type of access control is associated with assigning security clearance levels to objects in the operating system and requires a user to have a minimum type of access assigned by an administrator? A) Discretionary access control (DAC) B) Mandatory access control (MAC) C) Attribute-based access control (ABAC) D) Rule-based access control (RBAC)

Answer: B) Mandatory access control (MAC) Explanation: Mandatory access control (MAC) is a type of access control in which the administrator assigns security clearance levels to objects in the operating system and requires a user to have a minimum type of access assigned by an administrator. This means that each object gets a security label such as confidential, secret, top secret, or others, and the user is assigned a minimum type of access by an administrator. The user cannot change this type of access. A) Discretionary access control (DAC) is a type of access control in which the owner of an object assigns rights and permissions to it. This means the person who created or owns that object has complete control over who has access to it. C) Attribute-based access control (ABAC) defined criteria that have to be evaluated to allow someone access to a resource. D) Rule-based access control (RBAC) is associated with the object that someone is trying to access. The rules are specific to the particular object that they're trying to access. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/access-control-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a potential vulnerability in an operating system that an attacker may use to gain full control over the system? A) Use of strong encryption protocols B) Running legacy software with no patches available C) Accessing an administrator account with a strong password D) Encrypting data being sent across the network

Answer: B) Running legacy software with no patches available Explanation: Legacy systems running outdated software with no patches available are often vulnerable to exploits, as attackers can take advantage of known vulnerabilities that have not been fixed. This can allow an attacker to gain full control over the system. While strong encryption protocols and encrypting data being sent across the network are important security measures, they do not directly relate to vulnerabilities in the operating system itself. Accessing an administrator account with a strong password may also be a vulnerability if the password is shared or easily guessable, but this is not the best answer to the question. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat parameter is manipulated to cause ICMP Time Exceeded messages in the traceroute command? A) IP address B) TTL C) MAC address D) Protocol

Answer: B) TTL Explanation: The Time To Live (TTL) message is the parameter that is manipulated to cause ICMP Time Exceeded messages in the traceroute command. TTL is a value within the IP packet that designates how many hops or routers a particular packet should go through until it is allowed to be dropped by the routers. By manipulating the TTL value, it is possible to receive ICMP Time Exceeded messages, which are used by the traceroute command to build the route. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not related to the manipulation of TTL. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/reconnaissance-tools-part-1-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Single-loss expectancy (SLE)? A) The likelihood of a particular risk occurring B) The cost associated with a particular risk occurrence C) The effectiveness of security controls in managing a particular risk D) The impact of a particular risk occurrence on the organization

Answer: B) The cost associated with a particular risk occurrence Explanation: Single-loss expectancy (SLE) describes how much money the organization would lose if a single occurrence of a particular risk were to happen. It is a critical metric in risk management as it helps organizations make business decisions on whether to add additional security controls or accept the risk. To calculate the annualized loss expectancy (ALE), the SLE is multiplied by the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO). The ARO describes how often a particular risk is expected to occur. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) The likelihood of a particular risk occurring: This describes the ARO metric and not the SLE. C) The effectiveness of security controls in managing a particular risk: This describes the residual risk and not the SLE. D) The impact of a particular risk occurrence on the organization: This may be a qualitative assessment of risk but is not the SLE. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is full disk encryption (FDE)? A) The process of encrypting individual files or folders on a storage device B) The process of encrypting the entire hard drive on a storage device C) The process of encrypting data in transit between two devices D) The process of encrypting data stored in a cloud-based service

Answer: B) The process of encrypting the entire hard drive on a storage device. Explanation: Full disk encryption (FDE) is the process of encrypting the entire hard drive on a storage device, including the operating system, applications, and user data. This ensures that all data on the device is protected in the event of loss or theft. Windows BitLocker is an example of an FDE utility built into the Windows operating system. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) The process of encrypting individual files or folders on a storage device is not full disk encryption, but rather file or folder-based encryption. C) The process of encrypting data in transit between two devices is called encryption in transit and is used to protect data while it is being transmitted between devices. D) The process of encrypting data stored in a cloud-based service is called encryption at rest and is used to protect data that is stored in a cloud-based service. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is e-discovery? A) The process of analyzing data as evidence in a court of law B) The process of gathering data for evidence to be examined later C) The process of recovering missing data from storage devices D) The process of collecting threat intelligence about a specific domain

Answer: B) The process of gathering data for evidence to be examined later. Explanation: E-discovery is the process of gathering data for evidence to be examined later, often in a court of law. It is not the process of analyzing data, recovering missing data, or collecting threat intelligence. This process may involve creating hashes of data, preserving information, verifying data, and maintaining a chain of custody. A) is incorrect because e-discovery is not the process of analyzing data, but rather the process of gathering data for later analysis in a court of law. C) is incorrect because e-discovery is not specifically focused on recovering missing data, but rather gathering data for evidence purposes. D) is incorrect because e-discovery is not focused on collecting threat intelligence, but rather gathering data for evidence purposes. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which command can be used to see all active connections currently being used on a device? A) arp -a B) netstat -a C) route print D) traceroute

Answer: B) netstat -a Explanation: The netstat command with the -a option shows all active connections that are being used currently on a device. This is a useful reconnaissance tool to determine what IP addresses may be communicating into our device, and what IP addresses our device may be communicating to. The arp -a command shows the current ARP cache, route print command shows the routes configured on a particular device, and traceroute allows you to map an entire path between two devices to know exactly what routers may be between point A and point B. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/understanding-network-reconnaissance-techniques-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a mission essential function? A. A function that is not important to the organization B. A function that is considered essential to the operation of the organization and must be prioritized in disaster recovery planning C. A function that can be resumed at a later time without significant impact to the organization D. A function that is only important to a certain department within the organization

Answer: B. A function that is considered essential to the operation of the organization and must be prioritized in disaster recovery planning. Explanation:Mission essential functions are the functions that are essential to the operation of the organization and must be prioritized in disaster recovery planning. These functions must be resumed as soon as possible, as they have the highest impact on the organization. In disaster recovery planning, it is important to prioritize the mission essential functions and ensure that they are brought back online as quickly as possible. This helps to minimize the impact of the disaster on the organization. A is incorrect because a function that is not important to the organization would not be considered a mission essential function. C is incorrect because a function that can be resumed at a later time without significant impact to the organization would not be a mission essential function. D is incorrect because a function that is only important to a certain department within the organization would not be considered a mission essential function. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a disaster recovery plan? A. A plan that outlines what to do in case of a phishing attack B. A plan that outlines how to recover data in case of a disaster C. A plan that outlines how to respond to an incident D. A plan that outlines how to perform ongoing simulations

Answer: B. A plan that outlines how to recover data in case of a disaster Explanation: A disaster recovery plan is a comprehensive plan that outlines steps an organization must take to recover data and restore systems, applications, and infrastructure that have been disrupted by a disaster. The plan should include steps for restoration at the current location and backup location. Ongoing simulations and incident response planning are related concepts, but not the same as a disaster recovery plan. Incorrect Answers: A. A plan that outlines what to do in case of a phishing attack - This is known as a phishing attack response plan, not a disaster recovery plan. C. A plan that outlines how to respond to an incident - This is known as an incident response plan, not a disaster recovery plan. D. A plan that outlines how to perform ongoing simulations - Ongoing simulations are related to incident response planning, but not the same as a disaster recovery plan. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the difference between internal and external disasters? A. Internal disasters are caused by natural disasters while external disasters are caused by people. B. Internal disasters are caused by employees while external disasters are caused by people outside the organization. C. Internal disasters are caused by mistakes while external disasters are caused by malicious intent. D. Internal disasters are caused by people while external disasters are caused by natural disasters.

Answer: B. Internal disasters are caused by employees while external disasters are caused by people outside the organization. Explanation: Internal disasters are those that are caused by employees within the organization, such as mistakes, negligence, or malicious intent. External disasters are those that come from outside the organization, such as natural disasters or attacks from hackers. It is important to have different security controls in place for internal and external disasters as they require different types of protection. A is incorrect because it is too narrow and only relates to natural disasters. C is partially correct in that internal disasters can be caused by mistakes, but external disasters can also be caused by mistakes from outside the organization. It also ignores the fact that external disasters can be caused by malicious intent. D is incorrect because it is too narrow and only relates to natural disasters. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberTime-based Logins:Which of the following is a benefit of using time-based policies to restrict access to certain resources? A. It allows you to set up policies based on the physical location of the user. B. It allows you to prevent users from accessing certain resources at specific times. C. It increases the complexity of user passwords by requiring them to change frequently. D. It ensures that user accounts are locked after a certain number of incorrect login attempts.

Answer: B. It allows you to prevent users from accessing certain resources at specific times. Explanation: Time-based policies allow administrators to restrict access to certain resources during specific times of day or days of the week. This can help prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data or areas of a facility. By setting policies that only allow access during certain times, administrators can reduce the risk of insider threats and other security breaches. For example, access to a server room may only be allowed during normal working hours. This would prevent employees from accessing the server room during off-hours when there may not be anyone to monitor their activity. A. This answer is incorrect because it refers to location-based policies, not time-based policies. C. This answer is incorrect because it refers to password complexity policies, not time-based policies. D. This answer is incorrect because it refers to account lockout policies, not time-based policies. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/security/sy0-601-exam-objectives

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an example of steganography? A. Steganography is a method of encrypting all of the data within an image file, making it much more difficult to read. B. Steganography is a method of hiding information within an image file in such a way that it is not readily apparent. C. Steganography is a method of compressing data to make it take up less space on a storage device. D. Steganography is a method of altering the bits of information in packets that are sent across a network, in order to store data.

Answer: B. Steganography is a method of hiding information within an image file in such a way that it is not readily apparent. Explanation for incorrect answers: A. Steganography is not a method of encrypting all of the data within an image file, but rather hiding information within it. C. Steganography is not a method of compressing data. D. Steganography involves hiding information within images, not altering bits of packets sent across a network. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/steganography-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes containerization in the context of mobile device management? A) A method of deploying applications on mobile devices. B) A process of encrypting all data stored on a mobile device. C) A practice of separating personal and corporate data on a mobile device. D) A technique of remotely wiping data from a lost or stolen mobile device.

Answer: C Explanation: Containerization refers to the process of separating personal and corporate data on a mobile device by creating separate partitions or areas where the data can be stored. This allows the MDM administrator to remove all corporate information from the device without affecting personal information during the off-boarding process. Option A refers to containerization in the context of application deployment, which is not the same as mobile device management. Option B refers to full-device encryption, which is different from containerization. Option D refers to remote wipe functionality, which is not the same as containerization. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is near field communication (NFC)? A. A one-to-one wireless network connection B. A wireless network type commonly found in cellular networks C. A technology that builds on RFID and is commonly used for payment systems and access tokens D. A technology that uses infrared communication to transfer data

Answer: C Explanation: Near field communication (NFC) is a two-way wireless communication that is commonly used for payment systems, to speed up connectivity, and as an access token or identity card. It builds on RFID technology and is used with two devices that are very close to each other. The security concerns for NFC are similar to those of other wireless network technologies. Information could be captured by someone who is very close, frequencies could be jammed, or an attacker could modify the information sent back and forth. If a mobile device is lost, then the NFC functionality is also lost. A is incorrect because a one-to-one wireless network connection is commonly found in point-to-point wireless networks, not NFC. B is incorrect because NFC is not a wireless network type commonly found in cellular networks. Cellular networks use towers to separate the network into individual cells. D is incorrect because infrared communication is not used for NFC. NFC is a wireless communication technology that builds on RFID. Infrared communication is still used in some mobile devices, but not for NFC. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is data sanitization? A) A forensics tool used for viewing browser history on a device B) A framework used for creating custom attacks C) A process of removing data and making it unrecoverable D) A utility used for capturing images from other drives

Answer: C) A process of removing data and making it unrecoverable Explanation: Data sanitization is the process of completely removing data and making it so that none of that data could be recovered later on. This is commonly done if you want to reuse or sell a storage device, or if you want to sanitize a single file that's on your system. However, once you delete this information using these tools, there's no way to recover it later. Unless you have a backup, that data has now been permanently erased. A is incorrect because the forensics tool mentioned is specifically Autopsy. B and D are also incorrect because they refer to different tools or frameworks for different purposes. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensic-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the SSAE SOC 2 Type I/II framework? A) A standard for Information Security Management Systems B) A framework for privacy practices C) A series of reports associated with trust services criteria D) A set of controls for cloud computing

Answer: C) A series of reports associated with trust services criteria. Explanation: The SSAE SOC 2 Type I/II framework is a set of reports associated with trust services criteria or security controls. It is an auditing standard called the Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements number 18 (SSAE 18) from the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA). During these audits, a series of reports are created that focus on topics such as firewalls, intrusion prevention or detection, and multi-factor authentication. A type I audit examines the controls in place at a particular date and time, while a type II audit tests the controls over a period that will be at least six consecutive months in length. A) is incorrect because it describes the ISO/IEC 27001 standard for Information Security Management Systems. B) is incorrect because it describes the ISO/IEC 27701 framework for privacy practices. D) is incorrect because it describes the cloud controls matrix framework (CCM) from the Cloud Security Alliance. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-frameworks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Tcpreplay? A) A protocol decoder for viewing captured packets B) A utility for capturing packets at the command line level C) A tool for testing security devices and firewall rules by replaying captured packets D) A graphical packet capture tool similar to Wireshark

Answer: C) A tool for testing security devices and firewall rules by replaying captured packets. Explanation: Tcpreplay is a tool that allows security professionals to replay captured network traffic onto the network interface card so that other devices on the network can see the traffic. This tool is used for testing the functionality of security devices such as IPS and firewalls to see if they can recognize and block malicious traffic. It is also used for stress testing other devices on the network, such as switches and firewalls, to see how they respond to high volumes of data. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they describe other tools, such as Wireshark and tcpdump, that are used for capturing and decoding packets but not for replaying them onto the network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/packet-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)? A) A way to manage the PKI infrastructure in large organizations. B) A certificate revocation list (CRL) used to check the validity of certificates. C) An efficient way to check the validity of a single certificate using an OCSP responder. D) An attribute of a digital certificate that contains additional information about the user or device.

Answer: C) An efficient way to check the validity of a single certificate using an OCSP responder. Explanation:OCSP is a more efficient way to check the validity of a single certificate rather than downloading a large CRL file. It involves a browser performing a single check for that certificate against an OCSP responder managed by the certificate authority. This allows for a quicker validation process. However, it is still important to use multiple methods to check the validity of certificates. Option A refers to managing the PKI infrastructure, not specifically OCSP. Option B refers to CRLs, but does not specifically refer to OCSP. Option D refers to an attribute of a digital certificate, not OCSP. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of Two-Person integrity/control? A) Magnetic swipe card for door access B) RFID badge for door access C) Cable locks for equipment protection D) USB data blocker for mobile device charging

Answer: C) Cable locks for equipment protection. Explanation: Two-person integrity/control is a security control mechanism that requires the presence of two individuals in order to access a secured area or perform a dangerous task. Cable locks can be used to prevent equipment from being stolen in an area, and this is an example of two-person integrity/control. The presence of a cable lock requires two individuals to physically remove the lock, which ensures that the equipment remains secure. Magnetic swipe cards and RFID badges are examples of access control mechanisms while the USB data blocker is an example of a security mechanism to prevent data theft. Incorrect Answers: A) Magnetic swipe card for door access - This is an example of an access control mechanism but not an example of two-person integrity/control. B) RFID badge for door access - This is an example of an access control mechanism but not an example of two-person integrity/control. D) USB data blocker for mobile device charging - This is an example of a security mechanism to prevent data theft but not an example of two-person integrity/control. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which type of backup will back up all data modified since the last full backup? A) Full backup B) Incremental backup C) Differential backup D) Image backup

Answer: C) Differential backup Explanation: A differential backup is going to back up all data modified since the last full backup. This means it will take a moderate amount of time to perform this differential backup each day, and every day the differential backup gets longer and longer and longer to take because we're adding on more data every differential backup. Restoring a differential backup is also a moderate amount of time because we're not going to need any more than two sets of backup information. That would be your full backup and the last differential backup. When you perform a differential backup, you are not clearing the archive attribute because you're going to perform this backup again on the next differential backup. Incorrect Answers: A) Full backup: A full backup will back up all data on the system. When you perform a full backup, all of the archive bits are cleared on all of those backed up files. Restoring this data only requires the single set of backup tapes, so the restoration time is relatively low and only requires that single tape set. B) Incremental backup: An incremental backup is going to back up new files and all files that have been modified since the last incremental backup. The backup time is relatively low because we're only backing up files that have changed, but the restoration time is relatively high because we need to restore from not only the last full backup but every other incremental backup that's occurred as well. After we perform an incremental backup, all of the archive attributes are cleared. D) Image backup: An image backup is a type of backup that backs up everything that is on a computer and creates an exact duplicate or replica of that entire file system. If we need to restore this data, we restore an exact duplicate of that particular system all simultaneously. This ensures that we'll be able to restore everything to exactly the way it was when we originally took that image backup. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following devices is used to manage and control a large number of cryptographic keys and certificates in a network environment? A) Switch B) Firewall C) Hardware Security Module (HSM) D) Sensor

Answer: C) Hardware Security Module (HSM) Explanation: A hardware security module (HSM) is a device specifically designed to help manage and control a large number of cryptographic keys and certificates in a network environment. It is often installed in clusters with redundancy and provides secure storage for private keys. The HSM also serves as a cryptographic accelerator, performing encryption and decryption on the device, and reducing the overhead of the encryption process on the server. Switches, firewalls, and sensors may be used in network environments but do not have specialized hardware designed for cryptography and management of cryptographic keys and certificates like an HSM. Incorrect Answers: A) Switch - A switch is a networking device that connects devices together within a network and forwards data between them. It does not have specialized hardware designed for cryptography and management of cryptographic keys and certificates. B) Firewall - A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It does not have specialized hardware designed for cryptography and management of cryptographic keys and certificates. D) Sensor - A sensor is a device that collects information and data from network devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and servers. It does not have specialized hardware designed for cryptography and management of cryptographic keys and certificates. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of a log file that can be created on demand? A) Router logs B) Firewall logs C) Memory dump files D) DNS server logs

Answer: C) Memory dump files Explanation: Memory dump files are log files that can be created on demand to analyze and troubleshoot application issues. These files contain everything in memory associated with a specific application and can be sent to developers for debugging purposes. Router logs, firewall logs, and DNS server logs are all examples of log files that are created constantly on devices in a network. Option A is incorrect because router logs are created constantly on routers to provide updates and authentication issues. Option B is incorrect because firewall logs are created to give information about traffic flows that may be allowed or blocked, website access that has been denied, among other errors. Option D is incorrect because DNS server logs store information about queries made against the DNS server and can help identify potential infected devices on the network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberPassword complexity are important for ensuring the security of a system. Which of the following is NOT a best practice for creating a strong password? A) Use a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, as well as special characters. B) Use a random set of letters and numbers. C) Replace letters with numbers that are very similar, such as 0 for O or 7 for T. D) Create a longer phrase or series of words for the password.

Answer: C) Replace letters with numbers that are very similar, such as 0 for O or 7 for T. Explanation: The best practice for creating a strong password includes using a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, as well as special characters, as stated in option A. Option B is also a good practice, as using a random set of letters and numbers makes it more difficult to guess and brute force the password. Option D suggests using a longer phrase or series of words for the password, which is also a strong practice. Option C suggests replacing letters with numbers that are very similar, which is not a strong practice as attackers have brute force systems that are already designed to replace these letters with these numbers because this is such a common thing for people to do. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/best-practices-for-password-policies

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is NOT a best practice associated with device credential policies? A) Requiring multifactor authentication for administrator or root access B) Having unique user accounts tied to individual users, both for internal and third-party accounts C) Storing passwords as part of the application itself, rather than on the server side D) Requiring screen locks and specific types of screen locks on mobile devices

Answer: C) Storing passwords as part of the application itself, rather than on the server side Explanation: One of the critical parts of data security strategy is proper credential management. Passwords should reside on the server side, and communication for the application, especially during the login process, should be encrypted. User ID should always be associated with the same person. User accounts should not have privileged access by default, and users should use elevated accounts only when necessary. Multifactor authentication should be used for administrator or root access, and unique user accounts should be used for internal and third-party accounts. Mobile device policies should include screen locks and specific types of screen locks. However, storing passwords as part of the application itself is not a best practice associated with device credential policies as it is not secure. Incorrect answers explained: A) Requiring multifactor authentication for administrator or root access is a best practice associated with device credential policies. B) Having unique user accounts tied to individual users, both for internal and third-party accounts, is a best practice associated with device credential policies. D) Requiring screen locks and specific types of screen locks on mobile devices is a best practice associated with device credential policies. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/credential-policies/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is rule-based access control? A) The owner of an object assigns rights and permissions to it B) Access control is based on the role that an employee has in the company C) The system administrator defines a set of rules for access control specific to the object D) A number of different criteria are defined and evaluated for access to a resource

Answer: C) The system administrator defines a set of rules for access control specific to the object. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) The definition provided in answer A is for discretionary access control (DAC). B) The definition provided in answer B is for role-based access control (RBAC). D) The definition provided in answer D is for attribute-based access control (ABAC). Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/access-control-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat security concern arises from running outdated operating systems or older software on legacy systems? A. The risk of disgruntled employees creating security events B. The risk of data breaches affecting multiple organizations C. The risk of intellectual property theft D. The risk of significant security concerns due to lack of manufacturer support

Answer: D Explanation: Legacy systems that are running outdated operating systems or older software may no longer be supported by the manufacturer, making it difficult to find security patches and exposing them to significant security concerns. It is often better to replace these legacy systems with something that can be better supported. A is incorrect because it refers to the risk of disgruntled employees, which was mentioned elsewhere in the text but not specifically related to legacy systems. B is incorrect because it refers to the risk of data breaches affecting multiple organizations, which was mentioned elsewhere in the text but not specifically related to legacy systems. C is incorrect because it refers to the risk of intellectual property theft, which was mentioned elsewhere in the text but not specifically related to legacy systems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of performing tabletop exercises in incident response planning? A. To physically perform a full-scale test of a particular security incident B. To test all processes and procedures with everyone who would be responding to the incident C. To involve all stakeholders in the resolution process when an incident occurs D. To discuss the process of a security incident and determine what steps to take

Answer: D Explanation: Tabletop exercises involve discussing the process of a security incident and stepping through what would be done if the incident occurred, rather than physically performing the tasks. This allows everyone in the organization to talk through and discuss the process, as well as find any process or procedure issues beforehand. A is incorrect because a full-scale test is done through a walkthrough, not a tabletop exercise. B is incorrect because testing all processes and procedures with everyone who would be responding to the incident is done through a walkthrough. C is incorrect because involving all stakeholders in the resolution process when an incident occurs is separate from tabletop exercises. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is memdump? A. A command used to create a bit-by-bit copy of all information on a drive or in a directory in Windows. B. A utility used to search through a storage drive to find pieces of information in Windows. C. A tool used to perform brute force attacks to identify passwords in Windows. D. A utility used to capture all the information in system memory and send it to a specific location in Windows.

Answer: D Explanation:Memdump is a utility used to capture all the information in system memory and send it to a specific location on your system. This is very useful because many third-party forensics tools can read this memory dump file and be able to identify or locate information that may be stored in that memory. We would commonly use memdump in conjunction with Netcat, stunnel, openssl, or some other host that we would send to across the network. A is incorrect because it is describing the DD command in Windows, not memdump. B is incorrect because it is describing the Autopsy tool, not memdump. C is incorrect because it is describing a password cracker tool, not memdump. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensic-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of the authentication factor of something you know? A) A smart card B) A fingerprint C) A USB token D) A password

Answer: D) A password. Explanation: Something you know is a type of authentication factor that refers to information that is stored in your brain, such as a password, personal identification number (PIN), or pattern on a mobile phone. Option A is an example of something you have, as a smart card is a physical object that is carried with you. Option B is an example of something you are, as biometric factors are characteristics of your body. Option C is also an example of something you have, as a USB token is a physical object that is carried with you. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is true about network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS)/network-based intrusion prevention systems (NIPS) (Signature-based)? A) An IDS has the ability to block traffic in real time. B) An IDS is commonly seen as a standalone device on a network. C) An IPS in passive mode is in line with the actual traffic flows and can block traffic in real time. D) Anomalies-based IPS requires a certain amount of time to understand what is normal on a network.

Answer: D) Anomalies-based IPS requires a certain amount of time to understand what is normal on a network. Explanation: An anomaly-based IPS can recognize certain types of behavior on a network and block traffic if it recognizes unusual behavior. However, it requires a certain amount of time to understand what is normal on a network and what might be abnormal. Therefore, option D is correct. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) An IDS does not commonly have the ability to block traffic in real time. Therefore, option A is incorrect. B) An IDS is rarely seen as a standalone device on a network. Instead, an IPS is commonly used, which can block traffic in real time. Therefore, option B is incorrect. C) An IPS in passive mode is not in line with the actual traffic flows and cannot block traffic in real time as it is only receiving a copy of the traffic. Therefore, option C is incorrect. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/intrusion-prevention/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a key difference between hardware firewalls and software firewalls? A) Hardware firewalls are less expensive than software firewalls B) Hardware firewalls are easier to configure for specific network needs C) Hardware firewalls offer greater protection against DoS attacks D) Hardware firewalls require physical installation and maintenance

Answer: D) Hardware firewalls require physical installation and maintenance. Explanation: A hardware firewall is a physical device that sits between your network and the Internet. It requires physical installation and maintenance, unlike software firewalls which can be installed and maintained remotely. While hardware firewalls tend to be more expensive than software firewalls, they offer better security and are harder to compromise. Hardware firewalls also provide better protection against DoS attacks than software firewalls. However, they may be more difficult to configure for specific network needs. Incorrect Answers: A) Hardware firewalls are typically more expensive than software firewalls. B) Software firewalls tend to be easier to configure than hardware firewalls. C) Hardware firewalls may offer greater protection against DoS attacks, not software firewalls. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is the key to handling a security incident properly? A) Quickly recovering from the incident B) Isolating and containing the incident C) Identifying the legitimate threats D) Having all of the right people and processes in place

Answer: D) Having all of the right people and processes in place Explanation: The text states that the key to handling a security incident properly is to make sure you're well prepared. There needs to be all of the right people and processes in place so you know exactly what to do when the incident occurs. This would include communication methods, hardware and software tools, data storage and capture, and policies and procedures. Therefore, having all of the right people and processes in place is the correct answer. A) Quickly recovering from the incident: While recovering from the incident is important, it is not the key to handling a security incident properly. B) Isolating and containing the incident: While isolating and containing the incident is important, it is not the key to handling a security incident properly. C) Identifying the legitimate threats: While identifying the legitimate threats is important, it is not the key to handling a security incident properly. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-process-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of Risk Avoidance in Risk Management? A) Purchasing Cybersecurity Insurance to mitigate the risk of a security incident B) Continuing to use legacy systems with outdated software C) Training employees on how to identify and avoid phishing attacks D) Stopping the use of outdated applications and instead using modern alternatives

Answer: D) Stopping the use of outdated applications and instead using modern alternatives Explanation: Risk Avoidance is about making changes to business processes to eliminate risky activities or assets. In this case, by stopping the use of outdated applications, the organization can avoid the risk associated with outdated software and reduce the possibility of a security event occurring. Choice A is an example of Risk Transfer, where the organization purchases insurance to transfer the financial risk of a security incident to an insurance provider. Choice B is an example of Risk Acceptance, where the organization continues to use outdated systems despite the known security concerns. Choice C is an example of Risk Mitigation, where the organization takes steps to decrease the risk level, in this case by training employees on how to identify and avoid phishing attacks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a false negative in a vulnerability scan report? A) A vulnerability that does not exist on the system, but is identified as a vulnerability in the report B) A vulnerability that exists on the system, but is not identified as a vulnerability in the report C) A low severity vulnerability identified in the report, but misidentified as a high severity vulnerability D) A miscategorized or misidentified problem that is identified as a vulnerability in the report, but is not actually a vulnerability

B) A false negative in a vulnerability scan report is when a vulnerability exists on the system, but is not identified as a vulnerability in the report. This can be a significant concern as the vulnerability goes unnoticed and can be exploited by attackers. False negatives can be minimized by ensuring that the vulnerability scanner has the latest signatures for accurate identification of vulnerabilities. False positives, on the other hand, are identified as a vulnerability in the report but do not actually exist on the system. Option A is describing false positives, while options C and D describe miscategorized or misidentified problems that are not necessarily vulnerabilities. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-scan-output-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a generator? A) A device that provides temporary power during brownouts or complete outages. B) A long-term power backup that can keep the power running for days or even weeks at a time. C) A type of uninterruptible power supply that is always online and always providing power to your devices. D) A device that has multiple power supplies inside of it where you can plug in multiple power sources.

B) A long-term power backup that can keep the power running for days or even weeks at a time. Explanation: According to the given text, a generator is a long-term power backup that can keep the power running for days or even weeks at a time, as long as there is fuel available to run the generator. While UPSs provide temporary power during outages, a generator can provide power for extended periods. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. A) is incorrect because it describes the function of an uninterruptible power supply, not a generator. C) is also incorrect because it describes a specific type of UPS, not a generator. D) is incorrect because it describes a server power supply with multiple power supplies inside of it, not a generator. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/power-redundancy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a password key? A) A password manager that stores all of your passwords in one central secure area B) A physical device that you would plug into a USB drive that allows you access to a system as part of the authentication process C) Secure cryptography functions to be able to create random numbers or key generators D) Hardware Security Module (HSM) that can be used for centralized storage of all of our encryption and decryption keys

B) A password key is a physical device that you would plug into a USB drive that allows you access to a system as part of the authentication process. It acts as a two-factor authentication method and prevents someone else from logging into your account, even if they had your username and password. It is usually used along with other authentication factors such as a username, password, and personal identification number. A) A password manager that stores all of your passwords in one central secure area is incorrect because it is referring to a different concept of authentication management. C) Secure cryptography functions to be able to create random numbers or key generators is incorrect because it is referring to Trusted Platform Modules (TPMs). D) Hardware Security Module (HSM) that can be used for centralized storage of all of our encryption and decryption keys is incorrect because it is also referring to a different concept of authentication management. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Business Continuity Plan in the context of security incidents? A) An ongoing simulation of how people respond to simulated attacks B) A plan for restoring critical business functions in the event of a disaster or security incident C) A list of people involved in the security planning process D) A group of professionals trained to respond to security incidents

B) A plan for restoring critical business functions in the event of a disaster or security incident is the correct answer. A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) outlines the steps an organization will take to ensure that critical business functions can continue to operate in the event of a disaster or security incident. This plan may involve restoring IT systems, ensuring the safety of employees, and communicating with stakeholders. A) An ongoing simulation of how people respond to simulated attacks is incorrect because it refers to a regular security exercise rather than specifically being about business continuity. C) A list of people involved in the security planning process is incorrect because the text specifically refers to the importance of maintaining good relationships with stakeholders and having a contact list for communication during a security incident, but this is not the same as a BCP. D) A group of professionals trained to respond to security incidents is incorrect because it refers to an Incident Response Team (IRT), which is separate from a BCP. While the IRT may be involved in executing the BCP, their primary function is to respond to ongoing security incidents. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Multiparty in the context of risk management? A) A situation where only one entity is involved in a security breach B) A situation where multiple entities are involved in a security breach C) A situation where a former employee creates a security event D) A situation where legacy systems are running outdated operating systems

B) A situation where multiple entities are involved in a security breach is Multiparty in the context of risk management. An example of this occurred in May of 2019 with the American Medical Collection Agency. This was an organization that provided debt collection for many different organizations and they had a data breach on 24 million individuals. This collection agency handled services for 23 health care organizations. So that one data breach now affected 23 other companies who then had to reach out to their customers and let them know that their data had been compromised. Option A is incorrect as it is the opposite of the correct answer. Option C is incorrect as it refers to a specific example of an internal threat, which is not necessarily related to Multiparty. Option D is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of outdated operating systems, which is not necessarily related to Multiparty. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes high availability in a cloud-based environment? A) A system that requires manual intervention to restore uptime after a failure B) A system that allows for multiple components to work together, such as multiple firewalls and routers, to maintain uptime C) A system that has a single point of failure, but provides immediate accessibility in the event of failure D) A system that requires multiple backups to restore uptime after a failure

B) A system that allows for multiple components to work together, such as multiple firewalls and routers, to maintain uptime. Explanation: High availability is a system that allows for multiple components to work together, such as multiple firewalls and routers, to maintain uptime. In the event of a failure, the system is designed to allow for immediate accessibility and maintain uptime. This is achieved through redundancy and fault-tolerance measures. Options A, C, and D do not correctly describe high availability in a cloud-based environment. Option A describes a system that requires manual intervention to restore uptime after a failure. Option C describes a system with a single point of failure, which is the opposite of high availability. Option D describes a system that requires multiple backups to restore uptime after a failure, which is not a requirement for high availability. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a method to enhance the security of DHCP on a network? A) Using the HTTP protocol to communicate with DHCP servers B) Authorizing DHCP devices with Active Directory C) Allowing DHCP communication from any interface on a switch D) Increasing the number of MAC addresses that can be seen from a particular interface

B) Authorizing DHCP devices with Active Directory is a method to enhance the security of DHCP on a network. DHCP does not include any particular security functionality within the original specification, so additional controls outside of the DHCP protocol are necessary to prevent attacks. One method is to authorize what devices are able to act as DHCP devices on the network by configuring Active Directory. This ensures that only trusted devices are allowed to provide DHCP services. A) Using the HTTP protocol to communicate with DHCP servers is incorrect because HTTP is an insecure protocol, and using it for communication with DHCP servers would expose the communication to eavesdropping and interception. C) Allowing DHCP communication from any interface on a switch is incorrect because it would expose the network to rogue DHCP servers, which can be used to distribute incorrect or malicious IP configuration information to clients. D) Increasing the number of MAC addresses that can be seen from a particular interface is incorrect because it does not prevent a DHCP starvation attack where an attacker changes their MAC address and uses up all the available IP addresses in a DHCP pool. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes Continuous Delivery? A) Automating the testing and release of an application and waiting for a human to click a button to deploy it to production B) Automating the testing, deployment, and security checks of an application and automatically sending it to production if everything looks perfect C) Automating the testing and release of an application, but not automating the security checks D) Manually testing and deploying an application to production without any automation

B) Automating the testing, deployment, and security checks of an application and automatically sending it to production if everything looks perfect. Continuous Delivery is the practice of automating the testing and deployment of an application, including automated security checks, and then waiting for a human to click a button to deploy it to production. The automated security checks occur during the testing process, and if everything passes, the application is automatically deployed to production without any delays. Choice A describes Continuous Integration, while choice C is incorrect because automated security checks are a part of Continuous Delivery. Choice D is incorrect because Continuous Delivery relies on automation, not manual testing and deployment. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/automation-and-scripting/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich authentication protocol provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network to add additional security over PAP? A) AAA B) CHAP C) RADIUS D) PAP

B) CHAP is correct. CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network to add additional security over PAP. CHAP has a three-way handshake that occurs and provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network. Once there is a link, the server is going to send the client a challenge message, which is going to be combined with a password hash and sent back to the server where it will evaluate the password and the challenge to be able to see if that matches what's expected. A) AAA is incorrect. AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) is not an authentication protocol, but a server designed to provide authentication, authorization, and accounting. C) RADIUS is incorrect. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting management for users who connect and use network resources. D) PAP is incorrect. PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) is an extremely basic method to provide an authentication process. It sends all of the information through the network in the clear. There's no encryption built into PAP that provides a way to protect the username or the password. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/pap-and-chap/ -------------------

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a key document that must be kept to make sure that any changes to collected digital evidence can be tracked? A) Legal Hold B) Chain of custody C) System logs D) Witness statement

B) Chain of custody. A chain of custody is a document that tracks the movement of digital evidence from the moment of collection to its presentation in court. It documents every person who has handled the evidence, what was done with it, and when. It is essential in maintaining the integrity of the evidence and ensuring that any changes to it are documented. A) Legal hold refers to a request by legal counsel to preserve certain data for later use. C) System logs are used to gather information about operating system, security events and applications running on it. D) Witness statement is a recorded or written statement given by a person who witnessed an incident or event. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a concern when opening ports on a server? A) Allowing access to legacy systems B) Creating a vulnerability in the server C) Making it difficult to patch the server D) Providing too much information in error messages

B) Creating a vulnerability in the server is a concern when opening ports on a server. Opening ports on a server allows traffic to flow in and out, but it also creates an opening for attackers to exploit. To keep the server secure, security administrators use firewalls to manage the flow of traffic, but these rule sets can become very complex and may allow unintended access to services. Keeping software up to date with the latest patches is a priority for many organizations because most of these patches are associated with security vulnerabilities. Legacy systems, however, may not have patches available, making them more vulnerable to attack. Providing too much information in error messages is also a concern, but not specifically related to opening ports on a server. Incorrect Answers: A) Allowing access to legacy systems is a concern when deciding whether or not to keep them on the network. However, it is not specifically related to opening ports on a server. C) Making it difficult to patch the server is a concern when using legacy systems that no longer receive patches, but it is not specifically related to opening ports on a server. D) Providing too much information in error messages is a concern when sending application data in the clear, but it is not specifically related to opening ports on a server. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) framework for privacy management? A) ISO/IEC 27001 B) ISO/IEC 27701 C) ISO/IEC 31000 D) SOC 2

B) ISO/IEC 27701 is the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) framework for privacy management, with the Privacy Information Management Systems (PIMS). ISO/IEC 27001 is a standard for Information Security Management Systems (ISMS) and 27002 is a code of practice for information security controls. ISO 31000 is for international standards for risk management practices. SOC 2 is a suite of reports associated with trust services criteria or security controls from the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants. A) ISO/IEC 27001: A standard for Information Security Management Systems (ISMS) C) ISO/IEC 31000: International standards for risk management practices. D) SOC 2: A suite of reports associated with trust services criteria or security controls from the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-frameworks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about a full backup? A) It only backs up the files that have changed since the last full backup. B) It backs up everything on the system, and clears the archive bit on all backed up files. C) It backs up everything that's changed since the last full backup, and every differential backup that's occurred. D) It only backs up new files and all files that have been modified since the last incremental backup.

B) It backs up everything on the system, and clears the archive bit on all backed up files, is correct. A full backup is a type of backup that takes a complete copy of everything stored on an operating system and saves it in a full backup. It will take everything that is stored in that operating system and save it in that full backup. Once the backup is complete, the archive bit is cleared, signifying that no changes have been made to that file since the last backup. A) It is incorrect. This statement describes an incremental backup, not a full backup. An incremental backup only backs up new files and all files that have been modified since the last incremental backup. C) It is incorrect. This statement describes a differential backup, not a full backup. A differential backup is going to back up all data modified since the last full backup. This means it will take a moderate amount of time to perform this differential backup each day, and every day the differential backup gets longer and longer and longer to take because we're adding on more data every differential backup. D) It is incorrect. This statement also describes an incremental backup, not a full backup. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich protocol is commonly used in site-to-site VPN implementations, connecting two networks as if they are on the same layer 2 network, but through a layer 3 network? A) SSL VPN B) L2TP C) AH D) ESP

B) L2TP is commonly used in site-to-site VPN implementations, connecting two networks as if they are on the same layer 2 network, but through a layer 3 network. L2TP is often used in conjunction with IPSec networks, and it provides the tunnel between two sites, while IPSec provides the encryption capabilities. L2TP over IPSec is a common implementation of this technology. A) SSL VPN is used for end user remote access and communication over TCP port 443. It is not commonly used in site-to-site VPN implementations. C) AH (Authentication Header) is used for providing data integrity in IPSec tunnels, but it does not provide encryption. D) ESP (Encapsulation Security Payload) is used for providing both encryption and data integrity in IPSec tunnels. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Mobile Content Management (MCM)? A) A type of password that can't be forgotten, such as a fingerprint B) A system for managing and securing the data stored on mobile devices C) An authentication method that combines different characteristics to build a user profile D) A way to create separate areas on a mobile device for personal and company data"

B) Mobile Content Management (MCM) is a system for managing and securing the data stored on mobile devices. It allows us to set policies based on where the data is stored and to control how the data is accessed and transmitted. We can store and retrieve information from on-site content or cloud-based storage systems and use MCM to ensure that the data remains safe through data loss prevention capabilities and encryption. The administrators of the Mobile Device Manager would be responsible for configuring and setting these security options. A) Although biometric passwords are mentioned in the text, they are not the definition of MCM. C) Context-aware authentication is also mentioned in the text but is not the definition of MCM. D) Containerization is a way to keep personal and company data separate on a mobile device, but it is not the definition of MCM. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following regulations is administered by private organizations in order to provide protection for credit card transactions? A) HIPAA B) PCI DSS C) GDPR D) FISMA

B) PCI DSS is the correct answer. PCI DSS stands for Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, and it is a series of guidelines that is administered by the payment card industry in order to provide protection for credit card transactions. The other options are incorrect: A) HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a national law in the United States that regulates the privacy and security of medical information. C) GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is a policy created by the European Union to control what happens with private information and prevent it from being exported outside of the European Union. D) FISMA (Federal Information Security Modernization Act) is a national law in the United States that requires federal agencies to develop, document, and implement an information security and protection program. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-regulations-and-standards-sy0-601-comptia-security-5-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a common constraint for embedded devices related to computing power? A) Limited interfaces B) Power constraints C) Networking limitations D) Lack of cryptographic capabilities

B) Power constraints are a common constraint for embedded devices. These devices are often placed in areas without direct power sources, and may have to rely on batteries or solar power for energy. This can affect the computing power of the device, as well as its ability to function properly. While limited interfaces, networking limitations, and lack of cryptographic capabilities are all constraints that may affect embedded devices, they are not specifically related to computing power. A) Limited interfaces are a constraint associated with embedded devices, but are not specifically related to computing power. C) Networking limitations are a constraint associated with embedded devices, but are not specifically related to computing power. D) Lack of cryptographic capabilities is a constraint associated with embedded devices, but is not specifically related to computing power. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-constraints/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which type of data classification would customer data such as names, addresses, and organizations they work for fall under? A) Public B) Private C) Sensitive D) Confidential

B) Private Explanation: Customer data, such as names, addresses, and organizations they work for, would fall under the category of Personally Identifiable Information (PII), which is a type of private data. PII is any type of data that could be tied back to an individual or person, and it should remain private and protected. Public data refers to unclassified data that anyone would have access to, while sensitive information might be intellectual property or secrets of a company. Confidential information is very sensitive information that requires specific permissions to access. Incorrect Answers: A) Public data is unclassified data that anyone would have access to, and customer data would not fall under this category. C) Sensitive information might be intellectual property or secrets of a company, but customer data would not necessarily fall under this category unless it was highly sensitive customer data. D) Confidential information is very sensitive information that requires specific permissions to access, but customer data would not necessarily be considered confidential unless it was highly sensitive customer data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a third-party solution for Security Data Destruction, and what documentation should they provide? A) Pulverize or incinerate the device without any proof B) Provide certificates to confirm destruction and documentation on the serial numbers / devices destroyed C) Perform a purge to remove a single file or section of data D) Delete everything on the drive without confirmation

B) Provide certificates to confirm destruction and documentation on the serial numbers / devices destroyed The correct answer is B because the text specifically states that third-party solutions can provide certificates to confirm destruction and documentation on the serial numbers / devices destroyed. This is important to ensure the proper destruction of sensitive data. Explanation for A: This answer choice is incorrect because it suggests the device would be destroyed without any proof, which is not a secure method for data destruction. Explanation for C: This answer choice is incorrect because it only suggests removing a single file or section of data without confirming the destruction of the device itself. Explanation for D: This answer choice is incorrect because it suggests deleting everything on the drive without any confirmation, which is not a secure method for data destruction. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-data-destruction/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich utility can perform network packet capture from the command line level in Linux distributions? A) Netcat B) Tcpdump C) Traceroute D) Ping

B) Tcpdump Explanation: Tcpdump is a utility that can perform network packet capture from the command line level in Linux distributions. It can display information on the screen, provide additional decodes as it captures, and even include the option to write all of this information into a capture file that you can later look at inside of tcpdump or use Wireshark. Netcat allows for reading from and writing to network connections using TCP or UDP. Traceroute is a utility that shows the path taken by packets across an IP network. Ping is a utility that sends a packet to a specified network address and measures the response time. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/packet-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about the archive bit attribute in Windows file systems? A) The archive bit is turned on when a file is created and turned off when it is modified. B) The archive bit is turned on when a file is modified and turned off after a full backup. C) The archive bit is turned off after every incremental backup. D) The archive bit is turned off after every differential backup.

B) The archive bit is turned on when a file is modified and turned off after a full backup. Explanation for incorrect answers: A) The archive bit is turned on when a file is modified, not when it is created. C) The archive bit is turned off after a full backup, not after every incremental backup. D) The archive bit is not turned off after every differential backup; it remains on until the next full backup. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO)? A) A dollar figure associated with a specific risk factor. B) The likelihood of a specific event occurring within a year. C) The cost associated with a specific event occurring. D) The potential loss associated with a specific risk factor.

B) The likelihood of a specific event occurring within a year is the definition of the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO). The ARO is an important metric in determining the annualized loss expectancy (ALE), which is useful in making business decisions regarding risk management. The ALE is calculated by multiplying the ARO with the single loss expectancy (SLE). Option A is referring to a qualitative or quantitative risk assessment, option C is referring to the SLE, and option D is referring to the ALE. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of a chain of custody in digital forensics? A) To document the time zone information associated with the device being examined B) To ensure that the data collected is admissible in a court of law C) To allow anyone who comes in contact with the data to make changes to it D) To filter the data collected based on a particular application or time of day

B) To ensure that the data collected is admissible in a court of law. The chain of custody is a detailed documentation that shows that nothing could have been changed since the time the data was collected. It is used to verify that the data collected is admissible in a court of law. A) is incorrect because documenting time zone information is important, but is not the purpose of a chain of custody. C) is incorrect because the chain of custody is used to prevent changes to the data, not to allow changes. D) is incorrect because filtering the data collected is not the purpose of a chain of custody. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a purpose of cable locks? A) To connect two pieces of networking equipment together B) To prevent a piece of equipment from being stolen in a temporary environment C) To transfer data to a third party through a USB charging port D) To provide proper lighting in an area

B) To prevent a piece of equipment from being stolen in a temporary environment. Cable locks are a standard type of connector that has a reinforced notch which can be connected to almost anything around you to prevent theft of equipment in a temporary environment. A) To connect two pieces of networking equipment together is incorrect because cable locks are used to prevent theft of equipment, not connect networking equipment together. C) To transfer data to a third party through a USB charging port is incorrect because this describes Juice jacking, which is a type of exploit, and not the purpose of cable locks. D) To provide proper lighting in an area is incorrect because while proper lighting is an essential security control, it is not related to the purpose of cable locks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a way to physically destroy a hard drive to ensure that no data can be recovered? A) Throw it in the trash B) Use a degausser C) Delete important configuration information D) Scratch the surface of the platters

B) Use a degausser. A degausser is a strong magnetic field that can remove all of the data stored on the magnetic fields of a hard drive. This method not only deletes the data from the platter, but it also removes any important configuration information on the drive, rendering it unusable. This is a secure way to destroy data, as there is no way to recover it. A) Throwing it in the trash is not a secure way to destroy data, as it is still possible for someone to retrieve the hard drive and recover data from it. C) Deleting important configuration information is not a secure way to destroy data, as someone may still be able to recover data from the hard drive. D) Scratching the surface of the platters is not a secure way to destroy data, as there are still ways to possibly recover data from the hard drive. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-data-destruction/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is WinHex? A) A utility that allows you to create disk images in Linux B) A forensics tool that allows you to view and edit information in hexadecimal mode in Windows C) A password cracker that can perform high speed brute force attacks D) A tool that provides digital forensics of information stored on a storage device

B) WinHex is a third-party editor that allows you to view information in hexadecimal mode, so you can view and edit information located in a file, in memory, in disks that you may have. There are also disk cloning capabilities built into WinHex, so you can copy everything from a file and store it in an image file or copy it to a separate storage device. It can also perform secure wipes to be sure that all of the information that might be contained within a file will be completely wiped and will not be recoverable with third-party utilities. Option A is incorrect because this refers to DD, a command used to create disk images in Linux. Option C is incorrect because this refers to a password cracker. Option D refers to Autopsy, a tool that provides digital forensics of information stored on a storage device. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensic-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an advanced shell available for Windows machines? A. Telnet B. PowerShell C. Python D. OpenSSL

B. PowerShell is an advanced shell available for Windows machines, and is commonly used by system administrators to manipulate almost every aspect of the Windows operating system. It allows for running scripts with a .ps1 file extension, and can operate as a standalone utility. Telnet (A) is an older command that sends information in the clear, making it an insecure option for terminal communication across the network. Python (C) is a popular scripting language available across multiple operating systems, but is not a shell. OpenSSL (D) is a library and set of utilities that allows for management of SSL or TLS certificates, and does not function as a shell or scripting language. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/shell-and-script-environments/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is true about enforcement and monitoring of SMS/MMS/RCS? A. The Mobile Device Manager cannot enable or disable SMS/MMS/RCS functionality on mobile devices. B. The Mobile Device Manager can control SMS/MMS/RCS functionality and may configure it based on location. C. SMS/MMS/RCS functionality can never be disabled on a mobile device. D. SMS/MMS/RCS functionality is always enabled on all mobile devices.

B. The Mobile Device Manager can control SMS/MMS/RCS functionality and may configure it based on location. Explanation: The text explicitly states that the Mobile Device Manager can enable or disable features such as the camera or SMS/MMS/RCS functionalities. It also states that the MDM can configure these functionalities based on location, which means that these functionalities can be enabled or disabled depending on where the user is. Therefore, option B is correct. Option A is incorrect because the text explicitly states the opposite. Option C and D are incorrect because the text states that SMS/MMS/RCS functionality can be disabled or enabled, and it is not always enabled on all mobile devices. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one way a load balancer can provide more efficient access to web servers? A. By prioritizing certain applications over others B. By using dynamic round-robin to distribute load C. By providing SSL offloading and caching services D. By allowing users to always communicate with the same server

C is the correct answer. By performing SSL encryption and decryption on the load balancer instead of on individual servers, the load balancer can offload some of the TCP overhead and keep communication between the load balancer and servers efficient. The load balancer may also provide caching services for frequently accessed information. A, B, and D are incorrect answers. While all of these functionalities are possible with load balancing, they do not specifically address the question of making access to web servers more efficient. Prioritizing certain applications, using dynamic round-robin, and allowing users to always communicate with the same server all involve load distribution and management, but do not necessarily make access more efficient. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/load-balancing-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of context-aware authentication? A. Using a biometric password to authenticate to a mobile device B. Enabling two-factor authentication for logging into a corporate network C. Examining the GPS location and Bluetooth connections of a mobile device during authentication D. Creating separate partitions on a mobile device for corporate and personal data

C is the correct answer. Context-aware authentication combines different characteristics to build a profile of who may be trying to authenticate to a particular device. This may include examining the IP address, location, and devices around the user during the authentication process. A is incorrect because biometric authentication is not necessarily context-aware. B is incorrect because two-factor authentication is a separate authentication method that does not necessarily rely on context-based information. D is incorrect because containerization refers to separate partitions on a mobile device for corporate and personal data, but does not involve context-aware authentication. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a key method for managing user and administrative access to cloud resources? A. Creating independent availability zones for different regions B. Using a load balancer to distribute the load for the application C. Utilizing Identity and Access Management or IAM D. Centralizing log storage using a Security Information and Event Management system or SIEM

C is the correct answer. Identity and Access Management or IAM determines who gets access to a particular cloud resource and within that resource, it determines what they get access to. This allows you to create different groups and map different job functions to those individual groups. A is incorrect because creating independent availability zones for different regions is a method for organizing areas where there would be availability, not managing user and administrative access. B is incorrect because a load balancer is not a method for managing user and administrative access, but for providing additional high availability if we lose one of the servers being served. D is incorrect because centralizing log storage using a Security Information and Event Management system or SIEM is a method for consolidating and reporting on logs from all of these different devices, but not a method for managing user and administrative access. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-controls/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the maximum expiration time for a certificate in a browser? A) 3 years B) 24 months C) 30 months D) 12 months

C) 30 months. The maximum expiration time for a certificate in a browser is 30 months or 398 days. This has been reduced from the standard 3 years to limit the amount of time that a compromised certificate can remain valid. Shorter expiration times limit the impact a compromised certificate can have and help ensure that certificates are regularly reviewed and updated. A) is incorrect because 3 years is the previous standard but no longer the maximum expiration time. B) and D) are incorrect because they are outside of the allowed maximum expiration time range. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Domain Validation certificate? A) A certificate that allows you to sign and distribute software B) A certificate used for encrypting email messages C) A certificate that enables SSL for a website and validates the domain D) A certificate used for distributing user certificates

C) A certificate that enables SSL for a website and validates the domain. Domain validation certificates or DV certificates, are used for encrypting communication to a web server and indicates that the owner of this certificate who's added it to this website server, has some control over the domain that you're connecting to. This provides the trust that when you're connecting to a website, you really are connecting to the legitimate form of that particular website. A) A certificate that allows you to sign and distribute software is incorrect because this is a code signing certificate. B) A certificate used for encrypting email messages is incorrect because this is an email certificate. D) A certificate used for distributing user certificates is incorrect because this is a user certificate. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is an FPGA? A) A type of software that is programmed before the device is shipped. B) A type of embedded system that can perform multiple tasks simultaneously. C) A type of integrated circuit that can be programmed after the device is shipped. D) A type of system that controls industrial equipment in a manufacturing facility.

C) A type of integrated circuit that can be programmed after the device is shipped. FPGA stands for Field-Programmable Gate Array, and it is an integrated circuit that can be programmed after the device is shipped. This allows developers to add new capabilities or modify the functionality of the device by simply adding new software that will reprogram the FPGA. This provides a lot of flexibility for the developer, and FPGAs are used extensively in many different types of devices, including switches, routers, firewalls, and other security components. Option A is incorrect because FPGAs are not software that is programmed before the device is shipped. Option B is incorrect because FPGAs are not a type of embedded system that can perform multiple tasks simultaneously. Option D is incorrect because FPGAs are not a type of system that controls industrial equipment in a manufacturing facility, although they may be used in such systems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following describes the Distinguished encoding rules (DER) certificate format? A) A text format that can be easily modified by email systems B) A container format that can store multiple certificates C) An ASCII format that can be easily read and transferred over email D) A format used primarily in the Windows operating system

C) An ASCII format that can be easily read and transferred over email is the correct answer. The Distinguished encoding rules (DER) certificate format is a binary format that is not readable in a text editor. However, it can be converted to base64 format, which is readable in an email, and transferred as text between devices. This makes it easy to transfer certificates between different systems. Choice A is incorrect because the DER format is binary and cannot be easily modified by email systems. Choice B is incorrect because the container format described in the paragraph is PKCS number 12 and is used to store multiple certificates. Choice D is incorrect because the paragraph mentions that the DER format is commonly used in Java applications as well as in the Windows operating system, but it is not used primarily in Windows. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-formats/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is an FPGA? A) An interface for USB and ethernet connectivity. B) A type of SoC used in embedded systems. C) An integrated circuit that can be reprogrammed with new software. D) A type of software used to monitor industrial equipment.

C) An integrated circuit that can be reprogrammed with new software. FPGA stands for Field-Programmable Gate Array. It is an integrated circuit that can be programmed with new software after the device has shipped. Since it is an array of logic blocks that can be controlled through software, developers can easily reprogram the FPGA to modify the functionality of the device or add new capabilities. FPGAs are commonly used in a variety of devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and other security components. Option A is incorrect because it describes USB and ethernet interfaces, not FPGAs. Option B is incorrect because an FPGA is not a type of SoC, although both are commonly used in embedded systems. Option D is incorrect because it describes SCADA, not FPGAs. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the first type of data that should be gathered when acquiring data from a system during a forensics investigation? A) Files that are stored on the system B) Data that is stored in backups and archival media C) Data that is stored in CPU registers or in the CPU cache D) Data that is stored in memory

C) Data that is stored in CPU registers or in the CPU cache is the most volatile type of data that is stored on a system, meaning that it can change or be deleted quickly. Therefore, it should be the first type of data gathered during a forensics investigation. This is followed by information that is slightly less volatile, such as router tables, ARP cache, and process tables. From there, files that are stored on the system should be collected, and then information that rarely changes, such as physical configuration of the device or typology of the network. Lastly, data that is stored in backups and archival media should be collected. A) Files that are stored on the system is incorrect because this type of data is less volatile and should be collected after more volatile data has been gathered. B) Data that is stored in backups and archival media is incorrect because it is the least volatile and should be collected last. D) Data that is stored in memory is less volatile and should be gathered after more volatile data has been collected. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following authentication protocols requires digital certificates on all devices for mutual authentication? A) EAP-FAST B) PEAP C) EAP-TLS D) EAP-TTLS

C) EAP-TLS requires digital certificates on all devices for mutual authentication. This is because a mutual authentication is performed when connecting to the network. Once the mutual authentication is complete, a TLS tunnel is then built to send the user authentication details. The use of digital certificates on all devices requires a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) for proper management, deployment, and revocation of these certificates. A) EAP-FAST uses a shared secret called Protected Access Credential (PAC) for secure information transfer over a TLS tunnel. B) PEAP uses digital certificates only on the server and does not require separate digital certificates for the clients. D) EAP-TTLS requires a digital certificate on the authentication server to create and send information over the TLS tunnel, but does not require separate digital certificates for all devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-authentication-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which authentication method uses a pseudo-random token generator that creates a new number every 30 seconds? A) Smart Card B) SMS C) HOTP D) Push Notification

C) HOTP (HMAC-based One-Time Password algorithm) uses a pseudo-random token generator that creates a new number every 30 seconds. TOTP (Time-based-One-Time Password algorithm) also uses a token generator, but the number changes every 30 seconds, while with HOTP, you use a number one time only. A smart card is a physical card containing a certificate and requires contact or contactless interaction with a reader. SMS uses a text message with a code that can be intercepted, and push notifications can be vulnerable to attacks through the app. Choice A is incorrect because smart cards do not use a pseudo-random token generator, but rather contain a certificate on the card. Choice B is incorrect because SMS uses a text message with a code, not a token generator. Choice D is incorrect because push notifications can be vulnerable to attacks through the app receiving the message. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following BEST describes Protected Health Information (PHI)? A) Any type of information that is unique to an organization and is not data that can be found somewhere else. B) Data that is labeled as unclassified and can be accessed by anyone. C) Health records associated with an individual, which have a very high level of privacy associated with them. D) Data that is shared between different areas of the government, but not all of the information collected by the government.

C) Health records associated with an individual, which have a very high level of privacy associated with them. Explanation: PHI is protected health information associated with an individual, such as their health status, details of their health insurance, or anything associated with their health records. It has a very high level of privacy associated with it. Therefore, option C is the correct choice. Option A describes proprietary data, which is private information that is unique to an organization and not found elsewhere. Option B describes public data, which is unclassified data that may be accessed by anyone. Option D describes government data, some of which may be open and available to the public, but not all. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a potential benefit of implementing diversity of vendors in your security controls? A) Increased difficulty in managing and maintaining the security controls B) Increased risk due to compatibility issues between different vendors' products C) Increased flexibility during the purchase process and renewal process, and reduced reliance on any single vendor for support services D) Increased cost due to needing to purchase multiple products from different vendors"

C) Increased flexibility during the purchase process and renewal process, and reduced reliance on any single vendor for support services is a potential benefit of implementing diversity of vendors in your security controls. By using different vendors for different security components, you are not relying on any single vendor to provide you with support services, which can be helpful if technical issues arise. It also provides flexibility during the purchase process and renewal process, as you have multiple options to choose from. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not describe benefits of implementing diversity of vendors in your security controls. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a reason why it is important to maintain security controls for third-party vendors and system integrators? A) Third-party vendors and system integrators never create security issues. B) Firewalls and security devices commonly installed on the perimeter can stop all security issues. C) Integrators on the inside can bypass security controls and deploy malware more easily. D) Vendors will always fix security vulnerabilities in a timely manner.

C) Integrators on the inside can bypass security controls and deploy malware more easily. Explanation: The passage states that system integrators, who are third-party vendors, may have additional access to systems and data in order to do their jobs. As they are past the firewalls and security devices installed on the perimeter, they can run software such as port scanners and capture data directly from the network without needing to go through any type of security controls. This makes it much easier for them to deploy malware into an existing network, as they have gone past all of those security filters. Therefore, it is important to maintain security controls for third-party vendors and system integrators. A) is incorrect because the passage states that even trustworthy third parties can create security issues, and it is important to plan for the worst possible scenario. B) is incorrect because the passage states that integrators on the inside can bypass security controls, so firewalls and security devices installed on the perimeter may not be enough to stop all security issues. D) is incorrect because the passage provides an example of a vendor, Trane, that took a long time to resolve security vulnerabilities associated with their thermostats. This suggests that vendors may not always fix security vulnerabilities in a timely manner. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a best practice when working with a third-party developer to create code? A) Allow the developers access to the production network to test the code. B) Store the code and data on an open cloud-based server. C) Isolate the development environment from the production environment. D) Only encrypt data if required by law or regulation.

C) Isolate the development environment from the production environment. Explanation: When working with a third-party developer to create code, it is important to isolate the development environment from the production environment. This helps to minimize the risk of code being inadvertently deployed to production before it is fully tested and vetted for security. It also helps to ensure that the developers do not have access to the production environment, which could increase the risk of insider threats. A) Allowing developers access to the production network to test the code is not a best practice. This can increase the risk of the code being deployed before it is fully tested and vetted for security. B) Storing the code and data on an open cloud-based server is not a best practice. It is important to ensure that the data is stored in a secure manner, and to apply appropriate security controls to the server and network. D) Only encrypting data if required by law or regulation is not a best practice. It is important to ensure that sensitive data is protected at all times, regardless of legal or regulatory requirements. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a VPC endpoint, and how is it used to secure access to cloud resources? A) It is a component that provides access to the internet from a private VPC, allowing secure communication between the cloud resources and the internet B) It is a virtual machine that is provisioned on demand when additional resources are needed to support a cloud application C) It is a virtual device that enables private, secure access to cloud resources from a VPC without traversing the public internet D) It is a set of security rules that control traffic flow in and out of compute instances

C) It is a virtual device that enables private, secure access to cloud resources from a VPC without traversing the public internet. Explanation:A VPC endpoint is a virtual device that enables private, secure access to cloud resources from a VPC without traversing the public internet. This means that access to resources can be controlled and secured at the network level, rather than relying on security controls at the application level. By using a VPC endpoint, you can restrict access to sensitive resources and prevent unauthorized access. Answer choice A is incorrect because VPC endpoints do not provide access to the internet, but rather provide private access to specific cloud resources. Answer choice B is incorrect because VPC endpoints are not virtual machines, but rather virtual devices that enable private network access. Answer choice D is incorrect because security rules for traffic flow are controlled by security groups, not VPC endpoints. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/securing-compute-clouds/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a standard way to send log files from different devices to a central repository in a Security Information and Event Management Device (SIEM)? A) TCP/IP protocol B) HTTP protocol C) Syslog format D) SMTP protocol

C) Syslog format is the standard way to send log files from different devices to a central repository in a Security Information and Event Management Device (SIEM). The syslog-compatible collector that is part of the SIEM waits for messages to be sent from diverse devices on the network, and the format of those messages is in this standard syslog format. A) TCP/IP protocol is incorrect because it is a protocol used for data transmission across the internet and network communication, but not specifically for sending log files to a SIEM. B) HTTP protocol is incorrect because it is a protocol used for web communication, but not specifically for sending log files to a SIEM. D) SMTP protocol is incorrect because it is a protocol used for email communication, but not specifically for sending log files to a SIEM. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-information-and-event-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a standard format used for sending log files from different devices to a Security Information and Event Management Device (SIEM)? A) SNMP B) IPMI C) Syslog D) WMI

C) Syslog is the standard format used for sending log files from different devices to a SIEM. A syslog compatible collector is part of the SIEM itself and is waiting for messages to be sent from all the diverse devices on the network. The format of those messages coming into the syslog collector is in the standard syslog format. A) SNMP or Simple Network Management Protocol is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices. It is not used for sending log files to a SIEM. B) IPMI or Intelligent Platform Management Interface is an interface used for managing and monitoring computer hardware. It is not used for sending log files to a SIEM. D) WMI or Windows Management Instrumentation is a management technology used in Windows systems to manage and monitor system settings. It is not used for sending log files to a SIEM. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-information-and-event-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the crossover error rate (CER) in biometric authentication systems? A) The rate at which unauthorized users are approved by the biometric system (FAR) B) The rate at which authorized users are rejected by the biometric system (FRR) C) The point at which the false acceptance rate (FAR) and false rejection rate (FRR) are equal D) The measurement of how well biometric systems are working

C) The point at which the false acceptance rate (FAR) and false rejection rate (FRR) are equal is called the crossover error rate (CER). At this point, both the false acceptance rate and the false rejection rate have been minimized to an equal level. The sensitivity of the biometric system is adjusted to find the correct setting that reduces both the false acceptance rate and the false rejection rate to their minimum values. The CER is an important metric to determine the effectiveness of a biometric authentication system. Therefore, the correct answer is C. A) The false acceptance rate (FAR) is the rate at which unauthorized users are approved by the biometric system, which is not the definition of the CER. B) The false rejection rate (FRR) is the rate at which authorized users are rejected by the biometric system, which is not the definition of the CER. D) The measurement of how well biometric systems are working is not the definition of the CER, but it is a general statement about the effectiveness of biometric systems. Therefore, it is not the correct answer. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is true of embedded systems? A) They are always created with special hardware that is expensive and difficult to find. B) They are designed with multiple capabilities to perform many different functions. C) They are created with a specific purpose in mind and may use a System on a Chip. D) They are only used in large manufacturing facilities and not in homes or businesses.

C) They are created with a specific purpose in mind and may use a System on a Chip. Embedded systems are created with a specific goal in mind, and they are often built with special hardware that is designed to fit a particular cost or size. They may run on a System on a Chip (SoC) with multiple components on a single platform. A Raspberry Pi is a good example of an embedded system that uses an SoC. Option A is incorrect because embedded systems are not always created with expensive or difficult-to-find hardware. Option B is incorrect because embedded systems are created with a specific purpose in mind, not multiple capabilities. Option D is incorrect because embedded systems can be used in a variety of settings, including homes and businesses. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich best describes the purpose of SIEM dashboards? A) To gather information from a single device on the network and provide immediate information about what's happening B) To allow us to perform analysis of the data to create security alerts, but not long term storage C) To consolidate log information from many different resources on the network, allowing us to perform analysis and create security alerts and long term storage D) To aggregate data from different network devices, but not perform any analysis or create security alerts"

C) To consolidate log information from many different resources on the network, allowing us to perform analysis and create security alerts and long term storage. SIEM dashboards allow us to gather log files from various devices across the network and consolidate them into a single reporting tool. This allows us to perform analysis of the data, create security alerts, and store the logs for extensive reporting over a long period of time. Choice A is incorrect because SIEM dashboards are meant to gather information from many devices, not one. Choice B is incorrect because long term storage is a crucial aspect of SIEM dashboards. Choice D is incorrect because SIEM dashboards do perform analysis and create security alerts. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/siem-dashboards/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a type of passive footprinting that may be used to gather information about wireless networks during a penetration test? A) Port scan B) Social engineering C) Wardriving or Warflying with a drone D) Ping scan

C) Wardriving or Warflying with a drone is a type of passive footprinting that may be used to gather information about wireless networks during a penetration test. With warflying, we combine Wi-Fi analysis with GPS locations to be able to know exactly where a wireless network might be. We can also gather information about the wireless network itself, such as the name of the wireless network where the access points might be located, and some of the information about what frequencies may be in use. Once we start accumulating information we can find all of the SSID or wireless network names, and understand more about whether encryption is turned on or not with these particular networks. Ping scans, port scans, and social engineering are types of active footprinting, which involve actively sending information into the network or devices to gain more information about what might be there. Passive footprinting, on the other hand, involves gathering information in a way that would not be seen by the victim, such as looking at social media pages for a particular organization or gathering data from open source intelligence (OSINT) websites. Incorrect Answers: A) Port scan is a type of active footprinting, not passive footprinting. It involves actively sending information into the network or devices to gain more information about what might be there. B) Social engineering is a type of active footprinting, not passive footprinting. It involves actively trying to deceive individuals within the organization to gain information or access. D) Ping scan is a type of active footprinting, not passive footprinting. It involves actively sending information into the network or devices to gain more information about what might be there. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat command can be used to gather information about the active connections on a device? A) traceroute B) ping C) netstat D) route print

C) netstat. The netstat command is used to show the active connections on a device. The -a option shows all active connections, the -b option associates the Windows binary with the IP address conversation, and the -n option displays IP addresses without resolving names. Traceroute is used to map a path between two devices, ping is used to test connectivity between two devices, and route print is used to show the routing table on a Windows device. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/reconnaissance-tools-part-1/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat type of VPN is commonly used by individual users, such as those accessing a corporate network from a coffee shop or hotel? A. Site-to-site VPN B. L2TP/IPSec VPN C. Client-to-site SSL VPN D. Transport mode IPSec VPN

C. Client-to-site SSL VPN is commonly used by individual users, especially those accessing a corporate network from remote locations such as a coffee shop or hotel. SSL VPNs communicate over TCP port 443 and often have a small client that can be installed on an operating system or in a browser. The user can typically authenticate with a username and password, as well as potentially two-factor authentication, without needing digital certificates or shared passwords. A. Site-to-site VPN is a VPN between two different networks or remote locations, often using L2TP/IPSec. B. L2TP/IPSec VPN is a VPN between two different networks or remote locations, using layer 2 tunneling protocol and IPSec for encryption. D. Transport mode IPSec VPN only encrypts data and does not protect the IP header, while tunnel mode IPsec VPN encrypts both the IP header and data. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a type of EAP that uses a digital certificate on the server for authentication, and is designed to work with Microsoft's CHAP version 2 and a hardware token generator? A. EAP-FAST B. EAP-TLS C. PEAP D. EAP-TTLS"

C. PEAP, or Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol, uses a digital certificate on the server for authentication, similar to a web server. It is a collaboration between Cisco, Microsoft, and RSA Security. It is commonly used with MS-CHAPv2 for Microsoft networks, as well as with a generic token card and hardware token generator for additional authentication. EAP-FAST uses a shared secret referred to as a Protected Access Credential (PAC) and sets up a Transport Layer Security (TLS) tunnel. EAP-TLS requires digital certificates on all devices and uses mutual authentication, which can be difficult to manage in large environments. EAP-TTLS allows for other authentication protocols to be tunneled within an existing TLS tunnel and only requires a digital certificate on the authentication server. A. EAP-FAST is a type of EAP that uses a shared secret referred to as a Protected Access Credential (PAC) for authentication and sets up a TLS tunnel. B. EAP-TLS is a type of EAP that requires digital certificates on all devices and uses mutual authentication. D. EAP-TTLS is a type of EAP that allows for other authentication protocols to be tunneled within an existing TLS tunnel and only requires a single digital certificate on the authentication server. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/wireless-authentication-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a reconnaissance tool that combines information from various tools to provide a single set of queries for all functions? A. Curl B. Hping C. Sniper D. Nessus

C. Sniper is a reconnaissance tool that combines information from various tools to provide a single set of queries for all functions. Curl is a tool used to grab the raw data from websites and display it in a terminal screen. Hping is a tool used to provide a lot more information than performing a regular ping command. Nessus is a vulnerability scanner used to identify vulnerabilities in remote IP addresses. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich command can you use to view active connections between your device and others, as well as the associated Windows binary with the IP address conversation? A. traceroute B. nslookup C. netstat -b D. arp -a

C. netstat -b is the correct answer. The netstat command can show all active connections that are being used currently on a device. Adding the -b option associates the Windows binary with the IP address conversation. This is useful information for further analysis of network activity. The traceroute command is used to map out the entire path between two devices to determine what routers may be between point A and point B. The nslookup command is utilized to query a DNS server to determine names and IP addresses. The arp-a command is used to view the local ARP cache to determine what the MAC address is for a given IP address. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/reconnaissance-tools-part-1/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which cloud computing model would require an organization to manage the operating system, middleware, runtime, data, and applications while the cloud service provider handles networking, storage, servers, and virtualization? A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) B) Platform as a Service (PaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Anything as a Service (XaaS)

Correct Answer with Explanation: A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is the correct answer because, in this model, the cloud service provider is responsible for providing the hardware components (networking, storage, servers, and virtualization), while the organization manages the operating system, middleware, runtime, data, and applications. The organization maintains control over the data security and is responsible for running and managing the system from the operating system up through the application. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: B) Platform as a Service (PaaS) In PaaS, the cloud service provider manages not only the hardware components but also the operating system and some virtualization services. The organization is responsible for developing and managing its own applications using the building blocks provided by the service provider. C) Software as a Service (SaaS) In SaaS, the cloud service provider manages the entire infrastructure, including the hardware, operating system, and applications. The organization simply logs in and uses the service without needing to manage any part of the system. D) Anything as a Service (XaaS) XaaS is a broad term describing any type of service provided over the cloud. It is not specific to a particular service model and covers a wide range of cloud services, including IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a key benefit of using serverless architecture in cloud computing? A. Reduces the need for human intervention during deployment B. Eliminates the use of infrastructure as code C. Removes the need for Software Defined Networking (SDN) D. Decreases agility and flexibility in the deployment process

Correct Answer with Explanation: A. Reduces the need for human intervention during deployment Serverless architecture allows for automatic deployment of complex, multi-service applications without human intervention. It utilizes infrastructure as code to describe application instances, enabling their identical deployment every time. This capability is a fundamental characteristic of cloud computing. Incorrect Answer Explanations: B. Eliminates the use of infrastructure as code - Serverless architecture actually relies on infrastructure as code to describe application instances, making their deployment more efficient and consistent. C. Removes the need for Software Defined Networking (SDN) - Serverless architecture does not remove the need for SDN. SDN and serverless architecture can work together to provide flexible and agile networking solutions in cloud computing environments. D. Decreases agility and flexibility in the deployment process - Serverless architecture increases agility and flexibility by automating the deployment process, reducing human intervention, and allowing for consistent and accurate deployment of application instances. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/infrastructure-as-code/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the purpose of the Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTA) organization? A. To provide a central location for sharing vulnerability data. B. To maintain the National Vulnerability Database (NVD). C. To create the Structured Threat Information eXpression (STIX) format. D. To regulate the dark web and prevent illegal activities.

Correct Answer with Explanation: A. To provide a central location for sharing vulnerability data. The Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTA) organization was created to allow members to upload information about particular threats. This information is evaluated and made available to other members of the organization, allowing them to react faster to threats with higher quality information. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: B. To maintain the National Vulnerability Database (NVD). The NVD is a summary of all CVEs and is maintained by the US Department of Homeland Security and the Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency, not the CTA. C. To create the Structured Threat Information eXpression (STIX) format. The STIX format is a standardized format for sharing threat intelligence, but it was not created by the CTA. D. To regulate the dark web and prevent illegal activities. The CTA is not responsible for regulating the dark web or preventing illegal activities. Its main purpose is to share threat intelligence among its members. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following PowerShell capabilities makes it an attractive target for attackers to control Microsoft Windows? A) Can only run PowerShell specific scripts B) Access to Active Directory and modification of files in the file system C) Limited functionality compared to the normal Windows command line D) Inability to run executables from the PowerShell command prompt

Correct Answer with Explanation: B) Access to Active Directory and modification of files in the file system PowerShell is a specially built command line for Windows, which extends the functionality of the normal Windows command line. Attackers find it attractive because it allows them to administer the system, access Active Directory, and modify files in the file system. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Can only run PowerShell specific scripts - This is incorrect because PowerShell can not only run PowerShell specific scripts, but also run command-lets and executables from the PowerShell command prompt. C) Limited functionality compared to the normal Windows command line - This is incorrect because PowerShell extends the functionality of the normal Windows command line and allows for the management of almost every aspect of the Windows operating system. D) Inability to run executables from the PowerShell command prompt - This is incorrect because PowerShell can run executables from the command prompt in addition to running command-lets and PowerShell specific scripts. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/malicious-scripts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a primary advantage of using endpoint detection and response (EDR) over traditional antivirus and anti-malware software? A) EDR relies on signature-based detection only B) EDR uses machine learning and process monitoring to identify malicious actions C) EDR is limited to detecting fileless malware and ransomware D) EDR requires a heavy-weight agent running on the endpoint

Correct Answer with Explanation: B) EDR uses machine learning and process monitoring to identify malicious actions Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) has an advantage over traditional antivirus and anti-malware software, as it employs machine learning and process monitoring to identify and block malicious actions instead of relying solely on signature-based detection. This enables EDR to detect and prevent a wider range of threats and adapt to new attack techniques. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) EDR relies on signature-based detection only - This is incorrect, as EDR goes beyond signature-based detection by incorporating machine learning and process monitoring. C) EDR is limited to detecting fileless malware and ransomware - This is incorrect because EDR is capable of detecting a broader range of threats, not just fileless malware and ransomware. D) EDR requires a heavy-weight agent running on the endpoint - This is incorrect, as EDR can be implemented using a relatively lightweight agent that constantly monitors for potential threats. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-protection/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following practices can help avoid virtual machine (VM) sprawl? A) Increasing the number of VMs in a network B) Implementing a formal process for provisioning and deprovisioning VMs C) Sharing resources between VMs D) Ignoring VM identification and tracking

Correct Answer with Explanation: B) Implementing a formal process for provisioning and deprovisioning VMs Explanation: To avoid VM sprawl, it is crucial to have a formal process for provisioning and deprovisioning VMs. This process ensures that VMs are appropriately deployed and removed when they are no longer needed, preventing an unmanageable accumulation of virtual machines in the network. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Increasing the number of VMs in a network would contribute to VM sprawl, not prevent it. The goal is to minimize the unnecessary deployment of VMs and efficiently manage the ones that are in use. C) Sharing resources between VMs could potentially lead to security vulnerabilities, such as virtual machine escape, and does not address the issue of VM sprawl. D) Ignoring VM identification and tracking makes it more difficult to manage VMs and contributes to VM sprawl. Properly identifying and tracking VMs from creation to deprovisioning is essential for effective management and preventing sprawl. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtualization-security-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the significance of the shebang (hash-bang) in a shell script, specifically in the context of Unix or Linux systems? A) It marks the end of a shell script B) It indicates the type of shell that will run the script C) It is a comment line that is ignored by the shell D) It is a debugging tool for shell scripts

Correct Answer with Explanation: B) It indicates the type of shell that will run the script A shell script in Unix or Linux systems starts with a special set of characters on the very first line, called a shebang (hash-bang). The shebang designates that the script is a shell script and specifies the type of shell that will be used to run the script. The shell type is listed immediately after the shebang. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) It marks the end of a shell script - This is incorrect because the shebang appears at the beginning of the script, not the end. C) It is a comment line that is ignored by the shell - This is incorrect because the shebang is not a comment line; it serves the specific purpose of indicating the type of shell that will run the script. D) It is a debugging tool for shell scripts - This is incorrect because the shebang does not function as a debugging tool; its purpose is to specify the type of shell that will run the script. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/malicious-scripts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary advantage of using fog computing in an IoT environment compared to traditional cloud computing? A) Increased security through data encryption B) Reduced latency and more efficient data processing C) Enhanced network performance for all devices D) Elimination of the need for internet connectivity

Correct Answer with Explanation: B) Reduced latency and more efficient data processing Fog computing is a distributed cloud architecture that enables efficient data processing without requiring all data to be consolidated in one single place. It allows IoT devices to keep the data needed for local decisions while sending some data to the cloud for additional processing. This approach helps reduce latency and ensures more efficient data processing compared to traditional cloud computing. Incorrect Answers: A) Increased security through data encryption While fog computing may help to maintain privacy by allowing sensitive data to be kept locally, it does not inherently provide increased security through data encryption. C) Enhanced network performance for all devices Fog computing primarily focuses on reducing latency and improving data processing efficiency for IoT devices. It does not necessarily enhance network performance for all devices in a network. D) Elimination of the need for internet connectivity Fog computing still requires internet connectivity for sending data between IoT devices and the fog nodes. It does not eliminate the need for internet connectivity. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/edge-and-fog-computing/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of tokenization in protecting data? A) Encrypting the data using a secret key B) Replacing sensitive data with a different set of data C) Obfuscating the data by masking it with asterisks D) Restricting user access to data based on permissions

Correct Answer with Explanation: B) Replacing sensitive data with a different set of data Tokenization is a method of protecting data by replacing sensitive information with a completely different set of data. This is commonly used in credit card transactions, where a token is used instead of the actual credit card number. This ensures that if someone gains access to the tokenized data, they cannot use it for malicious purposes because it is not the original sensitive information. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Encrypting the data using a secret key Encryption is a different method of protecting data that involves transforming plaintext into ciphertext using a secret key. While it protects data, it is not the primary purpose of tokenization. C) Obfuscating the data by masking it with asterisks Data masking is another technique used to protect data by hiding portions of sensitive information, often replacing it with characters like asterisks. This is not the main goal of tokenization, which focuses on replacing the entire sensitive data with a different set of data. D) Restricting user access to data based on permissions Restricting user access to data based on permissions is an important aspect of data protection, but it is not the primary purpose of tokenization. Tokenization focuses on replacing sensitive data with different data to protect it from unauthorized access. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/protecting-data/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is an important characteristic of data encryption that ensures the ciphertext is very different from the original plaintext? A. Tokenization B. Confusion C. Data masking D. Diffusion

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. Confusion Confusion is an important characteristic of data encryption that ensures the ciphertext is very different from the original plaintext. This characteristic helps make the encryption more secure and difficult to break, as there is no obvious correlation between the plaintext and ciphertext. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Tokenization is a method of replacing sensitive data with a completely different set of data, which is unrelated to confusion in encryption. C. Data masking is a technique for obfuscating data, making it more difficult to read, such as masking out most of a bank card number with asterisks. It does not relate to the characteristics of data encryption. D. Diffusion is another important characteristic of data encryption. It ensures that a small change in the plaintext results in a significant change in the ciphertext. It does not specifically focus on making the ciphertext very different from the original plaintext. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/protecting-data/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a unique and significant type of threat intelligence that requires specialized software to access private websites? A. OSINT B. Dark web C. Vulnerability Databases D. AIS

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. Dark web The dark web is a unique and significant type of threat intelligence that requires specialized software to access private websites. It provides information on the activities of hacker groups, their tools and techniques, as well as websites dedicated to selling gathered information, such as credit cards and account details. Communication channels available on the dark web can also be valuable tools for gathering intelligence against attackers. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: A. OSINT OSINT, or Open-source intelligence, is not unique to the dark web. It refers to gathering intelligence from open sources such as the internet, discussion groups, social media sites, and governmental organizations. C. Vulnerability Databases Vulnerability databases, like the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) database, are not specific to the dark web. They are large databases that compile vulnerability information from various researchers. D. AIS AIS, or Automated Indicator Sharing, is not unique to the dark web. It is a method to automate the process of transferring threat information between organizations securely and quickly. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is an essential step before deploying an application into the production environment? A. Running the application on a virtual machine B. Establishing a security baseline C. Encrypting the source code D. Installing a web application firewall

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. Establishing a security baseline Before deploying an application into production, it is crucial to establish a security baseline. This involves defining the essential security characteristics for the app, checking firewall settings, patch levels of the application and the operating system, and ensuring that the operating system files are up to date with the latest security patches. This security baseline should be followed for each instance of the application deployment and kept up to date. Incorrect Answers: A. Running the application on a virtual machine While running the application on a virtual machine can be part of the testing process, it is not an essential step before deploying the application into production. C. Encrypting the source code Encrypting the source code can help protect the intellectual property, but it is not an essential step before deploying the application into production. D. Installing a web application firewall A web application firewall can be useful in protecting the application from web-based attacks, but it is not an essential step before deploying the application into production. The security baseline established before deployment may include proper firewall settings. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-deployments-2/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is one of the primary motivations behind a competitor threat actor's actions against your business? A. Political or social message B. Financial gain C. Gaining experience in hacking D. Ethical hacking"

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. Financial gain Competitors are motivated by financial gain, as they aim to harm your business or reputation, potentially leading to their own increased profit or market share. By disrupting your operations or stealing valuable information, they can improve their own position in the industry. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Political or social message - This motivation is associated with hacktivists, who aim to promote a political or social message through their attacks. C. Gaining experience in hacking - This motivation is related to script kiddies, who are primarily focused on learning and gaining experience in hacking, rather than a specific goal. D. Ethical hacking - This refers to the actions of ethical hackers, who work to identify and resolve weak points in a network in order to make it more secure. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which protocol is used for secure communication with LDAP servers, providing a level of security by utilizing SSL? A. SFTP B. LDAP Secure (LDAPS) C. Simple Authentication and Security Layer (SASL) D. Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP)

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. LDAP Secure (LDAPS) LDAP Secure (LDAPS) is a non-standard version of LDAP that provides a level of security by using SSL to communicate securely with LDAP servers. It is used to ensure secure communication when accessing a centralized directory on the network. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. SFTP SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) is a secure file transfer protocol that allows for secure file transfers, directory listings, and file system manipulations. It is not used for secure communication with LDAP servers. C. Simple Authentication and Security Layer (SASL) SASL (Simple Authentication and Security Layer) is a framework used by many different application protocols, including LDAP, to provide secure communication. However, it is not the protocol that utilizes SSL for secure communication with LDAP servers. D. Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP) Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP) is a protocol used for secure delivery of audio and video streams over IP networks. It is not related to securing communication with LDAP servers. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following sources provides a central database of CVEs, or Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures, and can be supplemented with third-party feeds for comprehensive vulnerability management? A. Vendor websites B. National Vulnerability Database C. Academic journals D. Twitter

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. National Vulnerability Database The National Institute of Standards and Technology maintains the National Vulnerability Database, which contains a list of CVEs or Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures. This database can be supplemented with third-party feeds from other organizations, and all the vulnerability feeds can be rolled up into a central vulnerability management system to keep track of the latest vulnerabilities and identify those specific to your environment. Incorrect Answers with Explanation: A. Vendor websites While vendor websites are a good source of information on vulnerabilities associated with their products, they do not provide a central database of CVEs. Vendors usually have a page on their websites where they track known vulnerabilities and offer notifications when new ones are discovered. C. Academic journals Academic journals are valuable resources for detailed information about attack types, security technologies, and in-depth analysis of malware. However, they do not provide a central database of CVEs. D. Twitter Twitter and other social media platforms can be useful for obtaining information on recent vulnerabilities and attacks, but they do not provide a central database of CVEs. Twitter can be used for ad hoc searches and following conversations between professionals discussing threats and their mitigation. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-research/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a key advantage of using Software Defined Networking (SDN) in a cloud-based environment? A. Eliminates the need for infrastructure as code B. Offers a single pane of glass for managing all SDN devices C. Prevents the deployment of next-generation firewalls D. Disables the use of APIs for controlling application devices

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. Offers a single pane of glass for managing all SDN devices In a cloud-based environment, SDN provides a single pane of glass that allows administrators to manage all SDN devices from one management console. This centralized management approach is essential for efficient configuration and monitoring of the network infrastructure in a constantly changing cloud environment. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Eliminates the need for infrastructure as code - SDN does not eliminate the need for infrastructure as code. Instead, it complements the infrastructure as code approach, allowing for automated deployment and flexible management of networking infrastructure alongside application instances. C. Prevents the deployment of next-generation firewalls - SDN does not prevent the deployment of next-generation firewalls. Instead, it facilitates the deployment of security devices such as firewalls, intrusion prevention systems, and web application firewalls, enhancing the overall security of the cloud environment. D. Disables the use of APIs for controlling application devices - SDN does not disable the use of APIs for controlling application devices. In fact, APIs can be used alongside SDN to manage application devices and control the data flows across the network based on identified threats. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a standardized format for sharing threat intelligence between organizations? A. AIS B. STIX C. TAXII D. Dark Web

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. STIX STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression) is a standardized format for sharing threat intelligence between organizations. It includes information about motivations, abilities, capabilities, and response information related to various threats. Incorrect Answers: A. AIS AIS (Automated Indicator Sharing) is a method used for securely and automatically sharing threat information between organizations, but it is not the standardized format for the information itself. C. TAXII TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information) is a trusted transport mechanism used for securely exchanging threat intelligence. However, it is not the standardized format for the threat information. D. Dark Web The Dark Web is an overlay network that requires specialized software to access private websites. It is a source of threat intelligence but not a standardized format for sharing threat intelligence between organizations. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is considered the safer alternative when choosing between client-side validation and server-side validation for input validation in an application? A. Client-side validation only B. Server-side validation only C. Both client-side and server-side validation D. Neither client-side nor server-side validation

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. Server-side validation only Server-side validation is considered the safer alternative because it prevents users from modifying the data before it reaches the server. By validating the input on the server itself, developers can ensure a higher level of security compared to client-side validation alone. Although using both client-side and server-side validation is common, if you had to choose only one, server-side validation is the safer choice. Incorrect Answers: A. Client-side validation only While client-side validation can help speed up the process by checking data on the local machine, it is less secure than server-side validation, as users can manipulate the data before it reaches the server. C. Both client-side and server-side validation Using both types of validation is a common practice, but the question specifically asks for the safer alternative between the two. In that case, server-side validation is the safer choice. D. Neither client-side nor server-side validation Not using any validation is not a secure approach, as it leaves the application vulnerable to malicious input and security risks. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-coding-techniques-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which technique allows antivirus and anti-malware software to identify malicious code based on a set pattern within the file or memory? A. Heuristic detection B. Signature-based detection C. Behavioral detection D. Root cause analysis

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. Signature-based detection Signature-based detection is a technique used by antivirus and anti-malware software to identify malicious code based on a set pattern within the file or memory. This technique relies on comparing known malicious code signatures with the files or memory in question to determine if there is a match. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Heuristic detection Heuristic detection is a technique that identifies potential threats by analyzing the behavior or characteristics of a file or process, rather than relying on a specific signature. It is often used to detect previously unknown or new types of malware that do not yet have a known signature. C. Behavioral detection Behavioral detection is a technique that monitors the behavior of a system, application, or process to identify any unusual or suspicious activity. This method can be useful for detecting malware that may have evaded signature-based detection or heuristic detection methods. D. Root cause analysis Root cause analysis is a technique used to determine the underlying cause of a problem or security incident. In the context of endpoint detection and response (EDR), root cause analysis helps identify why a particular malicious behavior occurred and can help find the code responsible for the malicious software. However, it is not a technique for identifying malicious code based on a set pattern. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-protection/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the purpose of NTPsec in comparison to the original Network Time Protocol (NTP)? A. To provide encryption for voice over IP conversations B. To add security features and remove existing vulnerabilities in NTP C. To enable secure email communication with digital signatures D. To ensure secure video over IP communication

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. To add security features and remove existing vulnerabilities in NTP NTPsec, or Secure Network Time Protocol, is an update to the original Network Time Protocol (NTP) that adds security features and removes existing vulnerabilities. The original NTP was not designed with security in mind, which led to attackers exploiting it for amplification attacks during distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks. NTPsec addresses these issues by enhancing the security of the protocol. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. To provide encryption for voice over IP conversations This option refers to the Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP), which is used to add encryption and security features to voice over IP conversations, not NTPsec. C. To enable secure email communication with digital signatures This option refers to Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (SMIME), a public-private key encryption mechanism that allows for confidential email communication and digital signatures. This is unrelated to NTPsec. D. To ensure secure video over IP communication This option also refers to the Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP), which is used for secure communication in voice over IP and video over IP, not NTPsec. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of combining biometrics with another type of authentication, such as a personal identification number (PIN)? A. To provide an alternative means of access in case the biometric system fails B. To increase the level of security by requiring multiple factors of authentication C. To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information through the biometric system D. To simplify the authentication process

Correct Answer with Explanation: B. To increase the level of security by requiring multiple factors of authentication Combining biometrics with another type of authentication, such as a PIN, increases the level of security by requiring multiple factors of authentication. This ensures that the person providing the biometrics is indeed the person who should gain access to the room or facility, making it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. To provide an alternative means of access in case the biometric system fails Combining authentication methods primarily aims to increase security, not to serve as a backup in case one method fails. C. To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information through the biometric system While combining authentication methods can help prevent unauthorized access, this option does not explicitly state the purpose of using multiple factors of authentication. D. To simplify the authentication process Using multiple factors of authentication, such as biometrics and a PIN, actually makes the authentication process more complex, not simpler, in order to enhance security. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: In a hybrid cloud model, which of the following best describes the combination of cloud services being utilized? A) Only public cloud services B) Only private cloud services C) A mix of public and private cloud services D) Public cloud services and community cloud services

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) A mix of public and private cloud services In a hybrid cloud model, an organization utilizes a combination of public and private cloud services. Public cloud services are available to everyone on the internet, while private cloud services are internal and only accessible by the organization. This model allows organizations to take advantage of both types of cloud services to meet their specific needs. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Only public cloud services: This answer is incorrect because a hybrid cloud model involves a mix of both public and private cloud services, not just public cloud services. B) Only private cloud services: This answer is incorrect because a hybrid cloud model involves a mix of both public and private cloud services, not just private cloud services. D) Public cloud services and community cloud services: This answer is incorrect because a hybrid cloud model involves a mix of public and private cloud services, not a combination of public cloud services and community cloud services. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is an example of a Denial-of-Service attack in Operational Technology (OT) environments? A) Creating a network loop by plugging in the wrong cables B) A water line break in the ceiling above the data center C) An attacker causing the power grid to stop operating D) A botnet causing a website server to be overwhelmed

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) An attacker causing the power grid to stop operating An example of a Denial-of-Service attack in Operational Technology (OT) environments would be an attacker causing the power grid to stop operating. This would create significant problems, affecting a large area and a large number of people. In OT environments, there is more at stake than just having a web server become unavailable, and a different security posture is required to protect critical infrastructure. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Creating a network loop by plugging in the wrong cables is an example of an unintentional Denial-of-Service caused by human error, not an attack on an OT environment. B) A water line break in the ceiling above the data center is a physical issue that can cause a Denial-of-Service, but it is not specific to OT environments nor is it an attack. D) A botnet causing a website server to be overwhelmed is an example of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack but does not specifically involve Operational Technology environments. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/denial-of-service-6/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the role of Data Loss Prevention (DLP) in protecting sensitive information on a network? A) DLP systems are only used to block access to external hardware devices like USB flash drives. B) DLP solutions are exclusively implemented at the network level to examine packet content. C) DLP systems can be implemented on endpoints, networks, and servers to protect data in various locations. D) DLP technologies are solely used to protect data at rest on servers.

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) DLP systems can be implemented on endpoints, networks, and servers to protect data in various locations. Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems are designed to protect sensitive information in various locations within a network. They can be implemented at endpoints, like workstations and devices, to examine data transfers. They can also be deployed at the network level to inspect packet content and protect data in transit. Additionally, DLP systems can be used to secure data at rest on servers. Incorrect Answers: A) DLP systems are not only used to block access to external hardware devices like USB flash drives. They can also be implemented on endpoints, networks, and servers to protect sensitive data in different locations. B) DLP solutions are not exclusively implemented at the network level to examine packet content. They can also be used on endpoints and servers to protect data in various locations. D) DLP technologies are not solely used to protect data at rest on servers. They can also be implemented on endpoints and at the network level to protect sensitive data in different locations. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-loss-prevention-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a primary advantage of using Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) over traditional antivirus and anti-malware software? A) EDR relies solely on signature-based detection. B) EDR is more effective at identifying fileless malware and ransomware. C) EDR uses machine learning and process monitoring to identify malicious actions. D) EDR requires a separate software installation.

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) EDR uses machine learning and process monitoring to identify malicious actions. Explanation: Traditional antivirus and anti-malware software focus on identifying malicious code through the use of signatures. However, attackers have found many ways around signature-based detection. EDR, on the other hand, employs machine learning and process monitoring to identify malicious actions instead of just relying on signatures. This approach allows EDR to observe what a file is doing and block malicious actions rather than just blocking a signature, making it more effective in detecting and responding to threats. Incorrect Answers: A) EDR relies solely on signature-based detection. Explanation: EDR does not rely solely on signature-based detection. It uses other mechanisms such as machine learning and process monitoring to identify and block malicious actions. B) EDR is more effective at identifying fileless malware and ransomware. Explanation: While EDR can identify fileless malware and ransomware, its primary advantage over traditional antivirus and anti-malware software is its ability to use machine learning and process monitoring to detect malicious actions. D) EDR requires a separate software installation. Explanation: EDR does not necessarily require a separate software installation. It can be implemented as part of an endpoint protection software suite or as a lightweight agent running on the endpoint. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-protection

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a primary benefit of attending conferences for IT professionals focused on security? A) Access to vendor vulnerability pages B) Detailed analysis of certain types of threats through RFCs C) Networking opportunities and learning from researchers presenting the latest vulnerabilities and trends D) Subscription to automated threat feeds from organizations like the US Department of Homeland Security

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Networking opportunities and learning from researchers presenting the latest vulnerabilities and trends Conferences offer IT professionals the chance to learn about the latest vulnerabilities, trends, and threats from researchers, as well as providing networking opportunities with like-minded individuals. These relationships can be valuable for future discussions and assistance in dealing with security issues. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Access to vendor vulnerability pages While vendor vulnerability pages are a valuable resource, they are not directly related to conferences. Vendor websites usually provide this information. B) Detailed analysis of certain types of threats through RFCs RFCs provide in-depth analysis of certain types of threats, but they are not specifically tied to conferences. They are available through the internet and provide formalized standards and methods for various tasks. D) Subscription to automated threat feeds from organizations like the US Department of Homeland Security Subscribing to automated threat feeds is an important way to stay informed about emerging threats, but it is not a primary benefit of attending conferences. These feeds can be accessed through various organizations, such as the US Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, the SANS Internet Storm Center, and VirusTotal Intelligence. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-research/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Why is Python considered an attractive choice for attackers targeting cloud-based system servers, routers, switches, and other infrastructure devices? A) Python is limited to Microsoft Windows operating systems B) Python is only used for application automation C) Python is a cross-platform scripting language commonly used in cloud environments D) Python is unable to interact with the operating system

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Python is a cross-platform scripting language commonly used in cloud environments Python is a more generalized scripting language that is used across various operating systems such as Windows, Mac OS, and Linux. This cross-platform compatibility allows attackers to create Python scripts that can work across different operating systems. Furthermore, Python is commonly used in cloud-based environments for building or tearing down application instances and managing orchestration. This makes it an attractive choice for attackers targeting cloud-based systems and infrastructure devices. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Python is limited to Microsoft Windows operating systems - This is incorrect because Python is a cross-platform scripting language that works on Windows, Mac OS, and Linux. B) Python is only used for application automation - This is incorrect because, although Python can be used for application automation, it is also commonly used in cloud-based environments for managing various tasks such as building or tearing down application instances. D) Python is unable to interact with the operating system - This is incorrect because Python can interact with the operating system, making it a versatile choice for attackers targeting different systems and environments. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/malicious-scripts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which measure is crucial to protect against virtual machine (VM) escape attacks? A) Disabling JavaScript in browsers B) Implementing a formal process for provisioning and deprovisioning VMs C) Regularly patching and updating VMs, operating systems, and applications D) Sharing resources between VMs

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Regularly patching and updating VMs, operating systems, and applications Explanation: To protect against VM escape attacks, it is essential to regularly patch and update virtual machines, operating systems, and applications. This ensures that any discovered vulnerabilities or security flaws are fixed, reducing the chances of a successful VM escape attack. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Disabling JavaScript in browsers may mitigate some browser-related exploits but does not directly address VM escape attacks. Regularly updating and patching software is more effective in preventing such attacks. B) Implementing a formal process for provisioning and deprovisioning VMs is important for managing VM sprawl, but it does not directly protect against VM escape attacks. D) Sharing resources between VMs increases the potential for security vulnerabilities, such as VM escape attacks, rather than preventing them. VMs should be isolated from each other to maintain security. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtualization

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a key feature of next-generation firewalls (NGFWs) that differentiates them from traditional firewalls? A) They only allow traffic based on IP addresses and port numbers. B) They cannot identify individual features within applications. C) They can identify and control applications running over the network, regardless of IP address or port number. D) They lack antivirus and anti-malware capabilities.

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) They can identify and control applications running over the network, regardless of IP address or port number. Next-generation firewalls (NGFWs) provide more granular control over network traffic compared to traditional firewalls. They can identify and manage applications running over the network, regardless of the IP address or port number being used. This enables security professionals to set policies that allow or disallow access to specific applications on the network. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Traditional firewalls rely on IP addresses and port numbers to allow or block traffic. NGFWs, on the other hand, can identify applications and provide more granular control. B) NGFWs can not only identify applications running over the network but also individual features within the applications, enabling more precise control over what is allowed or blocked. D) Most next-generation firewalls actually have antivirus and anti-malware capabilities, allowing them to detect and block known malicious software at the network level. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-protection/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a reason why attackers monitor file or code repositories like GitHub? A) To find misconfigurations in network devices B) To gather intelligence on potential phishing targets C) To discover accidentally released source code D) To identify new malware signatures

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) To discover accidentally released source code Explanation: Attackers monitor file or code repositories like GitHub in search of accidentally released source code. They may use the source code to find vulnerabilities they can exploit or use the information within the code for future phishing attacks. By constantly monitoring these repositories, attackers can gain valuable information that they can use against their targets. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) To find misconfigurations in network devices - Attackers may attempt to find misconfigurations in network devices, but monitoring file or code repositories is not the primary method for doing so. B) To gather intelligence on potential phishing targets - While attackers may use the information within the code for future phishing attacks, monitoring file or code repositories is primarily for discovering accidentally released source code, not gathering intelligence on potential phishing targets. D) To identify new malware signatures - Monitoring file or code repositories is not the primary method for identifying new malware signatures. Instead, attackers would focus on other sources, like analyzing samples of malware or monitoring malware distribution networks. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What makes Visual Basic for Applications (VBA) particularly attractive for attackers targeting Microsoft Office products? A) VBA is platform-independent and can be used on various operating systems B) VBA can run multiple scripting languages, making it more versatile C) VBA allows extensive automation within Microsoft Office and can interact directly with the operating system D) VBA is designed specifically for creating macros in Microsoft Office and is limited in scope

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) VBA allows extensive automation within Microsoft Office and can interact directly with the operating system Visual Basic for Applications (VBA) is designed to provide extensive automation inside Microsoft Office products. Not only can VBA interact within Microsoft Office, but it also has hooks that can talk directly to the operating system. This makes it an attractive target for attackers trying to gain access to an operating system through Microsoft Office products. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) VBA is platform-independent and can be used on various operating systems - This is incorrect because VBA is specifically designed for Microsoft Office products and is not as versatile as a platform-independent scripting language like Python. B) VBA can run multiple scripting languages, making it more versatile - This is incorrect because VBA is a specific scripting language and does not support running multiple scripting languages. D) VBA is designed specifically for creating macros in Microsoft Office and is limited in scope - This is incorrect because, while VBA is designed for Microsoft Office, its ability to interact with the operating system expands its scope beyond just creating macros, making it a more attractive target for attackers. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/malicious-scripts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a key advantage of using Software Defined Networking (SDN) in the context of cloud computing and application deployment? A. Increased hardware requirements B. Limiting communication between application instances C. Agility to make dynamic changes to the network D. Vendor-specific implementation

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Agility to make dynamic changes to the network SDN offers agility, allowing changes to be made dynamically at any time. This is important for cloud computing, as application instances can change significantly from moment to moment. Additionally, SDN can be managed from a single pane of glass, making it easier to deploy and manage the networking infrastructure programmatically. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Increased hardware requirements - SDN does not increase hardware requirements; instead, it allows for separation of control and data planes, enabling better management and configuration of devices without affecting their operation. B. Limiting communication between application instances - SDN does not limit communication between application instances; rather, it allows for better management and control of traffic flows between instances and devices, ensuring secure communication. D. Vendor-specific implementation - SDN follows a set of open standards, which prevents vendor lock-in and allows for a more open and standardized process, regardless of the underlying infrastructure. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/infrastructure-as

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary advantage of using microservices with an API gateway in a cloud-based application architecture? A. Allowing multiple guest operating systems to run on a single hypervisor B. Creating Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs) for each application instance C. Breaking up the application into individual services for easier updates and tighter control of data security D. Reducing resources needed to run applications through containerization

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Breaking up the application into individual services for easier updates and tighter control of data security Microservices architecture uses APIs or Application Programming Interfaces to break up an application into individual services. This makes it easier to update or add new features by simply changing or adding new microservices. It also provides tighter control of data security since access to different types of data can be limited based on the microservices being used. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Allowing multiple guest operating systems to run on a single hypervisor is a feature of virtualization, not microservices architecture. B. Creating Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs) for each application instance is a way to separate applications in the cloud, but it is not directly related to the microservices architecture. D. Reducing resources needed to run applications through containerization is a feature of containerization technology, such as Docker, and not a primary advantage of microservices architecture. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/designing-the-cloud/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a valuable source of information on the latest vulnerabilities and threats affecting the IT industry, and allows IT professionals to build professional relationships? A. National Vulnerability Database B. RFC documents C. Conferences D. Academic journals

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Conferences Conferences are valuable sources of information on the latest vulnerabilities and threats affecting the IT industry. They provide a platform for researchers to present new findings, discuss trends, and share information about the latest hacks. Additionally, conferences offer opportunities for IT professionals to network with others who have similar goals, allowing them to build professional relationships and maintain connections after the conference is over. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: A. National Vulnerability Database The National Vulnerability Database is a comprehensive database of vulnerabilities maintained by the National Institute of Standards and Technology. It is an important resource for vulnerability information but is not specifically focused on building professional relationships. B. RFC documents RFCs (Request for Comments) are documents that track and formalize a set of standards for internet use. They may provide detailed analysis of certain types of threats, but they are not focused on fostering professional relationships. D. Academic journals Academic journals are periodicals or online resources written by industry experts. They provide in-depth information about security technologies, malware, and specific aspects of technology. Although these journals are a valuable resource for knowledge, they do not specifically focus on building professional relationships. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-research/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: In a cloud service model, which model requires the user to be responsible for the operating system, applications, and data security on the provided infrastructure? A. Software as a Service (SaaS) B. Platform as a Service (PaaS) C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) D. Anything as a Service (XaaS)

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) In IaaS, the cloud service provider provides the hardware, including CPU, storage, and networking connectivity. The user is responsible for managing the system from the operating system level up to the application, including data security. The user has control over how the information is stored and can encrypt the data to protect their privacy. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: A. Software as a Service (SaaS) In SaaS, the cloud service provider manages the operating system, application, and data. The user simply logs in and uses the provided service without being responsible for its development or maintenance. B. Platform as a Service (PaaS) In PaaS, the cloud service provider offers a platform for users to develop their own applications. They provide the operating system, infrastructure, virtualization services, and building blocks for application development. The user is responsible for creating and managing the applications and data, while the provider handles the rest. D. Anything as a Service (XaaS) XaaS is a broad term that encompasses any service provided over the cloud, usually on the public cloud. It does not specifically define user responsibilities, as it can include a variety of services and levels of responsibility. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a direct access attack vector that allows an attacker to capture user input data from a keyboard? A. Evil twin B. Rogue access point C. Keylogger D. KRACK attack

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Keylogger A keylogger is a device or software that records the keystrokes made by a user, including usernames and passwords. When it comes to direct access attack vectors, an attacker can physically attach a keylogger to a keyboard. This allows them to capture user input data and potentially gain unauthorized access to systems. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Evil twin: An evil twin is a malicious form of a rogue access point, designed to look like a legitimate access point on a wireless network. Users can be fooled into connecting to the evil twin instead of the legitimate access point, allowing the attacker to intercept data. This is not related to capturing user input data from a keyboard. B. Rogue access point: A rogue access point is an unauthorized wireless access point connected to a network. It can be used to allow unauthorized users to gain access to the network or capture data. However, it does not involve capturing user input data from a keyboard. D. KRACK attack: A KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack) is a vulnerability discovered in WPA2 encryption, which could allow an attacker to gain access to encrypted wireless network traffic. It does not involve capturing user input data from a keyboard. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-vectors/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: According to the text, which threat actor category is primarily motivated by financial gain and often has access to significant resources? A. Hacktivist B. Script Kiddie C. Organized Crime D. Competitor

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Organized Crime Organized crime is a category of threat actor that consists of professional criminals who are usually motivated by financial gain. Due to the significant financial benefits of their hacking activities, they tend to have access to substantial resources, allowing them to hire skilled hackers and maintain their threats. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: A. Hacktivist Hacktivists are hackers with a political or social message, and their attacks are not usually financially motivated. They often have to seek external funding sources to keep going. B. Script Kiddie Script Kiddies are generally inexperienced hackers who use simple scripts to try and gain access to networks. They do not typically have a financial motivation and have limited resources. D. Competitor While competitors can have significant financial resources, their primary motivation is to disrupt or harm the target business, rather than seeking direct financial gain from their attacks. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following benefits does using stored procedures for database calls in an application provide? A. Faster development process B. Enhanced code readability C. Prevention of direct database calls by clients D. Reduction of dead code in the application

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Prevention of direct database calls by clients Stored procedures are created on the database server itself, and the application sends a message to call the stored procedure. This prevents clients from modifying the parameters of the database call and enhances the security of the application. Clients can only choose to run the stored procedure or not, avoiding any direct database calls. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Faster development process: Stored procedures might increase the security of an application, but they do not necessarily speed up the development process. B. Enhanced code readability: Stored procedures do not enhance code readability. Obfuscation, mentioned in the text, is a technique used to make code more difficult to understand for human readers while still being understandable by computers. D. Reduction of dead code in the application: Stored procedures do not directly help in reducing dead code. Dead code refers to code that is running and processing logic but is not used anywhere else within the app. Removing dead code requires following best practices and avoiding code reuse where unnecessary. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-coding-techniques-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary risk associated with Shadow IT in an organization? A. Increased efficiency B. Improved collaboration between departments C. Security risks and non-compliance issues D. Better understanding of IT policies

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Security risks and non-compliance issues Shadow IT refers to the practice of bypassing the official IT department and creating a separate IT entity within an organization. This can lead to security risks, as individuals outside the IT department may not be experts in IT security and may unknowingly create vulnerabilities. Additionally, this practice can lead to non-compliance issues, as there might be legal requirements or policies that the organization must adhere to, which could be overlooked by Shadow IT. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Increased efficiency: While Shadow IT might provide short-term efficiency, it usually leads to long-term problems, such as security risks and non-compliance issues. B. Improved collaboration between departments: Shadow IT can actually lead to dysfunction and infighting within an organization, as it circumvents established IT processes and procedures. D. Better understanding of IT policies: Individuals engaging in Shadow IT are usually bypassing IT policies, which can result in a lack of understanding and adherence to those policies. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following describes the primary purpose of Data Loss Prevention (DLP) in an organization's security infrastructure? A. Identifying and blocking malicious applications based on their IP address and port number B. Examining log files on individual systems to detect intrusions C. Stopping sensitive data from being sent across the network in clear or encrypted form D. Providing granular control over access to specific features within applications"

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Stopping sensitive data from being sent across the network in clear or encrypted form DLP is designed to stop data leakage and prevent sensitive information from being transmitted across the network, whether in clear or encrypted form. This helps organizations protect their sensitive data from unauthorized access and potential breaches. Incorrect Answers: A. Identifying and blocking malicious applications based on their IP address and port number - This functionality is associated with traditional firewalls, not DLP. B. Examining log files on individual systems to detect intrusions - This describes host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS), not DLP. D. Providing granular control over access to specific features within applications - This is a feature of next-generation firewalls (NGFWs), not DLP. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-protection/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the purpose of Open-source intelligence (OSINT) in the context of IT security? A. To perform code reviews on proprietary software B. To monitor network traffic for unusual patterns C. To gather threat information from public sources and discussion groups D. To create visualizations of real-time attack data

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. To gather threat information from public sources and discussion groups Open-source intelligence (OSINT) refers to the process of collecting threat information from publicly available sources such as the internet, discussion groups, social media sites, or governmental organizations. This information can help security professionals stay up to date with the latest threats and understand which ones may apply to their organization. Incorrect Answers: A. To perform code reviews on proprietary software Performing code reviews on proprietary software is not the primary purpose of OSINT. While OSINT can involve examining code repositories for potential vulnerabilities, its main goal is to gather threat information from various public sources. B. To monitor network traffic for unusual patterns Monitoring network traffic for unusual patterns is an important aspect of detecting potential threats or breaches, but it is not the main purpose of OSINT. OSINT focuses on gathering threat information from public sources. D. To create visualizations of real-time attack data Creating visualizations of real-time attack data can be useful for understanding the current threat landscape, but it is not the primary goal of OSINT. OSINT involves gathering threat information from various public sources to stay informed about potential risks. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of key stretching in cryptography? A. To make it easier for an attacker to brute force the original plaintext B. To reduce the amount of CPU and power required for cryptographic functions C. To make it more difficult for an attacker to brute force the original plaintext D. To optimize the performance of the encryption algorithm

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. To make it more difficult for an attacker to brute force the original plaintext Key stretching, or key strengthening, involves taking a relatively small encryption key and finding ways to make it larger, such as hashing a password multiple times. This process makes it much more difficult for an attacker to brute force the original plaintext, as they would need to brute force each subsequent hash to finally get back to the original plaintext. This increases the time and effort required for a brute force attack, enhancing security. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. To make it easier for an attacker to brute force the original plaintext Key stretching aims to make it more difficult, not easier, for an attacker to brute force the original plaintext. B. To reduce the amount of CPU and power required for cryptographic functions The purpose of key stretching is to increase security by making brute force attacks more difficult. Lightweight cryptography, not key stretching, focuses on reducing the amount of CPU and power required for cryptographic functions. D. To optimize the performance of the encryption algorithm The main objective of key stretching is to enhance security by making brute force attacks more difficult, not to optimize the performance of the encryption algorithm. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of Software Defined Visibility (SDV) in a cloud-based environment? A. To deploy infrastructure as code B. To manage the control plane and data plane separately C. To monitor and understand traffic flows between application instances D. To enable real-time changes to software-defined networking devices

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. To monitor and understand traffic flows between application instances In a cloud-based environment, Software Defined Visibility (SDV) is used to monitor and understand traffic flows between different application instances. It allows the deployment of security devices such as next-generation firewalls, intrusion prevention systems, and web application firewalls while providing insights into the data flowing between these systems. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. To deploy infrastructure as code - Infrastructure as code (IAC) is a separate concept, which involves describing application instances in a series of code that can be deployed automatically. SDV focuses on monitoring and understanding traffic flows between instances. B. To manage the control plane and data plane separately - Managing the control plane and data plane separately is a characteristic of Software Defined Networking (SDN), not SDV. SDN separates the functionality of networking devices into two planes of operation for more efficient and flexible management. D. To enable real-time changes to software-defined networking devices - Enabling real-time changes to SDN devices is an important feature of SDN itself, which is designed to be agile and support dynamic changes. SDV, on the other hand, is focused on monitoring and understanding traffic flows between application instances. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/infrastructure-as-code/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: In a cloud-based environment using Software Defined Networking (SDN), what is the primary purpose of deploying an internal firewall? A. To monitor application instances B. To manage the control plane and data plane separately C. To securely connect and manage traffic flows between web servers and a database server D. To enable real-time changes to software-defined networking devices

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. To securely connect and manage traffic flows between web servers and a database server In a cloud-based environment using SDN, an internal firewall can be deployed to securely connect web servers and a database server, and manage traffic flows between these devices. This helps ensure secure communication within the network infrastructure. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. To monitor application instances - Monitoring application instances is the purpose of Software Defined Visibility (SDV), not the internal firewall. SDV allows for the deployment of security devices and the understanding of data flows between systems. B. To manage the control plane and data plane separately - Managing the control plane and data plane separately is a characteristic of SDN itself, not the purpose of deploying an internal firewall. SDN separates the functionality of networking devices into two planes of operation for more efficient and flexible management. D. To enable real-time changes to software-defined networking devices - Enabling real-time changes to SDN devices is an important feature of SDN, which is designed to be agile and support dynamic changes. Deploying an internal firewall Reference URL:https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/infrastructure-as-code/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following methods is used to protect data in transit or data in motion while it is being transmitted across a network? A. Whole disk encryption B. Data masking C. Transport Layer Security (TLS) or Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) D. Tokenization

Correct Answer with Explanation: C. Transport Layer Security (TLS) or Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) To protect data in transit or data in motion, which refers to data being transmitted across a network, TLS or IPsec is used. These encryption protocols ensure that the data being sent is in ciphertext form, making it unreadable to unauthorized parties even if they manage to intercept the transmission. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: A. Whole disk encryption Whole disk encryption is used to protect data at rest, which refers to data stored on a storage device like a hard drive or SSD. It does not protect data while it is being transmitted across a network. B. Data masking Data masking is a method of obfuscating data to make it more difficult to read, such as replacing sensitive information with asterisks. It is not specifically designed for protecting data in transit or data in motion. D. Tokenization Tokenization is a method of replacing sensitive data with a completely different set of data, often used in credit card transactions or with sensitive personal information like Social Security numbers. It does not directly protect data in transit or data in motion. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/protecting-data/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the primary function of a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)? A) Detecting and removing viruses and malware on endpoint devices B) Inspecting and filtering network traffic based on IP addresses and port numbers C) Blocking sensitive data from being transferred outside the private network D) Identifying and blocking inbound attacks based on known vulnerabilities before they reach the operating system

Correct Answer with Explanation: D) Identifying and blocking inbound attacks based on known vulnerabilities before they reach the operating system. A host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is designed to recognize and block inbound attacks targeting known vulnerabilities before they impact the operating system. This proactive approach helps to maintain the security of endpoint devices. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: A) Detecting and removing viruses and malware on endpoint devices This is the function of antivirus and anti-malware software, not a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS). B) Inspecting and filtering network traffic based on IP addresses and port numbers This describes the function of traditional firewalls. Next-generation firewalls (NGFWs) offer more advanced features, such as application layer inspection and SSL decryption, but neither of these is the primary function of a HIPS. C) Blocking sensitive data from being transferred outside the private network This is the function of data loss prevention (DLP) solutions, not a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS). Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-protection/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is an example of an application Denial-of-Service attack? A) A botnet launching a massive DDoS attack B) Creating a network loop by plugging in the wrong cables C) Pulling the power switch on a building D) Sending a zip bomb to a user

Correct Answer with Explanation: D) Sending a zip bomb to a user A zip bomb is a small compressed file that, when uncompressed, expands to a significantly larger size, consuming system resources and causing a Denial-of-Service. An example is a 42-kilobyte zip file that expands to 4.5 petabytes when uncompressed, which could overwhelm the storage on a computer. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) A botnet launching a massive DDoS attack: This is an example of a network-based Denial-of-Service attack, not an application-based one. B) Creating a network loop by plugging in the wrong cables: This is a self-inflicted network problem, not an application-based Denial-of-Service attack. C) Pulling the power switch on a building: This is a physical Denial-of-Service attack, as it directly affects the availability of services through physical means rather than targeting a specific application. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/denial-of-service-6/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of a Host-based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)? A) To decrypt SSL traffic and inspect it B) To prevent data leakage across the network C) To block applications based on IP addresses and port numbers D) To analyze log files on a system and detect intrusions

Correct Answer with Explanation: D) To analyze log files on a system and detect intrusions A Host-based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) is designed to examine log files on a system to detect any intrusions occurring. Upon detecting an intrusion, the software can reconfigure firewalls or other security devices to prevent additional attacks on the computer. Incorrect Answers: A) To decrypt SSL traffic and inspect it This function is typically associated with next-generation firewalls, not host-based intrusion detection systems. B) To prevent data leakage across the network Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is responsible for preventing data leakage, not a Host-based Intrusion Detection System. C) To block applications based on IP addresses and port numbers This function is associated with traditional firewalls, whereas a Host-based Intrusion Detection System focuses on detecting intrusions by analyzing log files on the system. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-protection/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which block cipher mode provides both encryption and authentication, making it commonly used in wireless connectivity, IPsec communication, and server connections using SSH or TLS? A. Electronic Codebook (ECB) B. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) C. Counter Mode (CTR) D. Galois Counter Mode (GCM)

Correct Answer with Explanation: D. Galois Counter Mode (GCM) Galois Counter Mode (GCM) combines counter mode with Galois authentication, providing both encryption and authentication. This makes it a common choice for use in wireless connectivity, IPsec communication, and server connections using SSH or TLS. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Electronic Codebook (ECB) Electronic Codebook (ECB) is a block cipher mode that encrypts each block of plaintext independently, leading to a lack of randomization. It does not provide authentication. B. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) adds randomization by XORing each block with the previous ciphertext block. Although it improves upon ECB, it does not provide authentication. C. Counter Mode (CTR) Counter Mode (CTR) uses an incremental counter to add randomization to the encryption process. While it provides encryption, it does not provide authentication on its own. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following can be used to predict a potential system attack based on large amounts of data and inferences made from that data? A. STIX B. TAXII C. Indicator of Compromise (IOC) D. Predictive analysis

Correct Answer with Explanation: D. Predictive analysis Predictive analysis is the correct answer because it involves evaluating large amounts of data and making inferences from that data to predict if a particular system may be attacked. This can help security professionals set up additional security measures for specific systems. Predictive analysis does not rely on specific known signatures or attack types but instead looks at patterns and data trends. Incorrect Answers with Explanations: A. STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression) is a standardized format for sharing threat information, including motivations, abilities, capabilities, and response information. It is not used to predict potential attacks based on data and inferences. B. TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information) is a trusted transport method for securely exchanging STIX-formatted threat information between organizations. It is not used for predictive analysis. C. Indicator of Compromise (IOC) refers to specific activities or patterns that could indicate a network breach or an attacker being inside a network. While IOCs help in identifying possible attacks, they do not predict potential attacks based on large amounts of data and inferences. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which protocol is used to securely query routers or switches for information, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and authentication? A. HTTPS B. DHCP C. SSH D. SNMPv3

Correct Answer with Explanation: D. SNMPv3 SNMPv3, or Simple Network Management Protocol version 3, is the secure version of SNMP used for querying routers or switches for information. SNMPv3 added encryption to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and authentication capabilities so that users can be confident in the security of their communication with network devices. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. HTTPS HTTPS is used for secure communication between web browsers and servers, encrypting the connection to protect data transmission. While it can be used to configure switches and routers via a web browser, it is not the protocol specifically designed for querying routers or switches for information. B. DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on a network. The original DHCP specification did not include security functionality, making it susceptible to attacks and manipulation. C. SSH Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol used for securely connecting to devices, such as switches or routers, using a terminal. While it provides secure communication for command-line configurations, it is not the protocol specifically designed for querying routers or switches for information. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the importance of event logs in digital forensics? A) They provide a wealth of information about applications running in the operating system. B) They are the only type of information that can be used in a court of law. C) They can be used to conduct interviews with users of the device. D) They are not important in digital forensics.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Event logs store details about the operating system, security events, and applications running in the OS. Therefore, they provide a wealth of information, making them important in digital forensics. Incorrect Answer Explanation: B) While some of the data collected during digital forensics may be used in a court of law, not all of it is admissible. C) Interviews are a useful way of gathering information from the users of devices, but event logs have their own role to play in digital forensics. D) Event logs are important in digital forensics, so this statement is false. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following BEST describes the concept of Maneuver, as it relates to network security? A) The ability to deploy security technologies into different parts of a network instantly in response to potential threats. B) The use of big data analytics to identify potential security threats before they occur. C) The process of sifting through large amounts of data to identify a security breach after it has occurred. D) The deployment of security technologies to prevent security threats from occurring in the future.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: In the context of network security, maneuver refers to the ability to deploy security technologies into different parts of a network instantly in response to potential threats. This can include the deployment of additional firewalls, intrusion prevention systems, scanning systems, and other technologies to help identify and prevent security threats in real-time. Since these systems are virtualized, they can be deployed instantly and automatically in response to potential threats, helping to protect against attacks from many different sources simultaneously. This is an important part of the threat hunting process, and can help organizations to respond quickly and effectively to security threats. Incorrect Answers: B) The use of big data analytics to identify potential security threats before they occur - this refers to predictive analytics, not maneuver. C) The process of sifting through large amounts of data to identify a security breach after it has occurred - this refers to data analysis after the fact, not maneuver. D) The deployment of security technologies to prevent security threats from occurring in the future - this is a general description of network security, but it does not specifically relate to the concept of maneuver. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-hunting/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a concern regarding the transfer of data using external media? A) The Mobile Device Manager may not allow access to these flash drives from mobile devices. B) There may be legal issues associated with capturing audio. C) Side loading may allow an individual to go outside the scope of the App store and simply download and install apps directly. D) Turning your phone into a Wi-Fi hotspot and connecting other devices to it can allow unsecure access to the internet and access to your corporate network.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: The external media that is commonly associated with an SD card or similar flash drive configuration can be easily used to transfer data from a secure area to somewhere that is insecure. For this reason, the MDM Administrator can set security policies that might allow or disallow access to these flash drives from our mobile devices. Hence, option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because legal issues associated with capturing audio is outside the scope of enforcement and monitoring of payment methods. Option C is also incorrect because side loading is associated with going outside the scope of the App store and downloading and installing applications directly and not related to the transfer of data using external media. Option D is incorrect because turning your phone into a Wi-Fi hotspot and connecting other devices to it can allow unsecure access to the internet and access to your corporate network is not related to the transfer of data using external media. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following describes the difference between a split tunnel and a full tunnel VPN configuration? A) A split tunnel VPN can transmit some data outside of the tunnel, while a full tunnel VPN sends all data through the VPN concentrator. B) A split tunnel VPN only encrypts certain types of traffic, while a full tunnel VPN encrypts all traffic. C) A split tunnel VPN allows for communication with third-party devices, while a full tunnel VPN only allows communication with the VPN concentrator. D) A split tunnel VPN only encrypts traffic between remote locations, while a full tunnel VPN encrypts traffic between individual users.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: With a full tunnel VPN, all data transmitted by the remote user is sent to the VPN concentrator on the other side, which will then decide where to send that data. In contrast, a split tunnel VPN configuration allows the administrator to configure some information to go through the tunnel, while other information (such as communication with third-party devices) goes outside of the tunnel directly. This allows for more efficient use of resources, as traffic that does not need to be encrypted can be transmitted more quickly. Option B is incorrect because in both split and full tunnel VPN configurations, all data is encrypted. Option C is incorrect because split tunnel VPNs do allow for communication with third-party devices. Option D is incorrect because a split tunnel VPN is not limited to encrypting traffic between remote locations. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/virtual-private-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes a compensating control? A) A control that attempts to recover from an intrusion by compensating for the issues that were left behind. B) A control that focuses on the design of the security or the policy implementation associated with the security. C) A control that prevents access to a particular area. D) A control that deters someone from performing an intrusion.

Correct Answer: A) A control that attempts to recover from an intrusion by compensating for the issues that were left behind. Explanation: A compensating control attempts to recover from an intrusion by compensating for the issues that were left behind. For example, if someone stole a laptop with all of our data, we could compensate for that by purchasing a new laptop and restoring that data from backup. Or if someone cut the power to our data center, we could have backup power systems or generators that would compensate for that lack of power. The other choices are incorrect because: B) This is a managerial control. C) This is a preventive control. D) This is a deterrent control. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which term refers to the process of constantly validating and verifying the security of an application or system? A) Continuous monitoring B) Continuous integration C) Continuous delivery D) Continuous deployment

Correct Answer: A) Continuous monitoring Explanation: Continuous monitoring refers to the process of constantly validating and verifying the security of an application or system. It involves regularly collecting data, analyzing that data, and using it to identify and respond to security threats or vulnerabilities. Continuous monitoring is an important aspect of maintaining the security of any system, particularly those that are cloud-based or rely heavily on automation. Incorrect Answers: B) Continuous integration refers to the process of integrating code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository, which is then built and tested. C) Continuous delivery refers to the process of automatically building, testing, and deploying an application to a production environment. D) Continuous deployment refers to the process of automatically deploying an application to a production environment without any human intervention. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/automation-and-scripting/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is open data? A) Data that is freely accessible to anyone B) Data that is proprietary and unique to an organization C) Data that is highly sensitive and confidential D) Data that is classified and restricted

Correct Answer: A) Data that is freely accessible to anyone Explanation: Open data is data that is freely accessible to anyone, without any restrictions or limitations. While not all data collected by the government is considered open data, a large percentage of it is available to the public. This may include data on demographics, public services, and government spending, among other things. Proprietary data is private and unique to an organization, while sensitive and confidential data is highly restricted and protected. Classified and restricted data may be highly sensitive and only accessible to authorized personnel. Incorrect Answers: B) Data that is proprietary and unique to an organization - This is not an accurate description of open data. Proprietary data is unique to an organization and is not publicly accessible. C) Data that is highly sensitive and confidential - This describes sensitive and confidential data, not open data. D) Data that is classified and restricted - This describes classified and restricted data, not open data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a security feature that can be implemented using hardware root of trust? A) Full disk encryption B) Patch management C) Application sandboxing D) Firewall configuration

Correct Answer: A) Full disk encryption Explanation: Hardware root of trust is a security feature that is implemented in the hardware of a device. It creates a secure environment that protects the device from any unauthorized access. One of the features that can be implemented using hardware root of trust is full disk encryption. Full disk encryption encrypts all the data that is stored on the device, making it unreadable to anyone who does not have the encryption key. This helps to protect the data in case the device is lost or stolen. Option B) Patch management is a technique used to keep the operating system and applications up to date with the latest security patches and fixes. It is not a security feature that is implemented using hardware root of trust. Option C) Application sandboxing is a technique that limits the scope of an application from accessing data that is not part of that application. It is commonly used during the development process, and can be a valuable security tool as well. However, it is not a security feature that is implemented using hardware root of trust. Option D) Firewall configuration is a technique used to limit what IP addresses and port numbers are accessible on a device. It is commonly done with a firewall, but it is not a security feature that is implemented using hardware root of trust. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements best describes industrial camouflage? A) Industrial camouflage involves blending a facility into its surroundings to make it difficult to spot. B) Industrial camouflage involves installing multiple cameras in a facility and bringing them back to a single recording device. C) Industrial camouflage involves placing signs in and around a facility to provide information about the facility's purpose and potential dangers. D) Industrial camouflage involves creating fake structures or equipment in a facility to confuse intruders."

Correct Answer: A) Industrial camouflage involves blending a facility into its surroundings to make it difficult to spot. Explanation: Industrial camouflage is the practice of disguising a facility or its components to blend in with the surrounding environment, making it more difficult to detect by potential attackers. This can involve using materials and colors that match the surrounding area or creating fake structures or equipment to blend in. Multiple cameras and signs can be used as additional security measures, but they are not part of industrial camouflage. Option B describes the use of multiple cameras and a recording device, which is not industrial camouflage. Option C describes the use of signs for safety and information purposes, which is not industrial camouflage. Option D describes creating fake structures or equipment to confuse intruders, which is not industrial camouflage. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the system from the operating system up through the application and be responsible for data security on the system? A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) B) Software as a Service (SaaS) C) Platform as a Service (PaaS) D) Anything as a Service (XaaS)

Correct Answer: A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Explanation: IaaS is the correct answer because it provides the customer with the hardware required to get their services up and running, including CPU, storage, and networking connectivity. However, the customer is responsible for the operating system, application, and data security on the system. Incorrect Answer Explanation: B) Software as a Service (SaaS) - In this model, the cloud service provider manages the entire process, including the application, operating system, and data. The customer simply logs in and uses the application. C) Platform as a Service (PaaS) - In this model, the cloud service provider gives the customer a platform to develop their own applications, providing the operating system, infrastructure, and virtualization services. The customer is responsible for creating and managing the application and its data. D) Anything as a Service (XaaS) - This is a broad description of any type of service provided over the cloud, which may include IaaS, PaaS, or SaaS. It does not specifically describe the level of responsibility the customer has for managing the system. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a benefit of having everything on a single boot media in a cloud-based environment? A) It provides immediate availability in case of a failure B) It reduces the cost of implementing redundancy C) It allows for diversity of technology D) It increases the amount of high availability

Correct Answer: A) It provides immediate availability in case of a failure Explanation: Having everything on a single boot media allows for the immediate availability of applications in case of a failure. If the primary system fails, one can easily switch to the backup system by plugging in the boot media. This is possible because the boot media contains everything that is required to launch the entire system, including the backup system. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not related to the benefit of having everything on a single boot media. Option B is incorrect because the cost of implementing redundancy is not reduced by having everything on a single boot media. In fact, it may increase the cost if one needs to purchase additional hardware to support the boot media. Option C is incorrect because the diversity of technology is not related to having everything on a single boot media. Diversity of technology is related to using different technologies and vendors to create a secure environment. Option D is incorrect because having everything on a single boot media does not increase the amount of high availability. High availability is achieved through the use of redundant systems and components, which may or may not be available immediately. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following describes the process of checking and correcting the data that's being input into an application? A) Normalization B) Fuzzing C) Code signing D) Static code analysis

Correct Answer: A) Normalization Explanation: Normalization is the process of checking and correcting the data that's being input into an application. Application developers should check all of this data that's being input, and if anything is outside the scope of what it should be, those input variables should be resolved. An example of normalization is a zip code. If the data being input into the application doesn't follow the defined rules, then that information can be rejected or corrected as part of the application. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: B) Fuzzing: Fuzzing refers to a task called dynamic analysis where random data is simply being put into the input of an application. Attackers use third party tools, such as fuzzers, to be able to constantly try to randomize input into the application to see if perhaps they can make the application perform unexpectedly or in a way that they could replicate later on. C) Code signing: Code signing is a way to confirm that the application being run is the application that was originally deployed by the application developer and that no one has made any other changes to that application in the meantime. This is done by using a trusted certificate authority who's going to sign the developer's public key. D) Static code analysis: Static code analysis is the use of static code analyzers to go through the source code and identify places where there may be vulnerabilities such as buffer overflows, database injections, or other well-known types of attacks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is responsible for managing a certificate authority's revocation process? A) Registration Authority B) Root Certificate Authority C) Intermediate Certificate Authority D) Leaf Certificate Authority"

Correct Answer: A) Registration Authority Explanation: The Registration Authority (RA) in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for managing the revocation process of a certificate authority. The RA identifies the requester and performs additional validation checks before deciding whether or not to sign a certificate. The RA is also responsible for revoking compromised certificates. While the root, intermediate, and leaf certificate authorities are important parts of a PKI, they are not specifically responsible for managing the revocation process. Incorrect answers: B) Root Certificate Authority: While the root certificate authority is a critical part of a PKI, it is not specifically responsible for managing the revocation process. C) Intermediate Certificate Authority: While intermediate certificate authorities are important in distributing the load of certificate management, they are not specifically responsible for managing the revocation process. D) Leaf Certificate Authority: While leaf certificate authorities are responsible for signing certificates in a PKI, they are not specifically responsible for managing the revocation process. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is Scalability in Cloud Computing? A) The ability to add or remove resources on-demand, as needed. B) The ability to allocate different resources instantly. C) The idea of resource pooling, where resources can be allocated as needed. D) The process of scaling up and scaling back resources in a cyclical process.

Correct Answer: A) The ability to add or remove resources on-demand, as needed. Explanation: Scalability is the ability of a system to handle an increasing amount of work by adding more resources to the system. In cloud computing, this means being able to add or remove resources on-demand, as needed, in order to meet changing workload requirements. This is achieved through the use of technologies such as virtualization and automation, which allow resources to be quickly provisioned or decommissioned in response to changing demands. The correct answer is A. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: B) The ability to allocate different resources instantly. This answer is incorrect because it describes rapid elasticity, which is a different characteristic of cloud computing. Rapid elasticity allows for the quick allocation and de-allocation of resources, but scalability specifically refers to the ability to add or remove resources on-demand. C) The idea of resource pooling, where resources can be allocated as needed. This answer is incorrect because it describes another characteristic of cloud computing, resource pooling. Resource pooling is the ability to combine multiple resources into a single, virtual resource pool that can be allocated as needed. While resource pooling is related to scalability, it is not the same thing. D) The process of scaling up and scaling back resources in a cyclical process. This answer is incorrect because it only describes one specific use case for scalability, but scalability can also refer to the ability to handle unexpected surges in demand or to support growth over time. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/free-a-plus-training/220-902/basic-cloud-concepts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a characteristic of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS)? A) NIDS blocks communication in real-time B) NIDS is designed to alert when a problem occurs C) NIDS can only identify known attacks D) NIDS is always configured to be in-line on the network

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A network-based intrusion detection system or a network-based intrusion prevention system is designed to look at traffic as it flows through a network to identify any known attacks that may be inside of that traffic and block or mitigate those attacks in some way. An IDS is designed to simply alarm or alert if a problem occurs. Thus, option B is correct while options A, C, and D are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because an IDS does not commonly have a way to block that communication in real-time. Option C is incorrect because IDS can identify unknown or previously unknown attacks, as they use a variety of methods to identify patterns of malicious activity. Option D is incorrect because an IDS may or may not be configured to be in-line on the network. Some might use a passive monitoring system that is off to the side and receiving information from a switch that is redirecting traffic from other devices on the network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/intrusion-prevention/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an extranet? A) A network that is only accessible from the inside of your network. B) A network designed for vendors, suppliers, and partners needing access to internal resources. C) A completely separate network just for incoming traffic from the internet. D) A logical separation created within the same device.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: An extranet is a separate network that has been designed for vendors, suppliers, and partners needing access to internal resources. It is very similar to a screened subnet, but an extranet commonly has additional authentication that is required. Unlike a screened subnet, we would not allow full access to our extranet from the internet, instead there would be an authentication process or a login screen that would then gain you access to the extranet. Incorrect Answers: A) This answer describes an intranet, which is a network that is only accessible from the inside of your network. C) This answer describes a screened subnet that is a completely separate network just for incoming traffic from the internet. D) This answer describes a logical separation created within the same device, which is done using VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks). Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/network-segmentation-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is mandatory vacation, and why is it useful in a high-security environment? A) A policy that allows employees to choose when they take their vacation, and is not required by the organization. B) A policy that requires employees to go on vacation for a certain amount of time, and someone else is brought in to cover their responsibilities. This limits the ability of any one person to commit fraud. C) A policy that allows employees to take as much vacation as they want, as long as they clear it with their manager first. D) A policy that requires employees to take all their vacation time before the end of the year, or they forfeit it.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Mandatory vacation is a policy that requires employees to go on vacation for a certain amount of time, and someone else is brought in to cover their responsibilities. This is an opportunity for that person to make sure that everything is performing as expected, and it would limit the ability of any one person to commit a type of fraud. This is a policy that is useful in a high-security environment. Incorrect Answers: A) This answer is incorrect because it does not accurately describe mandatory vacation. C) This answer is incorrect because it does not accurately describe mandatory vacation. D) This answer is incorrect because it describes a different policy that does not relate to mandatory vacation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a security concern with taps and port mirrors? A) They can slow down network traffic. B) They can allow an unauthorized third party to intercept network traffic. C) They can cause network loops. D) They can only be used with certain types of switches.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Physical taps and port mirrors are both tapping mechanisms that allow network administrators to manage and monitor network traffic. However, they can also be a security concern if an unauthorized third party installs a tap on the network, as it allows them to intercept and receive a copy of all network traffic. This can lead to sensitive information being compromised and is a potential security risk. Incorrect Answers: A) They can slow down network traffic. This is not a security concern related to taps and port mirrors, but rather a limitation of their use. C) They can cause network loops. This is also not a security concern related to taps and port mirrors, but rather a network configuration issue. D) They can only be used with certain types of switches. While there are limitations to using port mirrors, this is not a security concern related to taps and port mirrors. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-networking-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)? A) A documented set of instructions on how to install software on your personal device. B) A set of rules that cover how all of the different technologies in a company should be used. C) A policy that requires the user to leave their job and go on vacation for a certain amount of time. D) A split knowledge policy where one person has all the necessary information to perform a business function.

Correct Answer: B Explanation:An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a set of rules that cover how all of the different technologies in a company should be used. It is important to document this information so that there is something to go back to if someone violates one of these rules. This can provide a method to set expectations across everyone in the organization and specify which part of the AUP was not followed. Option A is incorrect because the question specifically mentions how all technologies in a company should be used, not personal devices. Option C and D are incorrect because they describe different security policies and procedures, not Acceptable Use Policy. Incorrect Answers: A) This option incorrectly describes instructions on how to install software on a personal device, which is not related to an Acceptable Use Policy. C) This option describes a policy requiring employees to go on vacation for a certain amount of time, which is not related to an Acceptable Use Policy. D) This option describes a split knowledge policy, which is not related to an Acceptable Use Policy. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a self-signed certificate? A) A certificate signed by a third-party certificate authority B) A certificate signed internally by an organization C) A certificate used to encrypt communication to a web server D) A certificate used for digital signatures on email messages

Correct Answer: B) A certificate signed internally by an organization Explanation: A self-signed certificate is one that an organization creates and signs internally, without involving a third-party certificate authority. This is often done when an organization needs to create many certificates for internal use, such as for securing communication between internal systems. However, because it is not signed by a trusted third party, devices may not automatically trust the certificate, and the organization may need to manually distribute its own CA certificates to ensure trust. Incorrect Answers: A) A certificate signed by a third-party certificate authority - This is not a self-signed certificate, but rather a certificate signed by a trusted third party. C) A certificate used to encrypt communication to a web server - This refers to domain validation certificates or DV certificates, which are not necessarily self-signed certificates. D) A certificate used for digital signatures on email messages - This refers to email certificates, which are not necessarily self-signed certificates. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a stream cipher? A) A method of encrypting an entire block of information at a time B) A method of encrypting multiple bytes of information simultaneously C) A method of encrypting data that uses both symmetric and asymmetric encryption D) A method of encrypting data that does not use an initialization vector

Correct Answer: B) A method of encrypting multiple bytes of information simultaneously Explanation of Correct Answer: With stream ciphers, we are encrypting one byte at a time. This allows us to encrypt very quickly because we can do this one byte at a time instead of using larger groups of data to encrypt at a single time. This also means that we would not need as complex a hardware or CPU infrastructure to be able to encrypt just a single byte of information. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) A method of encrypting an entire block of information at a time - This is a block cipher, not a stream cipher. Block ciphers will encrypt fixed length blocks of information at a time, while stream ciphers encrypt one byte at a time. C) A method of encrypting data that uses both symmetric and asymmetric encryption - Stream ciphers are typically used with symmetric encryption, not asymmetric encryption, because of the overhead and additional time it takes to be able to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric encryption. D) A method of encrypting data that does not use an initialization vector - Initialization vectors are often used with stream ciphers to add some randomization to the encryption process, so this statement is incorrect. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes strategic counterintelligence? A) A process of analyzing and interpreting data to identify potential threats to an organization. B) A process of disrupting attempts by foreign actors to gather information on an organization. C) A process of gathering information about a specific domain to identify potential threats. D) A process of analyzing data over an extended period of time to identify trends that could indicate a threat.

Correct Answer: B) A process of disrupting attempts by foreign actors to gather information on an organization. Explanation: Strategic counterintelligence or CI is a process of identifying and disrupting attempts by foreign actors to gather information on an organization. This process involves identifying someone trying to gather information on the organization, disrupting their efforts, and gathering intelligence on that foreign operation. This helps organizations protect themselves from espionage and other forms of information gathering. Options A, C, and D describe strategic intelligence rather than counterintelligence. Incorrect Answers: A) A process of analyzing and interpreting data to identify potential threats to an organization is more of a description of strategic intelligence. C) A process of gathering information about a specific domain to identify potential threats is also a description of strategic intelligence. D) A process of analyzing data over an extended period of time to identify trends that could indicate a threat is another description of strategic intelligence. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following describes the configuration of a door locking mechanism for an access control vestibule? A) All doors are normally locked and if you unlock one of those doors it restricts any of the other doors from being unlocked at the same time. B) All doors are normally unlocked until one person opens a door. And as soon as that door is open all of the other doors in the vestibule are locked automatically. C) All doors are normally locked and will remain locked unless someone has the correct identification to open them. D) All doors are normally unlocked and will only lock if someone attempts to force the door open.

Correct Answer: B) All doors are normally unlocked until one person opens a door. And as soon as that door is open all of the other doors in the vestibule are locked automatically. Explanation: The configuration of the door locking mechanisms in an access control vestibule will depend on the specific vestibule being used. It might be that all doors are normally unlocked until one person opens a door, and as soon as that door is open all of the other doors in the vestibule are locked automatically. This is the correct answer. This configuration allows the person managing access to control who may be allowed access through the vestibule and to limit how many people can pass through at any particular time. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A is the opposite of the correct answer, as all doors are normally locked until one person opens a door. Choice C is incorrect, as the doors may be locked automatically and not rely on identification. Choice D is incorrect, as the doors will not only lock if someone attempts to force them open. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the most common type of wireless network that we use today, which communicates from point-to-multipoint? A) Point-to-point B) Cellular network C) Bluetooth network D) RFID network

Correct Answer: B) Cellular network Explanation: The most common type of wireless network that we use today, which communicates from point-to-multipoint, is cellular network. Cellular network towers separate the network into individual cells. On some cell networks, you might have the ability to monitor the traffic that's being sent between the mobile device and the cellular tower. There are also security concerns on Wi-Fi networks, Bluetooth networks, and RFID networks, each with their own unique security concerns. Incorrect Answers: A) Point-to-point is a wireless network that provides a one-to-one connection between the two devices communicating on that network. C) Bluetooth network is used to connect our mobile devices and their accessories all to each other with a Personal Area Network (PAN). D) RFID network is a wireless network type that is used in many aspects of our lives today, primarily for tracking. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes metadata? A) A protocol used for gathering network statistics. B) Data that describes other types of data. C) A standard method for transferring log files from one device to a centralized database. D) A type of utility used to query system journal logs.

Correct Answer: B) Data that describes other types of data. Explanation: Metadata is data that describes other types of data. It is contained within files on our devices, and is used to provide additional information about those files. For example, metadata might include information about the type of device used to create a file, or the GPS location where a photo was taken. While metadata can be useful, it can also be a security risk if it contains sensitive information that is not properly protected. Incorrect Answers: A) NetFlow: NetFlow is a protocol used for gathering network statistics from switches, routers, and other devices on a network. C) Syslog: Syslog is a standard method for transferring log files from one device to a centralized database. D) journalctl: journalctl is a type of utility used to query system journal logs on a Linux device. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes implied trust in an embedded device? A) Implied trust assumes that every user of an embedded device is authorized to perform any action on the device. B) Implied trust is the assumption that the embedded device will always perform its intended function and cannot be modified. C) Implied trust is the reliance on third-party code or hardware that may not be explicitly authorized or audited. D) Implied trust is the trust that is placed on a user or device based on prior interactions or reputation.

Correct Answer: B) Implied trust is the assumption that the embedded device will always perform its intended function and cannot be modified. Explanation: Implied trust in an embedded device refers to the assumption that the device will always perform its intended function and cannot be modified. This means that the device is trusted to always do what it was designed to do, and that any attempt to modify it or add additional functionality is not expected or authorized. Option A is incorrect because implied trust does not assume that every user of an embedded device is authorized to perform any action on the device. Option C is also incorrect because it describes the reliance on third-party code or hardware, which is not related to the concept of implied trust. Option D is incorrect because it describes trust based on prior interactions or reputation, which is not related to implied trust in an embedded device. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-constraints/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a weakness associated with key re-use in cryptography? A) It increases the amount of storage required for encrypted information B) It makes it easier for someone to brute force the encryption C) It decreases the amount of time required to perform encryption or decryption D) It can result in a lack of customization in the way different applications use cryptography

Correct Answer: B) It makes it easier for someone to brute force the encryption Explanation: Key re-use refers to using the same encryption key for multiple instances of encryption. This practice can make it easier for someone to crack the encryption, as they can reuse knowledge gained from cracking one instance of the encryption on others using the same key. A is incorrect because key re-use does not affect the amount of storage required for encrypted information. C is incorrect because key re-use does not affect the amount of time required for encryption or decryption. D is unrelated to the weaknesses of key re-use. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-limitations/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a potential security concern with turning your phone into a Wi-Fi hotspot? A) It may cause interference with nearby mobile devices. B) It may allow unfettered access to the internet from your corporate network. C) It may drain your phone's battery faster than normal. D) It may cause your phone to overheat and become damaged."

Correct Answer: B) It may allow unfettered access to the internet from your corporate network. Explanation: Turning your phone into a Wi-Fi hotspot can allow devices to communicate with the internet through your cellular phone provider, bypassing any security controls on the outside. This could allow unsecured access to the internet from a corporate network and could even provide access into the corporate network. A) is incorrect because turning your phone into a Wi-Fi hotspot does not cause interference with nearby mobile devices. C) and D) are incorrect because they are unrelated to the security concern of turning your phone into a Wi-Fi hotspot. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which type of connection is commonly used for SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields? A) Broadband connection over cellular networks B) Narrowband connection over wireless networks C) Baseband connection over fiber or copper cables D) Zigbee communication over the ISM band frequencies

Correct Answer: B) Narrowband connection over wireless networks Explanation: Narrowband communication is commonly used for SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields, which allows communication across a very narrow range of frequencies, and it can communicate over much longer distances. Broadband connection over cellular networks, baseband connection over fiber or copper cables, and Zigbee communication over the ISM band frequencies are not commonly used for SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields. Incorrect Answers: A) Broadband connection over cellular networks is not commonly used for SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields, as it is not optimized for long-distance communication. C) Baseband connection over fiber or copper cables is not commonly used for SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields, as it is a wired connection and not suitable for remote locations. D) Zigbee communication over the ISM band frequencies is not commonly used for SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields, as it is designed for IoT devices and not industrial applications. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is part of the UEFI BIOS specification and allows us to ensure that no part of the bootloader has been changed by any malicious software? A) Brute force protection B) Secure boot C) TPM keys D) ELAM

Correct Answer: B) Secure boot Explanation: The UEFI BIOS has a function within it called secure boot, which allows us to check the bootloader of the operating system to make sure that no malicious software has changed any part of that bootloader. We make sure that the bootloader's digital signature verifies with the digital signature from the operating system manufacturer. There is a trusted certificate that the bootloader must be signed by, and that trusted certificate is compared to the digital signature that is in the bootloader. The operating system's bootloader must be signed by a certificate that is trusted, or it has to be a manually approved digital signature, so that we know when we're starting the operating system, that no part of that bootloader has been changed by any malicious software. Incorrect Answers: A) Brute force protection is a feature built into the TPM module, but it is not part of the UEFI BIOS specification and does not ensure the integrity of the bootloader. C) TPM keys are used by cryptographic applications within the operating system and are stored on the TPM module, but they do not ensure the integrity of the bootloader. D) ELAM, or early launch anti-malware, is a process that checks every driver that the operating system is loading to ensure that it is trusted, but it is not part of the UEFI BIOS specification and does not ensure the integrity of the bootloader. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/boot-integrity

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes scalability in a cloud-based environment? A) The ability to restore data to a previous state if necessary B) The ability to handle an increase in workload or data volume C) The ability to provide immediate accessibility in case of system failure D) The ability to use multiple technologies from different vendors

Correct Answer: B) The ability to handle an increase in workload or data volume Explanation: Scalability refers to the ability of a system to handle an increase in workload or data volume. In a cloud-based environment, scalability is important because resources can be added or removed as needed to meet demand. This allows organizations to easily adapt to changes in demand and avoid overprovisioning or underprovisioning resources. Option A is incorrect because it describes data restoration, which is not related to scalability. Option C is incorrect because it describes high availability, which is related to redundancy and immediate accessibility, but not scalability. Option D is incorrect because it describes diversity of technology, which is related to security control, but not scalability. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes the purpose of reverting to a known state in a cloud-based environment? A) To permanently save changes made to an application instance B) To revert to a previous snapshot in order to restore an instance to a previous configuration C) To separate out the data from the configurations D) To provide immediate availability or maintain uptime in case of failure

Correct Answer: B) To revert to a previous snapshot in order to restore an instance to a previous configuration Explanation: In a cloud-based environment, it is common to create new application instances and tear down old instances frequently, resulting in non-persistence. To recover a service that was terminated earlier, one can take a snapshot of that application instance and capture the current configuration, and later use it to restore the instance to where it left off. If multiple snapshots were taken, one can select a previous configuration to revert to. This is useful if a new version of software has an issue, and one needs to go back to a previous configuration. Reverting to a known state restores the application instance to its previous configuration using a previously captured snapshot. Thus, the correct answer is B. A) Incorrect: Reverting to a known state is done to restore an instance to a previous configuration, not to permanently save changes made to an instance. C) Incorrect: Separating out the data from the configurations is a process where data is kept safe, but the configurations are restored to their previous states in case a change is made that affects the configuration. This is different from reverting to a known state, which is done to restore an instance to a previous configuration using a previously captured snapshot. D) Incorrect: Providing immediate availability or maintaining uptime in case of failure is not the purpose of reverting to a known state. It is one of the benefits of redundancy or high availability. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a significant factor in designing low-cost embedded devices? A) Incorporating additional cryptographic capabilities B) Upgradability of devices C) High-end computing power D) Multi-factor authentication

Correct Answer: B) Upgradability of devices Explanation: Low cost is a significant factor in designing embedded devices, and one of the main challenges with these devices is that they are often not fully capable computers. This makes them difficult to upgrade and may limit their computing power and cryptographic capabilities. However, designing for low cost means that embedded devices are often purpose-built, with limited features that are intended to perform a specific function. This comes at the trade of additional capabilities, including upgradability. Incorrect Answers: A) Incorporating additional cryptographic capabilities: Embedded devices are often designed with limited cryptographic capabilities, and adding or changing cryptography functionality is often not possible using the hardware on the device. C) High-end computing power: Embedded devices are often limited in their computing power due to the need to keep costs low, and this is not necessarily a bad thing for smaller devices. D) Multi-factor authentication: Authentication on embedded devices is often an afterthought, and it may be that there is no authentication required to gain access to the firmware on the system, or it may be a very limited type of authentication. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-constraints/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a CASB? A. A type of firewall that is located in the cloud B. A software that is used to manage cloud-based applications C. A tool that is used to monitor API usage D. A compliance regulation for data stored in the cloud

Correct Answer: B. A software that is used to manage cloud-based applications Explanation: A CASB or Cloud Access Security Broker is used to manage and enforce security policies with data that is being stored in the cloud. It can be implemented as software running on individual devices, a security appliance on the local network, or located in the cloud for making security policy decisions. The CASB operates on four primary characteristics, namely visibility, compliance, threat prevention, and data protection. Incorrect Answers: A. A firewall that is located in the cloud: This is incorrect because a CASB is not a firewall. It is a tool or software that is used to manage cloud-based applications and enforce security policies with data being stored in the cloud. C. A tool that is used to monitor API usage: This is partially correct as an SWG or secure web gateway is used to monitor API usage but not a CASB. A CASB is primarily used for managing and enforcing security policies with cloud-based applications. D. A compliance regulation for data stored in the cloud: This is incorrect as CASB is not a compliance regulation. It is used to enforce compliance requirements such as HIPPA, PCI, or other local regulations on all users that are storing data in the cloud. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-solutions/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following attack vectors poses a specific threat to wireless networks and can trick users into connecting to a malicious access point? A. Direct access B. Evil twin C. Supply chain D. Social media

Correct Answer: B. Evil twin Explanation: An evil twin is a malicious access point designed to look like a legitimate access point on a wireless network. Attackers use evil twin access points to fool users into connecting to them instead of the genuine corporate access points. Once users are connected to the evil twin, attackers can intercept and manipulate the data being transmitted. Incorrect Answers: A. Direct access: Direct access attack vectors involve physical access to the target system or network, such as attaching a keylogger to a keyboard or using portable media to copy files from a server. C. Supply chain: Supply chain attack vectors exploit vulnerabilities in the process of procuring and distributing products, such as compromising a vendor with access to a corporate network, as seen in the Target credit card breach in 2013. D. Social media: Social media attack vectors involve gathering information from social media platforms to launch attacks, such as using personal information to reset passwords or impersonating friends to gain access to accounts. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-vectors/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the electronic codebook mode of operation for block ciphers? A) Each block is XORed with the previous ciphertext block. B) Each block is encrypted with a different key. C) Each block is encrypted exactly the same way using a single encryption key. D) Each block is encrypted using an incremental counter to add randomization.

Correct Answer: C Explanation of Correct Answer: Electronic codebook (ECB) is one of the simplest modes of operation for block ciphers. This mode of operation uses a single encryption key and performs exactly the same encryption for every block in the series. Each block is encrypted in the same way, so if the input is identical, then the output will be identical for every block. This lack of randomization can make it possible to correlate the plaintext to the ciphertext. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This describes the cipher block chaining (CBC) mode of operation, which adds some randomization to the encryption process by XORing each block with the previous ciphertext block. B) This describes a hypothetical mode of operation that is not commonly used in practice. D) This describes the counter mode (CTR) of operation, which uses an incremental counter to add randomization to the encryption process. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a code signing certificate? A) A certificate used to encrypt communication to a web server B) A certificate that allows a single certificate to support connectivity for many different websites C) A certificate used to sign and validate software during the installation process D) A certificate used to distribute user certificates to every single user

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A code signing certificate is used to sign and validate software during the installation process. This ensures that the program being installed is exactly the same as the one distributed by the manufacturer, and provides a way to verify that the software has not been modified since it left the developer. Incorrect Answer A: A certificate used to encrypt communication to a web server is a domain validation certificate or DV certificate. Incorrect Answer B: A certificate that allows a single certificate to support connectivity for many different websites is achieved through the use of a subject alternative name or SAN extension. Incorrect Answer D: Distributing user certificates to every single user is a separate process that may use user certificates integrated into identification cards, but is not the same as a code signing certificate. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a collector in network security? A) A type of server used to jump to different devices on a network B) A device used to manage and control cryptographic keys and certificates C) A device used to centralize important statistics from sensors on different devices D) A console used to provide a representation of device security logs

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A collector in network security is a device used to centralize important statistics from sensors on different devices. These devices include switches, routers, servers, firewalls, and other devices that have logs and statistics that can help you manage these devices better. The sensor usually goes on the device itself, and the collector receives all of the sensor data, passes through the data, and then presents a representation of that data on the screen. A collector could be proprietary or a more generic collector that can gather information across multiple different devices. Incorrect Answers: A) A jump server is a type of server used to jump to different devices on a network. B) A hardware security module (HSM) is a device used to manage and control cryptographic keys and certificates. D) A console is used to provide a representation of device security logs. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a functional recovery plan? A. A plan that describes how long it would take to get back up and running to a particular service level. B. A plan that sets an objective to meet a certain set of minimum requirements to get a system up and running. C. A step by step guide from going from an outage to being back up and running. D. A plan that helps you get back up and running as quickly as possible after a disaster has occurred.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A functional recovery plan is a step by step guide from going from an outage to being back up and running. Contact information for all the key players, technical processes to resolve the problem, test the system, single points of failure in the system, and disaster recovery plans are main things that will be included in the functional recovery plan. Incorrect answers explained: A. This option describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO). B. This option describes Recovery Point Objective (RPO). D. This option describes Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP). Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a jump server? A) A device specifically designed to help manage cryptographic keys and certificates in a large environment. B) The console or series of consoles on your network that receives sensor data and presents it on the screen. C) A device that allows secure access to internal devices through a private connection. D) A security information and event management tool that collects log files from various devices.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A jump server allows secure access to internal devices through a private connection, typically via SSH or VPN tunneling. This is generally a very secure device that has been hardened to ensure that only authorized users can access it. When performing administration on other devices on the network, you would first connect to the jump server and then jump to these different servers to administer those systems. It is crucial to configure the jump server carefully to ensure that no unauthorized access is gained. Incorrect Answers: A) A device specifically designed to help manage cryptographic keys and certificates in a large environment is a hardware security module (HSM). B) The console or series of consoles on your network that receives sensor data and presents it on the screen is a collector. D) A security information and event management tool that collects log files from various devices is a SIEM. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat tool can be used to perform high speed brute force attacks when trying to identify passwords from password hashes? A) Autopsy B) FTK Imager C) Password Cracker D) WinHex

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A password cracker can be used to perform high speed brute force attacks to identify passwords from password hashes. It can be used in offline mode when the hash files are already available. The time and resources required to perform the brute force attacks depend on various factors such as password complexity, algorithm used, etc. If the password hashes have been saved with an algorithm that uses a great deal of CPU cycles, graphics processors can be used to help with the process. Autopsy is used for digital forensics of information stored on a storage device or in an image file. FTK Imager is an imaging tool that can mount drives, image drives, or perform file utilities in a Windows executable. WinHex is a third-party editor that allows users to view and edit information in hexadecimal mode. Incorrect Answers: A) Autopsy: Autopsy is used for digital forensics of information stored on a storage device or in an image file. It is not used for brute force attacks. B) FTK Imager: FTK Imager is an imaging tool that can mount drives, image drives, or perform file utilities in a Windows executable. It is not used for brute force attacks. D) WinHex: WinHex is a third-party editor that allows users to view and edit information in hexadecimal mode. It is not used for brute force attacks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensic-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a qualitative risk assessment? A) A risk assessment that assigns dollar values to potential losses B) A risk assessment that is based on specific measurements and calculations C) A risk assessment that uses colors and opinions to evaluate risk D) A risk assessment that only considers inherent risk

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A qualitative risk assessment is a risk assessment that uses colors and opinions to evaluate risk. Specific measurements and calculations are not used in this type of assessment. It allows for a better understanding of where an organization sits with a particular risk without having specific values that can be associated with the risk factors. This type of assessment assists in formulating cybersecurity requirements around identified risks. Incorrect Answers: A) A risk assessment that assigns dollar values to potential losses - This is not an accurate description of a qualitative risk assessment. It refers to a quantitative assessment. B) A risk assessment that is based on specific measurements and calculations - This describes a quantitative risk assessment that uses numerical measurements to determine the level of risk. D) A risk assessment that only considers inherent risk - A risk assessment that only considers inherent risk does not factor in the effectiveness of existing security controls. Qualitative risk assessments weigh opinions and expertise to evaluate risks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a recovery time objective (RTO)? A. The mean time between failures (MTBF) of a system B. The time it takes to make a repair to a system C. The time it would take to get back up and running to a particular service level after an outage D. A plan that provides you with a step by step guide for resuming operations after a disaster has occurred

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A recovery time objective (RTO) is the amount of time it would take to get a system or service back up and running to a particular service level after experiencing an outage. This objective does not necessarily mean a complete recovery time, but it does quantify how long it would take to get to a certain point. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Incorrect Answers: A: The mean time between failures (MTBF) of a system is the amount of time that is expected to pass between system failures. This is not the same as the RTO, so this answer is incorrect. B: The time it takes to make a repair to a system refers to the meantime to repair (MTTR) of a system. While this is an important consideration in getting a system back up and running after an outage, it is not the same as the RTO. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. D: A plan that provides you with a step by step guide for resuming operations after a disaster has occurred is a disaster recovery plan (DRP). While a DRP is related to the RTO, it is not the definition of an RTO. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Stateful Firewall? A) A firewall that simply blocks traffic based on source and destination IP addresses B) A firewall that uses machine learning to detect and block malicious traffic C) A firewall that keeps track of the state of connections and is able to create rules based on this information D) A firewall that analyzes application traffic and blocks based on the type of traffic

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A stateful firewall is a type of firewall that keeps track of the state of connections made through it. It is designed to determine which packets are part of an established connection and which are not. Based on this information, the firewall is then able to create rules that allow or block traffic. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Incorrect - This describes a basic firewall that is not stateful and does not keep track of connections. B) Incorrect - While machine learning may be used in some firewalls, it is not the defining characteristic of a stateful firewall. D) Incorrect - This describes an application firewall, which is a different type of firewall that analyzes application traffic. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of a wireless site survey? A) To capture wireless packets and analyze network traffic B) To configure access points with the appropriate firmware updates C) To ensure that access points do not interfere with each other D) To provide encrypted communication between a browser and wireless controller

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A wireless site survey is performed prior to the installation of wireless access points to ensure that they do not interfere with each other. The survey provides information about existing wireless infrastructure, such as access points and frequencies in use, to help determine the optimal location and configuration for new access points. This minimizes interference and improves network performance. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Capturing wireless packets and analyzing network traffic is a function of a wireless packet analyzer, not a wireless site survey. B) Configuring access points with the appropriate firmware updates is a function of a wireless controller, not a wireless site survey. D) Providing encrypted communication between a browser and wireless controller is a function of HTTPS, not a wireless site survey. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/installing-wireless-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a potential use for drones in security monitoring? A. Constant security monitoring of a facility B. Monitoring internal networks C. Conducting site surveys D. Preventing radio signals from getting in or out of a facility

Correct Answer: C Explanation: According to the text, one potential use for drones in security monitoring is to conduct site surveys or assess damage to a facility. This can be especially useful in large areas that are not easily accessible by car or on foot. Incorrect Answer A Explanation: The text does not mention constant security monitoring as a potential use for drones. Incorrect Answer B Explanation: The text mentions that internal networks may need to be kept separate from the internet, but does not suggest that drones would be used for monitoring internal networks. Incorrect Answer D Explanation: The text mentions a Faraday cage as a method of signal suppression but does not suggest that drones would be used for this purpose. Additionally, the text notes that blocking radio signals could prevent someone from being able to call for help, which is an important consideration in emergency situations. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an email certificate primarily used for? A) Signing code during software distribution B) Distributing user certificates to all users C) Encrypting and digitally signing email messages D) Authenticating devices connecting to a network

Correct Answer: C Explanation: An email certificate is primarily used for encrypting and digitally signing email messages. It uses public key cryptography to protect the message in transit and to provide non-repudiation and integrity. Incorrect Answers: A) Signing code during software distribution - Code signing certificate is used for signing code during software distribution. B) Distributing user certificates to all users - User certificates can be distributed to all users for additional authentication factor. D) Authenticating devices connecting to a network - Authenticating devices connecting to a network can be done using machine or computer certificates. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich tool provides digital forensics of information that is stored on a storage device or in an image file and allows viewing and recovery of data from these devices? A) FTK Imager B) WinHex C) Autopsy D) Memdump

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Autopsy is a tool that provides digital forensics of information that is stored on a storage device or in an image file, and it allows us to view and recover data from these devices as well. Autopsy can also view different kinds of data such as downloaded files, browser history, email messages, databases, graphics files, and more. Incorrect Answers: A) FTK Imager is an imaging tool that can mount drives, image drives, or perform file utilities in a Windows executable. It is useful for capturing images from other drives and storing them in a format that can be read by other third-party utilities. B) WinHex is a third-party editor that allows you to view information in hexadecimal mode. It can be used to view and edit information in files, memory, and disks. It also has disk cloning capabilities and can perform secure wipes. D) Memdump utility is used to capture all of the information and system memory and send it to a particular location on your system. This is useful in forensics because many third-party forensics tools can read this memory dump file to identify or locate information stored in that memory file. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensic-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes high availability across zones in cloud-based environments? A. Availability zones are interdependent regions that cannot operate independently of one another. B. Applications can only operate within a single availability zone, and cannot be configured to operate across multiple zones. C. An application can be configured to run as active/active or active/standby so that it can switch to another availability zone in case of failure in the current zone. D. A load balancer can only be used for distributing the load but cannot provide additional high availability.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Available zones in cloud-based environments are self-contained regions with separate power, HVAC, and networking systems. They can be utilized to create high availability by configuring applications to run in an active/active or active/standby setup so that they can switch to another availability zone when required. A load balancer can also be used to provide additional high availability. Incorrect Answers: A: This is incorrect because availability zones are self-contained regions that operate independently of one another. B: This is incorrect because an application can be configured to operate across multiple availability zones. D: This is incorrect because a load balancer can not only distribute load but also provide additional high availability. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-controls/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Continuity of Operations Planning (COOP)? A) A plan for recovering data after a disaster B) A plan for training stakeholders on security incident response C) A plan for maintaining operational functions during a disaster D) A plan for creating backups of critical data

Correct Answer: C Explanation: COOP is a plan for maintaining operational functions during a disaster. It involves creating contingencies for manual transactions, alternative approval processes, and other workarounds in case technology is not available. It is important to have a well-documented plan prior to a security event occurring. Incorrect Answer A: Although backups are important during a disaster, COOP is specifically focused on maintaining operational functions. Incorrect Answer B: Training stakeholders on security incident response is important but it is unrelated to COOP. Incorrect Answer D: Creating backups of critical data is important but it is unrelated to COOP. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of categorizing log entries in a SIEM dashboard? A) To make it easier to ignore certain log entries B) To make it harder to find critical log entries C) To quickly identify the severity of a security event D) To give users something to do when they are bored

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Categorizing log entries in a SIEM dashboard helps to quickly identify the severity of a security event by grouping similar log entries together. This allows security analysts to prioritize their response and quickly address critical security incidents. A is incorrect because ignoring log entries defeats the purpose of using a SIEM dashboard to identify security events. B is incorrect because the purpose of a SIEM dashboard is to make it easier to find critical log entries, not harder. D is incorrect because categorizing log entries serves a valuable purpose in identifying and responding to security incidents and is not merely a way to pass the time. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/siem-dashboards/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following describes Certificate Chaining? A) The process of ensuring a web server is communicating directly with the client by comparing certificates B) A web of trust where certificates are signed by people you know, and those people signing certificates of those they know C) The process of listing all of the certificates between the device being connected to and the root certificate authority D) The process of using online certificate status protocol to determine if a certificate has been revoked

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Certificate Chaining is the process of listing all of the certificates between the device being connected to and the root certificate authority, and is used to validate that the intermediate or hierarchical CA being used is one that is original to the root CA. Any certificate in between is a chain or intermediate certificate. To ensure proper validation, all chain certs must be added to the server. Incorrect Answers: A) This describes the process of validating that a web server is communicating directly with the client rather than with an attacker in middle. B) This describes a web of trust, which is a PGP trust model. D) This describes the process of checking if a certificate may have been revoked using online certificate status protocol. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-concepts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is EAP-TTLS? A) A form of EAP that requires a digital certificate on all devices for mutual authentication B) A method of EAP that uses a shared secret called a Protected Access Credential for a secure tunnel C) A tunneled form of TLS that allows for other authentication protocols to be sent across the tunnel using a single digital certificate on the authentication server D) A form of EAP that uses a digital certificate only on the server and can be used with a generic token card for additional authentication.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: EAP-TTLS is a tunneled form of TLS that allows for other authentication protocols to be sent across the tunnel using a single digital certificate on the authentication server. Unlike EAP-TLS, which requires digital certificates on all devices for mutual authentication, EAP-TTLS only requires a single digital certificate on the authentication server. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe EAP-TTLS. Option A is describing EAP-TLS, which requires a digital certificate on all devices for mutual authentication. Option B is describing EAP-FAST, which uses a shared secret called a Protected Access Credential for a secure tunnel. Option D is describing PEAP, which uses a digital certificate only on the server and can be used with a generic token card for additional authentication. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-authentication-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is true about active/active load balancing? A) In active/active load balancing, only one server is active at a time. B) Active/active load balancing requires affinity to function properly. C) Active/active load balancing allows all servers to be active at the same time, with any one server able to handle incoming requests. D) Active/active load balancing requires a primary and a standby server.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: In active/active load balancing, all servers are active simultaneously, with any one server able to handle incoming requests. If one server fails, the other servers can pick up the load and continue to operate seamlessly. Affinity is not required for active/active load balancing. Incorrect Answers: A) In active/active load balancing, all servers are active at the same time. B) Affinity is not required for active/active load balancing. D) Active/active load balancing does not require a primary and a standby server. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/load-balancing-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/ -------------------

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a runbook in the context of SOAR? A) A recipe book for cooking meals in the company break room B) A list of all employees and their job responsibilities C) A set of detailed instructions on how to perform a particular task using SOAR D) A book of rules and regulations regarding network security

Correct Answer: C Explanation: In the context of SOAR, a runbook is a set of detailed instructions on how to perform a particular task using SOAR. These runbooks can be combined together to create a playbook, which describes a broader set of tasks to follow in response to a particular event. Incorrect Answers: A) A recipe book for cooking meals in the company break room is incorrect because it has no relation to network security and SOAR. B) A list of all employees and their job responsibilities is incorrect because it has no relation to network security and SOAR. D) A book of rules and regulations regarding network security is incorrect because runbooks are not a set of rules and regulations, but rather detailed instructions on how to perform a particular task using SOAR. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following describes Intelligence fusion? A) A method of data collection that focuses on sifting through logs from a single device to identify attacks B) The process of deploying additional security technologies to cloud-based networks to protect against potential threats C) A mathematical process that involves correlating and analyzing large amounts of unstructured data to identify potential threats D) The process of monitoring social media to identify attacks occurring in other parts of the world

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Intelligence fusion is the process of taking all of the data collected from various sources, such as logs, intrusion detection, threat feeds, advisories and bulletins, and social media, and correlating and analyzing that data using big data analytics to identify potential threats. Option A is incorrect because Intelligence fusion focuses on all data sources and not just logs from a single device. Option B is incorrect because it describes the action taken after the analysis has been performed, rather than the analysis itself. Option D is incorrect because monitoring social media is just one part of the process, and not the sole focus of Intelligence fusion. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-hunting/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of interviews in the digital forensics process? A) To gather video evidence of a security event B) To document the time zone information associated with the device C) To get witness statements from users of the device D) To filter or pass data based on a particular application

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Interviews allow security professionals to ask questions and get information about what a person saw when a particular security event occurred. This information can be valuable in analyzing the security event. It is important to perform interviews as quickly as possible after the event, especially since people may leave the organization or they may forget what happened during that particular time frame. Incorrect Answer A: Gathering video evidence is important, but it does not describe the purpose of interviews. Incorrect Answer B: Documenting the time zone information associated with the device is important, but it does not describe the purpose of interviews. Incorrect Answer D: Filtering or passing data based on a particular application is important, but it does not describe the purpose of interviews. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Mobile Device Management (MDM)? A) A process of managing employee mobile devices with no security features B) A way to disallow any application installation C) A system to ensure the safety and security of corporate data on mobile devices D) A way to only allow GPS location on corporate devices

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Mobile Device Management (MDM) is a system to ensure the safety and security of corporate data on mobile devices. It allows us to keep track of where all these systems might be, what data is on the system, and we can manage different aspects of those mobile devices. With MDM, administrators can manage what applications are on these mobile devices and which versions of those applications. Users can download known apps that are added into the configuration of the Mobile Device Manager. MDM can also manage how data is stored on mobile devices, securing it with Mobile Content Management (MCM) and encrypting any sensitive information. Remote wipe functionality can be used through MDM to delete all data on a device if it is lost, and geolocation can provide accurate information on where the device is at all times. The administrator of MDM can set policies for screen locks, push notifications, and context-aware authentication. Containerization separates corporate data from personal data on the same device. Full device encryption (FDE) can be implemented, and the decryption key is commonly backed up on the Mobile Device Manager. Incorrect Answers: A) A process of managing employee mobile devices with no security features This answer is incorrect because MDM is specifically designed to manage mobile devices with security features, empowering organizations to manage and secure different aspects of those devices to ensure the privacy and security of sensitive information. B) A way to disallow any application installation This answer is incorrect because MDM can allow and disallow certain application installations, by having an allow-list of trusted applications. MDM also helps in managing the application installation process, ensuring security and managing updates. D) A way to only allow GPS location on corporate devices This answer is incorrect because while geolocation is a significant part of the MDM system, it is not the only function. MDM has multiple features that enable organizations to manage mobile devices, including setting policies for screen locks, push notifications, and context-aware authentication. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is OAuth? A) A protocol used for authenticating network devices B) A method of encrypting passwords sent across a network C) An open standard for authorization and authentication used for accessing resources on behalf of a user D) A type of encryption used for wireless networks

Correct Answer: C Explanation: OAuth is an open standard for authorization and authentication used for accessing resources on behalf of a user. It allows a user to grant a third-party application access to their resources without sharing their password. OAuth uses tokens instead of passwords, and these tokens can be revoked at any time. Incorrect Answers: A) A protocol used for authenticating network devices - This is incorrect as OAuth is not used for authenticating network devices. B) A method of encrypting passwords sent across a network - This is incorrect as OAuth does not encrypt passwords sent across a network. D) A type of encryption used for wireless networks - This is incorrect as OAuth is not a type of encryption used for wireless networks. Reference URL: https://www.oauth.com/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a way to manage access to compute engines in a cloud environment? A) MAC address filtering B) Physical access controls C) Network connectivity using security groups D) Biometric authentication

Correct Answer: C Explanation: One common way to manage access to these compute engines is through network connectivity using security groups. It will be common to have a firewall that you could use just outside the compute engine. And then you can control what traffic is inbound and outbound from that instance. Since this is a firewall, we can commonly control access based on a TCP or UDP port number. This would be something working at OSI layer 4 or, of course, use OSI layer 3, which would be an IP address, either as an individual IP address, perhaps an entire block of addresses. And you can usually add this using CIDR block notation to the firewall. And, of course, we can manage both IPv4 addressing and IPv6 addressing. Incorrect Answers: A) MAC address filtering is not a way to manage access to compute engines in a cloud environment. MAC addresses are hardware addresses that identify network adapters on a network, but they can be easily spoofed and do not provide a robust method of access control. B) Physical access controls are not relevant for managing access to a cloud environment as it is a remote and virtualized environment. D) Biometric authentication is typically not used for managing access to compute engines in a cloud environment. Biometrics can be used for user authentication, but not for managing access to virtual resources. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/securing-compute-clouds/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a size limitation to consider when implementing cryptography? A) The color of the encryption B) The number of firewalls used C) The size of the keys used for encryption D) The number of network cables used

Correct Answer: C Explanation: One of the considerations of implementing cryptography is the size of the keys used during the encryption process. Larger keys generally make it much more difficult to brute force. A weak key could lead to significant problems and vulnerabilities. Incorrect Answers: A) The color of the encryption is not a relevant consideration when implementing cryptography. B) The number of firewalls used is not a limitation to consider when implementing cryptography. D) The number of network cables used is not a limitation to consider when implementing cryptography. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-limitations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberQuestion: What is one of the main challenges in performing digital forensics on cloud-based devices? A) Difficulty in recovering deleted data B) Lack of available tools for cloud forensics C) Legal issues surrounding jurisdiction and regulations D) Limited physical access to devices

Correct Answer: C Explanation: One of the main challenges in performing digital forensics on cloud-based devices is the legal issues surrounding jurisdiction and regulations. Cloud-based data may be located in a different country, and the regulations regarding the use and access to data in one location may be very different than the rules in another location. The physical location of the data center may determine the legal jurisdiction for that data, and some countries may not allow electronic searches if they are coming from outside of their country. It is important for forensics professionals to work closely with the legal team in these situations. Incorrect Answers: A) Difficulty in recovering deleted data - While this may be a challenge in digital forensics, it is not specifically related to cloud-based devices. B) Lack of available tools for cloud forensics - While this may also be a challenge in digital forensics, there are many tools available for cloud forensics, so this is not considered a main challenge. D) Limited physical access to devices - While this may be a challenge in digital forensics on cloud-based devices, it is not the main challenge. The main challenge is the legal issues surrounding jurisdiction and regulations. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/on-premises-vs-cloud-forensics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a method used to revoke certificates in a more efficient way, especially when a large certificate revocation list file is not practical? A) Certificate Signing Request (CSR) B) Root Certificate Authority (CA) C) Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) D) Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA)

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is a method used to check the validity of a particular certificate by performing a single check just for that certificate rather than downloading a large certificate revocation list file, which may or may not include that certificate. It allows a browser to validate a single certificate by checking with an OCSP responder that is usually managed by the certificate authority. OCSP is built into our browser and is a much more efficient way to revoke certificates, especially when a large certificate revocation list file is not practical. Incorrect Answer A: Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request made to a Certificate Authority (CA) for a digital identity certificate, containing the public key and identifying information about the requester, such as name and email address. Incorrect Answer B: Root Certificate Authority (CA) is the top-level certificate in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) that issues digital certificates to intermediate CAs. Incorrect Answer D: Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA) is an entity that is subordinate to a Root CA and is responsible for issuing end-entity digital certificates. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following authentication protocols sends password information in plain text across the network? A) CHAP B) MS-CHAP C) PAP D) L2TP

Correct Answer: C Explanation: PAP, or Password Authentication Protocol, sends password information in plain text across the network. This is a very basic authentication method that does not include any encryption. CHAP, on the other hand, provides encryption through a challenge-response process. MS-CHAP, while also encrypting the authentication process, uses the weak Data Encryption Standard (DES) and is therefore not recommended for use. L2TP is a protocol used for creating virtual private networks and does not provide authentication information. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) CHAP provides encryption through a challenge-response process and does not send password information in plain text. B) MS-CHAP does use encryption, but its use of the weak Data Encryption Standard (DES) makes it not recommended for use. D) L2TP is a protocol used for creating virtual private networks and does not provide authentication information. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/pap-and-chap/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is password entropy? A. The number of times a password can be changed B. The number of characters in a password C. The degree of unpredictability in a password D. The number of special characters in a password

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Password entropy is a measure of how unpredictable a password is. It takes into account the length of the password, the character set used (upper and lower case letters, numbers, and special characters), and the randomness of the characters used. A higher password entropy value means that the password is harder to guess or crack. Incorrect Answer A Explanation: The number of times a password can be changed is not related to password entropy. It is typically a policy enforced by an organization to ensure account security. Incorrect Answer B Explanation: The length of a password is important to password entropy, but it is not the only factor considered. Passwords with only lowercase letters may be long, but they can be easily guessed or cracked, resulting in low password entropy. Incorrect Answer D Explanation: Password entropy takes into account the entire character set used, not just special characters. The use of special characters can increase password entropy, however, it is not the only factor to consider. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/account-policies/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the reason for performing a site survey before installing a wireless network? A) To identify other nearby networks to steal their signal B) To locate the nearest Starbucks for better Wi-Fi connection C) To determine what frequencies are already in use and ensure minimal interference D) To ensure maximum signal strength by placing access points far apart

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Performing a site survey allows you to get more information about the wireless infrastructure that may already be in place, identify existing access points and frequencies that are already in use, and work around any interference. This helps you to avoid installing an access point on the wrong channel, and creating interference for all of the other devices on the wireless network. Maximizing signal strength is important, but not the primary reason for performing a site survey. Incorrect Answers: A) Trying to steal nearby network signals would be unethical and illegal. B) While locating nearby venues with Wi-Fi is useful, it is not the primary reason for performing a site survey. D) Placing access points far apart can cause coverage gaps and result in weaker signal strength within certain areas of the environment. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/installing-wireless-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Quantum Key Distribution (QKD)? A) Sending encryption keys in plaintext over a quantum network B) Encrypting the encryption keys using classical computing C) Sending a random string of qubits as the encryption key over a quantum network channel D) Performing brute force attacks to decipher the encryption keys

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) allows us to send our encryption keys across the network to the other side without the worry of someone being able to intercept that key somewhere in the middle. We would send that random string of qubits, which was effectively our encryption key, across that quantum network channel. Once the key is received, both sides can verify that key, and if it's identical, then no one viewed that key during the transmission process. However, if someone was to monitor that conversation, it would change the keys that were received on the other side, and those two keys would not verify. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) Sending encryption keys in plaintext over a quantum network would not be secure and would leave the key vulnerable to interception by malicious actors. B) Encrypting the encryption keys using classical computing would not provide the level of security needed to protect the encryption keys from being intercepted by quantum computers. D) Performing brute force attacks to decipher the encryption keys is not how QKD works, and it would be ineffective against encryption keys sent over a quantum network channel. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/quantum-computing/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of using scanless? A) To perform a vulnerability scan on a remote IP address B) To identify open ports on a device C) To proxy a port scan through a different host D) To gather information from a DNS server

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Scanless is a utility that allows users to perform a port scan through a proxy, effectively hiding the source of the scan. This can be useful for avoiding detection during reconnaissance activities. Options include choosing which proxy to use and which ports to scan. Incorrect Answers: A) Nessus is used for vulnerability scanning on remote IP addresses, not scanless. B) Identifying open ports on a device is typically done through scanning techniques such as Nmap, hping, or TCP acknowledgments, not through scanless. D) Gathering information from a DNS server is typically done using tools such as dnsenum, not scanless. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Secure Data Destruction? A. A process of securing data in a storage device B. A process of selectively removing data from a media C. A process of completely removing data and making it unrecoverable D. A process of moving data from one media to another

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Secure Data Destruction is the process of completely removing data from a storage device and making it unrecoverable. This is often done by physically destroying the media, using a degausser to erase the magnetic field, or wiping the data from the media. A third-party provider often handles the destruction process and provides a certificate of destruction as evidence. Purging removes a portion of the data from the media, while wiping makes the data unrecoverable. Therefore, option C is correct. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A is incorrect because Secure Data Destruction is not just about securing data, it is a process of removing the data completely. B is incorrect because purging only removes a portion of the data, while Secure Data Destruction removes all data from the media. D is incorrect because Secure Data Destruction is not about moving data from one media to another, it is about destroying the original data completely. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-data-destruction/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the role of stakeholders in incident response planning? A) Stakeholders should only be involved in the resolution process once an incident has occurred B) Stakeholders should not be involved in the planning process for security events C) Stakeholders should be involved in the planning process for security events and can be involved in the resolution process when an incident occurs D) Stakeholders have no bearing on incident response planning

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Stakeholders are the customers of IT that have applications, data, and other technical resources that the IT department is managing for them. They need to be involved in the planning process for security events and can be involved in the resolution process when an incident occurs. Maintaining a good relationship with stakeholders is important for effective incident response. Answer A is incorrect because stakeholders should be involved before an incident occurs, not only after. Answer B is incorrect because involving stakeholders in the planning process is essential for a comprehensive security event plan. Answer D is incorrect because stakeholders have an important role in incident response planning. Incorrect Answers A) Stakeholders should only be involved in the resolution process once an incident has occurred. This is not true. Stakeholders should be involved in the planning process for security events and can be involved in the resolution process when an incident occurs. B) Stakeholders should not be involved in the planning process for security events. This is not true. Involving stakeholders in the planning process is essential for a comprehensive security event plan. D) Stakeholders have no bearing on incident response planning. This is not true. Maintaining a good relationship with stakeholders is important for effective incident response. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Cyber Kill Chain model, and what are its phases? A. A model of intrusion analysis designed by the US federal government, focused on understanding the relationships between four corners: adversary, capability, victim, and infrastructure. B. A pre-compromise mitigation method that takes place prior to an actual attack. C. A concept brought to us by the military, applied into the cybersecurity world, with six phases: reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, and actions on objectives. D. A framework developed by the MITRE corporation, available for you to view online, with broad categories of attacks and references you can use to help understand more about attack types.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Cyber Kill Chain is a model that depicts the stages of a cyber attack, from the reconnaissance phase to the final stage where the attacker carries out their objectives. There are six phases in the Cyber Kill Chain model: 1) reconnaissance, 2) weaponization, 3) delivery, 4) exploitation, 5) installation, and 6) actions on objectives. Option A describes the Diamond Model, not the Cyber Kill Chain model. Option B describes pre-compromise mitigation, not the Cyber Kill Chain model. Option D describes the MITRE ATT&CK framework, not the Cyber Kill Chain model. Incorrect answer explanations: A. Option A describes the Diamond Model, not the Cyber Kill Chain model. B. Option B describes pre-compromise mitigation, not the Cyber Kill Chain model. D. Option D describes the MITRE ATT&CK framework, not the Cyber Kill Chain model. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-frameworks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the harvester tool used for in reconnaissance? A) Performing IP scanning and identifying open ports B) Running vulnerability scans on remote devices C) Gathering open source intelligence from public websites D) Running programs in a sandbox environment to identify malware

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The harvester tool allows you to gather many different kinds of information from many different kinds of sites. You can go to Google or Bing, you can gather information from LinkedIn, and many other resources as well. For instance, if you wanted to find everybody on LinkedIn that matched a particular domain, you can have the harvester automatically find that information and present it to you on the screen. The harvester can also provide things like a DNS brute force, so it can identify not only DNS services that may be publicly available, but it can find a host that may not be automatically identified in a DNS server. For example, you may be able to find a VPN server or an email server by running some of the brute force tasks within the harvester. Therefore, option C is correct. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) This answer is about IP scanning and identifying open ports, which is not an accurate description of the harvester tool. B) This answer is about running vulnerability scans on remote devices, which is not an accurate description of the harvester tool. D) This answer is about running programs in a sandbox environment to identify malware, which is not an accurate description of the harvester tool. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich device log might show information about TCP SYN traffic being blocked for 60 seconds for local system traffic? A) VPN concentrator logs B) Firewall logs C) Switch logs D) Event Viewer logs

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The log file from a switch can give us information about what interfaces may be going up and down on the switch, but it can also give security information. The TCP SYN traffic destined to the local system is automatically blocked for 60 seconds. Incorrect Answers: A) VPN concentrator logs may show authentication issues, but it is not specifically mentioned as providing information on TCP SYN traffic being blocked for 60 seconds for local system traffic. B) Firewall logs can show allowed or blocked traffic flows, but it is not specifically mentioned as providing information on TCP SYN traffic being blocked for 60 seconds for local system traffic. D) Event Viewer logs on Windows OS can give us information about application performance, system setup, and security events; however, it is not specifically mentioned as providing information on TCP SYN traffic being blocked for 60 seconds for local system traffic. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat command can be used to show all active connections on a device, and what option should be used in Windows to associate the connections with the binary? A. netstat -n B. arp -a C. netstat -a D. route print

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The netstat command can be used to show all active connections on a device. The option -a should be added to show all active connections. In Windows, the option -b should be added to associate the connections with the binary. Option A is incorrect because it only shows IP addresses and not active connections. Option B is incorrect because it shows the ARP table, which maps IP addresses to MAC addresses. Option D is incorrect because it shows routing information. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/reconnaissance-tools-part-1/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberDisablement Practice Question:What is the purpose of implementing an account lockout policy? A) To prevent users from accessing their own accounts B) To make it easier for attackers to perform a brute force attack C) To lock accounts after a certain number of incorrect login attempts D) To allow a larger number of people to use the same account

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The purpose of implementing an account lockout policy is to lock accounts after a certain number of incorrect login attempts. This prevents attackers from performing a brute force attack on live systems. After the account is locked, the attacker will not be able to access the account even if they eventually guess the correct password. This helps to maintain the security of the system. Incorrect Answers: A) To prevent users from accessing their own accounts - This is the opposite of the purpose of an account lockout policy. The policy is in place to prevent unauthorized access to an account, not to prevent legitimate users from accessing their own account. B) To make it easier for attackers to perform a brute force attack - This is the opposite of the purpose of an account lockout policy. The policy is in place to make it more difficult for attackers to perform brute force attacks. D) To allow a larger number of people to use the same account - This is not the purpose of an account lockout policy. The policy is in place to maintain security by preventing unauthorized access, not to allow more users to use the same account. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/account-policies-and-disablement-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a device that provides cryptographic features for mobile devices in a smaller form factor? A) UEM B) MAM C) MicroSD HSM D) SEAndroid

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The text mentions that a MicroSD HSM is a physical device that provides cryptographic features for mobile devices in a much smaller form factor. It allows us to associate a piece of hardware with the cryptographic functions for encryption, key generation, digital signatures, or authentication. Incorrect Answers: A) UEM: Though the text mentions UEM as a solution to manage the security posture across different devices, it is not a device that provides cryptographic features. B) MAM: MAM is used to manage the applications that are running on mobile devices, but it does not provide cryptographic features. D) SEAndroid: SEAndroid is a security enhancement for Android operating systems that provides some additional access controls security policies and includes different policies for configuring the security of these mobile devices. It is not a device that provides cryptographic features. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-security-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a user certificate used for in security? A. Encrypting communication to a web server B. Signing software with a code signing certificate C. Integrating into identification cards for additional authentication D. Distributing root certificates for a public key infrastructure

Correct Answer: C Explanation: User certificates can be distributed to each user and integrated into identification cards as an additional form of authentication. These certificates can be used with card readers to authenticate users when logging into a system or accessing secure resources. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they describe the uses of domain validation certificates, code signing certificates, and root certificates respectively. Incorrect Answer Option A Explanation: Option A describes the use of domain validation certificates, which are used to encrypt communication to a web server. Incorrect Answer Option B Explanation: Option B describes the use of code signing certificates, which are used to sign software to validate that the program being installed is exactly the same as the one distributed by the manufacturer. Incorrect Answer Option D Explanation: Option D describes the use of root certificates, which are used as the foundation of a public key infrastructure to ensure the security of certificates issued to other entities. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of diversity of technology as a security control? A) Using the same type of firewall and router from a single vendor B) Using the same operating system for all servers C) Using different types of security components from different manufacturers and vendors D) Using the same type of cryptography for all sensitive data

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Using different types of security components from different manufacturers and vendors is an example of diversity of technology as a security control. This approach provides more flexibility and can help mitigate the risk of a single point of failure or a single vendor compromise. Incorrect Answers: A) Using the same type of firewall and router from a single vendor is not an example of diversity of technology as a security control. This approach may actually increase the risk of a single point of failure or a single vendor compromise. B) Using the same operating system for all servers is not an example of diversity of technology as a security control. This approach may increase the risk of a single point of failure or a single vulnerability affecting all servers. D) Using the same type of cryptography for all sensitive data is not an example of diversity of technology as a security control. This approach may increase the risk of a single vulnerability or attack affecting all sensitive data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one potential security concern when working with business partners who have a direct network connection with your corporate network? A. IPsec connections can be easily hacked B. Business partners may not follow security policies C. Direct network connections may lead to unauthorized access D. Firewalls are not effective for managing network traffic

Correct Answer: C Explanation: When working with business partners who have a direct network connection with your corporate network, there is a potential security concern of unauthorized access. To address this concern, it is important to have policies in place to handle risks, understand best practices for the connection, manage data transfer, and understand how intellectual property is handled. It is not mentioned in the text that IPsec connections can be easily hacked, and while business partners not following security policies is a concern, this is not specific to the direct network connection with the corporate network. The text also states that firewalls are a common way to manage network traffic. Incorrect Answer A: IPsec connections may be secure when properly configured and managed, and the text does not mention that they can be easily hacked. Incorrect Answer B: While business partners not following security policies is a concern, this is not specific to the direct network connection with the corporate network. Incorrect Answer D: The text states that firewalls are a common way to manage network traffic. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following statements about WiFi direct/ad hoc is true? A) It is a mode where two devices communicate with each other without an access point, but it is not used anymore. B) Configuring ad hoc on both sides of the configuration is very easy. C) Wi-Fi direct makes it easier for two devices to communicate with each other and transfer data without including any other devices on the network. D) It is not a security concern for security professionals.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Wi-Fi direct is a mode where two devices can communicate with each other without an access point. Configuring ad hoc on both sides of the configuration can sometimes be difficult, but Wi-Fi direct simplifies the process so that two devices can easily connect to each other and begin transferring data between both sides. This is a security concern for security professionals who want to make sure they have control over data and can limit the scope of where the data might go. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) WiFi direct/ad hoc is still used. B) Configuring ad hoc on both sides of the configuration can be difficult. D) WiFi direct/ad hoc is a security concern for security professionals. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of the curl tool? A) To perform IP scanning B) To identify vulnerabilities on a remote IP address C) To gather open source intelligence D) To run programs safely in a sandbox environment

Correct Answer: C Explanation:The purpose of the curl tool is to grab the raw data from websites and display it in a terminal screen. It allows you to see the source code and search through it, and gather open source intelligence. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Incorrect Answers: A) To perform IP scanning is incorrect because curl is not used for IP scanning. B) To identify vulnerabilities on a remote IP address is incorrect because curl is not a vulnerability scanner. D) To run programs safely in a sandbox environment is incorrect because that is the purpose of cuckoo, not curl. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an example of a financial loss resulting from a vulnerability in the SWIFT network? A) Attackers steal personal information from Equifax B) Thousands of databases are deleted during the meow attack C) $81 million is laundered through the Filipino Casino industry from the Bank of Bangladesh D) Ransomware attack takes down Banco Estado's internal systems"

Correct Answer: C) $81 million is laundered through the Filipino Casino industry from the Bank of Bangladesh Explanation: The vulnerability in the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications (SWIFT) network allowed attackers to transfer nearly $1 billion from the Bank of Bangladesh to accounts in the Philippines and Sri Lanka. While most of these requests were rejected, 35 of them were processed and the bank lost $81 million that got laundered through the Filipino Casino industry. This is an example of a significant financial loss resulting from a vulnerability. The other options are incorrect as they involve loss of personal information, deletion of databases, and downtime due to ransomware attack respectively. Incorrect answers explained: A) This answer is incorrect as it describes the Equifax data breach that resulted in the theft of personal information, but not a direct financial loss. B) This answer is incorrect as it describes the meow attack that resulted in the deletion of databases, but not a direct financial loss. D) This answer is incorrect as it describes the ransomware attack that caused downtime for Banco Estado, but not a direct financial loss. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-impacts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of an authentication attribute? A) A password B) A fingerprint C) A GPS location D) A smart card

Correct Answer: C) A GPS location Explanation: An authentication attribute is a bit more fluid. It may not necessarily directly be associated with an individual, but we can include these with other authentication factors to help prove someone's identity. One of the authentication attributes that doesn't necessarily identify a specific individual but can help with the authentication process is somewhere you are. This would provide an authentication factor based on where you might happen to be geographically. For example, authentications may be allowed if you are in the United States, but if you're outside of the United States the authentication process would fail. Another way to gather a person's location is through GPS or perhaps triangulation with certain wireless networks that may be in the area. This is also not a perfect way to determine where someone might be and there are ways to get around or even spoof GPS coordinates, but this can help in the authentication process to be able to allow or disallow access to the network. Incorrect Answers: A) A password: This is an example of an authentication factor, specifically something you know. B) A fingerprint: This is an example of an authentication factor, specifically something you are (biometric). D) A smart card: This is an example of an authentication factor, specifically something you have. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a right-to-audit clause in cloud forensics agreements? A) A clause that allows the cloud provider to audit the digital forensics process B) A clause that prohibits the forensics team from accessing the cloud-based data C) A clause that gives the forensics team permission to audit the cloud-based data D) A clause that requires legal approval before accessing the cloud-based data

Correct Answer: C) A clause that gives the forensics team permission to audit the cloud-based data Explanation: A right-to-audit clause is a clause that gives the forensics team permission to perform a security audit on the cloud-based data. This clause is typically added to the agreement with the cloud provider to ensure that the data is safe and secure. The forensics team would be able to access and audit the data to make sure that it is secure, well before a security breach might occur. A) The right-to-audit clause does not grant the cloud provider permission to audit the digital forensics process. B) The right-to-audit clause does not prohibit the forensics team from accessing the cloud-based data. D) The right-to-audit clause does not require legal approval before accessing the cloud-based data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/on-premises-vs-cloud-forensics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a Detective control type? A) A control that focuses on the design of security or policy implementation B) A control that is managed by people C) A control that identifies and records a security event D) A control that attempts to recover from an intrusion

Correct Answer: C) A control that identifies and records a security event Explanation: Detective controls are designed to identify and record security events. They do not prevent access but rather record the occurrence of the event. Examples of detective controls include motion detectors, intrusion detection systems (IDS), and security cameras. Incorrect Answers: A) A) A control that focuses on the design of security or policy implementation - This is a definition of managerial controls. B) A control that is managed by people - This is a definition of operational controls. D) A control that attempts to recover from an intrusion - This is a definition of corrective controls. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a visitor log? A) A log of all devices connected to the network B) A list of all employees currently in the building C) A log of all visitors who have entered the building D) A list of all security guards on duty

Correct Answer: C) A log of all visitors who have entered the building Explanation: A visitor log is a record of all visitors who have entered a building or facility in order to keep track of who is in the building at any given time. This log can be used to confirm whether someone should have or should not have access to a particular part of the facility. A) This answer is incorrect because it describes a log that would be used to keep track of devices connected to a network, not visitors in a building. B) This answer is incorrect because it describes a list of employees, not visitors. D) This answer is incorrect because it describes a list of security guards, not visitors. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is file integrity monitoring (FIM)? A) A technique used to constantly monitor network traffic and identify suspicious activity B) A type of antivirus software that scans files for malware C) A method of monitoring files on a system and detecting unauthorized modifications D) A tool used to identify vulnerabilities in system files

Correct Answer: C) A method of monitoring files on a system and detecting unauthorized modifications. Explanation: File integrity monitoring (FIM) is a security technique used to monitor files on a system to detect unauthorized modifications. FIM can be used to monitor critical system files and directories to ensure they have not been tampered with. In the event that a file has been modified, FIM can alert system administrators so that they can investigate and determine if the change was authorized or not. A) Incorrect: Network traffic monitoring is another security technique but not directly related to FIM. B) Incorrect: Antivirus software is designed to scan for and remove malware, but it does not monitor file integrity in the same way that FIM does. D) Incorrect: Vulnerability scanning and FIM are different techniques used for different purposes. Vulnerability scanning is used to identify vulnerabilities in system components or applications, whereas FIM is used to monitor file changes. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-networking-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a screened subnet in network segmentation? A) A physical separation between devices to prevent communication B) A logical separation using VLANs to prevent communication between customers C) A separate network for incoming internet traffic to access applications without access to the internal network D) A network only accessible from within the organization to access company private information

Correct Answer: C) A separate network for incoming internet traffic to access applications without access to the internal network Explanation: A screened subnet, also known as a demilitarized zone or DMZ, is a separate network designed for incoming internet traffic to access applications without providing access to the internal network. This is accomplished by redirecting internet users to the subnet via a firewall, and setting additional security measures to prevent access to the internal network. Incorrect answers: A) Physical separation is another type of network segmentation where devices are physically separated from each other to prevent communication between them. B) Logical separation through VLANs is another type of network segmentation where customers are separated through VLAN configuration in the same device. D) An intranet is a network accessible only from within the organization, typically hosting company private information. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/network-segmentation-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a Hacktivist? A) A threat actor who runs simple scripts to gain access to a network. B) A threat actor who is an insider and has control over the network. C) A threat actor who is a hacker with a purpose, commonly associated with a political or social message. D) A threat actor who is a set of professional criminals and is almost always motivated by a financial gain.

Correct Answer: C) A threat actor who is a hacker with a purpose, commonly associated with a political or social message. Explanation of Correct Answer: A Hacktivist is a threat actor that is both a hacker and an activist. They perform attacks against a third party with a purpose or goal. This purpose or goal is usually associated with a political or social message. These attacks are usually sophisticated, and they're very focused on a single message or a single theme. Hacktivists are not usually motivated by financial gain. They are known for performing a denial of service, defacing a website, or finding private information that can be released to the public. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This describes a Script Kiddie, a threat actor who may not necessarily have the knowledge or experience to know exactly what to do to gain access. They run simple scripts to be able to gain access to someone's network. B) This describes an Insider, a threat actor who is already inside of the network, knows how the network is designed, and understands the security tools already in use. Insiders have a lot of control over what they can do inside of the network. D) This describes Organized Crime, a set of professional criminals who are almost always motivated by a financial gain. They are a structured group of hackers, managers, and sellers who have access to a lot of funds and resources to be able to keep these threats going. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is Baseband in the context of embedded systems communication? A) A type of network where signals are sent using a single channel and using a carrier signal B) A type of network where signals are sent using multiple channels and using a carrier signal C) A type of network where signals are sent without a carrier signal D) A type of network where signals are sent using a carrier signal, but not using modulation techniques

Correct Answer: C) A type of network where signals are sent without a carrier signal Explanation: In baseband communication, the signals are sent without modulating onto a carrier signal. Baseband signals have a bandwidth that is equal to the highest frequency contained in the signal. Ethernet LANs and digital communication technologies such as HDMI and USB use baseband communication. Option A is incorrect because it describes a type of network called broadband. Option B is incorrect because it describes frequency-division multiplexing. Option D is incorrect because it is not a valid description of any type of network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-communication/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is Narrowband? A) A wireless technology that uses high-speed data transfer B) A type of network topology where devices are connected in a circular chain C) A wireless technology that uses low-speed data transfer D) A type of network topology where devices are connected in a straight line

Correct Answer: C) A wireless technology that uses low-speed data transfer. Explanation: Narrowband is a wireless communication technology that uses a low amount of frequency range for data transfer, typically less than 5kHz. This technology is used for low-speed data transfer, such as sending text messages, telemetry data or location information. Narrowband is often used for Internet of Things (IoT) devices as they require low amounts of data transfer. Narrowband is not to be confused with broadband, which is a wireless communication technology that uses a high amount of frequency range for data transfer, typically over 1 MHz. Incorrect Answers: A) This answer describes broadband, not narrowband. B) This answer describes a ring topology, not narrowband. D) This answer describes a linear topology, not narrowband. Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/26817/narrowband

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an important consideration for managing secret keys in cloud-based systems? A) Secret keys should be stored in plain text to make them easily accessible. B) Only one person should have access to the secret key at any given time. C) Access to the secret key management system should be restricted based on job roles. D) Secret keys should be shared freely with anyone who requests them.

Correct Answer: C) Access to the secret key management system should be restricted based on job roles. Explanation: It is important to manage secret keys to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to them. One way to do this is by using a centralized form of secrets management, where access to the system is restricted based on job roles. Having restricted access to the system will help in limiting what type of secrets are available and ensures that only authorized personnel have access to the secrets they need. Option A is incorrect; secret keys should never be stored in plain text. Option B is incorrect; having only one person access the secret key limits availability and creates a single point of failure. Option D is incorrect; you cannot share secret keys with anyone freely as this would increase the risk of unauthorized access. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-controls/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following devices is used to centralize logs and statistics from various devices on a network? A) HSM B) Jump server C) Aggregator D) Firewall

Correct Answer: C) Aggregator Explanation: An aggregator is a device that centralizes logs and statistics from various devices on a network. The collector is usually a console or series of consoles on your network. The collector is usually receiving all of the sensor data, it's passing through the data, and then presenting a representation of that data on the screen. This collector could be proprietary, so it may be specifically created for one specific product such as a firewall. Or you may be using a more generic collector that can gather information across multiple different devices. A good example of this is a SIEM. It is a security information and event management tool that is able to collect log files from switches, routers, servers, and almost anything else in your environment. It then consolidates those log files, compares them with each other, and then provides the output that's able to give you a broader perspective of exactly what's going on your network across many, many different devices. Incorrect Answers: A) HSM - A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a device that is specifically designed to help manage and control large numbers of keys and certificates in your environment. This device is more than just a simple server and usually has specialized hardware that's designed for cryptography. HSM can provide secure storage and be used as a cryptographic accelerator, but it is not used for centralizing logs and statistics from various devices on a network. B) Jump server - A jump server allows secure access to usually internal devices through a private connection that is made to a single device on the inside. The jump server would then perform an SSH or VPN tunnel to that device, and from there, one would be able to jump to other devices on the inside of the network. While a jump server is used to provide secure access to other devices, it is not used for centralizing logs and statistics from various devices on a network. D) Firewall - A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. While a firewall is used to secure a network and manage network traffic, it is not used for centralizing logs and statistics from various devices on a network. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes homomorphic encryption? A) A type of encryption that stores information within an image or audio file B) A method of obscuring source code to make it difficult for humans to understand C) An encryption technique that allows operations to be carried out on encrypted data without the need for decryption D) A way of adding bits of information to network packets to collect those bits on the receiving end

Correct Answer: C) An encryption technique that allows operations to be carried out on encrypted data without the need for decryption. Explanation of Correct Answer: Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption technique that allows computations to be performed on ciphertext without first decrypting it. Essentially, you can perform operations on the encrypted data without having to decrypt it first. This allows for secure computations on sensitive data, while still keeping the data protected. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Incorrect. This describes steganography, not homomorphic encryption. B) Incorrect. This describes obfuscation of source code, not homomorphic encryption. D) Incorrect. This describes adding information to network packets, not homomorphic encryption. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptographic-keys-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a useful security tool to prevent the spread of malicious software on a device infected with ransomware? A) Mobile Device Manager (MDM) B) URL Filter C) Application Containment D) Segmented Networks

Correct Answer: C) Application Containment Explanation: Application containment is a way to prevent the spread of malicious software by running every application in its own sandbox, which limits its access to the operating system and other processes. In the event of an infection, the ransomware may be able to infect a particular application, but it would not have any way to jump outside of that application to infect the rest of the local machine or other devices on the network. Mobile Device Manager (MDM) is a tool for setting policies on mobile devices. URL filter is a security control that can be used to block access to known malicious sites. Segmented networks are used to create protected areas of the network where different devices can communicate with each other freely without being blocked. While these are all useful security tools, they are not specifically related to preventing the spread of ransomware. Incorrect Answer A) Mobile Device Manager (MDM) is a tool for setting policies on mobile devices, which may help protect against malicious software on these devices but is not specifically related to preventing the spread of ransomware. Incorrect Answer B) URL filter is a security control that can be used to block access to known malicious sites, but it is not specifically related to preventing the spread of ransomware. Incorrect Answer D) Segmented networks are used to create protected areas of the network where different devices can communicate with each other freely without being blocked, but they are not specifically related to preventing the spread of ransomware. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is the most important consideration when placing a new wireless access point? A) Maximizing signal strength across the entire building B) Minimizing the number of physical access points needed C) Avoiding interference with nearby electronic devices D) Ensuring that the access point is centrally located

Correct Answer: C) Avoiding interference with nearby electronic devices Explanation: When placing a new wireless access point, the most important consideration is to avoid interference with nearby electronic devices. This includes making sure that the access point is not installed in an area where signals could be absorbed, avoiding other third-party wireless networks, and placing the access point in a location that does not send the signal too far outside of the existing work area. Maximizing signal strength and minimizing physical access points are also important considerations, but they are secondary to avoiding interference. Ensuring that the access point is centrally located may be beneficial for coverage, but it is not the most important consideration when placing a new wireless access point. Incorrect Answers: A) Maximizing signal strength across the entire building - This is an important consideration, but it is secondary to avoiding interference with nearby electronic devices. B) Minimizing the number of physical access points needed - This is also an important consideration, but it is secondary to avoiding interference with nearby electronic devices. D) Ensuring that the access point is centrally located - While this may be beneficial for coverage, it is not the most important consideration when placing a new wireless access point. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/installing-wireless-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following physical security controls is used to prevent large items, such as cars or trucks, from entering a particular area? A) CCTV B) Access Control Vestibule C) Bollards D) Motion Detection Alarm

Correct Answer: C) Bollards Explanation: Bollards are concrete poles that are designed to prevent large items, such as cars or trucks, from passing through an area. They are commonly used as a physical barrier to prevent unauthorized access to a particular location. CCTV, Access Control Vestibules, and Motion Detection Alarms are also physical security controls, but they are not specifically designed to prevent large items from entering a particular area. Incorrect Answers: A) CCTV - CCTV is a physical security control that is used to monitor and record video footage of an area. B) Access Control Vestibule - An access control vestibule is a physical security control that is used to control access to a particular location. D) Motion Detection Alarm - A motion detection alarm is a physical security control that is used to detect movement in a particular area and trigger an alarm if unauthorized movement is detected. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a way that an MDM can enforce and monitor firmware OTA updates? A) By physically plugging in the device to a computer and manually updating the firmware B) By disabling the OTA update feature on the device C) By pushing out updates from the MDM itself so that they can be tested and then deployed when ready D) By allowing users to sideload updates directly from the internet

Correct Answer: C) By pushing out updates from the MDM itself so that they can be tested and then deployed when ready Explanation: Mobile Device Managers can enforce and monitor firmware OTA updates by pushing out the update from the MDM itself so that they can be tested before deployment. This allows the MDM administrator to ensure that the update will not cause any issues before rolling it out to all devices. A) and B) are not accurate because physical updating with a computer is not a feature of OTA updates, and disabling OTA updates on the device would not allow for proper monitoring and enforcement. D) is incorrect because allowing users to sideload updates directly from the internet would be outside the scope of enforcing and monitoring firmware OTA updates. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following protocols provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network to add additional security over the Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)? A) LDAP B) RADIUS C) CHAP D) TACACS+

Correct Answer: C) CHAP Explanation: CHAP, or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network, which adds additional security over the basic PAP protocol that sends all information in the clear. CHAP uses a three-way handshake process that occurs periodically while the session is active to ensure security. LDAP and RADIUS are both AAA protocols and do not provide encrypted challenges. TACACS+ is an AAA protocol that provides separate authentication, authorization, and accounting services. Incorrect Answers: A) LDAP: LDAP, or Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, is an AAA protocol that provides a way to query and modify information within a directory service. B) RADIUS: RADIUS, or Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service, is an AAA protocol commonly used for authenticating remote users who access a network via dial-up connections, VPNs, or Wi-Fi. D) TACACS+: TACACS+, or Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus, is an AAA protocol that provides separate authentication, authorization, and accounting services, and it provides more features than RADIUS. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/pap-and-chap/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat should be the first thing to gather when collecting data from a system? A) Information stored on a drive B) Physical configuration of the device C) CPU registers and CPU cache D) Information in memory

Correct Answer: C) CPU registers and CPU cache Explanation: When collecting data from a system, we should start with the information that is most volatile and then work down to the data that is the least volatile. Data that is very volatile includes data that is in the CPU, such as CPU registers and CPU cache. Therefore, the first thing to gather when collecting data from a system should be CPU registers and CPU cache. Option A, B, and D are incorrect because they are less volatile and should be gathered later in the process. Incorrect Answers: A) Option A is incorrect because it is less volatile and should be gathered later in the process. B) Option B is incorrect because it is less volatile and should be gathered later in the process. D) Option D is incorrect because it is less volatile and should be gathered later in the process. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following terms refers to the process of automating the testing and deployment of an application without requiring human intervention? A) Continuous Integration (CI) B) Continuous Delivery (CD) C) Continuous Deployment (CD) D) Automated Courses of Action (ACO)

Correct Answer: C) Continuous Deployment (CD) Explanation: Continuous Deployment refers to the process of automating the testing and deployment of an application without requiring human intervention. With Continuous Deployment, the entire testing process and the deployment process is automated. If all the automated security checks go through all of the code and everything looks perfect, the application can automatically be sent to production without any delays at all. Continuous Integration (CI) is when developers constantly update an application and perhaps merge it into a central repository many times a day. Continuous Delivery (CD) is when we automate the testing and the release of a particular application, and our automated security checks occur during the testing process. Automated Courses of Action (ACO) are predefined steps that can be taken to mitigate a threat or respond to an incident. Incorrect Answers: A) Continuous Integration (CI) is the process where the application developers may constantly be updating an application and perhaps even merging it into a central repository many times a day. B) Continuous Delivery (CD) is when we automate the testing and the release of a particular application, and our automated security checks occur during the testing process. D) Automated Courses of Action (ACO) are predefined steps that can be taken to mitigate a threat or respond to an incident. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/automation-and-scripting/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a common type of segmentation used to provide access to services on a local network while still blocking external access to the internal network? A) Extranet B) VLAN C) DMZ D) Intranet

Correct Answer: C) DMZ Explanation: A screened subnet or DMZ is a common type of segmentation used to provide access to services on a local network while still blocking external access to the internal network. A screened subnet is a separate network built specifically for incoming traffic from the internet. Users access the services on the screened subnet rather than accessing the internal part of the network. Additional security controls are set up to ensure that no one has access to the inside of the network while still providing access to the applications that are on the network. Incorrect Answers: A) Extranet: An extranet is a separate network that has been designed for vendors, suppliers, and other partners who need access to the internal network resources. Access to the extranet usually requires additional authentication or login credentials. B) VLAN: VLAN stands for Virtual Local Area Network. VLANs are logical segmentation of a switch to separate traffic into different broadcast domains. VLAN functionality is similar to physical segmentation, as we can have customers on one part of the switch and another customer on another part of the switch. Because of separate VLANs, these two customers can still not communicate directly with each other. D) Intranet: An intranet is accessible only from the inside of a network and contains internal servers that provide company announcements, employee documents, and other company information. Intranet is not accessible from the internet but can be accessed through a VPN connection. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/network-segmentation-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about Storage Area Networks (SANs)? A) SANs allow only a single front end to access data at a time. B) SANs do not have built-in redundancy. C) Data can be replicated between SANs, including across multiple locations. D) SAN snapshots are not available for backup in case of an outage.

Correct Answer: C) Data can be replicated between SANs, including across multiple locations. Explanation: SANs are a high-performance storage system with built-in redundancy that can be accessed over a high-speed network, allowing multiple front ends to access data simultaneously. Data can also be replicated between SANs, including across multiple locations, to maintain everything at the same state. SAN snapshots can be taken at intervals and used for backup in case of an outage, allowing access to data with only minimal loss. Incorrect Answers: A) SANs allow multiple front ends to access data at the same time, not just a single front end. B) SANs do have built-in redundancy, which is a major advantage of using them. D) SAN snapshots are available for backup in case of an outage, and can help minimize data loss. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/replication/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich algorithm is used to implement Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS)? A) RSA B) AES C) Diffie-Hellman D) SHA-256

Correct Answer: C) Diffie-Hellman Explanation: Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) uses an algorithm called elliptic curve or Diffie-Hellman ephemeral. Diffie-Hellman and its variants are commonly used in PFS implementations. Diffie-Hellman is an asymmetric key exchange algorithm that allows the two parties to exchange a secret key without exchanging the actual secret. Incorrect Answers: A) RSA is a commonly used public key cryptography algorithm that is used for encryption and digital signatures. It is not used for implementing Perfect Forward Secrecy. B) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm used to encrypt data. It is not used for implementing Perfect Forward Secrecy. D) SHA-256 is a hash function used for generating unique digest values of data. It is not used for implementing Perfect Forward Secrecy. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptographic-keys-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is provenance? A) A way to cryptographically verify that data has not changed B) A legal mechanism used to gather information called discovery C) Documentation of where data originated D) A way to prevent strategic intelligence from occurring

Correct Answer: C) Documentation of where data originated Explanation: Provenance provides documentation of where data originated. It is important to have a chain of custody so you know exactly where this data has been since the time it was taken. This might even be an opportunity to take advantage of newer blockchain technologies that can provide more detailed tracking of information. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Incorrect Answers: A) A way to cryptographically verify that data has not changed: Cryptographically verifying that data has not changed is done by creating a hash of that data. It is not the same as provenance. Therefore, option A is incorrect. B) A legal mechanism used to gather information called discovery: Discovery refers to a legal mechanism used to gather information. It is not the same as provenance. Therefore, option B is incorrect. D) A way to prevent strategic intelligence from occurring: Strategic counterintelligence or CI is a way to prevent strategic intelligence from occurring, not provenance. Therefore, option D is incorrect. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is true about acquiring data from a virtual machine through a snapshot? A) Only the most recent snapshot is needed to acquire all of the data from the virtual machine. B) Snapshots are only useful for backing up virtual machines and cannot be used for forensics. C) Each snapshot of a virtual machine is an incremental update from the last snapshot that was taken. D) Snapshots can only be used to acquire data from physical devices, not virtual machines.

Correct Answer: C) Each snapshot of a virtual machine is an incremental update from the last snapshot that was taken. Explanation: When acquiring data from a virtual machine through a snapshot, it is important to note that each snapshot is an incremental update from the last snapshot that was taken. This means that the original snapshot and all of the incremental snapshots taken since that point are needed to recreate the virtual machine. Option A is incorrect because only having the most recent snapshot is not enough to acquire all of the data from the virtual machine. Option B is incorrect because snapshots can be used for forensics, not just for backing up virtual machines. Option D is incorrect because snapshots can be used to acquire data from virtual machines. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is the focus of the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)? A) Protecting personal identifiable information (PII) B) Providing guidelines for secure remote access C) Ensuring the security of credit card transactions D) Protecting against malware attacks

Correct Answer: C) Ensuring the security of credit card transactions Explanation: The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) is a set of guidelines administered by the payment card industry that aims to provide protection for credit card transactions. Its focus is on ensuring that credit card information is stored, processed, and transmitted securely. The PCI DSS includes a set of objectives that are based on ensuring that the network and systems are secure, the cardholder data is protected, there is a strong access control measure in place, ongoing testing is performed, and security policies are in place to address all of these controls around credit card numbers. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because protecting personal identifiable information (PII) is the focus of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). Option B is incorrect because remote access is not the primary focus of PCI DSS, although it may be a part of the guidelines. Option D is incorrect because while the PCI DSS guidelines may include protection against malware attacks, it is not the primary focus of the standard. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-regulations-and-standards-sy0-601-comptia-security-5-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of a data breach that resulted in identity theft? A) Meow Attack B) Bank of Bangladesh Attack C) Equifax Attack D) Banco Estado Ransomware Attack

Correct Answer: C) Equifax Attack Explanation: The Equifax attack resulted in the theft of personal information such as names, social security numbers, birth dates, and address information of over 147.9 million Americans, over 15 million British citizens, and over 19,000 Canadian citizens. This information was then used for identity theft, creating problems for all of the people affected by this theft. Incorrect Answers: A) The Meow Attack is an example of data loss, not a data breach resulting in identity theft. B) The Bank of Bangladesh attack resulted in a financial loss due to vulnerability in the SWIFT network, not identity theft. D) The Banco Estado ransomware attack caused the bank to be out of business internally, but did not result in a data breach leading to identity theft. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-impacts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of audio steganography? A) Hiding information within an image file B) Adding additional bits to network packets C) Storing documents within an audio file D) Examining output from a laser printer

Correct Answer: C) Explanation: Audio steganography is the process of hiding information within an audio file. Documents, spreadsheets, and other types of data can be stored within an audio file and sent to someone else. They can then extract all of that information on their side. The other choices are incorrect because hiding information within an image file refers to image steganography, adding additional bits to network packets refers to network steganography, and examining output from a laser printer refers to printer steganography. Incorrect Answers: A) Hiding information within an image file refers to image steganography. B) Adding additional bits to network packets refers to network steganography. D) Examining output from a laser printer refers to printer steganography. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/steganography-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of managing risk through transference? A) Implementing additional security software and hardware to mitigate potential security events B) Choosing to stop participating in risky activities altogether C) Purchasing cybersecurity insurance to financially help in the event of a security breach D) Accepting the existing risk and relying on pre-installed anti-phishing software

Correct Answer: C) Explanation: Managing risk through transference involves transferring the risk to another entity, typically through purchasing cybersecurity insurance. This can help financially in the event of a security breach. Options A and D involve managing risk through mitigation and accepting the existing risk, respectively. Option B involves eliminating the risk altogether, which is not always possible. Incorrect Answers: A) Implementing additional security software and hardware to mitigate potential security events - This is an example of managing risk through mitigation. B) Choosing to stop participating in risky activities altogether - This is an example of managing risk through elimination, not transference. D) Accepting the existing risk and relying on pre-installed anti-phishing software - This is an example of managing risk through acceptance, not transference. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following devices can provide detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network? A) Switches B) Routers C) Firewalls D) Web servers

Correct Answer: C) Firewalls Explanation: Firewall logs can give us information about traffic flows that may be allowed or blocked. This provides detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. Firewall logs can also provide information on website access that has been denied and can inform about inbound and outbound traffic. Authenticating devices, switches, routers, and web servers may also provide security details but are not as comprehensive as a firewall log. Incorrect Answers: A) Switches B) Routers D) Web servers Switches and routers may provide security details such as authentication issues, router updates, TCP SYN attacks but they do not provide the comprehensive security information that firewalls provide. Similarly, web servers may provide log information about log-in attempts and some basic security information but not as comprehensive as a firewall log. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following devices helps manage and control a large number of cryptographic keys and certificates in an environment? A) Reverse Proxy Server B) Network Sensor C) Hardware Security Module (HSM) D) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

Correct Answer: C) Hardware Security Module (HSM) Explanation: A hardware security module (HSM) is a specialized device designed to manage and control a large number of cryptographic keys and certificates in an environment. It provides secure storage, keeps private keys secure, and is designed specifically for encryption and decryption processes. A reverse proxy server is used to access internal devices through a private connection, and a network sensor is used to collect statistics and logs from devices on a network. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is used to identify and prevent security threats on a network. Incorrect Answers: A) Reverse Proxy Server: A reverse proxy server is used to access internal devices through a private connection, but it does not help manage and control cryptographic keys and certificates in an environment. B) Network Sensor: A network sensor is used to collect statistics and logs from devices on a network, but it does not help manage and control cryptographic keys and certificates in an environment. D) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS): An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is used to identify and prevent security threats on a network, but it does not help manage and control cryptographic keys and certificates in an environment. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a possible solution for addressing single points of failure in a system? A) Having a single connection to the internet with a single router B) Having a single firewall protecting the network C) Having backup power systems in case of a power outage D) Only addressing the most critical single points of failure

Correct Answer: C) Having backup power systems in case of a power outage Explanation: When working with hardware, software, applications, and networks, any one device can bring down the entire system. To avoid this, we need to identify all single points of failure and then find ways to remove those points of failure from the system. On the network side, we may add additional switches or have redundant firewalls. In our facility, it might be useful to have a backup power system should we lose the main power. Or if an air conditioner breaks, it would be great to have a backup system that could also be used. Therefore, having backup power systems is a way to address single points of failure. A) Having a single connection to the internet with a single router is incorrect because if the router fails, then the connection to the internet will be lost. B) Having a single firewall protecting the network is incorrect because if the firewall fails, then the network will be unprotected from attacks. D) Only addressing the most critical single points of failure is incorrect because even small single points of failure can cause significant issues in a system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is true about Intermediate CAs in a PKI? A) Intermediate CAs are responsible for creating keys and generating certificates. B) Intermediate CAs are responsible for managing the revocation process of certificates. C) Intermediate CAs distribute the load of managing certificates across multiple Certificate Authorities and parts of the organization. D) Intermediate CAs are responsible for securely distributing keys to users.

Correct Answer: C) Intermediate CAs distribute the load of managing certificates across multiple Certificate Authorities and parts of the organization. Explanation: In most organizations, there is a hierarchy of Certificate Authorities consisting of a root CA, intermediate CAs, and leaf CAs. The Intermediate CAs distribute the load of managing certificates across multiple CAs and parts of the organization, making it easier to manage the revocation process if a particular CA is compromised. Explanation for incorrect answers: A) This responsibility falls upon the Certificate Authority itself, not the Intermediate CAs. B) This responsibility can be taken up by either the Certificate Authority or the Registration Authority, not the Intermediate CAs. D) This responsibility falls upon the Certificate Authority or the Registration Authority, not the Intermediate CAs. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following devices can provide detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network? A) Switches B) DNS Servers C) Intrusion Prevention Systems D) Web Application Firewalls

Correct Answer: C) Intrusion Prevention Systems Explanation: Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) can provide detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. IPS devices can gather security details, view any exploits that may have been attempted, see if any URL categories have been blocked by your firewall or your proxy, and analyze DNS sinkhole traffic. Firewall logs can also give us information about traffic flows that may be allowed or blocked, and web application firewalls can provide details about application level attacks. However, IPS devices are designed specifically for detecting and stopping intrusion attempts in real-time, providing network-wide traffic analysis to detect and prevent both known and unknown threats. Therefore, C is the correct answer. A) Switches are devices that can provide us with information about what interfaces may be going up and down on the switch but not detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. B) DNS servers give us information about what queries have been made against this DNS server, but not detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. D) A web application firewall can provide details about application level attacks, but not detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich type of device might be communicating using a narrowband connection? A) Smart speakers B) Security cameras C) IoT sensors in an oil field D) Laptops

Correct Answer: C) IoT sensors in an oil field Explanation: IoT sensors in an oil field might be communicating using a narrowband connection as it allows communication across a very narrow range of frequencies and can communicate over much longer distances. This type of communication is ideal for sensors that are distributed across a very large geographical distance, like in an oil field. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Smart speakers and D) Laptops are typically connected to the internet via wireless networks and are not likely to use narrowband communication. B) Security cameras may use different types of connections, but the text does not specifically mention that they might use a narrowband connection. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is true about gait analysis as a biometric authentication factor? A) It measures the capillaries in the back of the eye. B) It analyzes the different characteristics of a person's voice. C) It examines the unique way a person walks. D) It looks at the blood vessels in the extremities."

Correct Answer: C) It examines the unique way a person walks. Explanation: Gait analysis is a biometric authentication factor that examines the unique way a person walks. Everyone has a different way of walking, and gait analysis measures those differences and can determine one person's gait versus another. This is a relatively accurate but rarely used biometric factor. A) is incorrect because measuring the capillaries in the back of the eye is a description of retinal scanning, not gait analysis. B) is incorrect because voice recognition is a different biometric authentication factor and not related to gait analysis. D) is incorrect because looking at the blood vessels in the extremities is a description of vascular scanning, not gait analysis. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes warflying? A) It is a type of active footprinting where data is sent into the network or devices on the network in order to gain more information about what might be there. B) It is a passive footprinting method where information about a particular organization is gathered through social engineering, dumpster diving or browsing online forums. C) It is a method of combining Wi-Fi analysis with GPS locations in order to know exactly where a wireless network might be located. D) It is a way of analyzing the operating systems that are running on the devices within an organization to determine what version of a service might be on a particular device.

Correct Answer: C) It is a method of combining Wi-Fi analysis with GPS locations in order to know exactly where a wireless network might be located. Explanation: Warflying is a technique used in reconnaissance to gather information about wireless networks. It involves combining Wi-Fi analysis with GPS locations to locate wireless networks, and understand the name of the network, the location of the access points, and the frequencies in use. It can also provide information about the encryption of these networks and the strength values of the signals to determine how far away an access point might be. Unlike active footprinting, warflying is a passive technique that does not send any data into the network or devices on the network. A) describes active footprinting, not warflying. B) describes passive footprinting, but not warflying. D) describes analysis of operating systems and versions, which is not related to warflying. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a characteristic of an always-on virtual private network (VPN)? A) It is only used for site-to-site connections B) It requires a complex authentication process C) It is always connected to the corporate network D) It only utilizes split tunneling

Correct Answer: C) It is always connected to the corporate network Explanation: An always-on VPN stays connected to the corporate network as soon as the user logs in, regardless of their location. This type of VPN is best for remote workers who need seamless access to corporate resources. Site-to-site VPNs are used to connect two networks together, split-tunneling is used to define which data to send through the VPN and which to send directly to the internet, and complex authentication processes may be used with some VPNs, but not necessarily with always-on VPNs. Incorrect Answers: A) It is only used for site-to-site connections This answer is incorrect because always-on VPNs are typically used for individual remote workers and not just site-to-site connections. B) It requires a complex authentication process This answer is incorrect because always-on VPNs do not necessarily require a complex authentication process. They may use SSL VPN technology that uses simple authentication methods. D) It only utilizes split tunneling This answer is incorrect because always-on VPNs use either full tunneling or split tunneling, depending on the network requirements and administrative settings. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Two-person integrity/control in the context of physical security? A) Two different types of biometrics are needed to gain access B) Two people have access to the same asset in the building C) It requires two separate security guards to be present to enter a locked area D) Two different keys are needed to gain access to a locked room

Correct Answer: C) It requires two separate security guards to be present to enter a locked area Explanation: Two-person integrity or two-person control is a way to minimize the exposure you might have especially for someone who is in control of access to a building. This two-person integrity ensures that no single person would have access to any particular asset in the building, for example, to enter a locked area may require two separate security guards to be present. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Biometrics are unrelated to Two-person integrity/control, so this is not the correct answer B) This is contradictory to the definition provided in the text, so this is not the correct answer D) This is just an example of traditional locks, and does not relate to the concept of Two-person integrity/control, so this is not the correct answer Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a primary benefit of the National Vulnerability Database (NVD)? A) It provides a real-time map of cyber attacks occurring worldwide. B) It offers a platform for sharing source code and tools used by hackers. C) It summarizes Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs) and provides severity scoring. D) It is a specialized software for accessing private websites on the dark web.

Correct Answer: C) It summarizes Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs) and provides severity scoring. Explanation: The National Vulnerability Database (NVD) is a valuable resource because it summarizes CVEs, provides severity scoring, and offers suggestions for patching vulnerabilities. It serves as a single location where security professionals can research and assess potential threats to their organization. Incorrect Answers: A) A real-time map of cyber attacks occurring worldwide can be found on various threat maps available online. NVD focuses on summarizing CVEs and providing severity scoring. B) GitHub and other code repositories are places where hackers sometimes share tools and code for attacks. NVD does not serve this purpose; it summarizes and scores vulnerabilities. D) The dark web is an overlay to the existing internet that requires specialized software to access private websites. NVD is a public database of vulnerabilities and does not provide access to the dark web. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a common technique across all operating systems to make them more hardened? A) Full Disk Encryption (FDE) B) Use of Self-Encrypting Drives (SED) C) Keeping the operating system up to date D) Use of Sandbox functionality

Correct Answer: C) Keeping the operating system up to date Explanation: Keeping the operating system up to date with the latest versions is a common technique across all operating systems to make them more hardened. This can include updates to the core operating system itself, service packs, or individual security patches that are installed one by one. Patch management is so important in these operating systems that it is a standard part of the operating system, and it's built into the scheduling and automated systems within the OS. Security patches and fixes are automatically deployed to our systems to avoid any type of vulnerability or attack. A) Full Disk Encryption (FDE) and B) Use of Self-Encrypting Drives (SED) are techniques to encrypt the information stored on hard drives and storage devices to prevent third party access to the data. D) Use of Sandbox functionality limits the scope of an application from accessing data that is not part of that application, but it is not a common technique across all operating systems. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich protocol can be used to access a centralized directory on a network? A) FTP B) SNMP C) LDAP D) DNS

Correct Answer: C) LDAP Explanation: LDAP stands for Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, which is a standard protocol used to access a centralized directory on a network. Commonly used directory services such as Microsoft Active Directory, Apple's Open Directory, and openLDAP can be accessed using LDAP. It is important to note that LDAP secure or LDAPS can also be used for secure communication with an LDAP server. Incorrect Answers: A) FTP: File Transfer Protocol is not related to directory services protocols. B) SNMP: Simple Network Management Protocol is used for network management, not directory services protocols. D) DNS: Domain Name System is used for translating domain names into IP addresses, it is not related to directory services protocols. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich method can be used to provide additional high availability in a cloud-based environment? A) Identity and Access Management (IAM) B) Availability Zones (AZ) C) Load Balancers D) Secrets Management

Correct Answer: C) Load Balancers Explanation: Load balancers can provide additional high availability by distributing the load for the application and transferring the load to remaining servers if one server is unavailable. IAM is used for managing user and administrative access to cloud resources. Availability Zones are separate self-contained regions within cloud services. Secrets Management is used for managing secret keys. Incorrect Answers: A) IAM - IAM is used for managing user and administrative access to cloud resources, not providing additional high availability. B) Availability Zones (AZ) - Availability Zones are separate self-contained regions within cloud services but are not used to provide additional high availability. D) Secrets Management - Secrets Management is used for managing secret keys, not providing additional high availability. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-controls/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements accurately describes load balancers? A) Load balancers are only used for redundancy in data centers. B) Load balancers direct all traffic to one server to ensure consistent performance. C) Load balancers direct traffic to multiple servers to balance the load and ensure uptime. D) Load balancers are only used for NIC teaming on a server.

Correct Answer: C) Load balancers direct traffic to multiple servers to balance the load and ensure uptime. Explanation: Load balancers are used to distribute traffic to multiple servers, balancing the load between them to ensure uptime and availability. If one server fails, the load balancer can redirect traffic to a standby server. This is different from NIC teaming, which aggregates the bandwidth of multiple network interface cards on a single server to provide increased throughput and redundancy. Incorrect Answers: A) Load balancers are only used for redundancy in data centers: This statement is incorrect because load balancers are used to balance the load between multiple servers and ensure uptime, regardless of their physical location. B) Load balancers direct all traffic to one server to ensure consistent performance: This statement is incorrect because load balancers distribute traffic across multiple servers to balance the load, rather than directing all traffic to a single server. D) Load balancers are only used for NIC teaming on a server: This statement is incorrect because NIC teaming is a different technology than load balancing, which is used to balance the load between multiple servers. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/network-redundancy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a network constraint associated with embedded devices? A) Limited CPU and computing power B) Power limitations C) Location-based networking limitations D) No physical keyboard or mouse

Correct Answer: C) Location-based networking limitations Explanation: Embedded devices may have limited networking capabilities based on their geographical location, which could limit the type of network and speeds available to communicate with the device. The other options are constraints associated with embedded devices but are not related to network limitations. Limited CPU and computing power and power limitations are related to hardware constraints, while the absence of a physical keyboard or mouse is related to device usability. Incorrect Answers: A) Limited CPU and computing power - This is a hardware constraint that may limit the performance of the embedded device but is not related to network limitations. B) Power limitations - This is a hardware constraint that may impact the power source of the device but is not related to network limitations. D) No physical keyboard or mouse - This is related to device usability but is not related to network limitations. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-constraints/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is confidentiality in IT security? A) The art of cracking encryption that already exists B) The unencrypted message that you usually start with C) Making information secretive through encryption D) Verifying that information was never changed from the time that it was originally sent

Correct Answer: C) Making information secretive through encryption Explanation of Correct Answer: Confidentiality is the concept of keeping information secret so that unauthorized users cannot access it. Cryptography is one tool used to provide confidentiality by encrypting data so that nobody else can see the data. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This is the definition of cryptanalysis, not confidentiality. B) This is the definition of plain text, not confidentiality. D) This is the definition of integrity, not confidentiality. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following sensors would be useful in detecting potential water damage in a secured room? A) Temperature sensor B) Motion sensor C) Moisture sensor (Correct Answer) D) RFID sensor

Correct Answer: C) Moisture sensor Explanation: Moisture detection sensors would be useful in detecting potential water damage in a secured room. If there is a water leak in the room, the moisture sensor will pick up the water and alert the monitoring system. This would allow for a quick response to prevent further water damage from occurring. Temperature sensors would not be useful in this situation as they do not detect moisture. Motion sensors would only pick up movement and RFID sensors would only pick up the RFID chip in your access card. Incorrect Answers: A) Temperature sensor Explanation: Temperature sensors would not be useful in detecting potential water damage in a secured room. If there is a water leak in the room, the temperature would not be affected. B) Motion sensor Explanation: Motion sensors would not be useful in detecting potential water damage in a secured room. If there is a water leak in the room, the motion sensor would not pick up anything unless someone was physically in the room moving around. D) RFID sensor Explanation: RFID sensors would not be useful in detecting potential water damage in a secured room. If there is a water leak in the room, the RFID sensor would not pick up anything unless someone was actually using their access card to enter the room. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich framework is designed for commercial implementations of cybersecurity? A) Center for Internet Security (CIS) B) NIST RMF C) NIST CSF D) ISO/IEC 27001

Correct Answer: C) NIST CSF Explanation: The NIST CSF, or cybersecurity framework, is designed for commercial implementations of cybersecurity. It includes three major areas: the framework core, the framework implementation tiers, and the framework profile. The framework core includes identify, protect, detect, respond, and recover. The framework implementation tiers help organizations understand their approach to cybersecurity and the tools and processes needed to manage identified risks. The framework profile helps compare policies, guidelines, and standards to the framework core implementation. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Center for Internet Security (CIS) - The CIS critical security controls framework is designed to help improve the security posture of an organization and is focused on critical security controls in 20 areas. B) NIST RMF - The NIST RMF framework is required for United States Federal Government agencies or those handling data for the Federal Government. It includes six different steps in the system lifecycle. D) ISO/IEC 27001 - The ISO/IEC 27001 framework is a standard for Information Security Management Systems and is part of a very detailed set of international standards with broad scope. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-frameworks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat type of sensor might be combined with motion detection to monitor an area for any increase or decrease in sound? A) Temperature sensor B) Moisture detector C) Noise detection sensor D) Flame detector

Correct Answer: C) Noise detection sensor Explanation: The passage suggests that combining a noise detection sensor with a motion detection sensor might be useful for recognizing any increase or decrease in sound occurring in an area. This could help the security team recognize potential issues, such as a break-in or an environmental hazard like a water leak, before they escalate into bigger problems. Incorrect Answer A) Temperature sensor: While a temperature sensor might be useful in a data center to monitor equipment temperature and ensure the cooling system is functioning properly, it does not relate to the specific function of recognizing changes in sound. Incorrect Answer B) Moisture detector: A moisture detector might be useful in recognizing water damage if a pipe breaks and water begins flowing, but it does not relate to recognizing changes in sound. Incorrect Answer D) Flame detector: A flame detector might be useful in recognizing if a fire has started in an area, but again, it does not relate to the specific function of recognizing changes in sound. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich standard is associated with Self-Encrypting Drives (SED) for automatic full disk encryption? A) AES-256 B) SHA-256 C) Opal Storage Specification D) PGP Encryption

Correct Answer: C) Opal Storage Specification Explanation: Self-Encrypting Drives (SED) automatically encrypt data stored on them using an encryption standard. The Opal Storage Specification is a standard associated with SEDs. If you purchase or implement a self-encrypting drive, make sure that drive follows the Opal standard. AES-256 is a widely used encryption standard, but it is not specifically associated with SEDs. SHA-256 is a hash function used for data integrity checking, not encryption. PGP Encryption is a data encryption and decryption software but not associated with SEDs or full-disk encryption. Incorrect Answers: A) AES-256 is a widely used encryption standard, but it is not specifically associated with SEDs. B) SHA-256 is a hash function used for data integrity checking, not encryption. D) PGP Encryption is a data encryption and decryption software but not associated with SEDs or full-disk encryption. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a solution often implemented by web servers to prevent a single point of failure for encryption? A) Hashing B) Salting C) Perfect Forward Secrecy D) Symmetric Encryption

Correct Answer: C) Perfect Forward Secrecy Explanation: Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) is a solution often implemented by web servers to prevent a single point of failure for encryption. This changes the encryption process so that a different set of encryption keys are created for every session, and once that session is over, those keys are no longer used. This means that every session will have a different set of encryption keys, and as a result, it is difficult to decrypt network traffic based on a single server private key. The use of PFS with an algorithm called elliptic curve or Diffie-Hellman ephemeral ensures secure communication between the browser and the web server. Incorrect Answers: A) Hashing: Hashing is a one-way process that converts plain text to a unique fixed-length value. It is useful for ensuring data integrity and for validating passwords but is not a solution to prevent a single point of failure for encryption. B) Salting: Salting is the process of adding a random value to passwords before hashing to prevent two identical passwords from generating the same hash. Like hashing, it is not a solution to prevent a single point of failure for encryption. D) Symmetric Encryption: Symmetric encryption is a form of encryption where the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. It does not provide a solution to prevent a single point of failure for encryption. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/quantum-computing/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following tools can provide a packet by packet breakdown of network traffic? A) SNMP B) NetFlow C) Protocol analyzer D) sFlow

Correct Answer: C) Protocol analyzer Explanation: Protocol analyzers can provide a packet by packet breakdown of network traffic, allowing administrators to troubleshoot complex application problems and view information such as unknown traffic. They can also provide packet filtering so that specific information can be viewed, and protocol decodes that give a plain English breakdown of the traffic traversing the network. Incorrect Answers: A) SNMP is a Simple Network Management Protocol used for network management and monitoring, but it does not provide a packet by packet breakdown of network traffic. B) NetFlow is a standardized method for gathering network statistics from devices on a network, and it can provide information on conversations and endpoints, but it does not provide a packet by packet breakdown of network traffic. D) sFlow is a method of sampling network traffic to gather metrics on it, but it does not provide a packet by packet breakdown of network traffic. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following describes non-repudiation? A) Ensures that data is not modified during transmission B) Verifies the integrity of data through a checksum C) Provides high confidence in who sent the data D) Tracks the source and chain of custody of data

Correct Answer: C) Provides high confidence in who sent the data Explanation: Non-repudiation is a security service that ensures that a party cannot deny the authenticity of a message or action. This means that the sender of a message cannot later claim that they did not send the message. Non-repudiation provides high confidence in who sent the data, and it is commonly achieved through the use of digital signatures or message authentication codes (MACs). A) Ensuring that data is not modified during transmission refers to the concept of data integrity, which is typically achieved through the use of encryption or hashing. B) Verifying the integrity of data through a checksum is an example of an integrity check, which can detect whether data has been corrupted or modified in transit, but it does not provide non-repudiation. D) Tracking the source and chain of custody of data is an important aspect of managing evidence, but it is not specifically related to non-repudiation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a secure method for destroying paper documents so that no one would be able to read what was there previously? A) Shredding the documents into very small pieces B) Burning the documents C) Pulp the paper D) All of the above

Correct Answer: C) Pulp the paper Explanation: While shredding and burning documents can certainly make them more difficult to read or recover, pulping the paper would be the most secure method for complete destruction. Pulp removes the ink from the paper and recycles it, making the document completely unreadable. While shredding is a common practice for businesses and individuals looking to destroy private documents, it can be time-consuming and potentially not as secure. Burning the documents is also an option, but not always practical or safe. Explanation for Incorrect Answers: A) While shredding documents into very small pieces can make them harder to read, it is still possible to reassemble them if someone has the time and patience. Therefore, it is not the most secure method of document destruction. B) Burning documents is another method of destruction, but it is not always practical or safe. There is a risk of fire, and the documents may not be completely destroyed. D) While all of the above methods can be used for document destruction, pulping the paper is the most secure method. Therefore, this answer is not correct. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-data-destruction/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following RAID levels offers striping with parity, allowing for data to be rebuilt if one of the drives fails? A) RAID 0 B) RAID 1 C) RAID 5 D) RAID 10

Correct Answer: C) RAID 5 Explanation: RAID 5 uses striping with parity to store data across multiple drives. This allows for data to be rebuilt in the event that one of the drives fails. The parity information is distributed across all the drives in the array, and allows for the data to be rebuilt in the event of a drive failure. RAID 0 offers no redundancy, while RAID 1 offers mirroring of data. RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 0 and RAID 1. Incorrect answers: A) RAID 0 offers no redundancy and does not use parity. B) RAID 1 offers mirroring of data, but does not use striping with parity. D) RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 0 and RAID 1, and does not use striping with parity. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/disk-redundancy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a very common wireless network type often used for tracking and identifying objects? A) Cellular network B) Bluetooth network C) RFID network D) NFC network

Correct Answer: C) RFID network Explanation:RFID, or Radio-frequency identification, is a common wireless network type used for tracking and identifying objects. This technology uses radar technology to send a signal to an RFID device, which is powered from that signal and then transmits information back. RFID is commonly used in access badges, assembly lines, pet tracking, and more. It is a very small and convenient technology used for anything that needs to be tracked. A) Cellular network is incorrect because it is a different type of wireless network used for mobile devices and can be monitored and accessed from many places around the world. B) Bluetooth network is incorrect because while it is a wireless network type commonly used for mobile devices and accessories, it is not used for tracking or identifying objects like RFID. D) NFC network is incorrect because while it is a two-way wireless communication used for payment systems and other functions, it is not commonly used for tracking or identifying objects like RFID. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich protocol is used to encrypt conversations in real-time using AES encryption and can include additional security features such as authentication and integrity? A) NTP B) SMIME C) RTP D) PKI

Correct Answer: C) RTP Explanation: Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to enable secure communication of voice and video over IP networks. It uses AES encryption to protect conversations and can include additional security features such as authentication, integrity, and replay protection. H-MAC SHA 1 is used for authentication, which is a hash-based message authentication code using the hashing protocol SHA-1. A) NTP is a network protocol used for time synchronization and did not originally include security features. It has since been updated to include additional security features under the NTPsec protocol. B) SMIME is a public-private key encryption method used to protect email information and provide digital signatures for integrity. It requires a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to manage keys. D) PKI is a framework used to manage digital certificates and public-private key pairs. It is used in conjunction with encryption protocols such as SMIME. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following allows for the automatic provision and deprovision of computing resources in response to application demand? A) VPC endpoint B) Security group C) Rapid elasticity D) Private cloud

Correct Answer: C) Rapid elasticity Explanation: Rapid elasticity allows for the automatic provision and deprovision of computing resources in response to application demand. This helps maintain uptime and availability while minimizing costs. VPC endpoint is used to connect a private subnet to another part of the connection that's in the cloud. Security group is used to manage access to compute engines from network connectivity. Private cloud refers to an internal cloud-based system designed for internal use only. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) VPC endpoint is used to connect a private subnet to another part of the connection that's in the cloud. B) Security group is used to manage access to compute engines from network connectivity. D) Private cloud refers to an internal cloud-based system that's designed for internal use only. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/securing-compute-clouds/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a best practice for managing third-party accounts used to access cloud-based services or local computer systems? A) Allow account sharing both internally and with third parties B) Use the same username and password for all third-party accounts C) Require occasional audits to ensure the safety of third-party accounts D) Store third-party account passwords as part of the operating system or applications

Correct Answer: C) Require occasional audits to ensure the safety of third-party accounts. Explanation: A best practice for managing third-party accounts used to access cloud-based services or local computer systems is to require occasional audits to ensure the safety of those accounts. This is especially important when those accounts are used by individuals outside of the organization and could be connecting to the network from anywhere on the internet. Additionally, third-party accounts should be unique accounts tied to an individual, and account sharing should never be allowed, both internally or with third parties. Using the same username and password for all third-party accounts is a poor security practice, as this can make it easier for attackers to gain access to multiple systems if they are able to obtain those credentials. Finally, storing third-party account passwords as part of the operating system or applications is not secure, as passwords should always reside on the server side and be encrypted during communication. Incorrect Answers: A) Allow account sharing both internally and with third parties is incorrect because it is not a best practice for managing third-party accounts. Account sharing can lead to security issues and make it difficult to track who is accessing the network. B) Use the same username and password for all third-party accounts is incorrect because it is not a best practice for managing third-party accounts. Using the same credentials across multiple systems can make it easier for attackers to gain unauthorized access. D) Store third-party account passwords as part of the operating system or applications is incorrect because it is not a best practice for managing passwords. Passwords should always reside on the server side and be encrypted during communication. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/credential-policies/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a public-private key encryption mechanism that allows for the protection of the information within emails as well as digital signatures for integrity? A) FTP B) Telnet C) S/MIME D) IMAP

Correct Answer: C) S/MIME Explanation: S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a public-private key encryption mechanism that allows for the protection of the information within emails as well as digital signatures for integrity. It requires a public key infrastructure (PKI) in order to manage these keys properly. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, but it does not provide security features for email. B) Telnet is a protocol used to provide remote access to a server or network device, but it does not provide security features for email. D) IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is an email protocol used to retrieve and manage email messages, but it does not provide the same level of security features as S/MIME. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements about SIEM review reports is true? A) SIEM review reports cannot be automated B) SIEM review reports can only be created by a technician in the SOC C) SIEM review reports help in identifying security exceptions within log files D) SIEM review reports can only be generated for Windows systems

Correct Answer: C) SIEM review reports help in identifying security exceptions within log files Explanation: SIEM review reports can be automated and can be created by report writers. The goal of SIEM review reports is to identify security exceptions within the log files. The reports can also provide historical perspectives of what has been happening on the network over time. SIEMs are not limited to generating reports only for Windows systems, they can collect information from any device that generates log files, security alerts, or any type of real-time information that can tell us about what's happening on the network right now. Incorrect Answers: A) SIEM review reports can be automated and do not require manual intervention. B) Report writers can generate SIEM review reports, and it is not limited to technicians in the SOC. D) SIEMs can collect information from any device that generates log files, not limited to Windows systems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-information-and-event-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a standard for preventing loops on switch networks? A) VLAN B) ARP C) STP D) DHCP

Correct Answer: C) STP Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a standard for preventing loops on switch networks. The IEEE 802.1D standard was created by Radia Perlman to prevent loops on any type of switch network. STP is a very common way to implement loop control on layer 2 networks. Incorrect Answer A) VLAN: While VLANs are used to limit the scope of broadcasts, they are not a standard for preventing loops on switch networks. Incorrect Answer B) ARP: ARP is a protocol that commonly uses broadcasts to communicate to other devices on the network. It is not a standard for preventing loops on switch networks. Incorrect Answer D) DHCP: DHCP is a protocol that assigns IP addresses to devices on a network. It is not a standard for preventing loops on switch networks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/port-security-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the IEEE standard used for loop prevention on layer 2 networks? A) TCP B) IP C) STP D) DHCP

Correct Answer: C) STP Explanation: The IEEE standard used for loop prevention on layer 2 networks is called Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). It is designed to prevent loops on any type of switch network. It is a very common way to implement loop control on layer 2 networks. STP works by monitoring itself for situations where a network outage has occurred or where interfaces have changed. It identifies which interfaces are available or not available based on the outage and works around these problems to maintain communication to the network. Incorrect Answers: A) TCP: TCP is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data between applications over an IP network. B) IP: IP is a network layer protocol that provides addressing and routing to enable data to be sent between devices on a network. D) DHCP: DHCP is a dynamic host configuration protocol that is used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. While it can be used as a control technology to prevent unauthorized DHCP servers from connecting to the network, it is not used for loop prevention. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/port-security-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a source of information about software and vulnerabilities that organizations need to know about to defend their networks? A) Security Operations Center (SOC) B) Intrusion Detection System (IDS) C) Security Advisory D) Threat Feed

Correct Answer: C) Security Advisory Explanation: A security advisory is a notice that provides information about software or hardware vulnerabilities, typically accompanied by recommendations for mitigating the issue. Organizations should stay up to date on security advisories to help protect their networks. Threat feeds, on the other hand, are a type of threat intelligence that provides information about ongoing or upcoming cyber threats. While they can be useful, they are not specific to software or vulnerabilities. A security operations center (SOC) is a team that monitors and responds to security incidents, and an intrusion detection system (IDS) is a type of security tool that detects and alerts on potential security incidents. While these are important components of a security program, they are not sources of information about software or vulnerabilities. Incorrect Answers: A) Security Operations Center (SOC) - While a SOC is an important component of a security program, it is not a source of information about software or vulnerabilities. B) Intrusion Detection System (IDS) - An IDS is a type of security tool that detects and alerts on potential security incidents. While important, it is not a source of information about software or vulnerabilities. D) Threat Feed - While a threat feed can provide information about ongoing or upcoming cyber threats, it is not specific to software or vulnerabilities. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-hunting/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is video steganography? A) Storing information within an image B) Storing information within an audio file C) Storing information within a video file D) None of the above

Correct Answer: C) Storing information within a video file Explanation of Correct Answer: Video steganography is a way of storing information within a video file. The larger the video file, the more information can be stored within it. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Storing information within an image is regular steganography, not video steganography. B) Storing information within an audio file is also another form of regular steganography. D) This answer is incorrect because video steganography is a real practice, and not none of the above. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/steganography-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is associated with low latency? A) Asymmetric encryption B) Hashing C) Symmetric encryption D) Obfuscation

Correct Answer: C) Symmetric encryption Explanation: Symmetric encryption is associated with low latency because it works very fast and very efficiently. This is advantageous in situations where there are limited resources on a device. Incorrect Answers: A) Asymmetric encryption is not associated with low latency. Asymmetric encryption requires more processing power and resources than symmetric encryption, which makes it slower. B) Hashing is not associated with low latency. Hashing is used to ensure the integrity of data and does not provide encryption. D) Obfuscation is not associated with low latency. Obfuscation is a technique used to hide information, but it does not provide encryption. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-use-cases-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of an in the clear protocol? A) SSH B) SFTP C) Telnet D) IMAPS

Correct Answer: C) Telnet Explanation: In the clear protocols are protocols that send data unencrypted across a network. Telnet is one such protocol. If you are not sure if an application is sending data in the clear, you can capture packets and read through them. If you see plain English descriptions of the information being sent across the network, then it is not being encrypted during transport. A) SSH and B) SFTP are examples of secure protocols that encrypt data during transport. D) IMAPS is an example of a secure protocol that uses encryption to protect data being transmitted between email clients and servers. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich factor should be considered when installing lighting for security purposes? A) The brightness of the light B) The type of light source C) The lighting angles D) The color temperature of the light

Correct Answer: C) The lighting angles Explanation: When installing lighting for security purposes, it is important to consider the lighting angles, especially if there are shadows and facial recognition is involved. This can be useful for cameras to avoid any shadows and glare to ensure the best possible picture. Incorrect Answers: A) The brightness of the light: Although brightness can be an important factor, it is not the most critical factor as it will vary depending on the situation. B) The type of light source: While the type of light source can affect the kind of shadows formed, it is not the most critical factor when it comes to ensuring optimal security. D) The color temperature of the light: Although the color temperature of the light can affect the color rendering index, it is not the most important factor when it comes to security lighting. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of metadata that may be contained within an email message? A) The total size of the email message B) The amount of time it took to send the email message C) The name of the email recipient D) The number of recipients of the email message

Correct Answer: C) The name of the email recipient Explanation: Metadata is data that describes other types of data, and it is often hidden within files or messages. In the case of an email message, there is metadata within the headers of that email that may show you which servers were used to transfer that email from point A to point B, and you might be able to see the recipient information as part of that header in the email as well. Therefore, the correct answer is option C - the name of the email recipient. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) The total size of the email message may be a piece of information that is contained within the email message, but it is not considered metadata. B) The amount of time it took to send the email message may also be a piece of information that is contained within the email message, but it is not considered metadata. D) The number of recipients of the email message may be a piece of information that is contained within the email message, but it is not considered metadata. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a crossover error rate (CER) in biometric authentication systems? A) The rate at which authorized users are rejected by the system B) The rate at which unauthorized users are accepted by the system C) The optimal point where the false acceptance rate and the false rejection rate meet D) The maximum acceptable false acceptance rate for a biometric authentication system

Correct Answer: C) The optimal point where the false acceptance rate and the false rejection rate meet Explanation: Crossover Error Rate (CER) is the point where the False Acceptance Rate (FAR) and False Rejection Rate (FRR) meet. CER is the optimal point that provides the best balance between FAR and FRR. At this point, the biometric authentication system is considered most efficient. False acceptance rate (FAR) is the rate at which the biometric system incorrectly identifies an unauthorized user as an authorized user. False rejection rate (FRR) is the rate at which the biometric system incorrectly rejects an authorized user. The optimal balance between FAR and FRR depends on the sensitivity of the biometric system and the user requirements. Incorrect Answers Explanation: A) The rate at which authorized users are rejected by the system - This is the False Rejection Rate (FRR) in a biometric authentication system. B) The rate at which unauthorized users are accepted by the system - This is the False Acceptance Rate (FAR) in a biometric authentication system. D) The maximum acceptable false acceptance rate for a biometric authentication system - This value varies depending on the sensitivity of the biometric system and the user requirements. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a security concern associated with microservices architecture that uses an API gateway to access the application services? A) The use of VPN connections to access the private subnets. B) The use of external IP addresses for private clouds. C) The possibility of attackers circumventing the client and sending their own customized requests to the API gateway. D) The use of next-generation firewalls to route traffic between different subnets.

Correct Answer: C) The possibility of attackers circumventing the client and sending their own customized requests to the API gateway. Explanation: Microservices architecture is a popular approach to building cloud-based applications that involves breaking down the application into smaller, independently deployable services that communicate with each other through APIs. An API gateway is used to manage access to these services. However, this architecture introduces security concerns, such as the possibility of attackers circumventing the client and sending their own customized requests directly to the API gateway. API monitoring can be used to examine these calls and ensure that they are coming from the client and not from an attacker. Incorrect Answers: A) The use of VPN connections to access the private subnets is a security measure used to connect to private clouds but is not directly related to microservices architecture. B) The use of external IP addresses for private clouds is a way to make the cloud accessible to everyone, not just the organization, but is not a security concern related to microservices architecture. D) The use of next-generation firewalls to route traffic between different subnets is a way to segment the network further but is not directly related to microservices architecture. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/securing-cloud-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of an authentication attribute? A) A password B) A smart card C) The way you walk D) A fingerprint

Correct Answer: C) The way you walk Explanation: An authentication attribute is a bit more fluid and may not necessarily directly be associated with an individual, but we can include these with other authentication factors to help prove someone's identity. An example of an authentication attribute is something you exhibit, such as the way you walk or the way you type. These attributes may seem very similar to biometrics, but biometrics can provide us with characteristics that are very specific to an individual, whereas something you can do is a much broader description of a characteristic. Therefore, the correct answer is C) The way you walk. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) A password is an example of an authentication factor, specifically something you know. B) A smart card is an example of an authentication factor, specifically something you have. D) A fingerprint is an example of an authentication factor, specifically something you are. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true regarding exploitation frameworks? A) They are used for imaging drives or partitions in Linux. B) They are used for creating backups of system memory. C) They allow security professionals to perform custom attacks and add new modules. D) They are used for brute force attacks on password files.

Correct Answer: C) They allow security professionals to perform custom attacks and add new modules. Explanation: Exploitation frameworks allow security professionals to perform custom attacks and add new modules to exploit vulnerabilities on systems. Frameworks like Metasploit and the Social-Engineer Toolkit provide a collection of known vulnerabilities and the ability to add new modules as more vulnerabilities are discovered. This allows security professionals to test the vulnerability of systems within their environment. Option A is incorrect because DD command is used for imaging drives or partitions in Linux, not exploitation frameworks. Option B is incorrect because memdump is used for capturing system memory, not exploitation frameworks. Option D is incorrect because password crackers are used for brute force attacks on password files, not exploitation frameworks. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensic-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a security concern with IoT devices? A) They have too many security features B) They require too much power to function C) They often run older versions of operating systems D) They are too expensive to purchase

Correct Answer: C) They often run older versions of operating systems Explanation: Many embedded systems like IoT devices have a very specific function and they may not have the capability to be updated or upgraded. As a result, they may continue to run on older versions of operating systems that could have known vulnerabilities. This makes them attractive targets for attackers who can easily gain access to these devices and launch attacks on them. Incorrect answers: A) They have too many security features - This is not a valid security concern. In fact, having more security features can make the devices more secure. B) They require too much power to function - The power requirements of IoT devices are usually very low, and they are designed to function with minimal power consumption. D) They are too expensive to purchase - The cost of the IoT devices is not a security concern. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/iot-and-embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of placing an application into quarantine? A) To allow it to run freely on the system B) To permanently delete the application from the system C) To prevent the application from running and allow for further analysis D) To hide the application from the user

Correct Answer: C) To prevent the application from running and allow for further analysis Explanation: If an endpoint security software recognizes an application that seems to have malicious software, then it can remove that from the system and place it into a quarantine area where no applications are allowed to run. Later, the IT security team can look into the quarantine folder and perform additional analysis of that software. The purpose of the quarantine is to prevent the application from running while allowing for further analysis. A) To allow it to run freely on the system - This is incorrect as the purpose of quarantine is to prevent the application from running. B) To permanently delete the application from the system - This is incorrect as the purpose of quarantine is to allow for further analysis. D) To hide the application from the user - This is incorrect as the purpose of quarantine is not to hide the application from the user, but rather prevent it from running. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-security-configuration/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat method should you use to completely remove data from a hard drive? A) Delete all files manually in the operating system B) Remove the hard drive and place it in a secure location C) Use a degausser to remove all data from the magnetic fields D) Use a shredder to physically destroy the hard drive

Correct Answer: C) Use a degausser to remove all data from the magnetic fields Explanation: Simply deleting files or removing a hard drive from a device does not completely remove data from the drive. Using a degausser, which is a strong magnetic field, will completely remove all data from the magnetic fields of the hard drive, making it impossible to recover any information. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Simply deleting files manually or formatting a hard drive does not completely remove data from the drive. It is possible to recover data that has been deleted in this way. B) Removing a hard drive and placing it in a secure location does not remove data from the drive. To completely remove data, you need to use a method such as a degausser or physical destruction. D) Physically destroying a hard drive can also be an effective method to remove data, but using a degausser is a less destructive and more environmentally-friendly method. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-data-destruction/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a good way to manage application installation on mobile devices in a corporate environment? A) Allow all applications to be installed B) Require users to install applications from 3rd party app stores C) Use an allow list to allow only known trusted applications to be installed D) Block all application installations

Correct Answer: C) Use an allow list to allow only known trusted applications to be installed Explanation: To manage the application installation process on mobile devices in a corporate environment, a good way is to use an allow list. The administrator of the Mobile Device Manager would have a list of known trusted applications, which would be added into the configuration of the MDM. The users would then have this list of available applications and can choose these known good apps to install. Anything that's outside of that list would not be installed onto the mobile device. This helps prevent users from installing an application that has malicious software inside of it. Incorrect Answers: A) Allow all applications to be installed: This is not a good way to manage application installation in a corporate environment as it poses a security risk of users installing malicious software on their devices. B) Require users to install applications from 3rd party app stores: This is not a good option as it increases the risk of users installing unauthorized applications from untrusted sources. D) Block all application installations: This is not a good option as it may hinder users from installing important applications required for their work functions. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes a way to incorporate cryptographic diversity today? A) Use different versions of the same encryption algorithm B) Use the same certificate authority for all certificates C) Use different certificate authorities for different certificates D) Use the same key for all encryption and decryption

Correct Answer: C) Use different certificate authorities for different certificates Explanation: Cryptographic diversity can be incorporated today by using different certificate authorities, so that if one is breached, there are other components that were from a completely different certificate authority. This helps to increase security and reduce risk of compromise. A) Using different versions of the same encryption algorithm does not offer cryptographic diversity, as it would still rely on a single algorithm. B) Using the same certificate authority for all certificates does not provide diversity and could increase the risk of compromise if the certificate authority is breached. D) Using the same key for all encryption and decryption is a security risk, as it means that if the key is compromised, all encrypted data can be decrypted. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a common security issue with IoT devices? A) Lack of connectivity to the internet B) Use of strong, complex passwords C) Use of weak default credentials D) Encryption of all data transmissions

Correct Answer: C) Use of weak default credentials Explanation: A common security issue with IoT devices is the use of weak default credentials, such as default usernames and passwords that are easy to guess or are left unchanged. This can make it easy for attackers to gain access to the devices and potentially compromise the entire network. Strong, complex passwords can help mitigate this risk. Encryption of data transmissions is also important for security, but it is not necessarily a common issue with IoT devices. Connectivity to the internet is necessary for IoT devices to function, but it is not a security issue in and of itself. Incorrect Answers: A) Lack of connectivity to the internet: This is not a security issue with IoT devices, as connectivity to the internet is necessary for them to function. B) Use of strong, complex passwords: While the use of strong, complex passwords can help improve security, it is not a common issue with IoT devices. The common issue is the use of weak default credentials. D) Encryption of all data transmissions: Encryption of data transmissions is important for security, but it is not necessarily a common issue with IoT devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a common method of connecting an IDS or IPS to a network in a passive mode? A) Using a physical firewall B) Connecting directly to the router C) Using a port mirror or network tap D) Connecting through a VPN

Correct Answer: C) Using a port mirror or network tap Explanation: A port mirror or network tap is a common method of connecting an IDS or IPS to a network in a passive mode. This allows the device to receive a copy of the traffic flow to examine for any known attacks, but it is not in-line with the actual traffic flow and cannot block traffic in real time. Instead, it displays an alert or message for the system administrator to take action. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not relate to connecting an IDS or IPS in a passive mode. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/intrusion-prevention/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is one of the easiest ways to capture raw data from the network for security professionals to use? A) Using a firewall to capture traffic on the network B) Utilizing the netstat command to capture traffic C) Utilizing the Wireshark utility to capture traffic D) Utilizing the NSLOOKUP utility to capture traffic

Correct Answer: C) Utilizing the Wireshark utility to capture traffic Explanation: Wireshark is a widely used utility for capturing network traffic. It can provide both graphical and text-based packet capture capabilities, decode every packet, and allow us to view all of the packets, timestamps, IP addresses, and protocols used. Once packets are captured, they can be saved in a file so that we can review them later to understand what was sent across the network during that time frame. Wireshark can be used on both Ethernet and 802.11 wireless networks. Tcpdump is a similar utility that can be used at the command-line level on Linux systems. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Firewalls are not designed to capture network traffic. Firewalls can monitor network traffic, but they are not a packet capture tool. B) The netstat command is used to display network statistics and information about active connections on a system. It does not have the ability to capture network traffic. D) NSLOOKUP is a utility used for querying DNS servers to resolve domain names to IP addresses. It does not have the ability to capture network traffic. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/packet-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements about encryption is true? A) Encryption is only necessary for data stored on hard drives. B) All encryption protocols are equally strong and effective. C) Weak encryption can be easily cracked by attackers. D) Encryption is not important for data transmitted over wireless networks.

Correct Answer: C) Weak encryption can be easily cracked by attackers. Explanation: Encryption is an important tool to protect our data. However, not all encryption protocols are created equal. Weak encryption can be easily cracked by attackers, rendering it ineffective. It is important to use strong encryption protocols, such as AES and triple DES, and to use encryption keys that are long enough to provide proper security. Additionally, it is important to ensure that the hashes being used do not have any known vulnerabilities, and to use the latest wireless encryption protocols if communicating over a wireless network. Incorrect answers: A) Encryption is necessary for both data stored on hard drives and data transmitted over networks. B) This statement is false. Different encryption protocols have different strengths and weaknesses. D) Encryption is important for all data transmission, regardless of the type of network used. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following statements is true about weak keys in cryptography? A) Weak keys are only a concern for asymmetric encryption methods. B) Larger keys make it easier to brute force an encrypted file. C) Weak keys can result in cryptographic vulnerabilities. D) Changing the encryption key can add additional overhead.

Correct Answer: C) Weak keys can result in cryptographic vulnerabilities. Explanation of Correct Answer: Weak keys are a concern in cryptography because they can lead to cryptographic vulnerabilities that make it easier for attackers to gain access to encrypted data. A good example of this can be seen in the wireless encryption used for WEP, where a weak initialization variable used in RC4 resulted in vulnerabilities that made it easy for someone to gain access to wireless data. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This statement is false because weak keys can be a concern for any encryption method, not just asymmetric encryption. B) This statement is false because larger keys actually make it more difficult to brute force an encrypted file. D) This statement is true, but it is not related to the topic of weak keys in cryptography. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-limitations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an unrecoverable removal of data? A) Degaussing B) Purging C) Wiping D) Incinerating

Correct Answer: C) Wiping Explanation: Wiping is an unrecoverable removal of data. This process deletes the file or section of the database and makes sure that the data can never be restored on that system. This method is used if we want to reuse the hard drive or storage media on another system but make sure that the person using it on that other system would not be able to recover the original data. A) Degaussing: Degaussing is a strong magnetic field that removes all the data that is stored on the magnetic fields of the hard drive. This method deletes the data from the platter and removes any of the important configuration information on the drive, which means that this hard drive would never be able to be used again. B) Purging: Purging removes a single file or a section of data from an existing data store. This method is used if you want to remove a portion of the data from the media. D) Incinerating: Incineration is a process used to burn digital information, making sure that no one would be able to recover that data. Usually, this process is done by third-party organizations that specialize in data destruction. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-data-destruction/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the recommended course of action for an organization after discovering an internal data breach? A) Ignore the breach and hope it goes away B) Notify the public immediately C) Work with a third party to gather additional information and locate any additional breaches, then inform the public D) Keep the breach private until a criminal investigation is completed

Correct Answer: C) Work with a third party to gather additional information and locate any additional breaches, then inform the public Explanation: After discovering an internal data breach, the recommended course of action is to work with a third party who specializes in these types of data breaches. It may be possible to gather additional information with their assistance, and they may be able to stop any additional breach. Once this initial phase is over, it's time to inform the public of the data breach. Therefore, option C is correct. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Ignoring the breach is not an option. It will only make things worse in the long run. B) Notifying the public immediately may not be the best course of action. Working with a third party to gather additional information and locate any additional breaches is recommended prior to informing the public. D) Keeping the breach private indefinitely is not recommended. Normally, these disclosures occur relatively quickly but there may be times when criminal investigations are underway and it may be more important to keep that information private until the investigation is over. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a benefit of version control? A) You can delete confidential information from a file and provide it to someone else B) You can modify files without keeping a record of the changes C) You can track changes made to a file over time D) You can perform changes to the infrastructure without a formal process

Correct Answer: C) You can track changes made to a file over time. Explanation: Version control allows you to track changes that have been made to a particular file over time. This is useful when you want to compare how things have changed over time and also when you want to see how and when certain files were modified. Version control helps you maintain the integrity and security of your application, and it ensures that you can go back and look at all of the different changes that have been made over time. Incorrect Answers: A) You can delete confidential information from a file and provide it to someone else - This is a security concern and not a benefit of version control. B) You can modify files without keeping a record of the changes - Version control actually helps you keep a record of the changes made to a file, so this is not a benefit of version control. D) You can perform changes to the infrastructure without a formal process - Change management involves a formal process to evaluate and implement changes to the infrastructure, and it is important for maintaining the uptime and availability of all of your applications. This is not a benefit of version control. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/version-control-and-change-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the IEEE standard for the Personal Area Network used for communicating with IoT devices over longer distances, using less power and allowing devices to create a mesh network? A) WiFi B) Bluetooth C) Zigbee D) 5G

Correct Answer: C) Zigbee Explanation: Zigbee is an IEEE standard, specifically standard, 802.15.4 Personal Area Network, used to communicate with all of the IoT devices over longer distances, using less power, and allowing devices to create a mesh network. This means that devices on one end of the home can hop through other IoT devices to communicate with your management stations, that might be on the other side of your home. Zigbee communicates over the ISM band in the United States and there are frequencies in the 900 megahertz and 2.4 GHz frequencies that are used by Zigbee. This means that you can have all of these IoT devices meshed together and use this wireless communication, without any special licensing required to be able to communicate, on these frequencies. Incorrect Answers: A) WiFi is not the correct answer because it is not the IEEE standard for the Personal Area Network used for communicating with IoT devices over longer distances, using less power and allowing devices to create a mesh network. It is a wireless networking standard that operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands. B) Bluetooth is not the correct answer because it is not the IEEE standard for the Personal Area Network used for communicating with IoT devices over longer distances, using less power and allowing devices to create a mesh network. It is a wireless technology standard for short-range communication. D) 5G is not the correct answer because it is not the IEEE standard for the Personal Area Network used for communicating with IoT devices over longer distances, using less power and allowing devices to create a mesh network. It is the fifth generation of cellular communication technology introduced in 2020 to provide high-speed communication over wireless networks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-communication/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat command can be used to view the contents of a file in Linux or Mac OS? A) dir B) ls C) cat D) echo

Correct Answer: C) cat Explanation: The cat command is used to view the contents of a file in Linux or Mac OS. It can also be used to concatenate or link multiple files together to create a larger file. The dir and ls commands are used to list the contents of a directory. The echo command is used to display a message or a variable value to the screen. Incorrect Answers: A) The dir command is used to view the contents of a directory in Microsoft Windows, but not in Linux or Mac OS. B) The ls command is used to view the contents of a directory in Linux or Mac OS, but not to view the contents of a file. D) The echo command is used to display a message or a variable value to the screen, but not to view the contents of a file. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat command would you use to view the first five lines of a file? A) tail -5 filename B) more -5 filename C) head -5 filename D) grep -5 filename

Correct Answer: C) head -5 filename Explanation: To view the first five lines of a file, you would use the head command with the -5 option followed by the name of the file you would like to view. The head command is used to view the beginning of a file, and the -5 option specifies that you would like to see the first five lines of the file. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) tail -5 filename: The tail command is used to view the end of a file, and the -5 option specifies that you would like to see the last five lines of the file. This is not the correct command for viewing the first five lines of a file. B) more -5 filename: The more command is used to view the contents of a file one page at a time, and the -5 option would not work. This is not the correct command for viewing the first five lines of a file. D) grep -5 filename: The grep command is used to search for specific text within a file, and the -5 option would not work. This is not the correct command for viewing the first five lines of a file. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a popular syslog daemon for Linux devices? A) SNMP B) NetFlow C) syslog-ng D) IPFIX

Correct Answer: C) syslog-ng Explanation: syslog-ng is a popular syslog daemon for Linux devices. It is used for transferring log files from one device to a centralized database. SNMP is a protocol for network management, NetFlow is a standardized method of gathering network statistics, and IPFIX is a newer version of NetFlow that allows customization of data collection. Incorrect Answers: A) SNMP - SNMP is a protocol for network management, not a syslog daemon for Linux devices. B) NetFlow - NetFlow is a standardized method of gathering network statistics, not a syslog daemon for Linux devices. D) IPFIX - IPFIX is a newer version of NetFlow that allows customization of data collection, not a syslog daemon for Linux devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one reason why it is important to understand the risk associated with third party vendors? A. It will help you determine which vendors are the cheapest B. It will help you understand the financial liability associated with each vendor C. It will help protect against the highest risk vendors by having security policies and procedures in place D. It will ensure that all vendors are meeting their contractual requirements

Correct Answer: C. It will help protect against the highest risk vendors by having security policies and procedures in place. Explanation of Correct Answer: Understanding the risks associated with third-party vendors is important because it allows you to categorize the risk for each individual vendor and put security policies and procedures in place to help protect against the highest risk vendors. This can help prevent major security breaches like the Target breach that occurred due to a third party not following security policies. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A. Knowing the risks associated with third-party vendors does not necessarily help determine which vendors are the cheapest. B. Knowing the risks associated with third-party vendors does not necessarily help understand the financial liability associated with each vendor. D. While understanding the risks associated with third-party vendors can help ensure vendors are meeting their contractual requirements, this is not the main reason why it is important to understand these risks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following can a Mobile Device Manager control in regards to audio recording? A) Enabling or disabling features based on location B) Enabling or disabling features based on the time of day C) Enabling or disabling specific types of audio files D) Enabling or disabling individual microphones

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A Mobile Device Manager can enable or disable individual microphones in regards to audio recording. This can be useful for high-security environments that do not want data to be leaked through audio recording. The MDM can also enable or disable features based on location, but this is not specific to audio recording. Enabling or disabling specific types of audio files and enabling or disabling features based on the time of day are not mentioned in the text and are therefore incorrect. Incorrect Answers: A) Enabling or disabling features based on location (This is mentioned in the text, but it is not specific to audio recording) B) Enabling or disabling features based on the time of day (This is not mentioned in the text and is therefore incorrect) C) Enabling or disabling specific types of audio files (This is not mentioned in the text and is therefore incorrect) Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a Deterrent security control? A) It may prevent access to a particular area. B) It identifies and records a security event. C) It mitigates any damage caused by a security event. D) It may not stop an intrusion from occurring, but may deter someone from performing an intrusion.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A deterrent security control may not stop an intrusion from occurring, but it is intended to deter someone from performing an intrusion. Warning signs, login banners, and lights around a building are examples of deterrent controls. Incorrect Answers: A) Preventive controls prevent access to a particular area. B) Detective controls identify and record a security event. C) Corrective controls mitigate any damage caused by a security event. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a legal hold? A) A request for electronically stored information (ESI) B) A chain of custody documenting evidence C) An interview with witnesses D) A court order for data preservation

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A legal hold is a court order that requires the preservation of electronically stored information (ESI) for later use in legal proceedings. This documentation needs to be protected and stored for later use. Incorrect Answer A Explanation: While a legal hold may request electronically stored information (ESI), the legal hold itself is the court order that requires the preservation of that data. Incorrect Answer B Explanation: A chain of custody is a record of individuals that have handled the evidence and helps show that the evidence has not been tampered with. Incorrect Answer C Explanation: Interviews with witnesses may be conducted during the collection process, but it is not the legal hold itself. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a user account? A) An account that is shared by more than one person. B) An account that has full access to the operating system. C) An account used only by background services in the operating system. D) An account that is associated with a specific individual.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A user account is tied to a specific individual who has been assigned this account. It usually has a name and a unique identification number associated with it. As a security best practice, user accounts are designed not to have full access to the operating system, limiting the damage that could be caused by malware or other malicious software. A shared account, as described in option A, is not recommended, as it poses significant security and administrative challenges. Option B describes privileged accounts, while option C describes service accounts. Incorrect Answers: A) An account that is shared by more than one person. This is an incorrect answer because shared accounts, although sometimes convenient, pose significant security risks and administrative challenges. It is a best practice for everyone to have their own personal account associated with them as an individual. B) An account that has full access to the operating system. This is an incorrect answer because user accounts are designed not to have full access to the operating system, as a security best practice. C) An account used only by background services in the operating system. This is an incorrect answer because it describes a service account, which is a type of account used by background services in the operating system. Although it has a username and password, it does not interactively log in and is usually not visible on the desktop. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/account-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a recommended way to mitigate the risk of attackers gaining access to your data in the cloud? A) Store your data on-premise in your private data center. B) Use weak encryption protocols to encrypt your data. C) Store your data in the cloud without any security applied to it. D) Put the proper security in place when storing data in the cloud.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: According to the text, attackers spend a lot of time on cloud repositories looking for sections of data that may have been left open. Therefore, it is recommended to put the proper security in place when storing data in the cloud to mitigate the risk of attackers gaining access to it. A) Storing data on-premise in your private data center is not a recommended way to mitigate the risk of attackers gaining access to your data in the cloud because it limits accessibility and availability. B) Using weak encryption protocols to encrypt your data is not recommended as it does not provide the proper amount of security to your data and may still be exploited by attackers. C) Storing your data in the cloud without any security applied to it increases the risk of attackers gaining access to your data, and it is not recommended. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following information can be found in an authentication log file? A. Inbound and outbound call information B. Details about what queries have been made against a DNS server C. Information about what interfaces may be going up and down on a switch D. Who was able to gain access to a system and who was denied access

Correct Answer: D Explanation: An authentication log file records information about who was able to gain access to a system and who was denied access. This type of log file contains the account name, source IP address, and the authentication method used. By analyzing this log file, we can identify brute force attacks, as well as failed authentication attempts. Inbound and outbound call information can be found in call logs. Details about DNS queries can be found in DNS logs. Information about interfaces going up and down on a switch can be found in switch logs. Incorrect Answers: A. Inbound and outbound call information can be found in call logs, not in authentication logs. B. Details about what queries have been made against a DNS server can be found in DNS logs, not in authentication logs. C. Information about what interfaces may be going up and down on a switch can be found in switch logs, not in authentication logs. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the main difference between an incremental backup and a differential backup? A) An incremental backup backs up all data modified since the last full backup, while a differential backup only backs up new files. B) An incremental backup backs up everything on the system, while a differential backup only backs up files that have changed since the last full backup. C) An incremental backup only requires the last full backup and the last differential backup, while a differential backup requires every incremental backup that has been made since the last full backup. D) An incremental backup backs up new files and all files that have been modified since the last incremental backup, while a differential backup backs up all data modified since the last full backup.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: An incremental backup backs up new files and all files that have been modified since the last incremental backup, while a differential backup backs up all data modified since the last full backup. Therefore, if a file has been modified after a full backup and two incremental backups, the incremental backup will only include changes made since the last incremental backup, while the differential backup will include all changes made since the full backup. Restoring from an incremental backup requires not only the last full backup but also every incremental backup that has been made since that full backup occurred. Restoring from a differential backup requires only the last full backup and the last differential backup that has been made. Incorrect Answers: A) This answer describes a differential backup, not an incremental backup. B) This answer is incorrect because it describes a full backup, not an incremental or differential backup. C) This answer describes the restoration process for an incremental backup, not the main difference between incremental and differential backups. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the first step in handling a security incident? A) Reconstitute the network perimeter B) Recover the affected systems C) Evaluate and document the incident D) Identify that a security incident has occurred

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Before any action can be taken to mitigate or recover from a security incident, it must first be identified that an incident has occurred. This requires ongoing monitoring and analysis of network traffic, security tools, and system logs to identify when a security event has taken place. Once a security incident has been identified, the incident response team can begin evaluating the scope of the incident, documenting the details, and developing a plan for recovery. Incorrect Answers: A) Reconstitute the network perimeter: This is a step that may be taken during the recovery or containment phase of incident response, but it is not the first step in handling a security incident. B) Recover the affected systems: This is an important step in incident response, but it cannot occur until the incident has been identified and evaluated. C) Evaluate and document the incident: This is a necessary step in incident response, but it cannot occur until the incident has been identified. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-process-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich mode of operation for block ciphers uses an incremental counter to add randomization to the encryption process? A) ECB B) CBC C) GCM D) CTR

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Counter mode, or CTR, uses an incremental counter to add randomization to the encryption process. With counter mode, we start with the incremental counter and then we encrypt that counter with the block cipher encryption. After that encryption has been done, we will perform the exclusive or to the plain text to finally create the ciphertext. Instead of using the results of this encryption on the next block, we'll instead simply increment the counter and then perform exactly the same encryption with the next block of plaintext to create the next set of ciphertext. Incorrect Answers: A) ECB - Electronic Codebook uses a single encryption key and performs exactly the same encryption for every block in the series. Each block is encrypted exactly the same way. So if the input is identical, then the output will be identical for every block. B) CBC - Cipher Block Chaining adds some randomization to the encryption process. Each block is XORed with the previous ciphertext block. That means that we perform a different set of input and output to that data to add some randomization. C) GCM - Galois Counter Mode, which combines counter mode with Galois authentication. This provides us with a way to not only encrypt data very quickly but make sure that we can authenticate where the data came from. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes data exfiltration? A) The act of stealing sensitive information and selling it to the highest bidder. B) The act of destroying sensitive information in a database. C) The act of encrypting sensitive information in a database so that it cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties. D) The act of stealing sensitive information from a network and transmitting it outside of the network.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Data exfiltration is the act of stealing sensitive information from a network or database and transmitting it outside of the network or database. Attackers may use a variety of techniques to exfiltrate data, such as email, file transfer protocols, or encrypted channels. Incorrect Answers: A) The act of stealing sensitive information and selling it to the highest bidder. This is a form of cybercrime, but it does not specifically describe data exfiltration. B) The act of destroying sensitive information in a database. This is a form of cyberattack, but it does not specifically describe data exfiltration. C) The act of encrypting sensitive information in a database so that it cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties. This is a form of data protection, but it does not specifically describe data exfiltration. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-impacts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of external risk? A) Disgruntled employees B) Legacy systems C) Intellectual property theft D) Third party data breach

Correct Answer: D Explanation: External risk refers to threats that come from outside of the organization such as third party data breaches. In this case, the breach of the American Medical Collection Agency affected multiple organizations. Disgruntled employees and legacy systems are examples of internal risk, while intellectual property theft can come from both internal and external sources. Incorrect Answers: A) Disgruntled employees are an example of internal risk rather than external risk. B) Legacy systems are an example of internal risk rather than external risk. C) Intellectual property theft can come from both internal and external sources, so it does not fit the definition of external risk. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat tool is commonly used in Windows for imaging drives, and can also read DD, Ghost, and Expert Witness image formats? A) Autopsy tool B) Memdump C) WinHex D) FTK Imager

Correct Answer: D Explanation: FTK Imager is a widely-used imaging tool in Windows that can mount drives, image drives, or perform file utilities in a Windows executable. It is also able to read DD, Ghost, and Expert Witness image formats, and it can save these files into other common formats. Autopsy tool provides digital forensics of information that is stored on a storage device or in an image file. Memdump is used to capture information that may be in memory. WinHex is a third-party editor that allows you to view and edit information in hexadecimal mode, and it also has disk cloning capabilities and can perform secure wipes. Incorrect Answer 1: Autopsy tool Explanation: Autopsy tool is a tool that provides digital forensics of information that is stored on a storage device or in an image file, but it is not used for imaging drives. It allows users to view and recover data from these devices as well. Incorrect Answer 2: Memdump Explanation: Memdump is used to capture information that may be in memory, and it is not used for imaging drives. It sends all of the information and system memory to a particular location on the system. Incorrect Answer 3: WinHex Explanation: WinHex is a third-party editor that allows you to view and edit information in hexadecimal mode, and it also has disk cloning capabilities and can perform secure wipes, but it does not provide imaging tool capabilities like FTK Imager. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensic-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an implication of IPv6 on network security? A) It makes port scanning easier due to the large number of IPv6 addresses. B) QoS prioritization is no longer necessary. C) Security tools such as port scanners have not yet been updated to work with IPv6. D) ARP spoofing is eliminated due to the removal of ARP in IPv6.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: IPv6 has incorporated a number of security improvements including removing protocols like Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) that were found in IPv4 which were prone to spoofing attacks. This has in turn removed some of the security risks associated with those protocols. Option A is incorrect because the large number of IPv6 addresses makes port scanning more difficult. The answer in option B is not true, as QoS remains useful in prioritizing different applications. Option C is incorrect as many security tools have already been updated to work with IPv6. Incorrect Answers: A) It makes port scanning easier due to the large number of IPv6 addresses. (False, IPv6 addresses make port scanning more difficult) B) QoS prioritization is no longer necessary. (False, QoS prioritization is still very important) C) Security tools such as port scanners have not yet been updated to work with IPv6. (False, many security tools have already been updated to work with IPv6) Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-networking-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an important consideration when documenting a chain of custody during a digital forensics investigation? A. Including only information that is pertinent to the investigation B. Ensuring that all data is backed up and stored in multiple locations C. Documenting every individual who may have come into contact with the data D. Including the time zone information associated with the device being examined

Correct Answer: D Explanation: It is important to document the time zone information associated with the device being examined when documenting a chain of custody during a digital forensics investigation. This is because time offsets can vary between the operating system in use, the file system in place, and the location of the device. Without clear documentation of the time zone, the accuracy of timestamps may be difficult to determine. A is incorrect because all information related to the chain of custody should be included, not just what is pertinent to the investigation. B is incorrect because although it is important to back up and store data, it is not related to the documentation of a chain of custody. C is incorrect because although it is important to document who comes into contact with the data, not every individual who comes into contact with the data needs to be included in the chain of custody documentation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a security concern associated with cellular networks? A. Use of RFID chips B. Ability to jam frequencies C. Lack of security controls over USB D. Ability to monitor traffic being sent between mobile devices and cellular towers

Correct Answer: D Explanation: One of the security concerns associated with cellular networks is the ability to monitor traffic being sent between mobile devices and cellular towers. This could potentially allow someone to intercept sensitive information. RFID chips, USB connections, and frequency jamming are all separate issues not directly related to cellular networks. Incorrect Answers: A. The use of RFID chips is a separate topic not directly related to cellular networks. B. The ability to jam frequencies is a security concern with NFC technology, not cellular networks. C. Lack of security controls over USB is a security concern associated with USB connections, not cellular networks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich certificate format is commonly used to send certificates and chain certificates over email? A) DER B) PKCS number 12 C) CSR D) PKCS number 7

Correct Answer: D Explanation: PKCS number 7 format is commonly used to send certificates and chain certificates over email, and it is sent as .P7B file. Like the PEM format, the PKCS number seven format is also an ASCII file that can be read and easily transferred over email. It is not generally used for private keys. DER is a binary format, commonly found when working with X.509 certificates, and is especially useful for encoding many kinds of data. PKCS number 12 is a standard, container format, usually sent as .P12 or .PFX file, that allows for transfer of private and public key pairs within the same container. CSR or certificate format is primarily used in Windows and offers the flexibility of including binary DER format or the ASCII PEM format. Incorrect Answers: A) DER is a binary format, commonly found when working with X.509 certificates, and is especially useful for encoding many kinds of data. It is not commonly used to send certificates over email. B) PKCS number 12 is a standard, container format, usually sent as .P12 or .PFX file, that allows for transfer of private and public key pairs within the same container. It is not commonly used to send certificates and chain certificates over email. C) CSR or certificate format is primarily used in Windows and offers the flexibility of including binary DER format or the ASCII PEM format. It is not commonly used to send certificates and chain certificates over email. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-formats/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the difference between private and confidential information? A) Private information is publicly available, while confidential information is restricted to certain individuals. B) Private information is less sensitive than confidential information. C) Confidential information is more important than private information. D) Private information is labeled as such, while confidential information is only available to those with correct permissions.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Private information is labeled as such, and it may be restricted to certain individuals, but confidential information is even more sensitive and is only available to those with the correct permissions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the relationship between private and confidential information. Incorrect Answers: A) Private information is publicly available, while confidential information is restricted to certain individuals. This answer choice is incorrect because confidential information is much more restricted than private information. B) Private information is less sensitive than confidential information. This answer choice is incorrect because private and confidential information are both sensitive, but confidential information is even more sensitive. C) Confidential information is more important than private information. This answer choice is incorrect because both private and confidential information can be important, but confidential information is usually more critical. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of public data? A) Your personal health records B) Trade secrets of a company C) Financial details of an organization D) Open data collected by the government

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Public data, also known as unclassified data, is accessible to anyone. Open data collected by the government is an example of public data. This includes information that is not protected by law and can be accessed freely by the public. Personal health records, trade secrets, and financial details of an organization are considered sensitive information and require additional security measures. Incorrect Answers: A) Personal health records are sensitive information and are protected by law. They fall under the category of Protected Health Information (PHI) and require strict privacy protections. B) Trade secrets of a company are considered proprietary data that is unique to an organization and needs to be protected from competitors or third parties. They require strict confidentiality protections. C) Financial details of an organization are considered sensitive information and require privacy protections. They are often subject to additional laws and regulations on how the data can be used or shared. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is remote wipe in Mobile Device Management? A) A method used to disable geolocation functionality on mobile devices B) A feature used to manage mobile device applications and updates C) A process used to separate personal and company information on mobile devices D) A function used to delete all data on a mobile device remotely

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Remote wipe is a function used to delete all data on a mobile device remotely, even when physical access to the device is not possible. This feature can help protect sensitive company information if the device is lost or stolen. It is usually managed from the Mobile Device Manager and allows administrators to erase all data on a device, as long as it is connected to a cellular or wireless network. It is important to have a backup of data in case remote wipe is used. Incorrect Answers: A) Disabling geolocation functionality on mobile devices is not the same as remote wipe. B) Managing mobile device applications and updates is another function of Mobile Device Management, but it is not the same as remote wipe. C) Separating personal and company information is a feature of containerization, but it is not the same as remote wipe. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a security concern associated with rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device? A) It can improve the performance and battery life of the mobile device. B) It allows side loading of apps outside of the official app store. C) It only affects the carrier network that the mobile device is currently connected to. D) It gives centralized management tools like Mobile Device Managers less control over the system.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device can potentially circumvent the security features of a Mobile Device Manager (MDM) and give the user more control over the operating system. This means that the MDM administrator may have less control over the device, making it more difficult to enforce security policies. The other answer choices are incorrect because improving performance and battery life, side loading of apps, and affecting specific carrier networks are benefits or limitations of rooting/jailbreaking and are not security concerns. Incorrect Answers: A) It can improve the performance and battery life of the mobile device. (Incorrect because this is not a security concern) B) It allows side loading of apps outside of the official app store. (Incorrect because this is not a security concern) C) It only affects the carrier network that the mobile device is currently connected to. (Incorrect because this is not a security concern) Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP)? A) An unencrypted version of the real-time transport protocol (RTP) B) A protocol designed to secure the Network Time Protocol (NTP) C) An encryption mechanism for email communication using POP 3 D) An encrypted version of real-time transport protocol (RTP) with additional security features

Correct Answer: D Explanation: SRTP or Secure Real-time Transport Protocol is an encrypted version of the real-time transport protocol (RTP) that provides confidentiality, authentication, integrity, and replay protection. It uses AES encryption and H MAC SHA 1 hashing protocol to add security to voice and video communication over IP. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) An unencrypted version of the real-time transport protocol (RTP): This is incorrect since SRTP is the encrypted version of the real-time transport protocol. B) A protocol designed to secure the Network Time Protocol (NTP): This is incorrect since the Secure Network Time Protocol (NTPsec protocol) was designed to secure the Network Time Protocol (NTP). C) An encryption mechanism for email communication using POP 3: This is incorrect since SRTP is used for secure real-time voice and video communication over IP, not email communication using POP 3. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following metrics describes how much money we will lose if a single event occurs? A. Annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) B. Residual risk C. Inherent risk D. Single loss expectancy (SLE)

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Single loss expectancy (SLE) is a metric that describes how much money or resources will be lost if a single event occurs. To determine the annualized loss expectancy (ALE), we take the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) and multiply it by the SLE. The ARO describes the likelihood of the event happening. Residual risk is the risk that remains after security controls have been put in place, and inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of security controls. Incorrect Answers: A: Annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) is a metric that describes the likelihood of a particular event happening. B: Residual risk is the risk that remains after security controls have been put in place. C: Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of security controls. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich certificate format is an ASCII file that can be easily transferred over email? A) DER format B) PKCS number 12 C) CSR format D) PKCS number 7

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The PKCS number 7 format is also known as the Public Key Cryptography Standards Number Seven format, and it is an ASCII file that can be easily transferred over email. This format is commonly used for sending certificates and chain certificates but does not commonly use private keys. The other formats mentioned - DER, PKCS number 12, and CSR formats - are binary formats that may need to be converted or encoded to be transferred through email. Incorrect Answers: A) DER format is a binary format, not an ASCII file format. B) PKCS number 12 is a container format for multiple certificates, but it is not an ASCII file format. C) CSR format is primarily used in Windows and provides flexibility for including binary DER format or ASCII PEM format, but it is not an ASCII file format. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-formats/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich command would you use for encrypted communication when remotely connecting to a device and using the terminal screen? A) Telnet command B) Python command C) OpenSSL command D) SSH command

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The SSH or Secure Shell Command is used for encrypted communication when remotely connecting to a device and using the terminal screen. This ensures that the communication is secure and that sensitive information such as usernames and passwords are not sent in clear text over the network. Incorrect Answers: A) The telnet command is not recommended as it sends information in clear text over the network and can be easily intercepted by attackers. B) Python is a scripting language that works across many different operating systems and can be used for automation and orchestration of cloud-based systems. C) OpenSSL is a library and a series of utilities that allows us to manage SSL or TLS certificates on our systems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/shell-and-script-environments/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which technology supports VPN software running inside of a browser using API capabilities in modern browsers? A. SSL VPN B. IPSec VPN C. L2TP VPN D. HTML5

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The correct answer is D, HTML5. One of the nice features of HTML5 is that it supports application programming interfaces and includes a web cryptography API as part of the browser. This means you don't have to install any software. There's no installation of a client, you simply start your browser, connect to the remote network and you're able to send SSL VPN communication without installing any additional code. Many of the latest browsers support VPN software running inside of them using HTML5. Incorrect Answers: A. SSL VPN - While SSL VPNs are commonly used for end-user use and they commonly use TCP port 443, it does not support VPN software running inside of a browser using API capabilities in modern browsers. B. IPSec VPN - IPSec VPNs provide authentication and encryption over a layer 3 network, but they do not support VPN software running inside of a browser using API capabilities in modern browsers. C. L2TP VPN - L2TP VPNs are used for connecting two networks together as if they are on the same layer 2 network, but they do not support VPN software running inside of a browser using API capabilities in modern browsers. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat command allows you to search for specific text within a file or multiple files on a Linux or Mac OS system? A) cat B) tail C) head D) grep

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The grep command allows you to search for specific text within a file or multiple files on a Linux or Mac OS system. It can be used to search for specific patterns, words, or lines of text. The cat command is used to display the contents of a file. The tail and head commands are used to display the last and first few lines of a file, respectively. Incorrect Answer A Explanation: The cat command is used to display the contents of a file. Incorrect Answer B Explanation: The tail command is used to display the last few lines of a file. Incorrect Answer C Explanation: The head command is used to display the first few lines of a file. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the key to handling a security incident properly and effectively? A. Isolating and containing the incident B. Having backup hardware and software tools C. Creating and storing important data as evidence D. Preparation

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The key to handling a security incident properly is to ensure that you're well prepared. This includes having the right people and processes in place, communication methods, hardware and software tools, documentation of the organizations network and understanding where data may be located. Policies and procedures need to be in place so that everyone knows exactly what to do when a security incident occurs. Incorrect Answers: A. Isolating and containing the incident is part of the incident response process, but is not the key to handling a security incident properly. B. Having backup hardware and software tools is important, but is not the key to handling a security incident properly. C. Creating and storing important data as evidence is important, but is not the key to handling a security incident properly. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-process-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich command allows you to map an entire path between two devices and uses ICMP Time to Live Exceeded error messages from routers on the network? A) nslookup B) dig C) ping D) traceroute

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The traceroute command allows you to map an entire path between two devices to know exactly what routers may be between point A and point B. It uses ICMP Time to Live Exceeded error messages from routers on the network to build that route. Options A, B, and C do not allow you to map the entire path using error messages from routers. Incorrect Answers: A) nslookup: nslookup and dig are used to query a DNS server for names and IP addresses, not to map the entire path between two devices. B) dig: dig and nslookup are used to query a DNS server for names and IP addresses, not to map the entire path between two devices. C) ping: Ping is used to troubleshoot and test communication to a single device, not to map the entire path between two devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-1/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes Two-person integrity/control? A) A security control that creates a physical barrier from the outside to all internal systems. B) A security control that is used to provide a physical separation between devices or between networks. C) A security control that restricts access to backups and other resources by implementing a secured room. D) A security control that requires two individuals to always be present when accessing sensitive information.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Two-person integrity/control is a security control that requires two individuals to always be present when accessing sensitive information. This control is often implemented in situations where the consequences of unauthorized access could be catastrophic. For example, it might be used when handling nuclear weapon components, or when accessing a computer system that controls the power grid of a large city. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This answer choice is describing the implementation of physical security controls to prevent physical access to internal systems, which is not the same as Two-person integrity/control. B) This answer choice is describing an Air-gap security control that is used to provide a physical separation between devices or between networks, which is not the same as Two-person integrity/control. C) This answer choice is describing a Secured Room security control that restricts access to backups and other resources, which is not the same as Two-person integrity/control. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) and what is a major flaw associated with WPS PIN authentication? A) WPS is a method of authentication that uses a centralized authentication server, such as RADIUS or LDAP. B) WPS is a method of authentication that allows different authentication methods, such as personal identification numbers or pushing a button on the access point. C) WPS is a method of authentication that requires everyone to use the same pre-shared key to connect to the wireless network. D) WPS is a method of authentication that uses a personal identification number for authentication, and it has a significant flaw due to the limited number of possible combinations.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: WPS is a method of authentication that allows for different authentication methods such as personal identification numbers, pushing a button on the access point or near-field communication, this method of authentication was intended to make the connection process easier for both users and administrators. However, the major flaw in WPS is the personal identification number used for authentication. The PIN is an eight-digit number, including a checksum, which validates each half of the pin individually. This means that instead of going through 10 million possible combinations, an attacker would only need to go through 11,000 possible combinations to try every single one of them. The best practice for WPS is to simply disable it on your wireless access point. Incorrect Answers: A) This answer describes WPA3-Enterprize, not WPS. B) This answer is mostly correct with the exception of the significant flaw associated with WPS PIN authentication. C) This answer describes WPA3-Personal, not WPS. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-authentication-methods/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of a machine/computer certificate? A) Domain validation certificate B) Code signing certificate C) Email certificate D) User certificate

Correct Answer: D Explanation:A machine/computer certificate is a certificate that is installed on a device and is used for authentication purposes. User certificates are often integrated into identification cards and used as an additional form of authentication. Domain validation certificates are used to encrypt communication to a web server, code signing certificates are used to sign software to validate that it has not been altered, and email certificates are used to encrypt and sign emails. Incorrect Answers: A) Domain validation certificates are used to encrypt communication to a web server, but they are not machine/computer certificates. B) Code signing certificates are used to sign software to validate that it has not been altered, but they are not machine/computer certificates. C) Email certificates are used to encrypt and sign emails, but they are not machine/computer certificates. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a tabletop exercise in incident response planning? A) A full-scale test of a security incident performed once per year. B) A drill that involves all the different parts of an organization, and tests all of its processes and procedures. C) A simulation where organizational stakeholders are involved in the resolution process of a security event. D) A type of exercise that does not involve physically performing tasks, but rather talking through the process.

Correct Answer: D Explanation:A tabletop exercise is a type of exercise that involves talking through the steps that would be taken to respond to a security incident, rather than physically performing tasks. This type of drill can help organizations identify potential issues with their processes and procedures and resolve them before an actual incident occurs. Incorrect Answers: A) A full-scale test of a security incident performed once per year is not known as tabletop exercise. B) Although a drill involves all the different parts of an organization and evaluates its processes and procedures, it is not known as tabletop exercise. C) Involving organizational stakeholders in the resolution process of a security event is called stakeholder involvement in incident response planning. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberQuestion: What is a concern regarding notification laws associated with data breaches in cloud-based applications? A) The breach may have a narrow impact on who gets notified B) The notification requirements are the same regardless of the geography C) The type of data that is breached does not affect the notification requirements D) The notification requirements may be different depending on the geography

Correct Answer: D Explanation:According to the text, notification laws associated with data breaches may vary depending on where the data is stored. In the case of a cloud-based application, data from multiple countries may be stored in a single database, which could result in a broad impact on who gets notified. The type of data that is breached and who needs to be notified may also vary depending on the geography. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. A) This answer is incorrect as the text states that a data breach in a cloud-based application may have a broad impact on who gets notified, not a narrow impact. B) This answer is incorrect as the text suggests that the notification requirements may vary depending on the geography. C) This answer is incorrect as the text suggests that the type of data that is breached may affect the notification requirements. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/on-premises-vs-cloud-forensics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following statements best describes Risk control self-assessment? A. A process that identifies significant risks associated with the project at every single step. B. A process that involves creating a risk matrix to visually determine the risk assessment. C. A process that describes the amount of risk an organization may be willing to take. D. A process that provides a qualitative risk assessment to get a better understanding of where an organization sits with particular risks.

Correct Answer: D Explanation:Risk control self-assessment provides a qualitative risk assessment to get a better understanding of where an organization sits with particular risks by using colors to determine how risky something might be. A qualitative risk assessment allows an organization to see where the highest risk might be in its environment without having specific values that can associate with these risk factors. Thus, Option D is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because it describes a risk register that identifies significant risks associated with the project at every single step. Option B is incorrect because it describes a risk matrix that visually determines the risk assessment. Option C is incorrect because it describes risk appetite which is a process that describes the amount of risk an organization may be willing to take. Reference:https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is SEAndroid? A. A microSD HSM used to store encryption and decryption keys for mobile devices B. A unified endpoint management solution used to manage the security posture of different devices C. A mobile application manager used to manage applications running on mobile devices D. A security enhancement for Android that includes access controls and security policies

Correct Answer: D Explanation:SEAndroid, or Security Enhancements for Android, is a security enhancement for Android that includes access controls and security policies. It provides additional security features and access controls for the Android operating system, including changes to the way data is accessed, mandatory access control, and centralized policy configurations. Incorrect Answers: A. A microSD HSM used to store encryption and decryption keys for mobile devices: While a microSD HSM can be used to store encryption and decryption keys for mobile devices, this answer is not correct for the question about SEAndroid. B. A unified endpoint management solution used to manage the security posture of different devices: While a unified endpoint management solution can be used to manage the security posture of different devices, this answer is not correct for the question about SEAndroid. C. A mobile application manager used to manage applications running on mobile devices: While a mobile application manager can be used to manage applications running on mobile devices, this answer is not correct for the question about SEAndroid. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-security-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a consideration when deploying firewalls in a cloud environment? A) Physical appliances are required for effective firewall deployment in the cloud environment. B) Granular control over data transfer is not possible in a cloud-based environment. C) Firewall deployment in a cloud environment lacks flexibility, meaning firewalls cannot be tailored to individual virtual machines. D) Hosting cost is lower when using virtual firewalls in a cloud environment.

Correct Answer: D Explanation:Virtual firewalls are a more cost-effective solution for the cloud environment because they do not require physical components. This allows for fine-grained control over exactly what data is allowed through the network by spinning up multiple firewalls for each individual virtual machine, or microservice. Physical appliances are not required for efficient firewall deployment in a cloud environment, and granular control over data transfer is possible in a cloud-based environment. Incorrect Answers: A) Physical appliances are not required for firewall deployment in the cloud environment. B) Granular control over data transfer is possible in a cloud-based environment. C) Firewalls can be tailored to individual virtual machines in the cloud environment. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-solutions/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a physical control type in the context of security controls? A) A control that manages people, such as security guards or awareness programs B) A control that focuses on the design of security policies and procedures C) A control that uses technology to prevent security events from occurring D) A control that prevents a security event by using physical barriers or access controls

Correct Answer: D) A control that prevents a security event by using physical barriers or access controls. Explanation: Physical controls are a type of security control that focus on preventing security events from occurring through the use of physical barriers or access controls. Examples of physical controls include fences, door locks, security cameras, biometric scanners, and security guards. These controls are designed to prevent unauthorized access to physical locations and assets, and can be an effective way to deter and prevent physical security breaches. Incorrect Answers: A) A control that manages people, such as security guards or awareness programs: This describes operational controls, not physical controls. B) A control that focuses on the design of security policies and procedures: This describes managerial controls, not physical controls. C) A control that uses technology to prevent security events from occurring: This describes technical controls, not physical controls. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a semi-authorized hacker? A) A nation state threat actor B) An organized crime threat actor C) A script kiddie threat actor D) A hacker who is more of a researcher

Correct Answer: D) A hacker who is more of a researcher Explanation: Semi-authorized hackers are individuals who may be looking for vulnerabilities in a network but do not necessarily act on those vulnerabilities. They are more of a researcher and trying to find access to someone's network without necessarily taking advantage of that access. This type of hacker may not have permission to perform these hacking functions, but they are not necessarily trying to cause harm. Hence option D is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because a nation state threat actor is usually a government entity responsible for national security, and they have many resources available, including smart technologists and security experts. They usually use advanced persistent threats (APTs) to gain access to their targets. Option B is incorrect because organized crime threat actors are professional criminals who are motivated by financial gain. They purchase the services of the best hackers to achieve their objectives. Option C is incorrect because a script kiddie is a threat actor who may not necessarily have knowledge or experience to know exactly what to do to gain access to someone's network, and they rely on simple scripts to gain access. They are usually motivated by the process itself and looking to brag that they gained access to someone's network or they were able to exfiltrate some data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is sFlow? A) A standard method for transferring log files from one device to a centralized database. B) A protocol analyzer used to troubleshoot complex application problems. C) A newer version of NetFlow that allows for customized data collection. D) A method of gathering network statistics from a portion of the network traffic.

Correct Answer: D) A method of gathering network statistics from a portion of the network traffic. Explanation of Correct Answer: sFlow or sampled flow is a method of gathering network statistics from a portion of the network traffic. It allows us to balance the available resources with the need to view more statistics on the network. It is embedded in a number of infrastructure devices such as switches and routers and although it only looks at a portion of the traffic going through, it can infer some relatively accurate statistics. It is especially useful for high-speed networks where collecting metrics based on all conversations can take a lot of resources. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Option A talks about Syslog, which is a standard method for transferring log files from one device to a centralized database. However, it is not related to sFlow, which is used for network statistics gathering. B) Option B talks about a protocol analyzer, which is used to troubleshoot complex application problems. Although this is a method of network analysis, it is not related to sFlow, which is specifically used for gathering network statistics. C) Option C talks about IPFIX, which is a newer version of NetFlow that allows for customized data collection. Although this is a data flow standard like NetFlow and sFlow, it is not the same as sFlow, which is specifically used for gathering network statistics from a portion of the network traffic. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of the authentication factor of something you have? A) A password that only you know B) Your unique way of typing on a keyboard C) The location of your mobile phone based on GPS coordinates D) A smart card that you keep with you

Correct Answer: D) A smart card that you keep with you Explanation: The authentication factor of something you have is a device or system that is near where you happen to be, such as a smart card. Smart cards are kept with you and are used in conjunction with a personal identification number. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Option A refers to the authentication factor of something you know, which is a characteristic that is in your brain and only you happen to know, such as a password. Option B refers to the authentication attribute of something you exhibit, which is a personal way that you do things, such as the way you type on a keyboard. Option C refers to the authentication attribute of somewhere you are, which would provide an authentication factor based on where you might happen to be geographically, such as the location of your mobile phone based on GPS coordinates. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of a threat feed that can help identify potential attacks? A) Logs from network devices B) Information from social media platforms C) Intrusion detection system metrics D) Advisories and bulletins related to software vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: D) Advisories and bulletins related to software vulnerabilities Explanation: A threat feed is a stream of information about potential attacks that can help organizations identify potential risks and respond to them quickly. Threat feeds can come from a variety of sources, including government agencies, security vendors, and industry groups. Advisories and bulletins related to software vulnerabilities are an example of a threat feed that can help organizations identify potential vulnerabilities in their software and take steps to mitigate them. Logs from network devices, information from social media platforms, and intrusion detection system metrics are all sources of data that can help identify potential attacks, but they are not examples of threat feeds specifically. Incorrect Answers: A) Logs from network devices: Logs from network devices are an important source of data that can help identify potential attacks, but they are not an example of a threat feed specifically. B) Information from social media platforms: Social media platforms can be a source of information about potential attacks, but they are not an example of a threat feed specifically. C) Intrusion detection system metrics: Intrusion detection system metrics are a source of data that can help identify potential attacks, but they are not an example of a threat feed specifically. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-hunting/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an important aspect of data recovery when working with digital evidence? A) Creating a hash of the data B) Using a simple integrity check with a checksum C) Providing a chain of custody for the data D) All of the above

Correct Answer: D) All of the above Explanation: When working with digital evidence, it is important to ensure that the data is preserved and nothing has changed with it while being stored. To achieve this, various techniques are used such as creating a hash of the data, using a simple integrity check with a checksum, and providing a chain of custody for the data. Data recovery can also be a complex process and involves extensive training and knowledge to know exactly the best way to do it. Another important part of this process is knowing exactly who sent the data originally to achieve non-repudiation. Strategic intelligence can also be used to gather threat information about a domain while strategic counterintelligence can be used to disrupt the process of someone trying to gather information on us. Incorrect answers: A) Creating a hash of the data is an important aspect of data recovery but it is not the only one. B) Using a simple integrity check with a checksum is useful in certain situations but it does not replace a hash. C) Providing a chain of custody for the data is important but it is not the only technique used in preserving data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following can be used to restrict access temporarily to a particular area? A) Fire exits B) Personal identification numbers C) Chemical warning signs D) Barricades or bollards

Correct Answer: D) Barricades or bollards can be used to restrict access temporarily to a particular area. Barricades are used to prevent people from accessing a particular area while bollards usually prevent someone in a car or truck from entering an area. They can be used to surround an area temporarily, for example, during construction. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Fire exits are not used to restrict access to a particular area, but rather to provide a safe exit path in case of a fire. B) Personal identification numbers are typically used as a means of authentication to gain access through a locked door or facility. C) Chemical warning signs inform people of the potential dangers of an area and are not used to restrict access. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? A) Public financial data B) Trade secrets C) Government-collected open data D) Biometric information

Correct Answer: D) Biometric information is an example of personally identifiable information (PII) because it can be tied back to an individual. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Public financial data is not an example of PII because it does not identify an individual specifically. B) Trade secrets are not an example of PII because they are not specifically tied to an individual. C) Government-collected open data is not an example of PII because it is publicly available and does not identify an individual specifically. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich wireless network technology is commonly used to connect mobile devices and their accessories all to each other? A) RFID B) Wi-Fi C) Cellular D) Bluetooth

Correct Answer: D) Bluetooth Explanation: Bluetooth networks, commonly referred to as a Personal Area Network (PAN), are commonly used to connect mobile devices and their accessories like headsets, headphones, health monitors, and mobile speakers. Bluetooth is also used in cars to connect mobile phones into the console. Bluetooth functionality is available in laptops, tablets, and smartphones. NFC (near field communication) builds on RFID and is a two-way wireless communication used with devices that are very close to each other. Hence options A, B, and C are all incorrect. Incorrect Answers: A) RFID: RFID is used to track anything that needs to be tracked, primarily because RFID is so small. RFID works using radar technology, and we can get information or an ID number from the chip that we can then associate with where it happens to be. B) Wi-Fi: Wi-Fi networks are very local, and concerns we have with security are all based on a local access point and devices in our immediate area. It's more common to have 802.11 networks that are communicating from point-to-multipoint. C) Cellular: Cellular networks, used for mobile devices or cell phones, separate the network into individual cells, and each antenna is going to have a different set of frequencies that are used for each cell of the network. There are security concerns associated with cellular networks especially, the ability to monitor the traffic that's being sent between the mobile device and the cellular tower exists. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a physical control that can be used to restrict access to a particular location? A) Encryption B) Biometrics C) Firewall D) Bollards

Correct Answer: D) Bollards Explanation: Bollards can be used as a physical control to restrict access to a particular location. They are concrete poles designed to prevent large items like cars or trucks from entering a particular location. Biometrics, on the other hand, is a method of identifying individuals based on their unique physical or behavioral characteristics such as fingerprints, handprints, retina, voiceprints. Encryption and firewalls are technical controls used to secure data. Incorrect Answers: A) Encryption: Encryption is a technical control that secures data by converting it into a code. B) Biometrics: Biometrics is not a physical control but a means of identifying individuals based on their unique characteristics. C) Firewall: Firewall is a technical control that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a method of providing authentication for temporary wireless networks such as those in a coffee shop or hotel? A) Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) B) 802.1X C) Personal Identification Number (PIN) D) Captive portal

Correct Answer: D) Captive portal Explanation: Captive portals are a method of providing authentication using a separate login screen from your browser. The access point that you're authenticating to will check to see if you have previously authenticated. And if you haven't it will redirect you to this portal page when you open your browser. This login page often asks for a username and password, and once authenticated, the user can access the wireless network. Captive portals often have a timeout function associated with them so that the user is either logging out to disconnect from the wireless network or automatically times out after a certain number of hours have elapsed. Incorrect Answer A) Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS): While WPS is a method of authentication, it is not specifically tied to temporary wireless networks such as those in a coffee shop or hotel. WPS is a format that allows different methods to be used for authentication, but unfortunately, it includes significant flaws associated with personal identification numbers and is best practice to disable it on your wireless access point. Incorrect Answer B) 802.1X: 802.1X provides centralized authentication often used in corporate environments where we want to make sure that everyone has a unique authentication method for logging in and that access can be disabled when someone leaves the company. Incorrect Answer C) Personal Identification Number (PIN): While a PIN is used during WPS authentication, it is not tied to captive portals used in temporary wireless networks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-authentication-methods/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a way to maintain uptime and availability in case of a major outage caused by natural disasters? A) Using RAID arrays to store data redundantly B) Creating multiple links in the network to provide redundancy C) Mirroring one physical drive to another D) Creating redundancy in a completely different geographic area

Correct Answer: D) Creating redundancy in a completely different geographic area Explanation: Creating redundancy in a completely different geographic area is a way to maintain uptime and availability in case of a major outage caused by natural disasters. This is especially useful if the area you're in suffers some type of major outage caused by hurricanes, tornadoes, flooding, or any other type of major disturbance. By having a separate data center in a different location, you can keep uptime and availability with the services in that separate geographical location. RAID arrays, creating multiple links in the network, and mirroring one physical drive to another are all methods of maintaining redundancy and availability, but they do not specifically address natural disasters and geographic dispersal. Incorrect Answers: A) Using RAID arrays to store data redundantly is a method of maintaining redundancy and availability, but it does not specifically address natural disasters and geographic dispersal. B) Creating multiple links in the network to provide redundancy is a method of maintaining redundancy and availability, but it does not specifically address natural disasters and geographic dispersal. C) Mirroring one physical drive to another is a method of maintaining redundancy and availability, but it does not specifically address natural disasters and geographic dispersal. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/disk-redundancy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat tool is specifically designed to run programs in a virtualized environment and identify any malware present? A) hping B) Nessus C) Scanless D) Cuckoo

Correct Answer: D) Cuckoo Explanation: Cuckoo is a sandbox tool that is specifically designed to run programs inside a virtualized environment and identify any malware present. It can perform API calls, identify network traffic, and perform memory analysis. This tool is useful for evaluating different executables and confirming that they are safe before deploying them in an environment. Hping is a tool that sends packets to a target host and analyzes the response. Nessus is a vulnerability scanner used to identify known vulnerabilities in a system. Scanless is a tool used to perform port scans through a proxy. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is true about drones? A) Drones are typically not licensed by the federal government in the United States. B) Security features and fail-safe functionality are not typically built into drones. C) Drones are only used for commercial purposes. D) Drones are becoming more and more common in our skies.

Correct Answer: D) Drones are becoming more and more common in our skies. Explanation: According to the passage, drones are becoming increasingly common in our skies, and they can be used for both commercial and non-commercial purposes. Additionally, in the United States, a federal license is required to fly a drone, and security features and fail-safe functionality are often built into these devices to prevent harm to people on the ground. Choice A is incorrect because a federal license is required to fly a drone in the United States. Choice B is incorrect because drones often have security features and fail-safe functionality built in. Choice C is incorrect because drones can be used for both commercial and non-commercial purposes. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of an authentication method that uses a number that you use only once during the authentication process, and then never use it again? A) SMS message authentication B) Push notification authentication C) TOTP authentication D) HOTP authentication

Correct Answer: D) HOTP authentication Explanation: HOTP or HMAC-based One-Time Password algorithm is an authentication method that provides a number that can be used only once during the authentication process, and then never use it again. Usually, the user is provided with a sheet of numbers that they can use during the login process. Once they've used a number, they can cross it off their list, and they will never use that number again. This authentication type is very similar to TOTP, but instead of having a number that changes every 30 seconds, you have a number that can be used only once. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) SMS message authentication - SMS messages can be intercepted by a third party, giving them access to a code that normally only the user would have available. This authentication method is generally considered less secure than other methods. B) Push notification authentication - There are security concerns associated with push notifications, as the application receiving the push notification might have vulnerabilities that would allow a third party to view that information. However, with the right app, this is a relatively safe process and probably more secure than something like SMS. C) TOTP authentication - TOTP stands for Time-based-One-Time Password algorithm, and this method provides a pseudo-random number that will be available as a login credential for a certain amount of time, usually about 30 seconds, and after that 30-second period is over, a new number is generated. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-methods/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a tool used for scanning a network to locate IP addresses and identify open ports on IP addresses? A) Curl B) Nessus C) Harvester D) Hping

Correct Answer: D) Hping Explanation: Hping is a scanning tool that is used to perform IP scanning to locate IP addresses and identify what port numbers might be open on an IP address using a number of different techniques. Other tools such as ARP, ICMP and TCP acknowledgments can also be used to identify and scan devices on the network. Curl is a tool used to perform various tasks such as accessing web pages, performing FTP, and retrieving emails. Nessus is a vulnerability scanner that identifies known vulnerabilities and Harvester is a tool used to gather open source intelligence from public websites. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a benefit of using smaller symmetric key encryption with elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) on mobile devices? A) It allows for larger key sizes and more powerful encryption B) It increases the battery life associated with these devices C) It provides high resiliency for the data on these devices D) It allows for faster and more efficient encryption

Correct Answer: D) It allows for faster and more efficient encryption Explanation: Since mobile devices have limited storage and CPU power, using smaller symmetric key encryption with ECC allows for faster and more efficient encryption on these devices. This is important to ensure the performance of these devices is not compromised. While larger key sizes would provide more powerful encryption, slower performance would result. Additionally, battery life is not impacted by the choice of encryption. High resiliency was not mentioned as a benefit or use case of encryption on mobile devices. Incorrect Answers: A) It allows for larger key sizes and more powerful encryption -- While larger key sizes would provide more powerful encryption, this would be at the expense of slower performance, which is not ideal for mobile devices. B) It increases the battery life associated with these devices -- The type of encryption used on mobile devices does not impact battery life. C) It provides high resiliency for the data on these devices -- No mention of high resiliency was made in the text as a benefit or use case of encryption on mobile devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-use-cases-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich protocol can be used to access a central directory on a network? A) SSH B) DNS C) SNMPv3 D) LDAP

Correct Answer: D) LDAP Explanation: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a protocol that allows for centralized directory access on a network. Many enterprise networks have a central directory where information is stored, and this can be accessed using LDAP. Microsoft Active Directory, Apple's open directory, and openLDAP all use LDAP protocol. LDAPS is a non-standard version of LDAP that provides security by using SSL to communicate with the server. SSH is commonly used to provide a terminal screen that encrypts communication between a client and server. SNMPv3 is the secure version of Simple Network Management Protocol, which added encryption, integrity, and authentication capabilities to ensure secure communication with network devices. DNS (Domain Name System) has security vulnerabilities in its original specification but can be secured using DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions). Although DHCP is used to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on a network, it does not include any security functionality within the original specification, but additional controls can be added outside of the DHCP protocol to enhance its security. Incorrect Answers: A) SSH is a protocol that provides a secure encrypted terminal screen between a client and server but is not used to access a central directory on a network. B) DNS is a legacy protocol that can be secured using DNSSEC but is not used to access a central directory on a network. C) SNMPv3 is a protocol used to communicate with network devices through Simple Network Management Protocol, adding encryption, integrity, and authentication capabilities to ensure secure communication, but it is not used to access a central directory on a network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the key to handling a security incident properly? A) Knowing the exact time and location of the incident B) Having all of the necessary technical staff on hand C) Making sure you have a clean operating system and application images D) Making sure you are well prepared

Correct Answer: D) Making sure you are well prepared Explanation: The key to handling a security incident properly is to make sure you're well prepared. This would include communication methods, which will document exactly who should be contacted and how they should be contacted, this would also include your hardware and software tools, so you know exactly how to respond to these problems, store and capture data that's important and be able to have information that you might want to use later on as evidence. Options A, B, and C are either too specific or only one aspect of the preparation process. Incorrect Answer A) Knowing the exact time and location of the incident: While it's important to know the time and location of the incident, this information alone is not enough to properly handle a security incident. Incorrect Answer B) Having all of the necessary technical staff on hand: While having technical staff is important, it's not the only factor in handling a security incident properly. Incorrect Answer C) Making sure you have a clean operating system and application images: While having a clean operating system and application images is important for the mitigation process, it's not the key to handling a security incident properly. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-process-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a standardized method of gathering network statistics from switches, routers, and other devices on a network? A) SNMP B) Syslog C) rsyslog D) NetFlow

Correct Answer: D) NetFlow Explanation: NetFlow is a standardized method of gathering network statistics from switches, routers, and other devices on a network. This NetFlow information is usually consolidated onto a central NetFlow server, and we're able to view information across all of these devices on a single management console. NetFlow itself is a very well-established standard, so that makes it very easy to collect information from devices that are made from many different manufacturers, but bring all of that information back to one central NetFlow server. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) SNMP is a Simple Network Management Protocol that is used for monitoring and managing network devices, but it is not specifically for gathering network statistics. B) Syslog is a standard method for transferring log files from one device to a centralized database, but it is not for gathering network statistics. C) rsyslog is a rocket-fast system for log processing and a popular syslog daemon for Linux devices, but it is not for gathering network statistics. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What type of control is an awareness program that lets people know that phishing is a significant concern? A) Preventive Control B) Detective Control C) Corrective Control D) Operational Control

Correct Answer: D) Operational Control Explanation: Operational controls are controls that are managed by people. Examples of operational controls include security guards, awareness programs, and security training. In this case, the awareness program is an example of an operational control because it is managed by people and aims to prevent security events by informing people about the risks of phishing. Incorrect Answers: A) Preventive Control - Preventive controls are designed to prevent access to a particular area or prevent security events from occurring. Examples of preventive controls include locks on a door, firewalls, or security guards posted at the front doors. While the awareness program may prevent security events, it does not fit the definition of a preventive control. B) Detective Control - Detective controls are designed to identify and record security events that have occurred. Examples of detective controls include motion detectors, intrusion detection systems (IDS), or log analysis. The awareness program is not a detective control because it is not designed to identify or record security events. C) Corrective Control - Corrective controls are designed to mitigate the damage caused by a security event. Examples of corrective controls include restoring data from a known good backup or moving everything over to a backup site. The awareness program is not a corrective control because it is not designed to mitigate the damage caused by a security event. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of a physical security device that may use a duress button? A) Barricades B) Bollards C) Motion detection alarms D) Panic buttons on an alarm system

Correct Answer: D) Panic buttons on an alarm system Explanation: A duress or panic button on an alarm system is a feature that can be activated if someone feels threatened or needs to call for additional reinforcements. This feature is often used in high-security environments where quick response times are necessary. Barricades and bollards are physical security devices used to restrict access to a particular area, while motion detection alarms are used to detect motion or infrared light. Incorrect Answers: A) Barricades: Barricades are physical security devices used to restrict access to a particular area and are not related to duress buttons on an alarm system. B) Bollards: Bollards are physical security devices used to prevent cars or trucks from entering a particular location and are not related to duress buttons on an alarm system. C) Motion detection alarms: Motion detection alarms are used to detect motion or infrared light and are not related to duress buttons on an alarm system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a common email-based attack vector utilized by threat actors? A) Attaching keyloggers to keyboards B) Rogue access points C) Supply chain attacks D) Phishing links and malicious attachments

Correct Answer: D) Phishing links and malicious attachments Explanation: Phishing links and malicious attachments are common email-based attack vectors. Attackers send phishing links through email to gather personal information directly from the end user or attach malware or other malicious software to the email, having people launch that software from their email client. This method is effective for threat actors because so many people have email accounts. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Attaching keyloggers to keyboards is a direct access attack vector, not an email-based attack vector. Keyloggers are attached to keyboards to record keystrokes and gain information about usernames and passwords. B) Rogue access points are related to wireless networks and are not an email-based attack vector. They involve unauthorized wireless access points being plugged into a network, potentially allowing unauthorized access. C) Supply chain attacks exploit vulnerabilities within the supply chain of an organization, such as third-party vendors or manufacturers. These attacks are not specific to email-based vectors. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-vectors/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following wireless network types provides a one-to-one connection between two devices communicating on that network? A) 802.11 network B) Cellular network C) RFID network D) Point-to-point network

Correct Answer: D) Point-to-point network Explanation: Point-to-point networks provide a one-to-one connection between two devices communicating on that network. This type of network is commonly used when connecting two buildings together with a wireless network, and a directional antenna is used to connect from one building to the other. This type of network is also used with Wi-Fi repeaters that are communicating directly between each other with a point-to-point network connection. The other wireless network types listed in the answer choices are not point-to-point networks. Incorrect Answers: A) 802.11 network: 802.11 networks are more commonly point-to-multipoint, meaning there is not necessarily full connectivity between all devices on the network. B) Cellular network: Cellular networks use cell towers to separate the network into individual cells and have larger scope compared to point-to-point networks. C) RFID network: RFID networks use radar technology to transmit information between devices, but they do not provide a one-to-one connection between two devices communicating on that network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a security consideration for surveillance systems? A) Motion sensitive functionality B) Ability to track different objects C) High mounting of cameras D) Proper security on monitoring systems

Correct Answer: D) Proper security on monitoring systems Explanation: Surveillance systems are designed to monitor sensitive areas and it is crucial to ensure that only authorized users can access the camera feeds. Therefore, proper security measures must be implemented on the monitoring systems to prevent unauthorized access. Motion sensitive functionality and the ability to track different objects are advanced functionalities of cameras and high mounting of cameras is a physical aspect that needs to be considered during installation. Incorrect Answers: A) Motion sensitive functionality - This is an advanced functionality of cameras and is not a security consideration. B) Ability to track different objects - This is an advanced functionality of cameras and is not a security consideration. C) High mounting of cameras - This is a physical aspect that needs to be considered during installation and is not a security consideration. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich type of VPN is commonly used for end-user remote access and communicates over TCP port 443? A) IPsec VPN B) L2TP VPN C) PPTP VPN D) SSL/TLS VPN

Correct Answer: D) SSL/TLS VPN Explanation: An SSL/TLS VPN is commonly used for end-user remote access and communicates over TCP port 443, which is a commonly used port that works on almost any network. SSL/TLS VPNs are designed for end user use and commonly run as a very small client on an operating system or inside of the browser itself. Authentication is usually provided through a username and password, and perhaps some two-factor authentication. In SSL/TLS VPNs, remote access is provided to a single device without the need for very complex authentication or installation of a VPN client. Incorrect Answers: A) IPsec VPN: An IPsec VPN provides authentication and encryption over a layer 3 network, and is commonly used for site-to-site communication using an encrypted tunnel. However, this is not the correct answer because it does not communicate over TCP port 443 and is not commonly used for end-user remote access. B) L2TP VPN: An L2TP VPN is commonly used in conjunction with IPsec for tunneling two networks together as if they were on the same layer 2 network. However, this is not the correct answer because it does not communicate over TCP port 443 and is not commonly used for end-user remote access. C) PPTP VPN: A PPTP VPN uses Point-to-Point Protocol to create a virtual private network. However, this is not the correct answer because it does not communicate over TCP port 443 and is not commonly used for end-user remote access. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a characteristic of active/passive load balancing? A) All servers are actively providing services simultaneously B) The load balancer distributes incoming load evenly across available servers C) The load balancer tracks session IDs to ensure that users are always assigned to the same server D) Some servers are actively serving traffic while others are on standby

Correct Answer: D) Some servers are actively serving traffic while others are on standby Explanation: Active/passive load balancing involves some servers that are active simultaneously while others are on standby mode in case an active server fails. This ensures that there is always a server available to serve traffic and provides redundancy in case of server failure. The load balancer monitors the active servers and switches to the standby server if an active server fails. Option A describes active/active load balancing, while option B and C describe different methods of load balancing but are not specific to active/passive load balancing. Incorrect answers: A) All servers are actively providing services simultaneously - This describes active/active load balancing. B) The load balancer distributes incoming load evenly across available servers - This describes a type of load balancing but is not specific to active/passive load balancing. C) The load balancer tracks session IDs to ensure that users are always assigned to the same server - This describes server affinity, a feature of load balancing, but is not specific to active/passive load balancing. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/load-balancing-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which standard is used to send log files from diverse devices to a central repository in a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) device? A) SCAP B) TCP/IP C) SNMP D) Syslog

Correct Answer: D) Syslog Explanation: The standard used to send log files from diverse devices to a central repository in a SIEM device is called Syslog. A SIEM device is used to collect information from anything on the network that can create log files, security alerts, or any type of real-time information that can tell us about what's happening on the network right now. There is usually a syslog compatible collector that is part of the SIEM itself, which is waiting for messages to be sent from all of those different diverse devices on the network in the standard syslog format. Incorrect Answers: A) SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol) is not related to sending log files from diverse devices to a central repository in a SIEM device. It is an open standard maintained by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) that provides a standardized way to enable automated vulnerability management, measurement, and policy compliance evaluation (among other things). B) TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) is not related to sending log files from diverse devices to a central repository in a SIEM device. It is the primary protocol used for communication on the internet and most networks. C) SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is not related to sending log files from diverse devices to a central repository in a SIEM device. It is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-information-and-event-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a specialized embedded system used in automobiles and aircrafts? A) VoIP telephone B) HVAC system C) Fire system D) System on Chip (SoC)

Correct Answer: D) System on Chip (SoC) Explanation: A System on Chip (SoC) is a specialized embedded system that can communicate with other sensors in an automobile or aircraft. SoC is a single microchip that integrates many components of a computer or other electronic system. An HVAC system is another type of embedded system that provides heating, ventilation, and air conditioning services, and it may have a monitoring computer. A Voice over IP telephone is also an embedded system, but it is not specialized for use in an automobile or aircraft. A fire system is another type of embedded system that is often integrated with an HVAC system, but it is not specialized for use in an automobile or aircraft. Incorrect Answers: A) A VoIP telephone is not a specialized embedded system for use in an automobile or aircraft. B) HVAC systems may have a monitoring computer, but it is not the specialized embedded system used in automobiles and aircrafts. C) Fire systems may be integrated with an HVAC system, but they are not the specialized embedded system used in automobiles and aircrafts. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a legal agreement that a user must agree to prior to using a service? A) Data Impact Assessment (DIA) B) Security Breach Notification Laws C) Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) D) Terms of Service (TOS)

Correct Answer: D) Terms of Service (TOS) Explanation: Terms of Service (TOS), also known as terms of use or terms and conditions, is a legal agreement that a user must agree to before using a service. The TOS outlines the rules and regulations for using the service and also includes information on how the organization will manage user data. A Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) is a process used to identify and mitigate the privacy risks of a new project or system. Data Impact Assessment (DIA) is not a commonly used term in the security industry. Security Breach Notification Laws are regulations that require organizations to disclose any data breaches that occur. Incorrect Answers: A) Data Impact Assessment (DIA) - DIA is not a commonly used term in the security industry. B) Security Breach Notification Laws - Security Breach Notification Laws are regulations that require organizations to disclose any data breaches that occur, but they are not legal agreements that a user must agree to. C) Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) - Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) is a process used to identify and mitigate the privacy risks of a new project or system, but it is not a legal agreement that a user must agree to. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privacy-and-data-breaches/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the Corporate-owned Deployment model? A) Employees use their personal devices for work purposes B) Employees use a device personally and professionally, but the device is owned by the company C) Employees choose the device they will use for work purposes and the company purchases it D) The company owns the device and it is strictly for professional use

Correct Answer: D) The company owns the device and it is strictly for professional use Explanation: In a Corporate-owned Deployment model, the device is owned by the company and is strictly for professional use. This deployment type is commonly used when the organization wants to keep personal data separate from corporate data. Employees who need a personal smartphone will have to purchase one themselves. Choice A refers to Bring Your Own Device (BYOD), Choice B refers to Corporate Owned Personally Enabled (COPE), and Choice C refers to Choose Your Own Device (CYOD). Incorrect Answers: A) Employees use their personal devices for work purposes - This is the definition of BYOD B) Employees use a device personally and professionally, but the device is owned by the company - This is the definition of COPE C) Employees choose the device they will use for work purposes and the company purchases it - This is the definition of CYOD Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-deployment-models/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is an important factor to consider when managing a large number of IoT devices connected over a cellular network? A) The size of the battery in the IoT devices. B) The color of the SIM card in the IoT devices. C) The type of fiber optic cable used in the IoT devices. D) The management of SIM cards.

Correct Answer: D) The management of SIM cards. Explanation: When managing a large number of IoT devices that are connected over a cellular network, it is important to manage all of the SIM cards that are connected to those IoT devices. SIM cards provide the connection between the IoT device and the cellular network, and often contain important information about the IoT device such as authentication details, contact information, and other important information. Therefore, managing SIM cards is a crucial factor to consider when managing IoT devices connected to a cellular network. A) The size of the battery in the IoT devices: This is not an important factor to consider when managing IoT devices connected over a cellular network. Battery size is important for devices that rely on battery power but not relevant in managing SIM cards. B) The color of the SIM card in the IoT devices: The color of the SIM card is not relevant in managing IoT devices connected over a cellular network. C) The type of fiber optic cable used in the IoT devices: This is not relevant in managing IoT devices connected over a cellular network. The type of cable used would be relevant in a wired network but not relevant when managing IoT devices connected over a cellular network. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following considerations is important when deciding on the type of encryption to use on an IoT device? A) The color of the device B) The size of the device C) The type of encryption used in the past D) The resources available on the device

Correct Answer: D) The resources available on the device Explanation: When deciding on the type of encryption to use on an IoT device, it is important to consider the resources that are available on the device, such as limited CPU capacity, limited memory, and power consumption. This is because if an IoT device is monitoring something in real-time, there may not be enough processing power available to perform encryption or decryption while maintaining proper functionality. Limited resources can also mean that a device may not be equipped to handle certain types of encryption that require substantial computing power, thus rendering them unusable. Therefore, it is critical to select an appropriate encryption method based on the available resources of the device. Incorrect Answers: A) The color of the device: The color of the device has no relevance to the type of encryption used. B) The size of the device: The size of the device is not a significant factor when deciding on the type of encryption used. C) The type of encryption used in the past: While it is important to take into account previous encryption methods, it is not the most crucial factor when deciding on encryption for an IoT device. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-limitations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about data processors in an organization? A) They are responsible for setting the labels associated with data and determining who has access to the data. B) They define how much people get paid and when they get paid. C) They are responsible for the accuracy of the data, keeping data private, and the security associated with the data. D) They work on behalf of data controllers and process data on their behalf.

Correct Answer: D) They work on behalf of data controllers and process data on their behalf. Explanation: Data processors work on behalf of data controllers and process data on their behalf. They are responsible for carrying out the purposes and means by which the data is processed. In the example given in the text, the payroll department is considered to be the data controller, and the third-party payroll company is the data processor. The data processors ensure that the checks are mailed, the electronic transfers occur, and the employee information is stored and reported on. Incorrect Answers: A) They are responsible for setting the labels associated with data and determining who has access to the data. - This statement describes the responsibilities of data custodians or data stewards. B) They define how much people get paid and when they get paid. - This statement describes the responsibilities of data controllers. C) They are responsible for the accuracy of the data, keeping data private, and the security associated with the data. - This statement describes the responsibilities of data custodians or data stewards. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-roles-and-responsibilities/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of a temperature sensor in a data center? A) To monitor the presence of moisture that could cause further water damage B) To detect motion or heat in an area C) To assess the damage that may have occurred already at a facility D) To detect spikes in temperature that may indicate a problem with the cooling system

Correct Answer: D) To detect spikes in temperature that may indicate a problem with the cooling system Explanation: A temperature sensor is commonly used in data centers to detect changes in temperature, especially spikes that could indicate a problem with the cooling system. Moisture sensors detect water, and drones and motion sensors are used for monitoring areas and detecting motion, respectively. Assessing damage that has already occurred is not related to temperature sensors. Incorrect Answers: A) Moisture sensors detect water, not temperature changes. B) Motion sensors and drones have different functions than temperature sensors do. C) Assessing damage that has already occurred is not related to temperature sensors. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of an extended validation certificate (EV certificate)? A) To encrypt communication to a web server B) To distribute software securely C) To create machine or computer certificates D) To enable additional features that show the name of the certificate owner in the browser bar and mark it in green

Correct Answer: D) To enable additional features that show the name of the certificate owner in the browser bar and mark it in green Explanation: An extended validation certificate (EV certificate) is a digital certificate that enables additional features like showing the name of the certificate owner in the browser bar and marking it in green to provide more assurance to the website visitors. These certificates also involve additional checks by the certificate authority and usually, cost extra. EV certificates are not necessary to promote the fact that a website is running SSL on the server because the use of SSL has become normal if not expected on a website. Incorrect Answers: A) Domain validation certificates or DV certificates are used to encrypt communication to a web server and are indicated by a lock in the address bar of the browser. B) Code signing certificates are used to distribute software securely and validate that the program being installed is exactly the same as the one distributed by the manufacturer. C) Machine or computer certificates are used to tell if a device is trusted by an organization and are deployed to all the devices that need to be trusted by an organization. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of using a Web Application Firewall (WAF) in cloud-based systems? A) To create virtual switches and routers B) To determine what parts of the cloud-based service are private or public C) To monitor API calls and view specific API queries D) To examine all inbound and outbound communication for malicious data

Correct Answer: D) To examine all inbound and outbound communication for malicious data. Explanation: The purpose of a Web Application Firewall (WAF) in cloud-based systems is to examine all inbound and outbound communication for malicious data going into or out of the application instance. This is done to ensure that only legitimate traffic is allowed to pass through the WAF. By identifying and blocking malicious traffic, the WAF helps to prevent attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other common web application attacks. API monitoring, which is mentioned in the text, is a separate security control that is used to manage API calls and view specific API queries. Virtual switches and routers are used to build a virtual infrastructure within a cloud-based system, but they are not directly related to the purpose of a WAF. The purpose of segmentation in a cloud-based system is to create public and private subnets to control which parts of the cloud-based service are accessible to the public and which parts are private. Incorrect Answers: A) To create virtual switches and routers - This is not the purpose of a WAF. B) To determine what parts of the cloud-based service are private or public - This is the purpose of segmentation, not a WAF. C) To monitor API calls and view specific API queries - This is a separate security control, not the purpose of a WAF. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/securing-cloud-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of having guards at a facility? A) To automate security processes B) To make the facility look important C) To check employee ID badges D) To have human interaction and validate access

Correct Answer: D) To have human interaction and validate access Explanation: Guards are placed in front of a facility to provide human interaction with individuals who are entering the building. They validate employee access and authenticate guest access. They also look at employee ID badges and access lists to confirm whether someone should have access to a particular part of the facility. Two-person integrity is common in environments controlled by guards. Although automating security processes is possible, having guards increase validation and security within the facility. Incorrect Answer A) To automate security processes - This answer is incorrect because guards provide human interaction with individuals entering the building, which is a manual process. Automated security processes do occur, but they do not replace the effectiveness of human interaction. Incorrect Answer B) To make the facility look important - This answer is incorrect because although guards make the facility look important, this is not the main purpose of having guards present. Incorrect Answer C) To check employee ID badges - This answer is incorrect because whereas guards do check employee ID badges, this is not the only duty they perform. Guards provide human interaction and validation of access among other duties. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following describes the purpose of dividing a data center into cold aisles and hot aisles? A) To keep the entire room at an optimal temperature B) To blow hot air into the cold aisle C) To push cool air into the hot aisle D) To optimize cooling of equipment

Correct Answer: D) To optimize cooling of equipment Explanation: The purpose of dividing a data center into cold aisles and hot aisles is to optimize the cooling of the equipment. The equipment is designed to blow air in a single direction, so cool air is provided to the equipment on the cold side, or cold aisle. That air is then heated up in the equipment and sent into the hot aisle. In the hot aisle, ventilation equipment captures the hot air and sends it back into the cooling system, so it can be recycled back through the cold aisle to optimize cooling of the equipment. Incorrect Answers: A) To keep the entire room at an optimal temperature - This is not the main purpose of dividing a data center into cold aisles and hot aisles. The purpose is to optimize the cooling of the equipment, not to keep the entire room at an optimal temperature. B) To blow hot air into the cold aisle - This is not the purpose of dividing a data center into cold aisles and hot aisles. The hot air is captured in the hot aisle and sent back into the cooling system to be recycled, not blown into the cold aisle. C) To push cool air into the hot aisle - This is not the purpose of dividing a data center into cold aisles and hot aisles. Cool air is provided to the equipment on the cold side, or cold aisle. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a unique aspect of a hash? A) It allows us to authenticate users. B) It provides non-repudiation. C) It creates a fixed size string from any size and type of input. D) Two different inputs will never create the same hashing value.

Correct Answer: D) Two different inputs will never create the same hashing value. Explanation of Correct Answer: A unique aspect of a hash is that there is always a unique hash for a particular kind of input. Two different inputs will never create the same hashing value. If you do find that two different inputs are creating the same hash in the output, then you've found a collision, and this is something you would not want to have with a hashing algorithm. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Hashing can be used to authenticate users in combination with encryption to create digital signatures, but this is not a unique aspect of hashing. B) Hashing can provide non-repudiation in combination with encryption to create digital signatures, but this is not a unique aspect of hashing. C) Hashing creates a fixed size string from any size and type of input, but this is not a unique aspect of hashing since all hashing functions do this. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/hashing-and-digital-signatures-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a common security vulnerability associated with devices on a network? A) Using strong encryption protocols B) Keeping legacy systems up to date C) Closing all ports on the server D) Using default usernames and passwords

Correct Answer: D) Using default usernames and passwords Explanation: Attackers often target devices on a network that are using default usernames and passwords. Many people fail to change the default login credentials for devices such as routers, cameras, and IoT devices, making them easy targets for attackers. Mirai botnet is one example that exploits such vulnerabilities. It is important to change default passwords to strong, unique ones to prevent unauthorized access. Using strong encryption protocols is important for securing data in transit, but it is not directly related to this question. Keeping legacy systems up to date is a good practice, but it may not always be possible due to compatibility issues, and it is not a specific vulnerability type. Closing all ports on the server is not a practical solution, as servers need certain ports open to provide services. Incorrect Answers: A) Using strong encryption protocols is not a security vulnerability but a security best practice. B) Keeping legacy systems up to date is not a specific security vulnerability type but a general security best practice. C) Closing all ports on the server is not a practical solution as servers need certain ports open to provide services. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a unique approach to limiting an attack surface by creating software that's different on everybody's workstation? A) Using software libraries to extend functionality of the programming language B) Using obfuscation to hide the application code C) Using version control to keep track of changes in code D) Using software diversity to create different binaries for the same application

Correct Answer: D) Using software diversity to create different binaries for the same application Explanation: The technique described in the text is known as software diversity. It means creating different binaries of the same application, which will have slight differences from one machine to another. This approach can minimize the attack surface, as any type of vulnerability and ultimately any exploit would be limited to only a certain type of binary file. The other options listed are different techniques used in secure coding, such as using software libraries to extend functionality of the programming language, using obfuscation to hide the application code, and using version control to keep track of changes in code. Incorrect Answers: A) Using software libraries to extend functionality of the programming language: This technique is used to extend the functionality of the programming language, and is not related to software diversity. B) Using obfuscation to hide the application code: This technique is used to hide the application code from human readers, and is not related to software diversity. C) Using version control to keep track of changes in code: This technique is used to keep track of changes in code, and is not related to software diversity. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/software-diversity/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a cost consideration for deploying a firewall in a cloud environment? A) Physical location of the firewall B) Need for high-speed internet connectivity C) Type of data being transferred D) Virtual firewall deployment

Correct Answer: D) Virtual firewall deployment Explanation: In a cloud-based environment, virtual firewalls or host-based firewalls can be deployed at a more economical cost since there is no need for physical appliances. This also allows for more granular control over what data is allowed through the network. Incorrect Answer A) Physical location of the firewall: In a cloud environment, physical location is not a cost consideration since physical appliances are not necessary. Incorrect Answer B) Need for high-speed internet connectivity: While high-speed internet connectivity is important for cloud-based applications, it is not directly related to the cost of deploying a firewall in a cloud environment. Incorrect Answer C) Type of data being transferred: While the type of data being transferred can impact the security policies put in place and potentially impact the need for a firewall, it is not directly related to the cost of deploying a firewall in a cloud environment. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-solutions/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the latest technology that replaces analog phone lines? A) 2G B) 3G C) 4G D) Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)

Correct Answer: D) Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) Explanation: Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is the latest technology to replace analog phone lines. It is a complex embedded system that allows for voice communication and provides many different functions as well. VoIP phones are standalone computers with separate boot processes and configurations. They have many different capabilities that allow us to communicate via voice, video, and other functions. VoIP is more efficient and cost-effective than traditional phone lines. Incorrect Answers: A) 2G: 2G is a second-generation wireless telephone technology that uses digital radio signals for voice communication. It is not the latest technology to replace analog phone lines. B) 3G: 3G is a third-generation wireless telephone technology that provides higher data transfer rates than 2G. It is not the latest technology to replace analog phone lines. C) 4G: 4G is a fourth-generation wireless telephone technology that provides even higher data transfer rates than 3G. It is not the latest technology to replace analog phone lines. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-communication/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a biometric authentication factor that makes use of our voice for authentication? A) Gait analysis B) Retina scanner C) Facial recognition D) Voice recognition

Correct Answer: D) Voice recognition Explanation: Voice recognition is a biometric authentication factor that makes use of the unique characteristics of our voice to authenticate users. By analyzing the unique aspects of our voice, such as tone, pitch, and pronunciation, voice recognition systems can verify our identity with a high degree of accuracy. While gait analysis, retina scanners, and facial recognition are also biometric authentication factors, they do not make use of our voice. Incorrect Answers: A) Gait analysis: Gait analysis is a biometric authentication factor that examines the unique characteristics of how we walk to verify our identity. This is a rarely used factor but is relatively accurate. B) Retina scanner: Retina scanners use the capillaries in the back of our eye to verify our identity. This is a relatively unique feature of our eye and does not often change, making it a good biometric factor for authentication. C) Facial recognition: Facial recognition makes use of the unique characteristics of our face, such as the shape of our nose, the distance between our eyes, and the contours of our jawline, to authenticate users. This is a commonly used biometric factor, especially in mobile devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a method to ensure the separation of personal and corporate data on a mobile device? A. Geolocation B. Biometric authentication C. Full device encryption D. Containerization

Correct Answer: D. Containerization is the method of creating separate areas or partitions on the mobile device where private information is stored in one partition and company information in another. This ensures that personal and corporate data are kept separate and can be managed independently. Incorrect Answers: A. Geolocation is the method of tracking the physical location of a mobile device and is not related to separating personal and corporate data. B. Biometric authentication is a method of authentication that uses personal characteristics such as facial recognition or fingerprints and is not related to separating personal and corporate data. C. Full device encryption is a method of encrypting all data stored on a mobile device, but it does not separate personal and corporate data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a root certificate used for in a public key infrastructure (PKI)? A) To encrypt communication to a web server B) To sign and validate software code C) To provide additional authentication for user logins D) To serve as the foundation for all PKI certificates

Correct Answer:D) To serve as the foundation for all PKI certificates Explanation:A root certificate is used as the foundation for all PKI certificates. All other signatures and additional certificate authority certificates are starting with this root certificate. If a root certificate is compromised, anyone can create any type of certificate for the organization, so the emphasis is put on the security of this root certificate. Incorrect Answers: A) Domain validation certificates are used to encrypt communication to a web server. B) Code signing certificates are used to sign and validate software code. C) User certificates are used to provide additional authentication for user logins. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the best approach to minimize the occurrence of false negatives in a vulnerability scan? A) Use a vulnerability scanner with the latest version of signatures B) Increase the severity level of vulnerabilities reported C) Rely solely on manual configuration reviews D) Focus on securing firewall rules and antivirus settings

Correct answer with explanation: A) Use a vulnerability scanner with the latest version of signatures To minimize the occurrence of false negatives, it is essential to use a vulnerability scanner with the latest version of signatures. This will help the scanner to accurately identify vulnerabilities on the system and avoid missing any that might have been overlooked if an older database was used. Incorrect answers: B) Increase the severity level of vulnerabilities reported Increasing the severity level of vulnerabilities reported does not directly address the issue of false negatives. False negatives occur when a vulnerability exists but is not detected by the scanner, regardless of its severity. C) Rely solely on manual configuration reviews Manual configuration reviews can help identify some security issues but relying solely on them can be time-consuming and may not be as comprehensive as using a vulnerability scanner. Combining manual reviews with vulnerability scans will provide better results. D) Focus on securing firewall rules and antivirus settings While securing firewall rules and antivirus settings is important, it does not directly address the issue of false negatives. Ensuring that the vulnerability scanner has the latest signatures will help to minimize the occurrence of false negatives. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-scans/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which cloud service model requires the user to manage the system from the operating system up through the application and be responsible for data security on that system? A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) B. Software as a Service (SaaS) C. Platform as a Service (PaaS) D. Anything as a Service (XaaS)

Correct answer with explanation: A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) In the IaaS model, a cloud service provider supplies hardware, such as CPU, storage, and networking connectivity, but the user is responsible for the operating system, applications, and data security on that system. Users need to manage the system from the operating system on up through the application. Incorrect answer explanations: B. Software as a Service (SaaS) In the SaaS model, the cloud service provider manages the operating system, applications, and data security. Users simply log in and use the on-demand software without worrying about maintenance, updates, or configuration. C. Platform as a Service (PaaS) In the PaaS model, the cloud service provider offers a platform for users to develop their own applications. They provide the operating system, infrastructure, and virtualization services. Users are responsible for creating and managing the applications and their data, but not for the underlying system. D. Anything as a Service (XaaS) XaaS is a broad term for any service provided over the cloud. It encompasses a range of services, including IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS. It is not specific to a particular responsibility level for the user. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes a cold site in the context of disaster recovery? A) An exact replica of the production environment, with duplicate hardware and infrastructure B) A room with racks and no equipment, data, or applications currently in place C) A location with some equipment and infrastructure available, but not a complete replica of the production environment D) A temporary facility that only handles data backups

Correct answer with explanation: B) A room with racks and no equipment, data, or applications currently in place A cold site is a disaster recovery location with empty racks and no equipment, data, or applications currently in place. It requires bringing backup data and personnel to set up and run the systems when needed. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) An exact replica of the production environment, with duplicate hardware and infrastructure This description refers to a hot site, not a cold site. A hot site is an exact replica of the production environment, with duplicate hardware, infrastructure, and real-time data synchronization. C) A location with some equipment and infrastructure available, but not a complete replica of the production environment This description refers to a warm site, not a cold site. A warm site is a disaster recovery location with some equipment and infrastructure available, but it is not an exact replica of the production environment. D) A temporary facility that only handles data backups This option does not accurately describe a cold site, as a cold site serves as a disaster recovery location, not just for handling data backups. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/site-resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of a Security Assessment in comparison to a Vulnerability Assessment? A) Exploiting vulnerabilities to gain further access B) Confirming exposure through manual verification C) Focusing solely on the depth of exposure of specific vulnerabilities D) Relying exclusively on automated scanning tools

Correct answer with explanation: B) Confirming exposure through manual verification A Security Assessment builds upon a Vulnerability Assessment by adding manual verification to confirm exposure. This process could involve authorized access to a system to confirm system settings and examining logs, system responses, error messages, codes, etc. The goal is to achieve a broad coverage of the systems under test without exploiting the vulnerabilities to gain further access. Incorrect answers: A) Exploiting vulnerabilities to gain further access Exploiting vulnerabilities to gain further access is a characteristic of a penetration test, not a Security Assessment. A Security Assessment focuses on manual verification of exposure without exploiting the vulnerabilities. C) Focusing solely on the depth of exposure of specific vulnerabilities A Security Assessment aims to gain broad coverage of the systems under test, rather than focusing solely on the depth of exposure of specific vulnerabilities. The depth of exposure is more characteristic of a penetration test. D) Relying exclusively on automated scanning tools A Security Assessment goes beyond the use of automated scanning tools by incorporating manual verification to confirm exposure. In contrast, a Vulnerability Assessment often relies primarily on automated scanning tools. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_testing

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What type of vulnerability could be found in a web-based application during a vulnerability scan? A) Misconfigured firewall allowing unauthorized access B) Information leak via an error message in a PHP file C) Insecure data storage in a mobile app D) Security feature bypass issue in a desktop app

Correct answer with explanation: B) Information leak via an error message in a PHP file A vulnerability scan may find an information leak via an error message in a PHP file in a web-based application. This kind of vulnerability can expose sensitive information and should be addressed to prevent potential security breaches. Incorrect answers: A) Misconfigured firewall allowing unauthorized access A misconfigured firewall allowing unauthorized access is related to network security vulnerabilities rather than web-based application vulnerabilities. C) Insecure data storage in a mobile app Insecure data storage in a mobile app is an example of a mobile application vulnerability, not a web-based application vulnerability. D) Security feature bypass issue in a desktop app A security feature bypass issue in a desktop app, such as WhatsApp, is an example of a desktop application vulnerability, not a web-based application vulnerability. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-scans/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the difference between intrusive and non-intrusive vulnerability scans? A) Intrusive scans focus on external vulnerabilities, while non-intrusive scans focus on internal vulnerabilities B) Intrusive scans attempt to exploit vulnerabilities, while non-intrusive scans only identify them C) Intrusive scans only test devices connected to the network, while non-intrusive scans test all devices D) Intrusive scans use automated tools, while non-intrusive scans rely on manual verification

Correct answer with explanation: B) Intrusive scans attempt to exploit vulnerabilities, while non-intrusive scans only identify them Intrusive scans actively try to exploit vulnerabilities in a system, whereas non-intrusive scans simply identify potential vulnerabilities without exploiting them. Incorrect answers: A) Intrusive scans focus on external vulnerabilities, while non-intrusive scans focus on internal vulnerabilities Both intrusive and non-intrusive scans can focus on internal and external vulnerabilities. The difference lies in whether the scan tries to exploit the vulnerabilities or only identify them. C) Intrusive scans only test devices connected to the network, while non-intrusive scans test all devices Both intrusive and non-intrusive scans can test devices connected to the network. The difference is in their approach to vulnerabilities (exploiting vs. identifying). D) Intrusive scans use automated tools, while non-intrusive scans rely on manual verification Both intrusive and non-intrusive scans can use automated tools or manual verification. The difference is in their approach to vulnerabilities (exploiting vs. identifying). Reference URL: https://www.professormesser

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)? A) To provide a proprietary tool for vulnerability assessment B) To assign severity scores to vulnerabilities for prioritization C) To create a database of known vulnerabilities in software applications D) To identify misconfigured firewalls in a network environment

Correct answer with explanation: B) To assign severity scores to vulnerabilities for prioritization The primary purpose of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is to assign severity scores to vulnerabilities, which allows responders to prioritize responses and resources according to threat. This helps organizations to efficiently address and manage the risks associated with various vulnerabilities. Incorrect answers: A) To provide a proprietary tool for vulnerability assessment CVSS is a free and open industry standard for assessing the severity of computer system security vulnerabilities, not a proprietary tool. C) To create a database of known vulnerabilities in software applications While CVSS is used to score vulnerabilities, it does not create a database of known vulnerabilities. The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) system is responsible for maintaining a list of known vulnerabilities. D) To identify misconfigured firewalls in a network environment CVSS assigns severity scores to vulnerabilities; it does not specifically focus on identifying misconfigured firewalls in a network environment. Reference URL:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Common_Vulnerability_Scoring_System

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of hashing in relation to data integrity and digital signatures? A) To encrypt data so that it can be decrypted later B) To create a short, unique message digest from data that cannot be reversed C) To authenticate users during the login process D) To protect data from on-path attacks

Correct answer with explanation: B) To create a short, unique message digest from data that cannot be reversed Hashing is used to represent data as a short string of text information, called a message digest. This process is irreversible, meaning that once data is hashed, the original data cannot be retrieved. This is used for data integrity and digital signatures to ensure that the received data is the same as the original data without tampering. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) To encrypt data so that it can be decrypted later Hashing is not encryption. While encryption allows data to be encrypted and later decrypted, hashing is a one-way process that does not support decryption. C) To authenticate users during the login process While hashing is used to store passwords securely, the primary purpose of hashing in relation to data integrity and digital signatures is not user authentication during the login process. D) To protect data from on-path attacks Hashing does not directly protect data from on-path attacks. While it helps ensure data integrity, it does not prevent attackers from intercepting or modifying data in transit. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of a DNS sinkhole in a security context? A) To increase the complexity of the network infrastructure B) To prevent infected devices from communicating with external command and control servers C) To automatically quarantine infected devices on the network D) To detect fake telemetry data in machine learning systems

Correct answer with explanation: B) To prevent infected devices from communicating with external command and control servers A DNS sinkhole is used to provide intelligence for security professionals. It is configured to return an incorrect IP address when a client requests the IP address of a known malicious site. By doing this, the DNS sinkhole prevents infected devices from communicating with external command and control servers. This also creates an alert or alarm for the security team, enabling them to clean the infected devices before the infection spreads. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) To increase the complexity of the network infrastructure DNS sinkholes are used to enhance security by preventing communication with malicious sites, not to increase the complexity of the network infrastructure. C) To automatically quarantine infected devices on the network While a DNS sinkhole can help identify potentially infected devices, it does not automatically quarantine them. The security team is responsible for taking appropriate action after receiving the alert or alarm from the DNS sinkhole. D) To detect fake telemetry data in machine learning systems The primary purpose of a DNS sinkhole is to prevent communication with malicious sites, not to detect fake telemetry data in machine learning systems. Fake telemetry data is related to manipulating machine learning-based security systems, which is a separate topic. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/honeypots-and-deception/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the purpose of Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) in threat intelligence? A) To provide a graphical representation of attacks B) To securely and quickly transfer threat information between organizations C) To predict when a compromise may be attempted D) To monitor code repositories for vulnerabilities

Correct answer with explanation: B) To securely and quickly transfer threat information between organizations Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) is a method used to securely and quickly transfer threat information between organizations. This allows the organizations to stay up to date with the latest threats and vulnerabilities at the speed of the internet. Incorrect answers explanation: A) To provide a graphical representation of attacks This refers to threat maps that display real-time data on attacks and their frequency. AIS is not related to visualizing attacks. C) To predict when a compromise may be attempted This process involves analyzing large amounts of data quickly to understand potential threats and predict when an attack may occur. AIS is meant for securely transferring threat information, not for predicting compromises. D) To monitor code repositories for vulnerabilities Monitoring code repositories for vulnerabilities is a different process, which focuses on looking for potential security issues in source code. AIS is used for securely sharing threat information between organizations, not for monitoring code repositories. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the main advantage of using containerization over traditional virtualization in a cloud environment? A. Containers require separate host operating systems for each application. B. Containers share a single host operating system, reducing resource requirements. C. Containers use hypervisors to manage guest operating systems. D. Containers need more CPU, storage, and memory resources for each application instance.

Correct answer with explanation: B. Containers share a single host operating system, reducing resource requirements. Containerization allows multiple applications to run simultaneously in their own separate sandbox, sharing a single host operating system. This reduces the resource requirements, such as CPU, storage, and memory, making it more efficient than traditional virtualization where each application instance would require a separate guest operating system. Incorrect answers with explanation: A. Containers require separate host operating systems for each application. This statement is incorrect. Containerization allows multiple applications to share a single host operating system, reducing resource requirements. C. Containers use hypervisors to manage guest operating systems. This statement is incorrect. Hypervisors are used in traditional virtualization to manage multiple guest operating systems running on a single physical device. Containers do not use hypervisors or separate guest operating systems. D. Containers need more CPU, storage, and memory resources for each application instance. This statement is incorrect. Containers share a single host operating system, reducing resource requirements compared to traditional virtualization, where each application instance would require a separate guest operating system and consume more resources. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/designing-the-cloud/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Why is it important to have standardized naming and numbering conventions for devices and cables in an IT environment? A. To facilitate the creation of a network diagram B. To ensure efficient communication during change control meetings C. To reserve specific IP addresses for certain devices on a subnet D. To establish a baseline configuration for applications

Correct answer with explanation: B. To ensure efficient communication during change control meetings Explanation: Standardized naming and numbering conventions for devices and cables in an IT environment are important for efficient communication during change control meetings. This helps everyone understand exactly where the equipment is located, making it easier to assign tasks and coordinate efforts. Incorrect answers with explanation: A. To facilitate the creation of a network diagram While standardized naming and numbering conventions can help create a clearer network diagram, their primary purpose is to ensure efficient communication during change control meetings. C. To reserve specific IP addresses for certain devices on a subnet Reserving specific IP addresses for certain devices is part of IP address management, not the primary purpose of having standardized naming and numbering conventions for devices and cables. D. To establish a baseline configuration for applications Establishing a baseline configuration for applications is important, but it is not the primary purpose of having standardized naming and numbering conventions for devices and cables. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/configuration-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of creating a baseline configuration for an application? A. To standardize IP addressing within the organization B. To establish a reference point for future integrity measurements checks C. To create a network diagram showing device connections and locations D. To reserve specific IP addresses for certain devices on a subnet

Correct answer with explanation: B. To establish a reference point for future integrity measurements checks Explanation: Creating a baseline configuration for an application provides a reference point for future integrity measurements checks, ensuring that the current state of the application matches the documented configuration. It allows IT teams to identify deviations from the baseline and determine necessary corrective actions. Incorrect answers with explanation: A. To standardize IP addressing within the organization Standardizing IP addressing is important, but it is not the primary purpose of creating a baseline configuration for an application. C. To create a network diagram showing device connections and locations Creating a network diagram is part of the documentation process for IT configurations, but it is not the primary purpose of establishing a baseline configuration for an application. D. To reserve specific IP addresses for certain devices on a subnet Reserving specific IP addresses is a valuable practice for IP address management, but it is not the main goal of creating a baseline configuration for an application. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/configuration-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the purpose of normalization in the context of application security? A. Encrypting data before it is sent across a network B. Validating and correcting user input to prevent security vulnerabilities C. Obfuscating code to make it difficult for humans to read D. Creating stored procedures for database calls to prevent direct modification

Correct answer with explanation: B. Validating and correcting user input to prevent security vulnerabilities Normalization refers to the process of validating and correcting user input to ensure it matches the expected format. This helps prevent attackers from exploiting vulnerabilities through input manipulation. Incorrect answer explanations: A. Encrypting data before it is sent across a network This is a good security practice, but it is not related to normalization. C. Obfuscating code to make it difficult for humans to read Obfuscation is a technique used to make code difficult for humans to read, but it is not related to normalization. D. Creating stored procedures for database calls to prevent direct modification Stored procedures help make applications more secure by preventing direct modification of database calls, but this is not related to normalization. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-coding-techniques-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary characteristic of a warm site in the context of disaster recovery? A) An exact replica of the production environment, with duplicate hardware and infrastructure B) A room with racks and no equipment, data, or applications currently in place C) A location with some equipment and infrastructure available, but not a complete replica of the production environment D) A temporary facility that only handles data backups

Correct answer with explanation: C) A location with some equipment and infrastructure available, but not a complete replica of the production environment A warm site is a disaster recovery location that has some equipment and infrastructure available, but it is not an exact replica of the production environment. It usually allows organizations to get up and running within a relatively short period of time by providing servers or equipment for the infrastructure, while organizations bring their configurations to plug into the provided equipment. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) An exact replica of the production environment, with duplicate hardware and infrastructure This description refers to a hot site, not a warm site. A hot site is an exact replica of the production environment, with duplicate hardware, infrastructure, and real-time data synchronization. B) A room with racks and no equipment, data, or applications currently in place This description refers to a cold site, not a warm site. A cold site is a disaster recovery location with empty racks and no equipment, data, or applications currently in place. It requires bringing backup data and personnel to set up and run the systems when needed. D) A temporary facility that only handles data backups This option does not accurately describe a warm site, as a warm site serves as a disaster recovery location with some equipment and infrastructure available, not just for handling data backups. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/site-resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes a false positive in the context of a vulnerability scan? A) A low-severity vulnerability that exists but is not considered a high priority B) A vulnerability that exists on a system but is not detected by the scanner C) A vulnerability that does not exist but is reported by the scanner D) A misconfiguration that allows unauthorized access to a device

Correct answer with explanation: C) A vulnerability that does not exist but is reported by the scanner A false positive refers to a situation where a vulnerability scan identifies a vulnerability, but after further investigation, it is found that the vulnerability does not actually exist on the device. This is different from a low-severity vulnerability, which is a real vulnerability but with low priority. Incorrect answers: A) A low-severity vulnerability that exists but is not considered a high priority A low-severity vulnerability is an actual vulnerability that exists on a system, but it is not considered a high priority. This is different from a false positive, which does not exist at all. B) A vulnerability that exists on a system but is not detected by the scanner This describes a false negative, which occurs when a vulnerability exists on a system but the scanner fails to detect it. D) A misconfiguration that allows unauthorized access to a device A misconfiguration, such as an NFS misconfiguration, can lead to security issues, but it is not a false positive. A false positive refers specifically to a vulnerability that is reported by the scanner but does not actually exist. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-scans/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is an example of a vulnerability that may be found in a web-based application during a vulnerability scan? A) A misconfigured firewall with open ports B) A security feature bypass issue in WhatsApp desktop C) An information leak via an error message in a PHP file D) A mobile app with insecure data storage

Correct answer with explanation: C) An information leak via an error message in a PHP file A web-based application vulnerability may involve an information leak through an error message in a PHP file, as the example provided in the text. This type of vulnerability can expose sensitive information to potential attackers. Incorrect answers: A) A misconfigured firewall with open ports Misconfigured firewalls with open ports are related to network device vulnerabilities rather than web-based application vulnerabilities. B) A security feature bypass issue in WhatsApp desktop A security feature bypass issue in a desktop application like WhatsApp is an example of a desktop application vulnerability, not a web-based application vulnerability. D) A mobile app with insecure data storage Insecure data storage in a mobile app is an example of a mobile application vulnerability, not a web-based application vulnerability. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-scans/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberQuestion: What is the main difference between a credentialed and a non-credentialed vulnerability scan? A) Credentialed scans only test for external vulnerabilities, while non-credentialed scans focus on internal vulnerabilities B) Credentialed scans exploit vulnerabilities, while non-credentialed scans only identify them C) Credentialed scans simulate the perspective of an authenticated user, while non-credentialed scans simulate the perspective of an outsider D) Credentialed scans rely solely on automated tools, while non-credentialed scans require manual verification

Correct answer with explanation: C) Credentialed scans simulate the perspective of an authenticated user, while non-credentialed scans simulate the perspective of an outsider Credentialed scans are performed with the rights and permissions of an authenticated user, providing insights into vulnerabilities that might exist for someone who has some level of access to the systems. Non-credentialed scans, on the other hand, are performed without any special access or permissions, simulating the perspective of someone outside the network. Incorrect answers: A) Credentialed scans only test for external vulnerabilities, while non-credentialed scans focus on internal vulnerabilities Both credentialed and non-credentialed scans can test for internal and external vulnerabilities. The difference lies in the level of access granted during the scan, not the type of vulnerabilities tested. B) Credentialed scans exploit vulnerabilities, while non-credentialed scans only identify them Vulnerability scans, whether credentialed or non-credentialed, aim to identify vulnerabilities without exploiting them. The difference between the two is the level of access used during the scanning process. D) Credentialed scans rely solely on automated tools, while non-credentialed scans require manual verification Both credentialed and non-credentialed scans can use automated tools for scanning. The difference is in the access level granted during the scan, not the use of automated tools or manual verification. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-scans/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary advantage of using edge computing for IoT devices? A) It reduces the need for cloud storage. B) It eliminates the need for data encryption. C) It allows devices to make local decisions without relying on internet connectivity. D) It centralizes all data processing in one location.

Correct answer with explanation: C) It allows devices to make local decisions without relying on internet connectivity. Edge computing allows IoT devices to process data and make decisions locally, without needing to send data out to the internet. This reduces latency and dependency on internet connectivity, enabling faster and more efficient decision-making. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) It reduces the need for cloud storage. While edge computing may reduce the amount of data that needs to be sent to the cloud, it does not eliminate the need for cloud storage entirely. Some data might still need to be sent to the cloud for further processing or analytics. B) It eliminates the need for data encryption. Edge computing does not eliminate the need for data encryption. Data security is still a concern, regardless of whether the data is processed locally or in the cloud. D) It centralizes all data processing in one location. Edge computing does not centralize data processing. Instead, it allows for distributed processing across multiple IoT devices, which can help improve efficiency and performance. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/edge-and-fog-computing/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What type of vulnerability can be identified in network devices during a vulnerability scan? A) Security feature bypass issue in a desktop app B) Information leak via an error message in a PHP file C) Misconfigured firewall allowing unauthorized access D) Insecure data storage in a mobile app

Correct answer with explanation: C) Misconfigured firewall allowing unauthorized access During a vulnerability scan, misconfigured firewalls allowing unauthorized access can be identified as a network device vulnerability. This type of vulnerability should be addressed to prevent potential security breaches and maintain network security. Incorrect answers: A) Security feature bypass issue in a desktop app A security feature bypass issue in a desktop app, such as WhatsApp, is an example of a desktop application vulnerability, not a network device vulnerability. B) Information leak via an error message in a PHP file An information leak via an error message in a PHP file is an example of a web-based application vulnerability, not a network device vulnerability. D) Insecure data storage in a mobile app Insecure data storage in a mobile app is an example of a mobile application vulnerability, not a network device vulnerability. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-scans/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a primary advantage of using host-based firewalls on individual endpoints? A) They can decrypt SSL traffic for inspection. B) They can identify applications running on the network regardless of IP address or port number. C) They can monitor and control communication for each individual application on the endpoint. D) They can examine emails going in or out of an organization.

Correct answer with explanation: C) They can monitor and control communication for each individual application on the endpoint. Host-based firewalls run on individual endpoints, allowing them to see all applications in use and manage communication for each app. This provides granular control and increased security for the endpoint. Incorrect answers with explanation: A) They can decrypt SSL traffic for inspection. This feature is typically associated with next-generation firewalls, not host-based firewalls. B) They can identify applications running on the network regardless of IP address or port number. This is a feature of next-generation firewalls, not host-based firewalls. D) They can examine emails going in or out of an organization. This functionality is related to Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solutions, which can be based in the cloud or on individual systems, not specifically host-based firewalls. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-protection/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) system? A) To provide a proprietary tool for vulnerability assessment B) To assign severity scores to vulnerabilities for prioritization C) To create a reference method for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities and exposures D) To identify misconfigured firewalls in a network environment

Correct answer with explanation: C) To create a reference method for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities and exposures The primary purpose of the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) system is to provide a reference method for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities and exposures, allowing for easier identification and discussion of specific vulnerabilities. CVE Identifiers are unique and common identifiers assigned to these vulnerabilities. Incorrect answers: A) To provide a proprietary tool for vulnerability assessment CVE is a reference method for publicly known vulnerabilities and exposures, not a proprietary tool for vulnerability assessment. B) To assign severity scores to vulnerabilities for prioritization The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is responsible for assigning severity scores to vulnerabilities for prioritization, not the CVE system. D) To identify misconfigured firewalls in a network environment The primary purpose of CVE is to provide a reference method for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities and exposures, not specifically to identify misconfigured firewalls in a network environment. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Common_Vulnerabilities_and_Exposures

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of a honeynet in a network security strategy? A) To redirect users to a known good site B) To prevent unauthorized access to production data C) To gather information about attackers from multiple sources D) To train machine learning algorithms to identify malware

Correct answer with explanation: C) To gather information about attackers from multiple sources A honeynet is a collection of multiple honeypots, which are systems designed to look attractive to attackers. By deploying a honeynet, security professionals can gather information about attackers from multiple sources, such as the processes and methods used during the attack. This helps organizations understand and defend against potential threats. Incorrect answers with explanations: A) To redirect users to a known good site Redirecting users to a known good site is a function of a DNS sinkhole, not a honeynet. Honeynets are designed to gather information about attackers and their methods by monitoring their interactions with fake systems. B) To prevent unauthorized access to production data Honeynets are not primarily designed to prevent unauthorized access to production data. While they may act as a decoy to divert attackers away from real systems, their main purpose is to collect information about attackers and their techniques. D) To train machine learning algorithms to identify malware Honeynets do not primarily serve to train machine learning algorithms to identify malware. They focus on gathering information about attackers and their methods. Machine learning algorithms can be trained with actual data, such as malware, ransomware, and viruses, to recognize malicious data and detect threats. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/honeypots-and-deception/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of data masking? A) To encrypt the data using a specific key B) To replace sensitive data with a completely different set of data C) To obfuscate sensitive data, making it more difficult to read D) To restrict user permissions on documents

Correct answer with explanation: C) To obfuscate sensitive data, making it more difficult to read Data masking is a technique used to obfuscate sensitive data, such as credit card numbers or personal identification information, by replacing parts of the data with other characters (e.g., asterisks). This makes the data more difficult to read and helps protect it from unauthorized access. Explanation of the incorrect answers: A) To encrypt the data using a specific key Encryption is a separate technique used to protect data by converting plaintext into ciphertext using a specific key. Data masking, on the other hand, does not involve encryption. B) To replace sensitive data with a completely different set of data This is a description of tokenization, which involves replacing sensitive data with a completely different set of data. Data masking retains parts of the original data but obfuscates it for protection. D) To restrict user permissions on documents Restricting user permissions on documents is a feature of Information Rights Management (IRM). Data masking is a separate technique focused on obfuscating sensitive data within documents or other data sources. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/protecting-data/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: When deprovisioning an application instance, which of the following security components must also be deprovisioned? A. Only firewall rules B. Only security devices C. Both firewall rules and security devices D. None of the above

Correct answer with explanation: C. Both firewall rules and security devices When deprovisioning an application instance, it is essential to deprovision all the associated security components, including firewall rules and security devices. Removing individual rules from existing firewalls and deleting security devices helps ensure that there are no remnants of the application left in the environment. Explanation of the incorrect answers: A. Only firewall rules Focusing only on firewall rules would not adequately deprovision the security components of an application instance. Security devices must also be removed to ensure a thorough deprovisioning process. B. Only security devices Removing only security devices would not be sufficient for deprovisioning the security components of an application instance. It is essential to remove both security devices and firewall rules to ensure complete deprovisioning. D. None of the above Deprovisioning involves the removal of all components related to an application instance, including security components such as firewall rules and security devices. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/provisioning-and-deprovisioning-2/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the term ""data at rest""? A. Data that is being processed in the system memory B. Data that is moving across the network C. Data that is stored on a storage device D. Data that has been tokenized"

Correct answer with explanation: C. Data that is stored on a storage device Data at rest refers to data that is stored on a storage device, such as a hard drive, SSD, NVMe, or M.2 drive. It is not actively being processed, transmitted, or manipulated. To protect data at rest, encryption and permissions can be applied to the data on the drive. Incorrect answer explanations: A. Data that is being processed in the system memory This refers to data in use, not data at rest. Data in use is data that is being actively processed in system RAM, CPU registers, or caches. B. Data that is moving across the network This refers to data in transit or data in motion, not data at rest. Data in transit is data that is being transmitted between devices on a network. D. Data that has been tokenized Tokenization is a method used to protect sensitive data by replacing it with a different set of data. It does not describe the state of data as being at rest. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/protecting-data/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is one advantage of having a standardized IP addressing schema in an organization? A. Simplifies device naming and numbering B. Ensures that each device has a unique IP address C. Facilitates better management of subnets and IP address assignments D. Eliminates the need for a network diagram

Correct answer with explanation: C. Facilitates better management of subnets and IP address assignments Explanation: Having a standardized IP addressing schema in an organization allows for better management of subnets and IP address assignments. This can help ensure that IP addresses are used consistently across different locations, making it easier to manage and troubleshoot the network. Incorrect answers with explanation: A. Simplifies device naming and numbering Standardized IP addressing schemas can help with organization, but their primary purpose is to facilitate better management of subnets and IP address assignments, not simplifying device naming and numbering. B. Ensures that each device has a unique IP address While a standardized IP addressing schema can help avoid IP address conflicts, it does not inherently ensure that each device has a unique IP address. Proper address management and assignment is still required. D. Eliminates the need for a network diagram A standardized IP addressing schema does not eliminate the need for a network diagram. Network diagrams are important for understanding the physical layout and connections between devices within a network. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/configuration-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the key characteristics of Platform as a Service (PaaS) in cloud computing? A. The cloud service provider manages everything from the application down to the infrastructure. B. The cloud service provider only provides the hardware required to get the services up and running. C. The cloud service provider offers the building blocks for creating customized applications, while also managing the underlying infrastructure. D. The cloud service provider offers a complete software solution, where users only need to log in and use the service.

Correct answer with explanation: C. The cloud service provider offers the building blocks for creating customized applications, while also managing the underlying infrastructure. In PaaS, the cloud service provider manages the operating system, infrastructure, virtualization services, and provides the building blocks for developers to create customized applications. This model is a middle ground between IaaS and SaaS (source). Explanation of incorrect answers: A. The cloud service provider manages everything from the application down to the infrastructure. This describes Software as a Service (SaaS), not PaaS. B. The cloud service provider only provides the hardware required to get the services up and running. This describes Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), not PaaS. D. The cloud service provider offers a complete software solution, where users only need to log in and use the service. This also describes Software as a Service (SaaS), not PaaS. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-models-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What distinguishes nation state threat actors from other types of threat actors? A. They primarily focus on financial gain. B. They are mostly insiders within an organization. C. They are government entities with significant resources. D. They are motivated by political or social messages.

Correct answer with explanation: C. They are government entities with significant resources. Nation state threat actors are typically government entities, often in charge of national security. These actors have significant resources, enabling them to hire top technologists and security experts. Their primary goal is usually related to national interests or geopolitical objectives, rather than financial gain or activism. Incorrect answers: A. They primarily focus on financial gain. This is incorrect because organized crime threat actors are the ones primarily focused on financial gain, not nation state threat actors. B. They are mostly insiders within an organization. This is incorrect because insiders are a different category of threat actors, generally employees or contractors within an organization who have knowledge of internal systems and processes. D. They are motivated by political or social messages. This is incorrect because hacktivists are the threat actors motivated by political or social messages. Nation state threat actors have different motivations, usually related to national interests or geopolitical objectives. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-actors-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the purpose of creating a network diagram as part of your documentation process for IT configurations? A. To document the operating system version in use B. To understand the firewall settings of an application C. To visualize the connections and physical locations of devices within a network D. To reserve specific IP addresses for certain devices on a subnet

Correct answer with explanation: C. To visualize the connections and physical locations of devices within a network Explanation: Creating a network diagram is an essential part of documenting IT configurations because it helps visualize how devices are connected to each other and their physical locations within the network. This can involve a map or detailed diagram of specific racks, patch cables, and patch panel locations. Incorrect answers with explanation: A. To document the operating system version in use This is an important part of the documentation process but is not the primary purpose of creating a network diagram. B. To understand the firewall settings of an application While understanding firewall settings is crucial for IT documentation, this is not the main objective of creating a network diagram. D. To reserve specific IP addresses for certain devices on a subnet Although IP address standardization and reservation are essential aspects of IT configuration management, they are not the primary reasons for creating a network diagram. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/configuration-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What does the term data sovereignty refer to in the context of data protection? A) Encrypting data with confusion and diffusion B) Masking sensitive information with asterisks C) Replacing sensitive data with a completely different set of data D) Understanding and complying with the laws and regulations associated with data based on its geographic location

Correct answer with explanation: D) Understanding and complying with the laws and regulations associated with data based on its geographic location. Data sovereignty refers to the need for understanding and complying with the laws and regulations that apply to data storage and handling based on where the data geographically resides. An example of such regulations is the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Encrypting data with confusion and diffusion refers to characteristics of data encryption, not data sovereignty. B) Masking sensitive information with asterisks is a method of data masking, which is a technique used to obfuscate data to make it more difficult to read, but it is not related to data sovereignty. C) Replacing sensitive data with a completely different set of data is called tokenization, which is a method of data protection used to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information, but it is not related to data sovereignty. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/protecting-data/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a mitigation strategy for managing risk? A. Accepting the existing risk and relying on existing software B. Ignoring the risk and hoping it doesn't happen C. Increasing the risk level by allowing legacy systems to continue operating D. None of the above"

Correct answer: A Explanation: Mitigation involves taking steps to reduce or prevent risk. This may involve purchasing additional software or hardware, changing business processes, or purchasing cybersecurity insurance. In some cases, it may be appropriate to accept the existing risk and rely on existing software or tools to manage that risk. For example, if anti-phishing software is already installed on all machines, it may not be necessary to invest in additional training for employees. Explanation for incorrect answers: B. Ignoring the risk is not a viable strategy for managing risk as it simply leaves the organization vulnerable to potential security events. C. Allowing legacy systems to continue operating actually increases the risk level as those systems may no longer receive security updates or patches, making them more vulnerable to attacks. D. None of the above is not the correct answer as there is at least one correct answer, which is A. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-management-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is true regarding the use of USB OTG? A) It allows users to transfer data to another device without the use of external media. B) It is a feature that has only been introduced with USB 3.0. C) It is only available on iOS devices. D) It can be easily restricted or enabled using Mobile Device Manager.

Correct answer: A Explanation: USB OTG (On-The-Go) is a feature that allows two devices to communicate directly with each other without the use of an access point or external media. It is an easy and convenient way to transfer data between devices. Mobile Device Manager can control and restrict USB connectivity on a mobile device, but USB OTG is not specifically mentioned in this context. Incorrect answers: B: USB OTG was first introduced with USB 2.0. C: USB OTG is not only available on iOS devices, but also on Android devices. D: While Mobile Device Manager can control and restrict USB connectivity on a mobile device, USB OTG is not specifically mentioned in this context. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a power distribution unit (PDU)? A) A device that provides multiple power sources to a computer system B) A device that protects against brownouts and outages C) A device that is used to maintain power over a longer time frame D) A device that provides phone line or cable modem suppression

Correct answer: A) A device that provides multiple power sources to a computer system Explanation: A power distribution unit (PDU) is a device that provides multiple power sources to a computer system. It connects to an ethernet network and each one of those interfaces can be controlled across the network. These PDUs also have monitoring capabilities, so they can report back if there are any type of power problems, and they can constantly monitor the power load across all of those interfaces on the PDU. Incorrect answers explained: B) A UPS, or uninterruptible power supply, protects against brownouts and outages. C) A generator is used to maintain power over a longer time frame. D) Many UPS devices will have phone line or cable modem suppression, which allows you to remove any type of voltages from those connections. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/power-redundancy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a security concern related to unsecure root accounts? A) Default usernames and passwords B) Outdated encryption protocols C) Open permissions D) Legacy systems

Correct answer: A) Default usernames and passwords Explanation: An unsecure root account can allow an attacker full control over an operating system, and default usernames and passwords are a common way for attackers to gain access. If the password associated with an administrator account is not strong enough to prevent a brute force attack, then an attacker may be able to gain access to the account. Access to the root or administrative account should be closely monitored, and policies and procedures should be in place to prevent casual use of these accounts. Options B, C, and D are not directly related to unsecure root accounts. Incorrect answers: B) Outdated encryption protocols are not directly related to unsecure root accounts, although it is important to use strong encryption protocols to protect sensitive data. C) Open permissions refers to information that has been put onto the internet without any security applied to that data, and it is not directly related to unsecure root accounts. D) Legacy systems may be running software that has been far beyond the end of life, but this is not directly related to unsecure root accounts. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an example of a security control that can be based on a URL filter? A) Preventing unauthorized access to a SQL server B) Allowing access to a known good location on the internet C) Blocking transfer of personally identifiable information D) Moving a device into a limited access area

Correct answer: B Explanation: A URL filter can be used to allow or disallow access to certain websites. If a known good location is accessed, the URL filter would allow access. This is a useful security tool for preventing access to known malicious sites. Incorrect answers: A) Preventing unauthorized access to a SQL server is an example of allowing or denying access based on application filtering. C) Blocking transfer of personally identifiable information is an example of using data loss prevention (DLP). D) Moving a device into a limited access area is an example of isolation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an Incident Response Team? A. A group of stakeholders in an organization who respond to security incidents B. A committee of IT professionals who are pulled in to respond to security incidents C. A group of law enforcement officers who respond to security incidents D. A team of executives who plan for security incidents

Correct answer: B Explanation: An Incident Response Team is a group of IT professionals who have been specifically trained to deal with security incidents. They analyze the situation, determine the appropriate response, and provide reporting to help make the network stronger in the future. They may not be a separate department, but rather a committee that is pulled in as needed when a security incident occurs. Incorrect answers: A. A group of stakeholders in an organization who respond to security incidents - While stakeholders may be involved in the resolution process of a security incident, an Incident Response Team is specifically a group of IT professionals who have been trained to respond to incidents. C. A group of law enforcement officers who respond to security incidents - Although law enforcement may be involved in some cases, an Incident Response Team within an organization is made up of IT professionals. D. A team of executives who plan for security incidents - Executives may be involved in planning for security incidents, but an Incident Response Team is specifically trained to respond to incidents when they occur. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/incident-response-planning-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a playbook in the context of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? A) An application that allows or denies access to certain websites B) A cookbook with detailed steps on how to perform a particular security task C) A list of trusted certificates for devices and services D) A sandbox where every application runs in its own environment

Correct answer: B Explanation: In the context of SOAR, a playbook is a broad description of tasks to follow in the event of a particular security event. A runbook is a more specific set of instructions for a particular security task. Incorrect answer explanation: A) This describes URL filtering, not a playbook in the context of SOAR. C) This describes certificate deployment, not a playbook in the context of SOAR. D) This describes application containment or sandboxing, not a playbook in the context of SOAR. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a step in the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF)? A) Identify, protect, detect, respond, and recover B) Define security controls for data classification C) Follow the Center for Internet Security (CIS) critical security controls D) Determine appropriate implementation tiers for cybersecurity

Correct answer: B Explanation: The NIST RMF has six steps to follow including categorizing the environment, selecting appropriate security controls, defining implementation policies, assessing policies, authorizing decisions, and constantly monitoring compliance. Therefore, option B, which is about defining security controls for data classification, is a step in the NIST RMF. Option A refers to the cybersecurity framework, while option C refers to the CIS critical security controls. Option D refers to implementation tiers for cybersecurity, which is part of the CSF but not the RMF. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-frameworks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a common frequency range used for narrowband communication in SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields? A) 5G frequencies B) 100 to 900 megahertz frequencies C) 2.4 GHz frequencies D) 10 gigahertz frequencies

Correct answer: B) 100 to 900 megahertz frequencies Explanation: Narrowband communication is used in SCADA equipment and sensors in oil fields. It allows communication across a very narrow range of frequencies, which is commonly found between 100 to 900 megahertz frequencies, across a very long distance. This narrowband signal uses a smaller amount of frequency bandwidth, allowing for many different communications in a single set of frequencies. On the other hand, 5G frequencies are used for high-speed communication over wireless networks, while 2.4 GHz frequencies are used by Zigbee communication. 10 gigahertz frequencies are not commonly used for narrowband communication. Incorrect answers explained: A) 5G frequencies are used for high-speed communication over wireless networks, not for narrowband communication in SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields. C) 2.4 GHz frequencies are used by Zigbee communication, not for narrowband communication in SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields. D) 10 gigahertz frequencies are not commonly used for narrowband communication. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which backup type requires every incremental backup to be restored in addition to the full backup during the restoration process? A) Full backup B) Incremental backup C) Differential backup D) None of the above

Correct answer: B) Incremental backup Explanation: An incremental backup backs up only the files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full backup or an incremental backup. During the restoration process, you will need to restore the full backup and every incremental backup that has been made since the full backup. This means that the restoration time for an incremental backup is relatively high because it requires multiple backup sets to be restored. In contrast, a differential backup only requires the full backup and the last differential backup to be restored, while a full backup only requires a single set of backup tapes to be restored. Option D is incorrect as one of the options is correct. Option A is incorrect because restoring a full backup only requires the single set of backup tapes, and no other backup sets are needed. Option C is incorrect because restoring a differential backup only requires the full backup and the last differential backup that has been made, and no other backup sets are needed. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which type of backup takes the longest to restore? A) Full backup B) Incremental backup C) Differential backup D) All types take the same amount of time to restore

Correct answer: B) Incremental backup Explanation: An incremental backup takes the longest to restore because it requires not only the last full backup but every other incremental backup that has occurred as well. In contrast, a differential backup only requires the last full backup and the last differential backup, while a full backup only requires the single set of backup tapes. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Full backup: While a full backup may take a long time to perform, it actually has a relatively low restoration time compared to incremental backups, as it only requires the single set of backup tapes. C) Differential backup: While a differential backup does take longer to perform each day as the backup gets longer, it still has a moderate restoration time because it only requires the last full backup and the last differential backup. D) All types take the same amount of time to restore: This is incorrect as each type of backup has a different restoration time, with incremental backups taking the longest. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following types of data should be collected first in a forensic investigation? A) Data stored on a drive B) Information in memory C) Physical configuration of the device D) Information in backups and archival media

Correct answer: B) Information in memory Explanation: In a forensic investigation, it is important to start by collecting the most volatile data first. Information in memory is very volatile and changes constantly, making it crucial to collect it first. This includes browsing history, encryption keys, and command history, among other things. The other options are less volatile and can be collected later in the investigation. Incorrect answers: A) Data stored on a drive - Although data stored on a drive is important, it is less volatile than information in memory and should be collected after memory data. C) Physical configuration of the device - The physical configuration of the device is rarely changed and is considered the least volatile. Therefore, it should be collected last. D) Information in backups and archival media - Information in backups and archival media is also considered less volatile than memory data and can be collected later in the investigation. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a potential advantage of using cloud storage systems over local storage systems for replicated data? A) Faster network connectivity B) Lower cost entry point C) Better control over who has access to data D) Higher level of encryption

Correct answer: B) Lower cost entry point Explanation: One advantage of using cloud storage systems over local storage systems for replicated data is that cloud storage systems tend to have a low cost entry point and then you would scale up the costs as you use more of those resources. This is contrasted with local storage systems, which can be expensive to purchase and set up. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Faster network connectivity is not a potential advantage of using cloud storage systems over local storage systems for replicated data, as connections to the cloud are almost always going to be slower than devices that would be in a local data center. C) Better control over who has access to data is not a potential advantage of using cloud storage systems over local storage systems for replicated data, as storing data in the cloud could possibly open access to that data up to others. D) Higher level of encryption is not a potential advantage of using cloud storage systems over local storage systems for replicated data, as adding additional encryption or security mechanisms may be necessary regardless of where the data is stored. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/replication/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a common constraint for embedded devices? A) Wireless connectivity B) Memory constraints C) Keyboard and mouse connections D) All of the above

Correct answer: B) Memory constraints Explanation: Embedded devices are low-cost devices that often have limitations when it comes to their computing power, memory capacity, and communication capabilities. One of the most common constraints for embedded devices is power. Since many of these devices are deployed in remote locations, it can be challenging to provide them with a stable power source. Another common constraint is the limited memory capacity of these devices. Since they are designed to perform specific functions, there is no need to include additional memory or processing power that they will never use, which helps keep the costs down. However, this constraint can make it challenging to upgrade or add new functionalities to the device. A) Wireless connectivity is not a constraint that applies to all embedded devices since some of them may have wired interfaces. C) Keyboard and mouse connections are not commonly found on embedded devices since they are usually designed to perform a specific function without the need for user interaction. D) Choice D is incorrect since wireless connectivity and keyboard and mouse connections are not constraints that apply to all embedded devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-constraints/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of Two-person integrity/control? A) Using a fingerprint scanner as the sole method of authentication B) Requiring a personal identification number in addition to a biometric scan C) Using a traditional lock and key to secure a facility D) Allowing a robot to perform rounds and security checks

Correct answer: B) Requiring a personal identification number in addition to a biometric scan Explanation: Two-person integrity/control is a security principle that requires the presence of two authorized individuals to perform certain sensitive or critical operations. Requiring a personal identification number in addition to a biometric scan is an example of two-factor authentication, which is an implementation of two-person integrity/control. By using two factors of authentication, such as something you have (biometric) and something you know (PIN), the system ensures that the authorized user is the one gaining access to the resource. A) Using a fingerprint scanner as the sole method of authentication is incorrect because it only requires one factor of authentication and does not implement two-person integrity/control. C) Using a traditional lock and key to secure a facility is also incorrect because it does not involve two authorized individuals performing a sensitive or critical operation. D) Allowing a robot to perform rounds and security checks is unrelated to the principle of two-person integrity/control. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a sensor in a network environment? A) A device designed to manage and control cryptographic keys and certificates B) A hardware device used to provide secure remote access to internal devices C) A device that gathers information and statistics from various network devices D) A specialized device that performs encryption and decryption on behalf of a server

Correct answer: C Explanation: A sensor is a device that gathers information and statistics from various network devices, such as switches, routers, servers, and firewalls. The information gathered by the sensors is then centralized into one point, which is usually a console or series of consoles on the network known as a collector. The collector compares and analyzes the gathered data from the sensors to provide a broader perspective of what's going on in the network. Incorrect answers: A) A device designed to manage and control cryptographic keys and certificates This describes a hardware security module (HSM), not a sensor. An HSM is used to manage and control cryptographic keys and certificates in a large environment with many web servers and devices. B) A hardware device used to provide secure remote access to internal devices This describes a jump server, not a sensor. A jump server is a secure device that allows authorized users to access internal devices through a private connection. D) A specialized device that performs encryption and decryption on behalf of a server This also describes an HSM, not a sensor. An HSM is a specialized device that performs encryption and decryption and is designed specifically for cryptography. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/ -------------------

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich one of the following statements is correct about Post Office Protocol (POP) and Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)? A) POP 3 and IMAP protocols do not offer any security options to a user to keep their email communication private. B) SSL cannot be used in communication with POP 3 and IMAP protocols. C) IMAP allows the use of secure IMAP, which uses SSL. D) Users should always be using unencrypted communication while using browser-based email services.

Correct answer: C Explanation: According to the given text, with POP 3, users can use the start TLS extension that includes SSL in the POP 3 communication. And with IMAP, users can choose to use secure IMAP, which uses SSL. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) The given text mentions that both POP 3 and IMAP protocols offer some security options like start TLS extension with POP 3 and secure IMAP with IMAP. B) The given text mentions that start TLS extension with POP 3 and secure IMAP with IMAP use SSL. D) The given text mentions that browser-based email services like Google Gmail or Yahoo Mail should always be using encrypted communication and SSL. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following describes open source intelligence (OSINT)? A) A method of active footprinting used to gather information about wireless networks B) A type of social engineering where an attacker calls an organization to gather information C) Information gathered from public sources to understand more about the systems to be attacked D) A type of reconnaissance that involves creating a network map

Correct answer: C Explanation: Open source intelligence (OSINT) refers to the gathering and analysis of information that is publicly available to anyone. This information can be found through a variety of sources such as social media pages, corporate websites, online forums, and spreadsheets. OSINT can be used as a passive footprinting technique to gather information about the systems to be attacked. The information gathered through OSINT can provide a framework of information that can be used to understand more about the systems to be attacked. Thus, option C is the correct answer. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) This describes wardriving or warflying, which is a technique of passive footprinting to gather information about wireless networks. B) This describes a type of social engineering attack, which is not related to open source intelligence. D) This is a part of the reconnaissance phase, but not specifically describing open source intelligence. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is push notification in mobile device management? A. A type of authentication factor that uses biometrics to unlock a device B. A way to manage and control what applications are installed on mobile devices C. A type of notification that is pushed to the device without any intervention from the end user D. A method of encrypting data on a mobile device

Correct answer: C Explanation: Push notifications are messages that are pushed to the device without any intervention from the end user. This is an important aspect of these push notifications is that the user is not querying for these notifications. They could be using one application and receive notifications on their screen that are associated with a completely different application. The administrator of the Mobile Device Manager can set policies that can control exactly what would appear with the notifications on our screen. Incorrect answers: A. Biometric authentication is not the same as push notifications in mobile device management. B. Managing and controlling what applications are installed on mobile devices is typically done through allow lists and is not the same as push notifications. D. Encrypting data on a mobile device is a separate security measure from push notifications in mobile device management. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes Quality of service (QoS)? A) A security feature included in IPv6 protocols to prevent ARP spoofing. B) A physical tapping mechanism used to manage network traffic. C) A prioritization process used by network administrators to give certain applications higher priority than others. D) A feature of IPv4 that allows for port address translation.

Correct answer: C Explanation: Quality of service (QoS) is a process used by network administrators to prioritize certain applications over others based on criteria such as response times, bandwidth, and traffic rates. This ensures that high-priority applications such as voice over IP traffic are given higher priority than lower-priority applications such as web browsing or streaming video. QoS can be implemented in various ways, such as in switches, routers, or next-generation firewalls. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) ARP spoofing is a security threat that can occur in both IPv4 and IPv6 networks, but it is not directly related to Quality of service (QoS). B) A physical tapping mechanism such as a tap or a port mirror can be used to monitor network traffic but is not directly related to QoS. D) Port address translation is a feature of IPv4 that allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address, but it is not related to QoS. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-networking-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is residual risk? A. The risk that exists in the absence of security controls B. The likelihood of an event with the consequences of that event C. The effectiveness of your security controls combined with your inherent risk D. The amount of risk an organization may be willing to take

Correct answer: C Explanation: Residual risk is when you take the inherent risk that exists and you combine that with the effectiveness of your security controls. It is the risk that is left over after you have implemented your security controls to mitigate the inherent risk. In contrast, inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of security controls. Options A and D are definitions of inherent risk and risk appetite, respectively. Option B describes the risk matrix and how it works. Explanation: Option A is the definition of inherent risk. Option B describes the risk matrix and how it works. Option D is the definition of risk appetite. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a wildcard certificate? A) A certificate that allows you to encrypt communication to a web server B) A certificate that enables additional features that would show the name of the certificate owner in the browser bar C) A certificate that supports many different hosts by using a wildcard D) A certificate that is used when we are distributing software

Correct answer: C) A certificate that supports many different hosts by using a wildcard Explanation: A wildcard certificate is a certificate that supports many different hosts by using a wildcard. The wildcard is designated with an asterisk, and it means that there can be many hostnames associated with this particular DNS, such as .birdfeeder.live, ftp.birdfeeder.live, ssl.birdfeeder.live, or any other name. This is common to see on sites like cloudflare which is providing a reverse proxy service. So they'll use a single certificate that will support many different sites that are using cloudflare as a service. Incorrect Answers: A) A certificate that allows you to encrypt communication to a web server - This is referred to as domain validation certificates or DV certificates. B) A certificate that enables additional features that would show the name of the certificate owner in the browser bar - This is referred to as an extended validation certificate or EV certificate. D) A certificate that is used when we are distributing software - This is referred to as a code signing certificate. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificates/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an Air Gap in the context of computer security? A) A protected room where you might keep backup tapes B) A type of secured storage for valuable information C) A network security measure that physically isolates sensitive information from unsecured networks D) A safe where valuable information can be stored

Correct answer: C) A network security measure that physically isolates sensitive information from unsecured networks Explanation: An air gap is a type of network security measure used to physically isolate sensitive information from unsecured networks. This is done by ensuring that the computer or network is not connected to any other system or network that could be compromised or exploited in any way. Air gaps are often used in situations where physical security is critical, such as with military installations, government agencies, or nuclear power plants. A) and B) are incorrect because they describe secured areas for storage of valuable resources, but do not specifically relate to network security measures. D) is incorrect because it refers to a specific type of secured storage, which is a safe, but it does not relate to network security measures like air gaps. Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_gap_(networking)

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is CHAP? A) A protocol for providing basic authentication process B) An encryption method for protecting usernames and passwords C) A three-way handshake process that provides encrypted challenge across the network D) A version of CHAP used specifically by Microsoft for PPTP

Correct answer: C) A three-way handshake process that provides encrypted challenge across the network Explanation: CHAP, or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, is an authentication protocol that provides an encrypted challenge response process across the network. It uses a three-way handshake process, where the server sends a challenge message to the client, which is combined with a password hash and sent back to the server for authentication. This process adds an additional layer of security over the basic authentication process provided by PAP. The end user never sees this additional handshake process, but it may occur multiple times while the session is active. CHAP does not send passwords in clear text, rather it uses a combination of a password hash and a challenge. MS-CHAP, or Microsoft CHAP, is a version of CHAP used by Microsoft for PPTP, but is considered weak due to its use of the Data Encryption Standard for encryption. Incorrect answer A) is describing PAP, or Password Authentication Protocol. Incorrect answer B) mistakenly suggests that CHAP is an encryption method rather than an authentication protocol. Incorrect answer D) is a partial explanation of MS-CHAP, but does not fully describe what CHAP is. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/pap-and-chap/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the first thing that should be gathered when acquiring data from a system for forensics? A) Router tables B) Registry keys C) CPU registers and cache D) Archived data

Correct answer: C) CPU registers and cache Explanation: The most volatile data, such as CPU registers and cache, should be gathered first when acquiring data from a system for forensics. This is followed by slightly less volatile data, such as router tables and process tables, and then files and other information that are normally stored on the drive. Archived data, which may be around for years, is gathered last. Explanation for incorrect answers: A) Router tables are less volatile than CPU registers and cache, so they should be gathered after the CPU data. B) Registry keys are not mentioned in the text as a type of volatile data that should be gathered first. D) Archived data is the least volatile and should be gathered last, so this answer is incorrect. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a key benefit of using a Security Information and Event Management Device (SIEM)? A) Collecting information from only a few devices on the network B) Storing data for a short period of time to save on storage space C) Correlating data from different devices to identify events occurring on the network D) Manually configuring firewall rules and email filters to prevent security incidents

Correct answer: C) Correlating data from different devices to identify events occurring on the network Explanation: A SIEM is designed to collect information from anything on the network that can create log files, security alerts, or any type of real-time information that can tell us about what's happening on the network right now. The SIEM is commonly used as a central repository, allowing you to aggregate information from different devices and create reports and historical perspectives of what's been happening on the network over time. By correlating data from different devices, you can start to see events occurring even though the data sources that you're receiving are very different between these different devices. This can be a valuable tool in identifying security incidents. A) Collecting information from only a few devices on the network is incorrect because a SIEM is designed to collect information from anything on the network that can create log files, security alerts, or any type of real-time information. B) Storing data for a short period of time to save on storage space is incorrect because it's common on a SIEM to allocate terabytes and terabytes of storage so that you can collect a lot of this information and store it for a long period of time. D) Manually configuring firewall rules and email filters to prevent security incidents is incorrect because SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) is designed to automate these processes, allowing the computers to react to anything that may be occurring in the network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-information-and-event-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich encryption method is used in the WPA2 protocol on wireless networks? A) Galois Counter Mode Protocol (GCMP) B) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) C) Counter mode with Cipher block chaining Message authentication code Protocol (CCMP) D) Message Integrity Check (MIC)

Correct answer: C) Counter mode with Cipher block chaining Message authentication code Protocol (CCMP) Explanation: The WPA2 protocol on wireless networks uses the Counter mode with Cipher block chaining Message authentication code Protocol (CCMP) for encryption. CCMP uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) for confidentiality and CBC-MAC for the Message Integrity Check (MIC). This means that the data is encrypted and integrity is verified for secure wireless communication. Galois Counter Mode Protocol (GCMP) is used in the updated WPA3 protocol, which has improved security features such as avoiding pre-shared key brute force attacks. Message Integrity Check (MIC) is a feature that helps to verify the integrity of the data being transmitted in wireless networks. Incorrect Answers: A) Galois Counter Mode Protocol (GCMP) is used in the updated WPA3 protocol, not in WPA2. B) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is used for confidentiality in CCMP, not as the encryption method for WPA2. D) Message Integrity Check (MIC) is a feature that helps to verify the integrity of the data being transmitted in wireless networks, but it is not an encryption method. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-cryptography/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes data masking? A) Data is converted to a completely different bit of data that we call a token B) We would only collect data that would be used to perform the needed function C) Data is obfuscated in a way that shows the data exists, but doesn't allow you to see any of it D) We take existing data and make it impossible to identify anything associated with the original data that was saved

Correct answer: C) Data is obfuscated in a way that shows the data exists, but doesn't allow you to see any of it. Explanation: Data masking is a way to obfuscate data in a way that shows the data exists, but doesn't allow you to see any of it. This can protect your personally identifiable information, your financial details, or anything else that might be sensitive. There are many different techniques for masking data, such as shifting data from one place to the other, shuffling numbers around, or masking out the data with some asterisks and only showing the last few numbers of the credit card number. Anonymization, on the other hand, is when we take existing data and make it impossible to identify anything associated with the original data that was saved. Tokenization is a method of using personal data without actually using personal data by replacing it with a completely different bit of data that we call a token. Data minimization is the practice of only collecting data that is needed to perform the necessary function. Incorrect answers: A) Data is converted to a completely different bit of data that we call a token - This is a description of tokenization, not data masking. B) We would only collect data that would be used to perform the needed function - This is a description of data minimization, not data masking. D) We take existing data and make it impossible to identify anything associated with the original data that was saved - This is a description of anonymization, not data masking. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/enhancing-privacy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following devices can provide detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network? A) Switches B) Routers C) Firewalls D) VPN concentrators

Correct answer: C) Firewalls Explanation: Firewalls are security devices that can provide detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. This includes information about traffic flows that may be allowed or blocked, website access that has been denied, and any URL categories that have been blocked by the firewall or proxy. Firewall logs can also provide information about what IPv6 packets have been blocked on the network, and can give us an idea of what attacks may be underway. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) Switches can provide information about what interfaces may be going up and down on the switch, as well as security information about the TCP SYN traffic destined to the local system. However, they do not provide detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. B) Routers can provide router updates and authentication issues, especially if it's a VPN concentrator. However, they do not provide detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. D) VPN concentrators can provide authentication issues and TCP SYN attack information, which is related to a network security issue. However, they do not provide detailed security information about every single traffic flow going through the network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements about HTTP secure headers is true? A) HTTP secure headers are used to encrypt cookies stored on the server. B) HTTP secure headers prevent any data from loading into an IFrame. C) HTTP secure headers are used to restrict the capabilities of a browser to perform certain functions. D) HTTP secure headers allow only cross-site scripting attacks to occur.

Correct answer: C) HTTP secure headers are used to restrict the capabilities of a browser to perform certain functions. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) This statement is incorrect because HTTP secure headers are not used to encrypt cookies stored on the server. Secure cookies have an attribute marked as secure, which tells the browser that if this information is being sent across the network, it needs to be sent over an encrypted connection using HTTPS. B) This statement is incorrect because HTTP secure headers do not prevent any data from loading into an IFrame. Instead, they can be configured to prevent IFrames from loading from external sources. D) This statement is incorrect because HTTP secure headers do not allow only cross-site scripting attacks to occur. Instead, they can be configured to prevent IFrames from loading from external sources. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about hardening guides for operating systems and devices? A) Hardening guides are only available for web servers. B) Hardening guides are not necessary if you have installed the latest software updates. C) Hardening guides provide guidelines for configuring devices and operating systems to make them more secure. D) Hardening guides are only available for Windows operating systems.

Correct answer: C) Hardening guides provide guidelines for configuring devices and operating systems to make them more secure. Explanation: Hardening guides are a set of guidelines that can help you understand what features need to be enabled and disabled to make a device or operating system as safe as possible. These guides provide best practices for understanding how the service should run in the operating system and how to prevent information leakage. They also include a section on updates and making sure that you're running the latest operating system updates or service packs. The correct answer is C. A) This statement is incorrect. Hardening guides are available for all major operating systems and services, not just web servers. B) This statement is incorrect. Hardening guides are important even if you have installed the latest software updates. D) This statement is incorrect. Hardening guides are available for all major operating systems, not just Windows. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a concern related to IoT smart devices on the internet? A) Smart devices are not very functional for monitoring heating and cooling. B) Smart devices cannot be connected to many different types of systems inside our homes and businesses. C) IoT devices are not necessarily created by security professionals and are connected to the internet and our home networks. D) IoT devices are typically directly connected to SCADA networks.

Correct answer: C) IoT devices are not necessarily created by security professionals and are connected to the internet and our home networks. Explanation: IoT smart devices can be very helpful in monitoring and controlling various systems inside our homes and businesses. However, it is important to note that these devices are not necessarily created by security professionals and are connected to the internet and our home networks. As a result, they can be vulnerable to cyberattacks and security breaches. Choice A is incorrect because the text actually says that IoT devices are very functional for monitoring heating and cooling. Choice B is also incorrect because the text says that IoT devices can be connected to many different types of systems inside our homes and businesses. Choice D is incorrect because the text says that SCADA systems are not the kinds of systems that you would have directly connected to the internet. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a benefit of consolidating log files into a Security Information and Event Manager (SIEM)? A) It reduces the amount of log data generated by a device B) It prevents any unauthorized access to log files C) It allows for easy filtering and viewing of log data from multiple devices in one place D) It improves the performance of network devices by reducing the amount of log data generated

Correct answer: C) It allows for easy filtering and viewing of log data from multiple devices in one place. Explanation: Consolidating log files into a SIEM allows for easy filtering and viewing of log data from multiple devices in one place, making it easier to identify security events and potential threats. This provides a more comprehensive view of network activity and makes it easier to identify patterns and anomalies. A SIEM can also help in the correlation of events across multiple log sources, which can help identify and investigate potential security incidents. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the benefits of consolidating log files into a SIEM. Incorrect answer A explanation: This answer is incorrect because consolidating log files into a SIEM does not reduce the amount of log data generated by a device. Instead, it allows for more efficient and effective management of large volumes of log data. Incorrect answer B explanation: This answer is incorrect because consolidating log files into a SIEM does not prevent any unauthorized access to log files. Access control measures should be in place to prevent unauthorized access to log files. Incorrect answer D explanation: This answer is incorrect because consolidating log files into a SIEM does not necessarily improve the performance of network devices by reducing the amount of log data generated. Log data is still generated at the device level, but is consolidated into a single location for ease of management and analysis. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a benefit of using the MITRE ATT&CK framework in IT security? A) It only provides information about known attack types. B) It is only available to US governmental agencies. C) It helps identify specific intrusions and techniques used by attackers. D) It does not include any pre-compromise mitigation strategies.

Correct answer: C) It helps identify specific intrusions and techniques used by attackers. Explanation: The MITRE ATT&CK framework allows users to identify specific categories of attacks, find exact intrusions, and understand how those intrusions occur and how attackers move around after the attack. It also identifies security techniques that can help prevent future attacks. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because the framework provides information about both known and unknown attack types. Option B is incorrect because the framework is available for anyone to view online. Option D is incorrect because the framework does include pre-compromise mitigation strategies, such as how to mitigate active scanning. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/attack-frameworks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a key strategy in application hardening? A) Providing unlimited access to all ports on the device B) Installing software with default configuration C) Keeping the operating system up to date with the latest patches and fixes D) Allowing all applications to make changes to the registry

Correct answer: C) Keeping the operating system up to date with the latest patches and fixes. Explanation: Keeping the operating system up to date with the latest patches and fixes is a key strategy in application hardening. This ensures that any vulnerabilities that are discovered and patched by the manufacturer of the operating system are quickly applied to protect the system from potential attacks. Options A, B and D are incorrect because they are not effective strategies for application hardening. Providing unlimited access to all ports on the device is a major security vulnerability, installing software with default configuration does not provide any protection against attacks, and allowing all applications to make changes to the registry can lead to potential security vulnerabilities. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a key challenge in managing cloud-based environments? A) Managing secret keys and phrases B) Configuring availability zones C) Maintaining user and administrative access D) Consolidating logs from multiple devices

Correct answer: C) Maintaining user and administrative access Explanation: One of the challenges in managing cloud-based environments is ensuring that user and administrative access to the systems is properly managed. This can be done using Identity and Access Management (IAM), which determines who gets access to a particular cloud resource and what they get access to within that resource. Different groups can be created, and job functions can be mapped to those groups, with granular controls based on different criteria. Secret key management (A) and log consolidation (D) are also important considerations in cloud-based environments, but they are not the key challenge discussed in the text. Availability zones (B) are a feature of cloud-based environments that can be leveraged for high availability, but they are not a challenge in and of themselves. Incorrect answer explanations: A) Managing secret keys and phrases is important in cloud-based environments, but it is not the key challenge discussed in the text. B) Availability zones are a feature of cloud-based environments that can be leveraged for high availability, but they are not a challenge in and of themselves. D) Consolidating logs from multiple devices is important for security auditing and compliance, but it is not the key challenge discussed in the text. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-controls/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a standardized method of gathering network statistics from switches, routers, and other devices on your network that separates the probe from the collector, and allows you to customize the type of data you would like to receive from those collectors? A) SNMP B) Syslog C) NetFlow D) rsyslog

Correct answer: C) NetFlow Explanation: NetFlow is a standardized method of gathering network statistics from switches, routers, and other devices on your network that separates the probe from the collector. It allows you to customize the type of data you would like to receive from those collectors. NetFlow information is usually consolidated onto a central NetFlow server, and we're able to view information across all of these devices on a single management console. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) SNMP: SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol, which is used for monitoring and managing devices on a network. However, SNMP is not a method of gathering network statistics from switches, routers, and other devices on your network like NetFlow. B) Syslog: Syslog is a standard method for transferring log files from one device to a centralized database. It is not used for gathering network statistics like NetFlow. D) rsyslog: rsyslog is a syslog daemon for Linux devices that is used for log processing. It is not used for gathering network statistics like NetFlow. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a concern with data breach notification laws when dealing with cloud-based applications? A) Notification laws are more strict for on-premises applications B) Notification laws are less strict for cloud-based applications C) Notification laws may be different depending on the geography of the data D) Notification laws do not apply to cloud-based applications

Correct answer: C) Notification laws may be different depending on the geography of the data. Explanation: When dealing with cloud-based applications, data breach notification laws may be different depending on the location of the data. Many states or countries have laws or regulations that state, if any consumer data happens to be breached, then the consumers must be informed of that situation. However, the laws may be different depending on where the data is stored. The notification requirements might also be different depending on the type of data breached, and what type of notification should be made. Therefore, it is important to know the notification laws when dealing with cloud-based applications. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Notification laws are more strict for on-premises applications - This is not true. Notification laws are not based on whether an application is on-premises or cloud-based. B) Notification laws are less strict for cloud-based applications - This is not true. Notification laws are not based on whether an application is on-premises or cloud-based. D) Notification laws do not apply to cloud-based applications - This is not true. Notification laws apply to all applications regardless of whether they are on-premises or cloud-based. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/on-premises-vs-cloud-forensics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a technique used by application developers to make their code more secure? A) Data normalization B) Code reuse C) Obfuscation D) Server-side validation

Correct answer: C) Obfuscation Explanation: Obfuscation is a way for developers to take their application code and make it very difficult for other human beings to read and understand. This makes it more difficult for attackers to identify security vulnerabilities in the code. While data normalization, code reuse, and server-side validation can all be important for application security, they are not specifically techniques for making code more secure. Incorrect answer explanation: A) Data normalization is an important technique for validating data input into an application, but it is not specifically a technique for making code more secure. B) Code reuse can be a security risk if code with a security vulnerability is copied into multiple applications, but it is not specifically a technique for making code more secure. D) Server-side validation is an important technique for validating data input into an application, but it is not specifically a technique for making code more secure. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-coding-techniques-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is data minimization in relation to privacy enhancing technologies? A) Storing sensitive data in a database and replacing it with a completely different bit of data. B) Collecting all data that is available for a specific transaction. C) Only collecting data that is needed for a specific transaction. D) Obfuscating data in a way that shows the data exists, but doesn't allow you to see any of it.

Correct answer: C) Only collecting data that is needed for a specific transaction. Explanation: Data minimization is the practice of only collecting data that is needed to perform a specific function. This means that if you are on a registration page or paying for something online, it might ask you for a telephone number or address. The question would be, is this information required to be able to perform this transaction? If the credit card verification doesn't require this information, then we may have the option to remove that from the checkout page. This is in line with HIPAA regulations that have a minimum necessary role and GDPR that requires personal data to be adequate, relevant, and not excessive in relation to the purpose, or purposes, for which they are processed. A) Storing sensitive data in a database and replacing it with a completely different bit of data is an explanation of tokenization. B) Collecting all data that is available for a specific transaction is not a privacy enhancing technology. This would be considered excessive data collection. D) Obfuscating data in a way that shows the data exists, but doesn't allow you to see any of it is an explanation of data masking. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/enhancing-privacy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of confidential data? A) Public data B) Private data C) Sensitive data D) Internal use only data

Correct answer: C) Sensitive data Explanation: Confidential data is the most restrictive classification of data and refers to information that is extremely sensitive and should only be viewed by those with the correct permissions. Examples of confidential data include intellectual property, personally identifiable information (PII), and protected health information (PHI). Public data (A) is unclassified data that is available to anyone. Private data (B) may be restricted but is less sensitive than confidential data. Internal use only data (D) refers to data that should only be viewed by authorized personnel within an organization, but it is still less sensitive than confidential data. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of an IoT wearable device? A) Home security system B) Smart thermostat C) Smartwatch D) Video doorbell

Correct answer: C) Smartwatch. Explanation: IoT wearable devices are small devices that can be worn on the body and are connected to the internet, allowing them to communicate with other devices and perform various functions. Smartwatches are a popular example of an IoT wearable device, as they can track fitness data, provide notifications, and even allow you to make phone calls or send messages. Home security systems, smart thermostats, and video doorbells are all examples of IoT devices, but they are not wearable devices. Incorrect answers: A) Home security system - Although home security systems are IoT devices, they are not wearable devices. B) Smart thermostat - Smart thermostats are IoT devices, but they are not wearable devices. D) Video doorbell - Video doorbells are IoT devices, but they are not wearable devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the main difference between stream ciphers and block ciphers? A) Stream ciphers encrypt a fixed length block of information at a time, while block ciphers encrypt one byte at a time. B) Block ciphers use symmetric encryption, while stream ciphers use asymmetric encryption. C) Stream ciphers encrypt one byte at a time, while block ciphers encrypt a fixed length block of information at a time. D) Block ciphers are only used with asymmetric encryption, while stream ciphers are only used with symmetric encryption.

Correct answer: C) Stream ciphers encrypt one byte at a time, while block ciphers encrypt a fixed length block of information at a time. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) This answer is incorrect because it is describing the opposite of what the text explains. Stream ciphers encrypt one byte at a time, while block ciphers encrypt a fixed length block of information at a time. B) This answer is incorrect because it is not true that block ciphers ONLY use symmetric encryption, though it is common. Stream ciphers more commonly use symmetric encryption, as stated in the text. D) This answer is incorrect because it is completely false. Stream ciphers and block ciphers both can and commonly use symmetric encryption, as stated in the text. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the name of the standard used to send log files from different devices into a central repository on a Security Information and Event Management Device (SIEM)? A) SNMP B) SMTP C) Syslog D) SFTP

Correct answer: C) Syslog Explanation: The standard used to send log files from different devices into a central repository on a Security Information and Event Management Device (SIEM) is called syslog. The syslog compatible collector that is part of the SIEM is waiting for messages to be sent from all of those different diverse devices on the network, and the format of those messages coming into the syslog collector are in this standard syslog format. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol used to manage and monitor network devices. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used for sending and receiving email messages. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used for secure file transfer over the internet. Incorrect answer A) SNMP: SNMP is a protocol used to manage and monitor network devices, not for sending log files to a central repository on a SIEM. Incorrect answer B) SMTP: SMTP is a protocol used for sending and receiving email messages, not for sending log files to a central repository on a SIEM. Incorrect answer D) SFTP: SFTP is a protocol used for secure file transfer over the internet, not for sending log files to a central repository on a SIEM. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-information-and-event-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Who is responsible for deciding what type of sensitivity label is going to be associated with the data in an organization? A) The Security team B) The Compliance team C) The Data Steward D) The IT department

Correct answer: C) The Data Steward Explanation of the correct answer: The person in charge of managing data governance is the data steward, who is responsible for data privacy, for making sure that the data is accurate, and ensuring that all of the data remain secure. This is also the person or the group that will decide what type of sensitivity label is going to be associated with this data. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) The Security team is responsible for protecting the organization from various security threats, including data breaches. However, they are not responsible for deciding what type of sensitivity label is going to be associated with the data in an organization. B) The Compliance team is responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with various compliance regulations and laws. While compliance regulations and laws may have to be followed depending on the type of data that is being stored, they are not responsible for deciding what type of sensitivity label is going to be associated with the data. D) The IT department is responsible for managing the information technology infrastructure in an organization. While they may have access to the data, they are not responsible for deciding what type of sensitivity label is going to be associated with the data. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-data/ax/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following statements about penetration testing is true when it comes to the known environment? A) The person performing the test knows nothing about the environment. B) The person performing the test knows everything about the environment. C) The person performing the test may be provided with information about some key systems. D) The person performing the test is not required to have permission to exploit the vulnerabilities found.

Correct answer: C) The person performing the test may be provided with information about some key systems. Explanation: In a known environment penetration test, the person performing the test is provided with information about some key systems to be tested. This is in contrast to an unknown environment test where the tester goes into the test completely blind and builds out the database of everything they find as they go. The rules of engagement defined the purpose of the test and what the scope will be for the people who are performing this test on the network. The rules of engagement will be a list of IP addresses of devices that are in scope for the penetration test, and the devices that should not be used or considered as part of the test. The person performing the test is required to have permission to exploit the vulnerabilities found. Incorrect answers: A) The person performing the test knows nothing about the environment - This is incorrect. This describes an unknown environment test. B) The person performing the test knows everything about the environment - This is incorrect. This is not a common scenario for a penetration test. D) The person performing the test is not required to have permission to exploit the vulnerabilities found - This is incorrect. It is important that the person performing these tests have permission to exploit the vulnerabilities that are on that system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is data retention in an organization? A) The process of determining data sensitivity and applying proper rules and procedures for that type of data. B) The process of managing data governance and ensuring that data is categorized and managed properly. C) The process of saving different versions of a file, sometimes over a number of days or weeks. D) The process of determining what data should be deleted and for how long.

Correct answer: C) The process of saving different versions of a file, sometimes over a number of days or weeks. Explanation: Data retention refers to the process of retaining data, especially data that might change often, by saving different versions of a file, sometimes over a number of days or weeks. This can help in case of a virus infection or if there is a need to roll back to a previous version of known good data. The other options in the question are related to data governance and determining how data should be categorized, managed, and handled. Incorrect answers: A) The process of determining data sensitivity and applying proper rules and procedures for that type of data is related to data governance and management. B) The process of managing data governance and ensuring that data is categorized and managed properly is related to data governance and management. D) The process of determining what data should be deleted and for how long is related to data disposal and not data retention. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-data/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a potential consequence of a penetration test if there is not a process in place to get a system back up and running if something fails during the test? A) The organization may need to purchase new hardware or software. B) Sensitive information may be lost. C) The system may become permanently damaged. D) The penetration tester may gain unauthorized access to other devices on the network.

Correct answer: C) The system may become permanently damaged. Explanation: During a penetration test, there is potential for creating a denial of service, or crashing the system that the particular data might be on. Therefore, if something does fail, there needs to be a process in place to get that system back up and running. Otherwise, the system may become permanently damaged. Choice A is incorrect because purchasing new hardware or software is not mentioned as a potential consequence in the text. Choice B is incorrect because there is no mention of sensitive information being lost during a penetration test. Choice D is incorrect because it is not a consequence of a failure during a penetration test, but rather a potential outcome if the penetration tester gains unauthorized access to other devices on the network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the role and responsibility of a data custodian/steward in an organization? A) They define the privacy policies for the organization B) They process the data within the organization C) They are responsible for the accuracy of the data and keeping it secure D) They are responsible for the purposes and means by which the data is processed

Correct answer: C) They are responsible for the accuracy of the data and keeping it secure. Explanation: Data custodians or data stewards are responsible for ensuring the accuracy of the data, keeping all of the data private, and maintaining the security associated with the data that's stored in the systems. They are also responsible for identifying or setting labels associated with data, so that only authorized personnel have access to it. Additionally, they keep track of all the laws and regulations associated with data to ensure that the organization complies with all of those rules. Finally, they may implement security controls for the data and determine exactly who might have access to that information. Incorrect answers explained: A) This is the role of a data protection officer or DPO. B) This is the role of a data processor. D) This is the role of a data controller. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-roles-and-responsibilities/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a risk associated with third-party access to data storage systems? A) Third-party vendors are too expensive and should not be used. B) Third-party vendors will always prioritize their own interests over the interests of their clients. C) Third-party integrators may be able to run software to capture data from the network without needing to go through any type of security controls. D) Third-party vendors are always reliable and can be trusted to maintain the security of systems.

Correct answer: C) Third-party integrators may be able to run software to capture data from the network without needing to go through any type of security controls. Explanation of correct answer: The text mentions that third-party integrators may have access to data through virtual access, physical access, or terminal screens, and they may be able to run software to capture data directly from the network without going through security controls. This is a significant risk associated with third-party access to data storage systems. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) This answer is incorrect because the text does not suggest that third-party vendors are too expensive and should not be used. B) This answer is incorrect because the text does not suggest that third-party vendors will always prioritize their own interests over the interests of their clients. In fact, it emphasizes the importance of partnering with vendors that will be aware of security problems and be able to react to them quickly. D) This answer is incorrect because the text emphasizes that vendors may not always be motivated enough to keep systems up to date and safe, and it is important to partner with vendors that will be aware of security problems and be able to react to them quickly. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the main function of a power distribution unit (PDU)? A) To provide battery power to devices during outages B) To act as a backup power source for generators C) To distribute power from a single source to multiple devices D) To control the voltage of power sources for devices

Correct answer: C) To distribute power from a single source to multiple devices Explanation: A power distribution unit (PDU) is a device that provides multiple power sources to multiple devices. Its main function is to distribute power from a single source to multiple devices, as well as to monitor power loads and report any issues. While a PDU may be used in conjunction with a UPS or generator, its primary function is not to act as a backup power source, but rather to distribute power to devices. Incorrect answers: A) To provide battery power to devices during outages: This is the function of a UPS, not a PDU. B) To act as a backup power source for generators: While a PDU may be used in conjunction with a generator, its primary function is not to act as a backup power source for the generator. D) To control the voltage of power sources for devices: This is not the main function of a PDU. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/power-redundancy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the purpose of a chain of custody in digital forensics? A) To ensure that only authorized personnel have access to the data B) To document what was changed on the device C) To ensure that the data collected remains unchanged and verifiable D) To document the time zone of the device

Correct answer: C) To ensure that the data collected remains unchanged and verifiable Explanation: A chain of custody is a documentation process used to ensure that the data collected in a digital forensics investigation remains unchanged and verifiable. It documents who collected the data, where it was collected, and when it was collected. Anyone who comes in contact with the data must document what they did with it, ensuring that it remains unchanged and verifiable. This is important because the data collected may be used in a court of law, and it needs to be admissible. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the purpose of a chain of custody. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/digital-forensics-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of separating a data center into cold aisles and hot aisles? A) To keep the entire room at an optimal temperature B) To provide cool air to the equipment on the hot side C) To only cool the sections of the room that require cooling D) To trap all of the cold air inside the hot aisle

Correct answer: C) To only cool the sections of the room that require cooling Explanation: Separating a data center into cold aisles and hot aisles allows for targeted cooling only in the sections of the room where it is necessary, rather than trying to cool the entire room. The equipment is designed to blow air in a single direction, from the cold aisle to the hot aisle, and ventilation equipment captures the hot air in the hot aisle and recycles it back into the cooling system. This creates an energy-efficient cooling system that is only focused on the areas of the room that need it. Incorrect Answers: A) To keep the entire room at an optimal temperature - This answer is incorrect because the purpose of separating the data center into cold aisles and hot aisles is to only cool the sections of the room that require cooling, not to cool the entire room. B) To provide cool air to the equipment on the hot side - This answer is incorrect because the equipment on the hot side of the aisle is designed to receive hot air, not cool air. D) To trap all of the cold air inside the hot aisle - This answer is incorrect because the purpose of the hot aisle containment system is to trap all of the hot air inside the hot aisle, not the cold air. The cold air is pushed up through the racks and into the hot aisle. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an important security policy associated with user accounts? A) Sharing user accounts between employees is acceptable if they have the same job title. B) User accounts should be configured with privileged access by default. C) User accounts should be unique and associated with an individual. D) Users should be allowed to share passwords with their coworkers.

Correct answer: C) User accounts should be unique and associated with an individual. Explanation: It is important that user accounts are unique and tied to an individual so that it can be determined who is accessing the system at any given time. Sharing user accounts between employees is not acceptable. User accounts should not have privileged access by default. Users should never be allowed to share passwords with their coworkers. Incorrect answers: A) Sharing user accounts between employees is not acceptable. B) User accounts should not have privileged access by default. D) Users should never be allowed to share passwords with their coworkers. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/credential-policies/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is NOT a biometric authentication factor that can be used for authentication? A) Fingerprint B) Retina C) Username D) Iris

Correct answer: C) Username Explanation: Biometric authentication factors are physical or behavioral traits that are unique to an individual and can be used for authentication. The options A, B, and D are all examples of biometric authentication factors that can be used for authentication. However, a username is not a biometric authentication factor, it is a knowledge factor. Knowledge factors are something that a user knows, such as a password or a PIN. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Username. Incorrect answers: A) Fingerprint, iris, and retina are all examples of biometric authentication factors. B) Retina, iris, and fingerprint are all examples of biometric authentication factors. D) Iris, retina, and fingerprint are all examples of biometric authentication factors. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an important security policy associated with user accounts? A) All users have privileged access by default B) Users can share their personal accounts with other users C) Users should be given a single personal account that is associated with an identification number D) Users should store passwords on the client side

Correct answer: C) Users should be given a single personal account that is associated with an identification number Explanation: It is important for users to have their own personal account that is not shared with someone else. This ensures that the only person who could be logging in with this account is the single owner of that account. The username associated with an identification number is used by the operating system to always be sure that the user ID and the single user logging in is always the same person. This is an important security policy associated with user accounts. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) All users have privileged access by default: This is incorrect as it is important to limit user access to the operating system and provide access only to what is necessary for them to perform their work. B) Users can share their personal accounts with other users: This is incorrect as sharing of personal accounts is not recommended as it violates security policies and makes it difficult to track activities. D) Users should store passwords on the client side: This is incorrect as passwords should never be stored on the client side. It is recommended that all passwords should reside on the server side and the client will type in passwords on demand. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/credential-policies/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat should be the first type of data gathered during a forensic analysis of a system? A) Files stored on the system B) Physical configuration of the device C) Information in backups and archival media D) Data that is stored in the CPU

Correct answer: D Explanation: The data that is the most volatile, or data that is in the CPU, should be the first type of data gathered during forensic analysis. This includes information such as CPU registers and CPU cache. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Files stored on the system should be gathered after more volatile data is collected. B) The physical configuration of the device should be gathered last as it is typically the least volatile. C) Information in backups and archival media should be gathered towards the end of the process as these are typically long-term storage areas. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the purpose of using a P12 certificate format? A) To easily transfer a binary file over email without modification by the email system. B) To manage certificates in the Windows operating system. C) To include both a private and public key pair in the same container. D) To transfer multiple certificates at once within a standard container format.

Correct answer: D Explanation: The purpose of using a P12 certificate format is to transfer multiple certificates at once within a standard container format. This is a container format where many certificates can be inside the standard format, usually sent as .P12 or .PFX file. We might commonly use this to transfer a private and public key pair within the same container. This also supports the ability to password protect this, which is especially important if you're transferring a private key. Explanation for incorrect answers: A) While base64 encoding can make a binary file readable in an email, it is not the specific purpose of using a P12 certificate format. B) The CSR and CER formats are more commonly used for managing certificates in the Windows operating system, not the P12 format. C) While a P12 certificate format can include both a private and public key pair in the same container, it is not the specific purpose of using this format. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-formats/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is full disk encryption? A) A technique that limits what IP addresses and port numbers are accessible on a device. B) A technique to encrypt only certain files or folders on a storage device. C) A standard associated with self-encrypting drives. D) A technique to encrypt all data on a storage device.

Correct answer: D) A technique to encrypt all data on a storage device. Explanation: Full Disk Encryption (FDE) is a technique that encrypts all data on a storage device, such as a hard drive or solid-state drive, and ensures that the data is only accessible with the correct authentication. This technique can be used to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data on lost or stolen devices. Windows BitLocker is an example of a built-in FDE utility in the Windows operating system. Option A refers to port restrictions, option B refers to file or folder encryption, and option C refers to a standard for self-encrypting drives. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a security control that can be implemented to prevent the spread of malicious software? A) Mobile Device Manager B) URL filters C) Certificate deployment D) Application containment

Correct answer: D) Application containment Explanation: Application containment is a security control that involves running each application in its own sandbox so that if one application is infected with malware, the malware cannot spread to other applications or devices on the network. Mobile Device Manager, URL filters, and certificate deployment are all important security controls, but they are not directly related to preventing the spread of malicious software. Incorrect answer A) Mobile Device Manager: This is a security control that is used to apply policies on mobile devices to protect them from malware or other threats, but it does not directly prevent the spread of malicious software. Incorrect answer B) URL filters: This is a security control that blocks access to known malicious websites, but it does not prevent the spread of malicious software. Incorrect answer C) Certificate deployment: This is a security control that involves issuing certificates to trusted devices and services to control access to network resources, but it does not directly prevent the spread of malicious software. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich certificate format is ASCII-based and commonly used in the Windows operating system for importing and exporting certificates? A) DER format B) PKCS number 12 C) PKCS number seven D) CSR format

Correct answer: D) CSR format Explanation: The text states that the CSR format, or certificate format, is primarily used in Windows and is a common way to import and export certificates in the operating system. It provides flexibility for including binary DER format or the ASCII PEM format, but normally only contains the public key. This format is different from the DER format, which is a binary format commonly used for X.509 certificates, as well as the PKCS number 12 and number 7 formats, which are container formats for holding multiple certificates and not specific to the Windows operating system. Incorrect answer A) DER format is a binary format commonly used for X.509 certificates, as stated in the text. Incorrect answer B) PKCS number 12 is a container format for holding multiple certificates, often used to transfer private and public key pairs within the same container, and may be password protected, as stated in the text. It is also commonly sent as a .P12 or .PFX file. Incorrect answer C) PKCS number seven is another container format for holding multiple certificates, commonly sent as a .P7B file, according to the text. It is also an ASCII file that can be read and easily transferred over email. Although it is supported in the Windows operating system, it is not primarily used for importing and exporting certificates in Windows like the CSR format. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-formats/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a technique used for hardening applications on Windows systems? A) Using self-encrypting drives that follow the Opal standard B) Keeping the operating system up to date with the latest patches and updates C) Using sandbox functionality to limit the scope of an application D) Creating a hierarchical structure for the Windows Registry

Correct answer: D) Creating a hierarchical structure for the Windows Registry Explanation: One technique used for hardening applications on Windows systems is to perform a number of application hardening tasks inside of the Windows Registry. The Windows Registry is a large database that contains configuration settings for the Windows operating system and the applications that run on that operating system. Windows administrators can use the registry to perform a number of hardening tasks, such as configuring permissions, disabling vulnerabilities, and making other changes that can improve the security of the system. Incorrect answers: A) Using self-encrypting drives that follow the Opal standard is a technique used to encrypt information that is stored on hard drives and other storage devices. While this can help to protect the data that is stored on the device, it is not specifically related to application hardening on Windows systems. B) Keeping the operating system up to date with the latest patches and updates is a technique used to improve the security of an operating system by addressing known vulnerabilities and other issues that can be exploited by attackers. While this is an important technique for improving the overall security of a Windows system, it is not specifically related to application hardening. C) Using sandbox functionality to limit the scope of an application is a technique used to restrict the access of an application to other parts of the system, such as other applications, data, or the network. This can help to prevent attackers from using an application to gain access to other parts of the system. While this is an important technique for improving the security of an application, it is not specifically related to Windows Registry hardening. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-hardening/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a feature of using a load balancer for SSL/TLS encryption? A) The load balancer does not perform SSL/TLS encryption B) The individual servers perform SSL/TLS encryption C) The load balancer performs SSL/TLS encryption in software D) The load balancer performs SSL/TLS encryption in hardware

Correct answer: D) Explanation: The load balancer can perform SSL/TLS encryption and decryption in hardware, which can offload the CPU cycles and improve communication speed between the load balancer and servers. This is known as SSL offloading. Choice A is incorrect because the load balancer can perform SSL/TLS encryption. Choice B is incorrect because the individual servers may not have the hardware or processing power to handle encryption and decryption for all incoming requests. Choice C is incorrect because performing SSL/TLS encryption in software on the load balancer can use up valuable processing power and slow down communication. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/load-balancing-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a type of penetration testing where the person performing the test knows everything about the environment? A) Blind testing B) Double-blind testing C) Partially known environment testing D) Full disclosure testing

Correct answer: D) Full disclosure testing Explanation: Full disclosure testing is a type of penetration testing where the person performing the test knows everything about the environment. In this type of testing, the tester is provided with all the information about the systems they will be testing. This is typically done in an internal testing scenario. Blind testing (A) is a type of testing where the person performing the test knows nothing about the systems they will be testing. Double-blind testing (B) is a type of testing where neither the person performing the test nor the people being tested know anything about the systems. Partially known environment testing (C) is a type of testing where the person performing the test is provided with some information about the systems they will be testing, but not all the information. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about platform/vendor-specific guides for application server configuration? A) Platform/vendor-specific guides are not necessary for securing a device. B) Hardening guides for web servers do not cover how to prevent data leakage. C) Hardening guides for operating systems do not include a section on updates. D) Hardening guides for application servers cover how to configure permissions for the software.

Correct answer: D) Hardening guides for application servers cover how to configure permissions for the software. Explanation of the correct answer: The text states that a hardening guide for an application server should include information on configuring the application server software to have the correct permissions on the system, ensuring that the application server has the ability to perform the functions that it needs, but also has limited access to the operating system. Therefore, option D is correct. Explanation of the incorrect answers: A) Platform/vendor-specific guides are not necessary for securing a device. This statement is false as platform/vendor-specific guides are necessary for understanding what configurations are safe for the system. B) Hardening guides for web servers do not cover how to prevent data leakage. This statement is false as a hardening guide for a web server might include information on how to prevent information leakage by adding banner information and disabling any type of directory browsing. C) Hardening guides for operating systems do not include a section on updates. This statement is false as hardening guides for operating systems commonly include a section on updates, making sure that the latest operating system updates or the latest service packs are installed, and that all necessary security patches are in place. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-configurations-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of a secure coding practice that can be used to prevent application vulnerabilities? A) Fuzzing the application input fields to test for buffer overflows B) Storing personal information in cookies C) Using static code analysis to find every type of vulnerability in the code D) Normalizing data input variables to resolve issues with input validation

Correct answer: D) Normalizing data input variables to resolve issues with input validation Explanation: Normalizing data input variables to resolve issues with input validation is an important secure coding practice that can prevent application vulnerabilities. This involves checking all data that is input into the application, and if anything is outside the scope of what it should be, those input variables should be resolved. This process of checking and correcting the data that's being input is called normalization. It's important that the application developer understand exactly what input is being used and how that input is being handled by the application. Fuzzing, storing personal information in cookies, and using static code analysis are important security practices, but they are not specifically related to preventing vulnerabilities that can be caused by improper data input validation. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Fuzzing the application input fields to test for buffer overflows is not a secure coding practice to prevent application vulnerabilities. Fuzzing is a task called dynamic analysis where random data is simply being put into the input of an application. This is not the same as secure coding practices that prevent vulnerabilities caused by improper data input validation. B) Storing personal information in cookies is not a secure coding practice to prevent application vulnerabilities. Cookies are used to track information for a limited time and are not designed to store private or personal information. Additionally, secure cookies have an attribute marked as secure to ensure they are sent over an encrypted connection using HTTPS, but this does not relate to preventing vulnerabilities caused by improper data input validation. C) Using static code analysis to find every type of vulnerability in the code is not a secure coding practice to prevent application vulnerabilities. Static code analysis can help identify vulnerabilities in the code, but it does not find every type of vulnerability. Additionally, it does not relate to preventing vulnerabilities caused by improper data input validation. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a difference between cloud-based and on-premises authentication systems? A) Cloud-based authentication systems are more secure than on-premises authentication systems. B) On-premises authentication systems are managed by a third party. C) Cloud-based authentication systems require internal staff to configure the system. D) On-premises authentication systems are located in the local data center.

Correct answer: D) On-premises authentication systems are located in the local data center. Explanation: The text explains that cloud-based authentication systems are usually managed by a third party and accessed from anywhere in the world, while on-premises authentication systems are located in the local data center and require internal staff to monitor and configure the system. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Cloud-based authentication systems are more secure than on-premises authentication systems. This statement is not true or supported by the text. Security depends on many factors, and there is no evidence to suggest that one type of authentication system is inherently more secure than the other. B) On-premises authentication systems are managed by a third party. This statement is incorrect. The text explains that cloud-based authentication systems are usually managed by a third party, while on-premises authentication systems are managed internally. C) Cloud-based authentication systems require internal staff to configure the system. This statement is also incorrect. The text explains that on-premises authentication systems require internal staff to configure the system, while cloud-based authentication systems are managed by a third party. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of privacy enhancing technology that allows the conversion of data back if needed? A) Hashing B) Data Minimization C) Anonymization D) Pseudo-anonymization

Correct answer: D) Pseudo-anonymization Explanation: Pseudo-anonymization is a privacy-enhancing technology that enables data to be converted back if required. This means that while the original data may be concealed or altered, it is still retrievable if necessary. Pseudo-anonymization is used when statistical relationships need to be maintained between data while still protecting individual privacy. In contrast, hashing is a one-way process that encrypts data without a way to reverse the encryption. Data minimization refers to collecting only the data that is necessary to perform a particular task. Anonymization refers to concealing or altering data in such a way that it is impossible to identify anything associated with the original data. Incorrect answer explanations: A) Hashing is a one-way process that encrypts data without a way to reverse the encryption. B) Data minimization refers to collecting only the data that is necessary to perform a particular task. C) Anonymization refers to concealing or altering data in such a way that it is impossible to identify anything associated with the original data. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/enhancing-privacy/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a type of information that can be found in a DNS log file? A) Authentication events B) Memory dump files C) Details about what pages were viewed on a web server D) Queries made against the DNS server

Correct answer: D) Queries made against the DNS server Explanation: A DNS log file contains information about queries made against the DNS server. This can include the IP address of the request, as well as the fully-qualified domain name for the request. By reviewing the DNS log file, one can determine if someone is attempting to perform a name resolution to a known malicious site or site that has known command and control information, which may indicate that a device has already been infected on the inside of the network. The DNS log file can also be used to block any attempts that have been made to resolve a known malicious site and to identify potentially infected devices. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Authentication events are typically found in an authentication log file. B) Memory dump files are created on demand and are not typically found in log files. C) Information about what pages were viewed on a web server is typically found in a web server log file, not a DNS log file. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-files/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of rapid elasticity in cloud computing? A) Resources can be scaled up and down as needed B) End users are unaware of the scaling process C) Resources can be allocated instantly through a few clicks D) Rapid elasticity is particularly useful for organizations with non-cyclical processes

Correct answer: D) Rapid elasticity is particularly useful for organizations with non-cyclical processes. Explanation: Rapid elasticity is a characteristic of cloud computing that allows resources to be scaled up or down as needed. It is particularly useful for organizations with cyclical processes, such as an accounting department that needs more resources at the beginning and end of the month. End users are unaware of the scaling process, and resources can be allocated instantly through a few clicks. However, rapid elasticity is not useful for organizations with non-cyclical processes because they require a more stable resource allocation. Incorrect answers: A) Resources can be scaled up and down as needed. This is a characteristic of rapid elasticity in cloud computing. B) End users are unaware of the scaling process. This is a characteristic of rapid elasticity in cloud computing. C) Resources can be allocated instantly through a few clicks. This is a characteristic of rapid elasticity in cloud computing. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/free-a-plus-training/220-902/basic-cloud-concepts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes a zero-day attack? A. An attack that occurs when an attacker uses an administrator or root account to gain access to an operating system. B. An attack that occurs when an attacker gains access to data that has been left open without security applied to it. C. An attack that occurs when an attacker takes advantage of default usernames and passwords to gain control over IoT devices. D. An attack that occurs when an attacker exploits a vulnerability that has never been seen before.

Correct answer: D. An attack that occurs when an attacker exploits a vulnerability that has never been seen before. Explanation of incorrect answers: A. This answer describes an attack that occurs when an attacker gains access to an operating system using an administrator or root account. B. This answer describes an attack that occurs when an attacker gains access to data that has been left open without security applied to it. C. This answer describes an attack that occurs when an attacker takes advantage of default usernames and passwords to gain control over IoT devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is GPS tagging, and why might it be a security concern for mobile devices? A. A way to enable NFC payments on a mobile device, which could potentially allow unauthorized access to secure data. B. A way to transfer data off of mobile devices using cables, flash drives, or SD cards, which could lead to data leaks. C. A way to record audio using mobile devices, which could result in legal issues due to differing state laws and situations. D. A way to store location data in metadata when saving documents, taking pictures, or storing audio information, which might reveal sensitive information if accessed.

D is the correct answer because GPS tagging or geotagging is the process of storing location data in metadata when saving documents, taking pictures, or storing audio information. This could be a security concern if access to these documents is given to unauthorized personnel as they can know the location information of the device owner. A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent GPS tagging or geotagging, as described in the text above. Option A is pertaining to NFC payments, and Option B is about transferring data via cables, flash drives, or SD cards.Option C discusses the legal issues that could come with the recording of audio using mobile devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a security framework designed for effective cybersecurity defense? A) NIST RMF B) SOC 2 C) ISO/IEC 27001 D) CIS CSC

D) CIS CSC is a security framework designed for effective cybersecurity defense that focuses on critical security controls in 20 different areas. It is written by technologists so that it can be implemented by technologists and it contains practical information that can be applied to a project and begin implementing these controls in an environment. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. A) NIST RMF is a security framework for risk management in the United States Federal Government agency for security and privacy, consisting of six different steps to follow in the system lifecycle. This is relevant in a federal government context, but it is not about effective cybersecurity defense. B) SOC 2 deals with auditing and reporting on the controls associated with trust services criteria, or security controls. There are two types of audits. A type I audit examines the controls in place at a particular date and time, and a type II audit tests the controls over a period that will be at least six consecutive months in length. This has nothing to do with effective cybersecurity defense. C) ISO/IEC 27001 is a standard for Information Security Management Systems, or ISMS. In addition, the 27002 is a code of practice for information security controls, while ISO/IEC 27701 focuses on privacy, with the Privacy Information Management Systems or PIMS, and on the risk management side is the ISO 31000 for the international standards for risk management practices. These are very detailed standards and have a very broad scope, and are used to provide standardization on an international level, but they are not focused on effective cybersecurity defense. Therefore, the correct answer is D) CIS CSC. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-frameworks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a characteristic of a stateless firewall? A) It tracks the state of connections B) It creates a session between two hosts C) It inspects the contents of packets D) It evaluates each packet independently

D) It evaluates each packet independently. A stateless firewall evaluates each packet independently, without tracking the state of connections or creating sessions between hosts. This type of firewall is also known as a packet filtering firewall. It examines individual packets based on their header information and rules configured in the firewall. Stateless firewalls are generally faster and less resource-intensive than stateful firewalls but provide less security. A) is incorrect because a stateful firewall tracks the state of connections by keeping track of active connections and evaluating subsequent packets in the context of that connection. B) is incorrect because a stateful firewall creates a session between two hosts and keeps track of the connection state. C) is incorrect because a firewall that inspects the contents of packets is called an application layer firewall or proxy firewall. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-network-appliances/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is used to manage the applications running on mobile devices while maintaining security across all devices? A) Unified endpoint management (UEM) B) Hardware security module (HSM) C) Security enhancements for Android (SEAndroid) D) Mobile application management (MAM)

D) Mobile application management (MAM) allows for the management of applications running on mobile devices while maintaining security across all devices. MAM can be used to manage applications on mobile devices by creating sandboxes between different applications running on the operating system, providing fine-grained control of data on mobile devices, and being able to delete data associated with one particular application. A) Unified endpoint management (UEM) is used to manage the security posture across all different types of devices. B) Hardware security module (HSM) is a physical device that provides cryptographic features for computers where a microSD HSM can be used for mobile devices. C) Security enhancements for Android (SEAndroid) provides security across the Android operating system by preventing direct access to the kernel and by changing the way data is accessed on mobile devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-security-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich cryptography term helps verify the integrity of a downloaded file or email? A) Ciphertext B) Cryptanalysis C) Cryptographic key D) Non-repudiation

D) Non-repudiation is the cryptography term that helps verify the integrity of a downloaded file or email. Non-repudiation provides a way for us to verify that the person who sent us information was really the person who provided us with that information. This means that we can ensure that the data we receive was not tampered with in transit. A) Ciphertext refers to the encrypted message that is generated after encrypting the original message or plaintext. B) Cryptanalysis is the art of cracking the encryption that already exists. C) Cryptographic key is the information that is added to the cipher to be able to encrypt the plaintext. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich type of certificate authority is kept offline to protect against compromise? A) Mesh CA B) Online CA C) Leaf CA D) Offline CA

D) Offline CA is the correct answer. Offline CAs are kept offline to protect against compromise. By storing the root CA offline, one can reduce the scope of any type of compromise of a single intermediate CA. This means that we would only have to recreate a new CA and distribute a fraction of all of the total certificates in our environment. This also means that the root CA remains protected, and if we need to create all new intermediate CAs, we have a protected CA that could not have been compromised. Online CAs, on the other hand, are connected to the network and are used to create and distribute SSL and TLS certificates. Mesh CAs are a network of CAs where every CA trusts every other CA, while Leaf CAs are subordinate to Intermediate CAs. Incorrect Answers: A) Mesh CA is incorrect. Mesh CAs are a network of CAs where every CA trusts every other CA. B) Online CA is incorrect. Online CAs are used to create and distribute SSL and TLS certificates. C) Leaf CA is incorrect. Leaf CAs are subordinate to Intermediate CAs in a hierarchical structure of CAs. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/certificate-concepts/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following authentication protocols sends information in clear text without encryption? A) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) B) Microsoft CHAP (MS-CHAP) C) Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) D) Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

D) Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) sends information in clear text without encryption which makes it a weak authentication scheme. Although the application performing the authentication encrypts the password and implements encryption, the username is still visible in clear text. A) CHAP provides an encrypted challenge sent across the network making it more secure than PAP. B) MS-CHAP is an old implementation of security that uses a weak type of encryption known as the data encryption standard. C) SAML is a commonly used XML framework for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties. SAML provides cross-domain single sign-on (SSO) and single logout (SLO) capabilities. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/pap-and-chap/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following protocols uses SSH to provide encryption for file transfers? A) FTPS B) LDAP C) SNMPv3 D) SFTP

D) SFTP uses SSH to provide encryption for file transfers. While FTPS uses SSL to encrypt information, SFTP includes additional management capabilities, such as the ability to resume interrupted transfers and manipulate the file system. LDAP is a protocol used for accessing centralized directories, and can use SASL for security. SNMPv3 is a version of Simple Network Management Protocol that includes encryption, integrity, and authentication capabilities. A) FTPS uses SSL to encrypt information, but does not use SSH for encryption in file transfers. B) LDAP is used for accessing centralized directories, but does not provide encryption for file transfers. C) SNMPv3 includes encryption, integrity, and authentication capabilities, but does not use SSH for encryption in file transfers. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat protocol should be used to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of SNMP communication? A) FTPS B) SFTP C) HTTP D) SNMPv3

D) SNMPv3. SNMPv3, or Simple Network Management Protocol version 3, added encryption to ensure confidentiality of data, as well as integrity and authentication capabilities to prevent data tampering and ensure direct communication with the device. FTPS and SFTP are secure file transfer protocols, while HTTP is an insecure protocol. A) FTPS and B) SFTP are incorrect because they are secure file transfer protocols, not protocols for securing SNMP communication. C) HTTP is incorrect because it is an insecure protocol and not related to SNMP communication. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following tools can be used to perform a port scan through a proxy? A) Nmap B) Hping C) Nessus D) Scanless

D) Scanless is a utility that allows you to perform a port scan through a proxy. This allows you to effectively scan a network from a different host, which can be useful for avoiding detection or performing scans from a remote location. Nmap, Hping, and Nessus are all different types of reconnaissance tools, but they do not have the specific capability of performing a port scan through a proxy. A) Nmap is a popular scanning tool that can be used to identify open ports on a device, determine the operating system running on a remote device, and run additional scripts to identify vulnerabilities and other tests on a device. B) Hping is a command-line utility that allows you to send and receive custom packets over a network, and can be used to identify what ports might be open on a device. C) Nessus is a vulnerability scanner that can be used to identify many known vulnerabilities on a device or network, and can help report and identify vulnerabilities and help resolve problems on those systems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a method used in WPA3 to create a shared session key without sending that key across the network? A) Diffie-Hellman key exchange B) Counter mode with Cipher block chaining Message authentication code Protocol C) Message Integrity Check D) Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)

D) Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) is a method used in WPA3 to create a shared session key without sending that key across the network. SAE is derived from the Diffie-Hellman key exchange process, with additional authentication capabilities added. This method allows everyone on the network using the same pre-shared key to generate a different session key, preventing brute force attacks. A) Diffie-Hellman key exchange is the process that SAE is derived from. B) Counter mode with Cipher block chaining Message authentication code Protocol is used in WPA2 for message integrity checks, not for creating shared session keys. C) Message Integrity Check is a security feature used to ensure the integrity of messages being sent, and is not related to creating shared session keys. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-cryptography/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is true about using the iris as a biometric authentication factor? A) The iris is located in the back of the eye. B) The iris is not a unique feature of the eye. C) The iris can be used for voice recognition. D) The iris has specific textures and colors associated with it.

D) The iris has specific textures and colors associated with it. The iris is located in the front of the eye and has unique textures and colors that can be used as a biometric authentication factor. This makes it a good option for biometric authentication. A is incorrect because the retina, not the iris, is located in the back of the eye. B is incorrect because the iris is a unique feature of the eye. C is incorrect because the iris is not used for voice recognition, but rather as a biometric authentication factor. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes lateral movement in a penetration test? A) The process of modifying systems and files on the devices to assist with the penetration test. B) The process of creating persistence by establishing backdoors or changing existing accounts to gain access to a system later on. C) The process of identifying vulnerabilities or exploits that can be taken advantage of to earn a bug bounty. D) The process of moving from device to device on the inside of a network after gaining access to a system.

D) The process of moving from device to device on the inside of a network after gaining access to a system is called lateral movement in a penetration test. Lateral movement is a technique that attackers use to gain access to additional resources on a network once they have compromised one or more systems. This technique is used to circumvent perimeter defenses and gain access to critical systems and data. The correct answer is D. A) The process of modifying systems and files on the devices to assist with the penetration test is incorrect because it refers to the modifications made during the test, not the lateral movement process. B) The process of creating persistence by establishing backdoors or changing existing accounts to gain access to a system later on is incorrect because it refers to creating a persistent presence in the system after gaining initial access, not lateral movement. C) The process of identifying vulnerabilities or exploits that can be taken advantage of to earn a bug bounty is incorrect because it refers to a type of penetration testing that is done for monetary reward, not lateral movement. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/penetration-testing-5/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is true about restoration order? A) The restoration order of different application components does not matter. B) If you took incremental backups, you will only need the last full backup and the last differential backup when performing a restore. C) It's not necessary to restore the database before anything else when rebuilding an application instance. D) The restoration order of different application components is critical and the database should be restored before anything else."

D) The restoration order of different application components is critical and the database should be restored before anything else. This is because the database is usually at the core of the application and all the components that use this application instance will access this single database. Therefore, it is a key component of getting the application up and running. A) is incorrect because the restoration order of different application components is critical. B) is incorrect because if you took incremental backups, you will need the last full backup and then all of the incremental backups that have been made since that time frame. C) is incorrect because the database is a key component and must be restored first. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/resiliency/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the difference between a persistent and dissolvable agent in network access control (NAC)? A) A persistent agent is a permanent piece of software installed on a device, while a dissolvable agent only runs temporarily when the device connects to the network. B) A persistent agent is needed for Windows devices, while a dissolvable agent is needed for Mac OS, iOS, and Android devices. C) A persistent agent requires less management overhead than a dissolvable agent. D) A dissolvable agent requires constant updates and maintenance, while a persistent agent does not.

The correct answer is A) A persistent agent is a permanent piece of software installed on a device, while a dissolvable agent only runs temporarily when the device connects to the network. Explanation: When connecting to a network, posture assessments are necessary to ensure a device is safe for use. Agents run on these devices to perform these assessments, and there are two types of agents: persistent and dissolvable. A persistent agent is a permanent piece of software installed on a device and always runs when that device is connected to the network. In contrast, a dissolvable agent only runs temporarily, until the assessment is complete, and is not permanently installed on the device. These agents can check devices for factors like security software, encryption, and corporate applications that may pose a threat if they are not up to date. Option B is incorrect because while Windows does include an agentless NAC, persistent agents and dissolvable agents are not specific to any one operating system. Option C is incorrect because a dissolvable agent requires less management overhead than a persistent agent. Option D is incorrect because the opposite is true: a persistent agent requires regular updates and maintenance to ensure it is functioning properly. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/network-access-control-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Perfect Forward Secrecy or PFS? A) A unique private key used for every session B) A new public key used for every session C) A unique symmetric key used for every session D) A new session ID used for every session

The correct answer is A) A unique private key used for every session. Explanation of incorrect answers: B) A new public key used for every session is incorrect because public keys are not secret, and they are not used for encryption. C) A unique symmetric key used for every session is incorrect because although the symmetric key is unique for every session, it is not a private key. D) A new session ID used for every session is incorrect because session IDs are not related to encryption or security. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/hashing-and-digital-signatures-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is geofencing in mobile device management? A) A way to enable or disable certain features of the mobile device based on its physical location B) A way to delete all of the data on a mobile device even if you don't have physical access to the device C) A way to manage the applications that are installed on the mobile device D) A way to ensure that all of the data that's being stored on the mobile device is stored in encrypted form

The correct answer is A) A way to enable or disable certain features of the mobile device based on its physical location. Explanation for incorrect answers: B) This answer describes remote wipe functionality, which is a separate feature of mobile device management. C) This answer describes application management, which is another aspect of mobile device management but is not specifically related to geofencing. D) This answer describes mobile content management, which is another aspect of mobile device management but is not specifically related to geofencing. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Measurement System Analysis (MSA) in the context of third party risk management? A) An analysis of the measurement system to ensure its accuracy B) An agreement between two parties to maintain confidentiality C) An assessment of the security risks associated with the supply chain D) A contract that sets minimum service terms for a particular service or product

The correct answer is A) An analysis of the measurement system to ensure its accuracy. In the context of third party risk management, MSA provides a way for a company to evaluate and assess the quality of the process used in their measurement systems. This ensures that the measurement system is accurate, and that business decisions made based on the system are reliable. B) An agreement between two parties to maintain confidentiality is referred to as a non-disclosure agreement. C) An assessment of the security risks associated with the supply chain is necessary for third party risk management, but it is not specific to MSA. D) A contract that sets minimum service terms for a particular service or product is referred to as a service level agreement. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the difference between an incremental backup and a differential backup? A) Incremental backups only backup new files, while differential backups backup everything that has changed since the last full backup B) Incremental backups backup everything on the system, while differential backups only backup the things that have changed since the last full backup C) Incremental backups are a more efficient way to store data, while differential backups are a less efficient way to store data D) Incremental backups and differential backups are the same thing

The correct answer is A) Incremental backups only backup new files, while differential backups backup everything that has changed since the last full backup. Explanation of incorrect answers: B) This is incorrect as the difference between an incremental backup and a differential backup is that an incremental backup only backs up files that have changed since the last incremental backup or full backup, while a differential backup backs up everything that has changed since the last full backup. C) This is incorrect as the efficiency of the backup is not determined by whether it is an incremental backup or differential backup, but rather by the type of storage medium used. D) This is incorrect as incremental backups and differential backups are two different types of backups. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following statements is true about safes in secure areas? A) Safes are not as expensive to implement as vaults and can be installed in multiple locations B) Safes are not as secure as vaults due to their smaller size C) Safes are generally only used to store backup tapes D) Safes are not commonly found in data centers

The correct answer is A) Safes are not as expensive to implement as vaults and can be installed in multiple locations. According to the text, if a facility cannot support a vault, a safe may be used instead because it has similar safety and locking mechanisms but takes up less space and is less expensive to install. While safes may have limited space compared to vaults, they can be installed in multiple locations. B) is incorrect because the text states that safes have the same type of safety and locking mechanisms as vaults. C) is incorrect as the text does not state that safes are only used to store backup tapes. D) is incorrect as the text mentions that safes can be used in place of a vault in a facility that cannot support one, implying that safes are commonly found in secure areas. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an attribute commonly found within a digital certificate? A) Serial number B) IP address C) MAC address D) DNS server

The correct answer is A) Serial number. Each digital certificate includes a unique serial number to distinguish it from other certificates. This attribute is used to track the certificate's status, such as whether it has been revoked or not. B) IP address is not an attribute commonly found within a digital certificate. While a digital certificate may include information about the server hosting the website, it is unlikely to include the IP address. C) MAC address is not an attribute commonly found within a digital certificate. While a digital certificate may include information about the user's device, it is unlikely to include the unique MAC address. D) DNS server is not an attribute commonly found within a digital certificate. While a digital certificate may include information about the domain name associated with the website, it is unlikely to include information about the server's DNS configuration. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following statements is true about specialized medical devices? A) They are not typically connected to the internet. B) They can be upgraded easily due to their specialized nature. C) They do not pose any security risks due to their specialized nature. D) They are not typically running older versions of operating systems.

The correct answer is A) They are not typically connected to the internet. Medical devices such as heart monitors and insulin pumps are very specialized devices and have a single goal in mind. Unfortunately, the nature of these embedded systems doesn't always allow the manufacturer to upgrade the operating system, and as a result, they may be running older versions of operating systems. These medical devices may not be connected to the internet to reduce the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive medical data or to prevent malicious actors from compromising the device and causing harm to the patient. B) is incorrect because specialized medical devices may not be easily upgradable due to their specialized nature. C) is incorrect because although these devices are specialized, they can still pose security risks. D) is incorrect because specialized medical devices may be running older versions of operating systems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a method to transfer data off of a mobile device using external media? A) USB OTG B) SMS and MMS C) NFC D) Wi-Fi Direct

The correct answer is A) USB OTG. USB On-The-Go (OTG) is a feature on mobile devices that allows two devices to communicate directly with each other without the need for an external drive or flash memory. This feature is present in both Android and iOS devices, and it allows users to transfer data easily by simply plugging a cable between two devices. B) SMS and MMS, or texting, is another way users can transfer data off of their mobile device. However, this method is controlled by the Mobile Device Manager and can be disabled if necessary. C) NFC or Near Field Communication is commonly used to transfer data between two devices that are in close proximity, such as paying for purchases at a store. However, this method is generally limited to small amounts of data and is not typically used for transferring large files. D) Wi-Fi Direct is a wireless standard that allows two devices to communicate directly with each other without the use of an access point. While this method can be used to transfer data, it is not typically used for this purpose on mobile devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich authentication method is commonly used for networks at home? A) WPA3-Enterprise B) WPS C) 802.1X D) Open

The correct answer is A) WPS. Explanation for incorrect answers: B) WPS allows different methods to be used for authentication and is not commonly used for networks at home. C) 802.1X provides centralized authentication and is generally used in a corporate environment, not at home. D) Open security means that anyone can connect to the wireless network and they don't need any type of authentication. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-authentication-methods/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a security control that defines what applications are allowed or not allowed on a particular endpoint? A) Whitelist B) Blacklist C) Blocklist D) Denylist

The correct answer is A) Whitelist. A whitelist is a security control that defines what applications are allowed or not allowed on a particular endpoint. The IT security team creates a list of approved applications, and no other applications can run on the endpoint. If any other software needs to be installed, the user needs to go to the IT security team. Option B) Blacklist, option C) Blocklist, and option D) Denylist all refer to a list of applications that are specifically prevented from running on a particular endpoint, which is a less restrictive approach than a whitelist. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-security-configuration/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one way to implement application control on an endpoint? A. Use an approved list B. Block all applications C. Use a combination of an approved and deny list D. Let users decide what applications to install

The correct answer is A, Use an approved list. One way to implement application control on an endpoint is through the use of an approved list. The IT security team creates a list of approved applications that users can install, and no other applications are allowed to run on that endpoint. This creates a more secure and stable environment. B is incorrect because blocking all applications is not a practical solution for endpoint security. C is partially correct, but not the best answer. While using a combination of an approved and deny list is one way to implement application control, the question is specifically asking for one way. D is incorrect because letting users decide what applications to install is not a secure way to implement endpoint security. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/endpoint-security-configuration/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a screened subnet in network segmentation? A. A completely separate network just for incoming traffic from the internet. B. A separate virtual network created within a switch to separate devices logically. C. A physically separate network segment created by air-gapped switches or devices. D. A network segment built for vendors, suppliers and partners of an organization.

The correct answer is A. A screened subnet is a completely separate network just for incoming traffic from the internet. This allows people to come in from the internet, usually they connect to a firewall, and the firewall redirects them to the screen subnet. Instead of accessing the internal network, all users access the services on the screened subnet, and additional security measures can be set up to ensure that no unauthorized access is allowed to the internal network. Option B is incorrect as it describes a VLAN, which is a virtual network created within a switch for logical separation of devices. Option C is incorrect as it describes a physical segmentation created by air-gapped switches or devices. Option D is incorrect as it describes an extranet, which is a separate network segment built for vendors, suppliers, and other partners of an organization. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/network-segmentation-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)? A) A plan created by businesses to prevent disasters from occurring in the first place. B) A plan created by businesses to handle disasters once they have occurred. C) A plan created by third-party organizations to handle disasters for businesses. D) A plan created by employees to handle disasters once they have occurred.

The correct answer is B) A plan created by businesses to handle disasters once they have occurred. A Disaster Recovery Plan outlines the procedures and protocols to resume operations after a disaster has occurred. The DRP covers a range of scenarios, from losing a single application to losing the entire data center or even an entire region due to a natural disaster. It is essential for all organizations to have a DRP to minimize downtime and get back to regular operations as soon as possible. A) is incorrect because a DRP is not designed to prevent disasters, but to handle them after they have occurred. C) is incorrect because third-party organizations may help with a DRP, but it is ultimately the businesses' responsibility to have a plan in place. D) is incorrect because a DRP is not typically created by employees but rather by management, in partnership with IT and other departments. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is IEEE 802.1X? A) A protocol for protecting wireless networks against rogue devices B) A protocol for authenticating wired and wireless network connections C) A protocol for encrypting data sent over wireless networks D) A protocol for securing remote access to a network

The correct answer is B) A protocol for authenticating wired and wireless network connections. IEEE 802.1X is a port-based Network Access Control protocol that is commonly used in conjunction with EAP authentication to ensure that users connecting to a network are properly authenticated. When a user first connects to a network, they are prompted for their credentials, and those credentials are checked against a centralized authentication database. If the credentials match, the user is granted access to the network. A) is incorrect because while IEEE 802.1X can help protect against rogue devices, that is not its primary purpose. C) is incorrect because while encryption may be used alongside IEEE 802.1X, it is not a part of the protocol itself. D) is incorrect because IEEE 802.1X is primarily used for authenticating network connections, not remote access. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-authentication-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A) A way to limit the amount of broadcasts that can be sent in any particular second B) A way to prevent loops on switch networks C) A way to control the good broadcast traffic from the bad broadcast traffic D) A way to manage and control MAC addresses on a network

The correct answer is B) A way to prevent loops on switch networks. STP is a standard created by Radia Perlman and implemented by IEEE to prevent loops on any type of switch network. A) is incorrect because it refers to the functionality within the software of the switch itself that allows us to limit the number of broadcasts that can be sent in any particular second. C) is incorrect because it refers to the need to manage and control the good broadcast traffic from the bad broadcast traffic. D) is incorrect because it refers to MAC filtering, which is a different control technology used on switches, routers, and other devices to allow or disallow traffic based on the MAC address that's communicating through the network. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/port-security-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of separation of duties? A) Allowing every user to have administrator access to the network. B) Allowing one person to have access to both parts of a safe combination. C) Allowing users to leave sensitive information on their desks. D) Allowing users to use social media during work hours.

The correct answer is B) Allowing one person to have access to both parts of a safe combination. The correct answer, option B, is an example of split knowledge, which is a type of separation of duties. This means that one person might have part of a safe combination and another person would have the other part of the safe combination. This ensures that individual users would not be able to open the safe on their own and we would need to gather the knowledge from everyone to have the full combination. Explanation for option A: Allowing every user to have administrator access increases the risk of data breaches as every user would have access to all data. This violates the principle of least privilege. Explanation for option C: Leaving sensitive information on desks violates the clean desk policy, which is a common business policy associated with security to minimize risk. Explanation for option D: Using social media during work hours is not directly related to the concept of separation of duties in information security. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a service account? A) An account type used by multiple people on a shared computer B) An account type used by background services in an operating system C) An account type with full access to the operating system D) An account type used by guests who log in to an operating system without a normal user account

The correct answer is B) An account type used by background services in an operating system. Explanation for incorrect answers: A) This is describing a shared account, which is not the same as a service account. C) This is describing a privileged account. D) This is describing a guest account. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/account-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following wireless network types is commonly used to transfer files between mobile devices, charge devices, and transfer files between a computer and device? A) Wi-Fi B) Bluetooth C) RFID D) GPS

The correct answer is B) Bluetooth. Bluetooth is commonly used to connect mobile devices and their accessories to each other, and is often used for file transfers, charging, and connecting to computers. Wi-Fi is a type of wireless network that is more commonly used for internet connectivity. RFID is used for tracking and identification purposes, and GPS is used for location tracking. A) Wi-Fi - Incorrect. Wi-Fi is a type of wireless network that is more commonly used for internet connectivity, not for file transfers and charging between devices. C) RFID - Incorrect. RFID is used for tracking and identification purposes, not for file transfers and charging between devices. D) GPS - Incorrect. GPS is used for location tracking, not for file transfers and charging between devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of a lock based on a token? A) Handprint scanner B) Cable lock C) Keypad with code D) Iris scanner

The correct answer is B) Cable lock. A cable lock is an example of a lock based on a token, specifically an RFID badge, magnetic swipe card, or key fob. This type of lock is temporary and can be connected to almost anything to prevent theft. While it is not built for long-term protection, it can provide a level of security in temporary areas. A) Handprint scanner is incorrect because it is an example of a lock based on biometrics, not a token. C) Keypad with code is incorrect because it is an example of a lock based on a password or PIN, not a token. D) Iris scanner is incorrect because it is an example of a lock based on biometrics, not a token. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-areas/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following terms describes a process in which developers are constantly updating and merging code into a central repository, which requires automated security checks to be in place to avoid potential security issues? A) Data backup B) Continuous integration C) User acceptance testing D) Vulnerability scanning

The correct answer is B) Continuous integration. Continuous integration is a process in which developers constantly update and merge code into a central repository. It is important to have automated security checks in place during this process to ensure that any potential security issues are caught and addressed before the code is pushed to production. Option A) Data backup is the process of copying and archiving data in case of a disaster or data loss. Option C) User acceptance testing (UAT) is a type of testing that evaluates whether a system or application is ready for release to end-users. Option D) Vulnerability scanning is the process of identifying and analyzing potential vulnerabilities in a system or application. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/automation-and-scripting/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat does the DD command allow a user to do in Linux? A) Create a password dump of all users on the system B) Create a bit-by-bit copy of all information on a drive or in a directory C) Erase all data from a drive D) Create a forensic report of a system

The correct answer is B) Create a bit-by-bit copy of all information on a drive or in a directory. The DD command in Linux allows a user to create a bit-by-bit copy of all the information that may be on a drive or in a directory, which can be useful for performing additional analysis later. Option A is incorrect because the DD command does not create a password dump of all users on the system. Option C is incorrect because data sanitization tools are used to erase all data from a drive, not the DD command. Option D is incorrect because while one might use the DD command as part of a forensic report, it does not create a forensic report on its own. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensic-tools/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberGeolocation are important considerations for administrators when configuring user accounts. Which of the following would be an effective policy for preventing brute force attacks on a user account? A) Allowing unlimited attempts to enter the correct password. B) Implementing an account lockout policy after a certain number of incorrect attempts. C) Disabling brute force protection and account lockout policies for service accounts. D) Allowing users to reuse old passwords.

The correct answer is B) Implementing an account lockout policy after a certain number of incorrect attempts. An account lockout policy prevents an attacker from using a live system to perform a brute force attack by automatically locking the account after a certain number of failed attempts. This prevents the attacker from accessing the account even if they eventually guess the correct password. A) Allowing unlimited attempts to enter the correct password is not an effective policy as it would allow an attacker to continue guessing passwords until they find the correct one. C) Disabling brute force protection and account lockout policies for service accounts is generally not considered to be a good best practice as it would prevent organizations from knowing if a brute force attack is occurring and could affect a large number of people if a service that relies on that account is locked out. D) Allowing users to reuse old passwords is also not a good policy as it would allow an attacker to potentially access an account using an old password if they were able to obtain it previously. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/user-policies-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberGeofencing:Sara works for a company that wants to ensure that their employees are only accessing company resources from authorized locations. Which of the following methods will help her achieve that goal? A) Implementing IP blocking on the company network B) Implementing geolocation and geofencing policies C) Implementing a stricter password policy for employees D) Blocking access from all mobile devices

The correct answer is B) Implementing geolocation and geofencing policies. Geolocation and geofencing policies allow organizations to set up policies based on the physical location of a user. Geolocation policies determine where a user is located while geofencing sets policies based on specific locations. This can help ensure that employees are accessing company resources from authorized locations only. A) Implementing IP blocking on the company network is not the correct answer since it blocks access based on a particular IP address and does not guarantee that the person accessing the network is authorized to do so. C) Implementing a stricter password policy for employees is not the correct answer as this has nothing to do with location-based policies. D) Blocking access from all mobile devices is not the correct answer since it affects all employees and does not address the issue of unauthorized access from specific locations. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/account-policies-and-geofencing-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following backup types backs up only the data that has changed since the last full backup and clears archive bits on all backed-up files? A) Full backup B) Incremental backup C) Differential backup D) Image backup

The correct answer is B) Incremental backup. An incremental backup backs up only the data that has changed since the last full backup and clears archive bits on all backed-up files. This type of backup takes less time to perform and requires less storage space than a full backup. However, restoring data from an incremental backup requires not only the full backup but also every other incremental backup that has occurred since that full backup occurred. A full backup, on the other hand, backs up all data on the system and clears archive bits on all backed-up files. A differential backup backs up all data modified since the last full backup, and archive attributes are not cleared because this type of backup is performed again on the next differential backup. An image backup backs up everything on a computer and creates an exact duplicate of that entire file system. Incorrect answer explanations: A) Full backup backs up all data on the system and clears archive bits on all backed-up files. It requires the most time and storage space to perform but is the easiest to restore from, requiring only the single set of backup tapes. C) Differential backup backs up all data modified since the last full backup, and archive attributes are not cleared because this type of backup is performed again on the next differential backup. Restoring data from a differential backup requires only the full backup and the last differential backup. D) Image backup backs up everything on a computer and creates an exact duplicate of that entire file system. If we need to restore this data, we restore an exact duplicate of that particular system all simultaneously. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which backup type involves backing up only new files and all files that have been modified since the last incremental backup? A) Full backup B) Incremental backup C) Differential backup D) Image backup

The correct answer is B) Incremental backup. Incremental backups only back up new files and all files that have been modified since the last incremental backup, resulting in a relatively low backup time. However, restoration time can be relatively high since we need to restore from not only the last full backup but every other incremental backup that has occurred as well. A) Full backup is incorrect because it involves backing up all data on the system, and restoring this data only requires the single set of backup tapes. C) Differential backup is incorrect because it involves backing up all data modified since the last full backup, resulting in a moderate amount of time to perform this differential backup each day, and restoring a differential backup is also a moderate amount of time. D) Image backup is incorrect because it involves backing up everything that is on a computer and creating an exact duplicate or replica of that entire file system, rather than only backing up new files and modified files since the last backup. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is commonly used to add randomization to the encryption process of a stream cipher? A) Key length B) Initialization vector C) Public key infrastructure D) Certificate revocation list

The correct answer is B) Initialization vector. One of the challenges with stream ciphers is that the bytes on the encrypted side can end up being identical if multiple identical bytes are input into the stream. To add some randomization to the encryption process, an initialization vector (IV) is often added to the stream cipher. A) Key length is important for determining the strength of a cipher, but it is not used to add randomization to the encryption process of a stream cipher. C) Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system for managing public/private key pairs, digital certificates, and certificate authorities. While PKI can be used for encryption, it is not specifically used to add randomization to the encryption process of a stream cipher. D) A certificate revocation list (CRL) is a list of digital certificates that have been revoked by the issuing certificate authority (CA). CRLs are used to verify the validity of a digital certificate, but they are not used to add randomization to the encryption process of a stream cipher. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/stream-and-block-ciphers-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following best describes QoS (Quality of Service) in a network? A) It prioritizes network security over application performance B) It prioritizes application performance over network security C) It evenly distributes bandwidth among all applications D) None of the above

The correct answer is B) It prioritizes application performance over network security. QoS (Quality of Service) is the process of prioritizing one application over another based on criteria such as response time, bandwidth, and traffic rates. For example, voice over IP traffic may be given higher priority than streaming video or an interactive database app. This means that even if there is a lot of traffic being transferred over a web browsing connection, voice over IP calls will still have higher priority on the network. QoS functionality may be in switches, routers, or next-generation firewalls. A) is incorrect because QoS is about prioritizing performance, not security. C) is incorrect because QoS does not necessarily evenly distribute bandwidth. D) is incorrect because QoS is a real process used in networking. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/secure-networking-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following describes inherent risk? A) Risk that exists in the presence of security controls B) Risk that exists in the absence of security controls C) The likelihood of a risk event occurring D) The consequences of a risk event

The correct answer is B) Risk that exists in the absence of security controls. Inherent risk is the risk that exists before any security controls are put in place. It is the risk that the organization would undertake if it were to connect to the internet without any type of firewall or other security controls in place. Residual risk, on the other hand, is the risk that remains after security controls have been implemented. A is incorrect because this describes residual risk, not inherent risk. C and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe inherent risk. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is residual risk? A) The risk that exists in the absence of security controls B) The risk that remains after combining inherent risk with the effectiveness of security controls C) The risk that an organization is willing to take D) The risk associated with a particular project

The correct answer is B) The risk that remains after combining inherent risk with the effectiveness of security controls. Residual risk is the remaining risk after combining the inherent risk that exists with the effectiveness of security controls that have been put in place to mitigate that risk. A) The risk that exists in the absence of security controls is referring to inherent risk. C) The risk that an organization is willing to take is referring to risk appetite. D) The risk associated with a particular project is not specifically describing residual risk, but may be referring to project risk. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a way to cryptographically verify that data collected for evidence will remain unchanged during analysis? A) Copy the data onto a USB drive B) Use a checksum to ensure integrity C) Gather strategic intelligence on the data source D) Use a digital signature for non-repudiation

The correct answer is B) Use a checksum to ensure integrity. A checksum is a simple integrity check that is used to verify that the information being collected has not been corrupted during transmission. It provides a way to cryptographically verify that the data collected for evidence will remain unchanged during analysis. It is not always enough to just copy the data onto a USB drive, as this does not provide any way to verify that the data is unchanged. Gathering strategic intelligence on the data source is not related to verifying data integrity, and using a digital signature for non-repudiation is related to verifying the sender of the data, but does not ensure data integrity. A) Copy the data onto a USB drive - incorrect, this does not ensure that the data is unchanged and is not related to data integrity. C) Gather strategic intelligence on the data source - incorrect, this is not related to data integrity. D) Use a digital signature for non-repudiation - incorrect, this is related to verifying the sender of the data, but does not ensure data integrity. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberImpossible travel time/risky login:Which of the following is a security control that organizations can use to prevent brute force attacks on user accounts? A. Maximum password length B. Account lockout policy C. Username complexity requirements D. Password history requirements

The correct answer is B, Account lockout policy. An account lockout policy is a security control that organizations can use to prevent brute force attacks on user accounts. After a certain number of incorrect password attempts, the account is automatically locked, preventing further logins until the lockout time expires or an administrator unlocks the account. This prevents attackers from guessing passwords by trying many combinations of characters. Choice A, Maximum password length, is not related to account lockout, but to password strength requirements. Setting a maximum password length limits the number of characters that can be used in a password, while a minimum password length sets a minimum number of characters. Choice C, Username complexity requirements, is also not related to account lockout. Instead, username complexity requirements might include rules such as not allowing usernames that match common dictionary words or easily guessable names. Choice D, Password history requirements, is another way to enforce password security standards by specifying that users cannot reuse passwords that they have previously used. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/account-policies/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) in relation to third-party risk management? A) A contract that sets a minimum set of service terms for particular service or product B) An informal letter of intent that outlines expectations for a particular business process C) An assessment of the quality of the process used in a company's measurement system D) A contract that provides details about what the owners' stake might be"

The correct answer is B. A Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) is an informal letter of intent that outlines expectations for a particular business process. It may contain confidential information, but it does not necessarily have the binding qualities of a contract. A) This describes a Service Level Agreement. C) This describes a Measurement System Analysis. D) This describes a Business Partnership Agreement. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a critical component of a functional recovery plan in the event of an outage? A) A list of all single points of failure B) Contact information for key players C) Redundant servers to pick up the load D) Data replication at an offsite location

The correct answer is B. A functional recovery plan is a step-by-step guide for getting back up and running after an outage. Contact information for key players is critical because it ensures everyone involved is kept up-to-date and is able to address the particular problem. A) A list of all single points of failure may be useful for identifying potential issues, but it is not a critical part of a functional recovery plan. C) Redundant servers may help maintain uptime and availability, but they do not provide guidance on how to recover from an outage. D) Data replication at an offsite location may help with data backup and recovery, but it is not a critical component of a functional recovery plan. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a guest account? A) An account used only by background services in an operating system. B) A highly restricted, shared account allowing users without a regular account to log in to the operating system. C) A user account associated with an individual that is assigned a specific name and identification number. D) The privileged account with full access to the operating system.

The correct answer is B. A guest account is a highly restricted, shared account that allows users without a regular account to log in to the operating system. While they have limited access to the operating system, an attacker could potentially use a vulnerability to gain full access to the system. A is incorrect because it describes a service account that is only used by background services in an operating system. C is incorrect because it describes a regular user account associated with an individual that is assigned a specific name and identification number. D is incorrect because it describes the privileged account with full access to the operating system, which is typically called administrator in Windows and root in Linux. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/account-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is residual risk? A. Risk that exists in the absence of security controls B. Risk after taking into account the effectiveness of security controls C. Risk associated with disasters created internally D. Risk associated with threats from external sources

The correct answer is B. Residual risk is when you take the inherent risk that exists and you combine that with the effectiveness of your security controls. In contrast, inherent risk is risk that exists in the absence of security controls. This means that without putting anything else in place there would be a certain amount of risk that we would undertake. Internal and external threats are related to the source of the threat, not the concept of residual risk. Option A is incorrect because it describes inherent risk, not residual risk. Option C and D are incorrect because they describe the source of the threat, not the concept of residual risk. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following describes the risk associated with rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device? A) Rooting or jailbreaking can allow users to customize their phones and increase security B) Rooting or jailbreaking can give users excessive control over the operating system, leading to potential security vulnerabilities C) Rooting or jailbreaking is highly recommended for mobile devices in high-risk environments D) Rooting or jailbreaking has no effect on the security of a mobile device

The correct answer is B. Rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device can give users excessive control over the operating system, leading to potential security vulnerabilities. By gaining access to the OS, users can install unverified apps and potentially circumvent existing security measures. A, C, and D are incorrect because customizing a phone and increasing security are not necessarily associated with rooting or jailbreaking, jailbreaking is not recommended in high-risk environments, and rooting or jailbreaking can have significant security implications. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a concern for security professionals regarding using a mobile device as a Wi-Fi hotspot instead of the corporate network connection? A) Users will have limited access to certain parts of the internet B) Users may be able to connect to a different carrier and circumvent security policies C) Users may be able to transfer data using NFC without authentication D) Users will be unable to receive security patches or feature updates

The correct answer is B. Users who use their mobile device as a Wi-Fi hotspot may be able to connect to a different carrier and circumvent security policies in place on the corporate network connection. This is a security concern that should be monitored and controlled through the Mobile Device Manager. Option A is not related to the concern mentioned in the text. Option C discusses a different feature of mobile devices and option D is unrelated to the topic of using a mobile device as a Wi-Fi hotspot. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is NXLog? A) A protocol analyzer used for troubleshooting complex application problems B) A metadata collector for email messages and documents stored on devices C) A daemon that can collect log information from many different devices and consolidate it on a single machine D) A standard method of gathering network statistics from switches and routers

The correct answer is C) A daemon that can collect log information from many different devices and consolidate it on a single machine. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) A protocol analyzer is used for troubleshooting complex application problems, which is a separate function from log management. B) While metadata is important for understanding the context of data, NXLog is not specifically a metadata collector. D) NetFlow or IPFIX are standard methods for gathering network statistics from switches and routers, while NXLog is used for log management. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a VPC endpoint and why is it important in cloud security? A) A gateway that provides access to the internet for a public subnet B) A way to manage compute instances using security groups C) A private connection between an application instance and data stored in a cloud file share D) An operating system specifically designed for containerization

The correct answer is C) A private connection between an application instance and data stored in a cloud file share. A VPC endpoint is important in cloud security because it allows for private access between an application instance and data without the need for internet connectivity. It restricts access from anyone else and adds an additional layer of security to cloud-based systems. A) is incorrect because it describes a gateway that provides access to the internet for a public subnet, which is a separate concept from a VPC endpoint. B) is incorrect because it describes managing compute instances using security groups, which is also a separate concept from a VPC endpoint. D) is incorrect because it describes an operating system specifically designed for containerization, which is also a separate concept from a VPC endpoint. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/securing-compute-clouds/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is measured boot? A) A process that verifies the digital signature of the operating system kernel B) Part of the UEFI BIOS that protects the BIOS from malicious updates C) A process that measures if any changes have occurred with the operating system D) An image of a TPM module that can be installed onto a motherboard

The correct answer is C) A process that measures if any changes have occurred with the operating system. Measured boot is the process that allows us to measure if any changes have occurred with the operating system. The UEFI BIOS stores a hash of the firmware and boot drivers, and the hash created by that information is stored within the TPM of the system. A verification report showing all of the gathered information is sent to the attestation server, which then compares the information in that report with the information it knows to be trusted on that system. A) Secure boot is part of the UEFI BIOS that checks the digital signature of the bootloader and makes sure it matches the digital signature of the operating system manufacturer. B) Trusted boot is the process that verifies the digital signature of the operating system kernel and makes sure it has not been modified by any malware. D) This is a distractor answer as it refers back to the image of a TPM module and does not relate to measured boot. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/boot-integrity

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an Identity Provider or IdP? A) A service that provides encryption and digital signatures. B) A service that manages public and private keys for SSH authentication. C) A service that vouches for who a person is and controls their identity. D) A service that provides central management of all digital certificates.

The correct answer is C) A service that vouches for who a person is and controls their identity. An identity provider (IdP) is a service that controls and manages identities. It provides a way for users to authenticate and access multiple applications using a single sign-on (SSO) process. The IdP is responsible for identifying and controlling users based on their username and devices they are using. It is commonly used for cloud-based applications that require SSO or some form of authentication. A) A service that provides encryption and digital signatures is incorrect because this describes a Certificate Authority (CA) which is responsible for issuing digital certificates that include encryption and digital signature capabilities. B) A service that manages public and private keys for SSH authentication is incorrect because this describes SSH key management, which is used for authentication of secure shell (SSH) commands. D) A service that provides central management of all digital certificates is incorrect because this describes a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) which is used for managing digital certificates including authentication of identities. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/identity-controls/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of a specialized vehicle? A) Smart thermostat B) Smartwatch C) Automobile D) Video doorbell

The correct answer is C) Automobile. Specialized vehicles, such as those used in the military, aerospace, and industrial sectors, may have embedded systems that require specific security measures due to their critical nature. For example, if an attacker gains access to the control systems of an autonomous vehicle, they could potentially cause harm to individuals on the road or even cause a collision. Therefore, it is essential to secure these systems from cyber attacks. A) Smart thermostat is incorrect because it is not a specialized vehicle. B) Smartwatch is incorrect because it is not a specialized vehicle. D) Video doorbell is incorrect because it is not a specialized vehicle. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich type of communication might be commonly used with SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields? A) Broadband B) Zigbee C) Baseband D) Cellular

The correct answer is C) Baseband. SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields may be distributed across a very large geographical distance and thus may use a narrowband communication method. Narrowband communication uses a smaller amount of frequency bandwidth than broadband communication and can communicate over longer distances. Baseband communication, which uses a single frequency to communicate, is often done over a single cable or a single fiber connection and is usually digital. Since there is a single frequency being used for this communication, anything going over this link is going to use all of the bandwidth on that connection. Broadband and cellular communication methods might be too expensive or not practical to use for SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields, while Zigbee is a wireless communication standard commonly used with IoT devices, but not necessarily with SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields. A) Broadband and D) Cellular are incorrect because while they are mentioned as communication methods in the text, they are not specifically associated with SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields. B) Zigbee is incorrect because while it is a wireless communication standard commonly used with IoT devices, it is not specifically associated with SCADA equipment or sensors in oil fields. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/embedded-systems-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following backup types would require only the full backup and the last differential backup during a restoration process? A) Full backup B) Incremental backup C) Differential backup D) Image backup

The correct answer is C) Differential backup. A differential backup will back up all data modified since the last full backup, and during the restoration process, only the full backup and the last differential backup would be required. A) Full backup is incorrect because during the restoration process, all the backup tapes of a full backup would be required. B) Incremental backup is incorrect because during the restoration process, not only the last incremental backup but every other incremental backup that has occurred since the last full backup would be required. D) Image backup is incorrect because an image backup backs up everything on a computer, including the operating system, the user files, and anything else that might be stored on that computer, and during the restoration process, an exact duplicate of that particular system would be restored all simultaneously. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is used to manage user and administrative access to cloud resources? A) Availability Zones B) Load Balancers C) Identity and Access Management (IAM) D) Secrets Management

The correct answer is C) Identity and Access Management (IAM). IAM is used to determine who can access a particular cloud resource and what they have access to within that resource. It allows for the creation of different user groups and mappings of job functions to those groups. IAM also allows for granular controls based on criteria like IP addresses and time of day. A) Availability Zones and B) Load Balancers are not used for managing user and administrative access to cloud resources. Availability Zones are areas within a cloud service that are self-contained and have independent power, HVAC systems, and networking configurations. Load Balancers distribute the load for an application and provide additional high availability. D) Secrets Management is important for managing secret keys and shared passphrases, but does not specifically manage user and administrative access to cloud resources. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-security-controls/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which backup type is a relatively quick process that only backs up new files and files that have been modified since the last incremental backup? A) Full Backup B) Differential Backup C) Incremental Backup D) Image Backup

The correct answer is C) Incremental Backup. An incremental backup is a backup process that only backs up new files and files that have been modified since the last incremental backup. This process is relatively quick since it only backs up files that have been changed, and it allows for more frequent backups. However, the restoration process is relatively high since it requires the restoration of not only the last full backup but every other incremental backup that has occurred since then. A) Full Backup is incorrect because a full backup backs up all data on the system, which is a time-consuming process, and the restoration time is relatively low since it only requires the single set of backup tapes. B) Differential Backup is incorrect because a differential backup backs up all data modified since the last full backup, which means it will take a moderate amount of time to perform this backup each day. However, the restoration process is also a moderate amount of time since you only need the last full backup and the last differential backup. D) Image Backup is incorrect because an image backup backs up everything that is on a computer and creates an exact duplicate or replica of that entire file system. This type of backup is different from an incremental backup because it is not limited to new files and modified files, but rather it backs up everything. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/backup-types/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a security concern regarding camera use on mobile devices in high-security environments? A) Mobile device users may use the camera to transfer data off their device B) Attackers may use the camera to gain access to corporate networks C) It is not possible to completely turn off the camera on a mobile device D) Mobile Device Managers are unable to disable the camera feature

The correct answer is C) It is not possible to completely turn off the camera on a mobile device. In high-security environments, the use of camera features on mobile devices may be restricted or disabled by the Mobile Device Manager (MDM), but it is difficult to completely turn off the camera on a mobile device. The MDM is able to configure the camera features based on where the user is located by using geo-fencing features. A) is incorrect because although mobile device users may use the camera to transfer data off their device, it is not specific to high-security environments. B) is incorrect because attackers may use various forms of data transfer mechanisms to gain access to corporate networks, not just the camera. D) is incorrect because the MDM does have control over the camera feature, as explained in the correct answer. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-enforcement-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an important responsibility of the PKI administrator? A) Creating new certificates with the same keys as previously created certificates B) Distributing private keys to users in an unsafe manner C) Managing the revocation process for compromised certificates D) Allowing certificates to expire without renewal

The correct answer is C) Managing the revocation process for compromised certificates. As the PKI administrator, one of the responsibilities is to manage the revocation process, which occurs when a certificate is compromised. This involves revoking, or invalidating, the certificate to prevent unauthorized access or use. The other choices are incorrect because creating new certificates with the same keys as previously created certificates can compromise security, distributing private keys to users in an unsafe manner increases the risk of unauthorized access, and allowing certificates to expire without renewal leaves systems vulnerable to attack. Incorrect choice A) Creating new certificates with the same keys as previously created certificates, would compromise security because the previous keys may have been compromised or accessed by unauthorized individuals. Incorrect choice B) Distributing private keys to users in an unsafe manner would increase the risk of unauthorized access and compromise security. Incorrect choice D) Allowing certificates to expire without renewal leaves systems vulnerable to attack because expired certificates are no longer valid for authentication and secure communication. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich tool is a popular vulnerability scanner with a large database to identify known vulnerabilities? A) Nmap B) Hping C) Nessus D) Harvester

The correct answer is C) Nessus. Nessus is a popular vulnerability scanner with a large database to identify known vulnerabilities. It is one of the most popular vulnerability scanners in the industry and has extensive reporting and information to help identify and resolve vulnerabilities on systems. Nmap is a network mapping tool, Hping is a ping tool that provides more information than a simple ping, and Harvester is a tool used to gather open source intelligence. Incorrect Answer Explanation: A) Nmap is a network mapping tool that can identify ports that are open or closed on a device, what operating system may be running on that device, and more. B) Hping is a ping tool that provides more information than a simple ping, such as what ports might be open on a device and it allows modification of many aspects of the packet. D) Harvester is a tool used to gather open source intelligence from different services, such as Google or LinkedIn, on a particular domain or company. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/reconnaissance-tools-part-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one standard method for gathering statistics on network bandwidth usage? A) Syslog B) Metadata C) NetFlow D) Protocol analyzer

The correct answer is C) NetFlow. NetFlow is a standardized method for gathering network statistics from switches, routers, and other devices on your network. This information is usually consolidated onto a central NetFlow server, and we're able to view information across all of these devices on a single management console. A) Syslog is a standard method for transferring log files from one device to a centralized database to consolidate logs from different devices. B) Metadata is data that describes other types of data, often contained within the files we use on our devices. D) A protocol analyzer is a tool used to troubleshoot complex application problems by gathering every bit and byte from the network and providing a breakdown of exactly what's going across network links. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/log-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a challenge with allowing key-based SSH authentication? A) It is not secure enough B) It requires a username and password C) There is no centralized key management D) It only works on local networks

The correct answer is C) There is no centralized key management. One of the challenges with allowing key-based SSH authentication is the management of the private keys themselves. It is important to have a centralized way to manage all of these private keys, which will allow us to both control the keys and audit the use of those keys. A) is incorrect because key-based authentication is usually more secure than password-based authentication. B) is incorrect because the whole point of key-based authentication is to avoid using a username and password. D) is incorrect because SSH can work on both local and remote networks. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/identity-controls/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is one important part of the process of gathering evidence? A) Analyzing the information that is being gathered B) Making sure the information has been encrypted C) Verifying the initial source of the data D) Creating new data to add to the evidence

The correct answer is C) Verifying the initial source of the data. It is important to know the origin of the data in order to ensure its authenticity and prevent tampering. This is referred to as provenance, and it includes documenting where the data originated and maintaining a chain of custody. A) Incorrect. Analyzing the information should be done later in the process, after the evidence has been gathered and preserved. B) Incorrect. While encryption may be a consideration when gathering evidence, it is not the most important part of the process. D) Incorrect. Creating new data would not be appropriate or allowed when gathering evidence. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the reason to avoid channel overlaps when installing wireless access points? A) Channel overlaps lead to increased wireless signal strength. B) Channel overlaps allow for better coverage of the wireless network. C) Channel overlaps create interference for all other devices on the wireless network. D) Channel overlaps are necessary for the proper functioning of a wireless network.

The correct answer is C. Channel overlaps create interference for all other devices on the wireless network. It is important to avoid channel overlaps when installing wireless access points in order to ensure the network runs efficiently and to prevent interference with other devices on the network. A is incorrect because channel overlaps do not lead to increased wireless signal strength. B is incorrect because channel overlaps do not allow for better coverage of the wireless network. D is incorrect because channel overlaps are not necessary for the proper functioning of a wireless network. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/installing-wireless-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Mean time between failures (MTBF)? A. How long it takes to get back to a particular service level after an outage. B. The minimum requirements needed to get a system up and running after a failure. C. The amount of time before the next failure occurs. D. The time it takes to make a repair after an outage.

The correct answer is C. MTBF is the amount of time before the next failure occurs. This is an important metric for planning and resource allocation to address potential failures. Option A is referring to Recovery Time Objective (RTO), which is the time it takes to get back to a particular service level after an outage. Option B is referring to Recovery Point Objective (RPO), which is the minimum requirements needed to get a system up and running after a failure. Option D is referring to Meantime To Repair (MTTR), which is the time it takes to make a repair after an outage. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)? A. The time it takes to get back up and running to a particular service level B. The time it takes to recover a certain set of minimum requirements to get a system up and running C. The time it takes before the next failure occurs after a system failure D. The step-by-step guide from going from an outage to being back up and running

The correct answer is C. Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is the amount of time it takes to repair a system or device after a failure occurs. It helps to estimate how long it will take to get back up and running if there is an outage. The MTTR is important in disaster recovery planning, as it helps to understand how quickly resources are available to resolve the issue. A is incorrect because it describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO), which is the time it takes to get back up and running to a particular service level. B is incorrect because it describes Recovery Point Objective (RPO), which is the time it takes to recover a certain set of minimum requirements to get a system up and running. D is incorrect because it describes Functional Recovery Plan, which is a step-by-step guide from going from an outage to being back up and running. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a significant problem that can occur with weak keys during the encryption/decryption process? A) Larger files will take a longer amount of time to encrypt/decrypt. B) Changing the key used in encryption can add additional overhead. C) Weak initialization variables can result in cryptographic vulnerabilities. D) Asymmetric encryption can take much longer than symmetric encryption.

The correct answer is C. Weak initialization variables can result in cryptographic vulnerabilities, making it easier for someone to gain unauthorized access to wireless data. A is incorrect because it discusses the size of files, not key strength. B is incorrect because it discusses the overhead of changing keys, not the problem with weak keys. D is incorrect because it discusses the difference between asymmetric and symmetric encryption, not the issue with weak keys. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-limitations/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)? A) A feature that is part of a password manager allowing access to passwords from multiple locations. B) A server that provides cryptography functions and centralized storage for encryption and decryption keys. C) A device that offloads the encryption and decryption process from servers and performs cryptographic functions quickly. D) A feature that provides secure cryptography functions to create random numbers or key generators from a hardware platform.

The correct answer is D) A feature that provides secure cryptography functions to create random numbers or key generators from a hardware platform. Explanation for A: A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is not a feature of a password manager allowing access to passwords from multiple locations. This passage discusses password managers and how they work with authentication processes, but this answer choice does not refer to the TPM feature discussed in the passage. Explanation for B: A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a server that provides cryptography functions and centralized storage for encryption and decryption keys. While an HSM and TPM share similarities in their functions, they are not the same thing. Explanation for C: This answer choice describes an HSM, not a TPM. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a swap/pagefile and why is it important in digital forensics? A) A temporary storage area used by virtual machines to speed up performance B) An incremental update to a virtual machine snapshot C) A cache used by internet browsers to speed up webpage loading D) A temporary storage area used by operating systems to swap information out of RAM

The correct answer is D) A temporary storage area used by operating systems to swap information out of RAM. Explanation: The swap or pagefile is a temporary storage area used by an operating system to swap information out of RAM when the system needs more memory to execute other tasks. This area stores data that is paged out of memory to free up space for other applications. This is important in digital forensics because it contains information that may have been used by a suspect, but not yet saved to the hard drive. A) is incorrect because it describes a cache used by virtual machines, not the swap/pagefile. B) is incorrect because an incremental update to a virtual machine snapshot is not related to the swap/pagefile. C) is incorrect because it describes a cache used by internet browsers, not the swap/pagefile. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a Business Partnership Agreement (BPA)? A) A contract between two organizations to maintain confidentiality of shared information B) An agreement between a vendor and a company that sets a minimum level of service for a product or service C) A set of policies and procedures in place to protect against risks associated with providing data to a third party D) An agreement between business partners that provides details about ownership stakes and contractual agreements for finances

The correct answer is D) An agreement between business partners that provides details about ownership stakes and contractual agreements for finances. A BPA is a document that outlines the terms and conditions of a partnership between two organizations in a joint project or business venture. It provides details on who owns what part of the project and how finances will be managed. A is incorrect because a nondisclosure agreement maintains confidentiality of shared information between parties. B is incorrect as it describes a service level agreement where a third-party vendor agrees to a minimum level of service for a product or service. C is incorrect as it describes a set of policies and procedures to protect against risks associated with providing data to a third party, rather than a BPA which is specifically between business partners. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/third-party-risk-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the correct order of volatility when collecting data for forensics? A) Files on the system, physical configuration, archival media, firmware B) Physical configuration, router tables, files on the system, encryption keys C) CPU registers, ARP cache, files on the system, backups D) CPU registers, router tables, temporary file systems, archival media

The correct answer is D) CPU registers, router tables, temporary file systems, archival media. The order of volatility for collecting data for forensics starts with data that is the most volatile, such as CPU registers and CPU cache. The second most volatile information includes router tables, ARP cache, process tables, information in memory, and other temporary information. Next, files that might be stored on the system such as temporary file systems are collected, followed by information that is stored on drives such as the physical configuration of the device or the typology of the network. Lastly, archival media and information that could be around for years is collected. A) Files on the system, physical configuration, archival media, firmware is incorrect because it mixes the order of volatility, starting with the least volatile information first. B) Physical configuration, router tables, files on the system, encryption keys is incorrect because it has an incorrect order of volatility and does not include temporary file systems or archival media. C) CPU registers, ARP cache, files on the system, backups is incorrect because it misses important volatile data such as CPU cache and process tables. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is the classification for information that should only be shown to certain individuals? A) Public information B) Private information C) Sensitive information D) Confidential information

The correct answer is D) Confidential information. Confidential information is the classification for data that is very sensitive and should only be viewed if the user has been granted the appropriate permissions. Choice A is incorrect because public information is the classification for data that anyone can access. Choice B is incorrect because private information is the classification for data that is restricted, or should only be shown to certain individuals, but it is not as sensitive as classified or confidential data. Choice C is incorrect because sensitive information is data that is very important, such as intellectual property, personally identifiable information, or protected health information, but it does not necessarily require special permissions to view. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is NOT a quantification used for understanding the impact of an outage and determining a recovery plan? A) Recovery time objective (RTO) B) Recovery point objective (RPO) C) Mean time to repair (MTTR) D) Mean time between hackers (MTBH)

The correct answer is D) Mean time between hackers (MTBH). The text discusses several quantifications used to understand and plan for outages, such as recovery time objective, recovery point objective, mean time to repair, and mean time between failures. However, mean time between hackers is not mentioned as a quantification used in site risk assessment. A) Recovery time objective (RTO) relates to how long it would take to get back up and running to a particular service level. B) Recovery point objective (RPO) means that we would set an objective to meet a certain set of minimum requirements to get a system up and running. C) Mean time to repair (MTTR) is an estimate of how long it will take to get back up and running if there is an outage. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/business-impact-analysis-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a useful training technique for an organization in order to prevent phishing attacks? A) Social media analysis B) Job rotation C) Non-disclosure agreement D) Phishing simulations

The correct answer is D) Phishing simulations. Phishing simulations are a useful training technique for organizations to prevent phishing attacks. This involves sending phishing emails to users to see if they fall for the scam and provide their login credentials. If a user does fall for the scam, they can receive additional training to prevent it from happening again in the future. Social media analysis, job rotation, and non-disclosure agreements are all separate security policies that do not relate specifically to phishing training. Incorrect answer A) Social media analysis is incorrect because it does not pertain to training techniques for preventing phishing attacks. Incorrect answer B) Job rotation is incorrect because it is a separate security policy that does not pertain specifically to phishing training. Incorrect answer C) Non-disclosure agreements is incorrect because it is a separate security policy that does not pertain specifically to phishing training. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/personnel-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following allows an administrator to remotely wipe all data on a mobile device, even if the device is lost or stolen? A) Full device encryption B) Mobile Content Management C) Geolocation D) Remote wipe functionality

The correct answer is D) Remote wipe functionality. Remote wipe functionality allows an administrator to remotely wipe all data on a mobile device, even if the device is lost or stolen. This is usually managed from the Mobile Device Manager and allows you to click a button and erase all of the data on that mobile device, even though we may not know exactly where that device happens to be. A) Full device encryption is a method of encrypting all data stored on a mobile device. While important for security, it does not allow the data on the device to be remotely wiped. B) Mobile Content Management is a way to manage how data is stored on mobile devices, especially if that data contains sensitive information. It can include data loss prevention capabilities and encryption, but it does not provide the ability to remotely wipe the device. C) Geolocation allows us to get very accurate measurements on where a mobile device is physically located in the world, but it does not allow us to remotely wipe the device. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of a corrective control? A) Firewall B) Motion detector C) Intrusion Prevention System D) Restoring from backup

The correct answer is D) Restoring from backup. A corrective control is designed to mitigate any damage that was occurred because of a security event. Restoring from a known good backup is a common way to recover from a security event that has caused data loss or corruption. A) Firewall is an example of a preventive control, not a corrective control. B) Motion detector is an example of a detective control, not a corrective control. C) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is an example of a preventive control, not a corrective control. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat type of access control would a large organization typically use to assign access control rights based on employee roles? A) Attribute-based access control B) Rule-based access control C) Mandatory access control D) Role-based access control (Correct Answer)

The correct answer is D) Role-based access control. In many large organizations, role-based access control (RBAC) is used to assign access control rights based on employee roles. RBAC is associated with the role that an employee might have in that company. The administrator of the system or the network assigns these particular access control rights. With RBAC, if someone is a manager in the organization, then they are assigned all of the rights and permissions that a manager should have. In Windows, RBAC is managed through the use of groups. A) Attribute-based access control is a type of access control where a system administrator can define a number of different criteria that have to be evaluated that would then allow someone access to a resource. With attribute-based access control, the system will evaluate what type of resource the user is trying to access and then check different parameters that were previously defined, such as IP address, time of day, and user relationship to the data. B) Rule-based access control is a type of access control where the system administrator sets the rules for access control. The users do not have the ability to define whether someone might have access to a particular object or not. The rules are generally associated with the object in question. C) Mandatory access control (MAC) is a highly secure access control type that requires users to be configured with separate security clearance levels and then associate objects in the operating system with one of those security levels. Every object gets a security label, and the user would only be able to access objects that are labeled equal or below their clearance level, but not above. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/access-control-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of an authentication attribute? A) Password B) Smart card C) Fingerprint D) Signature

The correct answer is D) Signature. Authentication attributes are personal characteristics that can be used to help prove someone's identity but may not be directly associated with an individual. Examples of authentication factors include something you know, something you have, and something you are. An example of an authentication attribute is something you can do, such as your personal way of doing things like your signature. While passwords, smart cards, and fingerprints are all examples of authentication factors, they are not attributes. Choice A) Password is an example of something you know, which is an authentication factor. Choice B) Smart card is an example of something you have, which is an authentication factor. Choice C) Fingerprint is an example of something you are, which is an authentication factor. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is an example of knowledge-based authentication? A) Password Vault B) Trusted Platform Module C) Hardware Security Module D) Static KBA

The correct answer is D) Static KBA. Explanation: Static KBA is a type of knowledge-based authentication where the user is asked a specific question that was previously configured in the system. This is usually used to reset a password or recover an account on a system. For example, the user may be asked what the make and model of their first car was. Dynamic KBA, on the other hand, pulls information from public or private records to pose a question to the user that they should be able to answer quickly, such as what the street number was when they lived in a particular house. Password vault, Trusted Platform Module, and Hardware Security Module are all types of hardware-based authentication. Incorrect Answers: A) Password Vault is not an example of knowledge-based authentication. It is a password manager that allows you to store all of your passwords in one central secure area. B) Trusted Platform Module is a hardware-based authentication that provides secure cryptography functions, but it is not an example of knowledge-based authentication. C) Hardware Security Module is also a hardware-based authentication that provides centralized storage for encryption and decryption keys, but it is not an example of knowledge-based authentication. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/authentication-management/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following refers to automated testing of source code to identify potential vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows or database injections, in a software application? A) Fuzzing B) Dynamic analysis C) Input validation D) Static code analysis (Manual code review)

The correct answer is D) Static code analysis (Manual code review). Static code analysis is the process of analyzing software code for potential vulnerabilities before the code is executed. It is an automated process that uses static code analyzers to go through the source code and identify places where there may be vulnerabilities such as buffer overflows, database injections, or other well-known types of attacks. The output from a static code analyzer does not necessarily mean that an actual vulnerability exists in the code. Every single one of these instances needs to be examined and confirmed before anyone can be sure that a particular vulnerability exists. A) Fuzzing is a dynamic analysis task where random data is simply being put into the input of an application. B) Dynamic analysis refers to the testing of an application or software by executing the code to observe the behavior of the software in a runtime environment. C) Input validation refers to the process of checking and correcting the data that's being input whenever information is going into the application process. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/application-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of an error message turning into a vulnerability and ultimately an exploit? A) The use of default usernames and passwords to gain access to IoT devices B) The exposure of data due to an open permissions problem C) The exploitation of an unpatched vulnerability in Apache Struts D) The display of debug information in an error message

The correct answer is D) The display of debug information in an error message. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) The use of default usernames and passwords to gain access to IoT devices is an example of attackers exploiting weak or default credentials. This is a separate type of vulnerability from the error message vulnerability described in the text. B) The exposure of data due to an open permissions problem is another type of vulnerability described in the text, but it is not related to error messages. C) The exploitation of an unpatched vulnerability in Apache Struts is another type of vulnerability described in the text, but it is not related to error messages. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/vulnerability-types-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a way to protect data inside of a database by replacing sensitive data with a token that is not associated with the original value? A) Encryption B) Hashing C) Salt D) Tokenization

The correct answer is D) Tokenization. Tokenization is a technique used to protect data inside of a database by replacing sensitive data with a token that has no association with the original value. This can be used specifically for credit card numbers to protect from anyone else gaining access to that credit card number. Tokenization allows limiting the use of tokens, making it a valuable part of this process. A) Encryption is not the correct answer. Encryption is a process that uses algorithms to convert plain text into a form that cannot be read without a key. This is not the same as tokenization, which is replacing sensitive data with a token that has no association with the original value. B) Hashing is not the correct answer. Hashing is a process in which an algorithm transforms any set of input data into a fixed size output data, which is called hash. This is not the same as tokenization, which is replacing sensitive data with a token that has no association with the original value. C) Salt is not the correct answer. A salt is used during the hashing process to add additional randomization to the hash, but it is not the same as tokenization. It is used to create more randomization, making predefined rainbow tables useless. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/database-security/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is true regarding virtual networks in a cloud-based system? A) Virtual systems cannot be created at any time, unlike physical systems B) Cloud-based networking systems can only be created at specific time intervals C) Virtual private clouds use external IP addresses to allow global access to an application D) Virtual switches and virtual routers in a cloud infrastructure are configured the same way as physical devices

The correct answer is D) Virtual switches and virtual routers in a cloud infrastructure are configured the same way as physical devices. Explanation: In a cloud-based system, virtual networks can be created and torn down at any time using on-demand functionality. Virtual switches and routers can be configured in the same way as physical devices. Private clouds use internal or private IP addresses, while public clouds use external IP addresses to allow global access. A is incorrect because virtual systems can be created at any time. B is incorrect because there are no specific time intervals for creating cloud-based networking systems. C is incorrect because virtual private clouds use internal or private IP addresses, not external IP addresses. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/securing-cloud-networks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an example of an authentication factor? A) Where you are B) Something you can do C) Someone you know D) What you have

The correct answer is D) What you have. Explanation: Authentication factors are what prove that you are who you say you are. There are three types of authentication factors: something you know, something you have, and something you are. Something you know is a piece of information that only you should know, such as a password or PIN. Something you have is a physical object that only you should have, such as a smart card or phone. Something you are is a biometric factor, such as a fingerprint or iris scan. In this case, what you have is a physical object that proves your identity, such as a smart card or phone. A) Where you are is an authentication attribute, not an authentication factor. It provides information about where you are geographically and can be used to help authenticate you, but it is not a factor on its own. B) Something you can do is an authentication attribute, not an authentication factor. It refers to your personal way of doing things, such as your signature or the way you walk. While it can be used to help authenticate you, it is not a factor on its own. C) Someone you know is an authentication attribute, not an authentication factor. It refers to the people you know and can be used in cryptography to create a web of trust or digital signature. While it can be used to help authenticate you, it is not a factor on its own. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is a feature of load balancing technology that allows for continued service availability even if one server fails? A) Quality of service B) SSL offloading C) Affinity D) Server redundancy

The correct answer is D, server redundancy. One of the main functions of load balancing technology is to distribute the load across multiple servers, which provides redundancy in case one of the servers fails. The load balancer recognizes the failure and continues to use the remaining servers, allowing for continued service availability. A) Quality of service is a feature of load balancing technology that allows for prioritization of certain applications over others. B) SSL offloading is a feature of load balancing technology that allows for the load balancer to perform SSL encryption and decryption in the hardware of the device, which can increase communication efficiency and speed. C) Affinity is a feature of load balancing technology that ensures that a user is always communicating with the same server, but it is not directly related to server redundancy. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/load-balancing-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a form of EAP that requires digital certificates on all devices? A. EAP-FAST B. PEAP C. EAP-TTLS D. EAP-TLS

The correct answer is D. EAP-TLS is a more secure form of EAP that requires digital certificates on all devices. This is because mutual authentication is performed when connecting to the network. Once the mutual authentication is complete, a TLS tunnel is then built to send the user authentication details. A is incorrect because EAP-FAST uses a shared secret referred to as a Protected Access Credential (PAC) to establish a TLS tunnel. B is incorrect because PEAP does not require digital certificates on all devices, only on the server. C is incorrect because EAP-TTLS only needs a single digital certificate on the authentication server, and not on all devices. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-authentication-protocols-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is proprietary data? A) Data that is public and unclassified B) Data that should only be shown to certain individuals C) Data that is available to anyone and is collected by the government D) Data that is private and unique to an organization

The correct answer is D. Proprietary data refers to private information that is unique to an organization, and includes trade secrets and other information that should not be shared with third parties or competitors. A) is incorrect because public data refers to information that is available to anyone and is unclassified. B) is incorrect because this is a description of private or restricted data. C) is incorrect because this is a description of open data collected by the government. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-classifications/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat benefit can SIEM provide in terms of trends? A. Correlating data from different devices together B. Creating long term storage of logs C. Proactively providing alarming and alerting D. Showing changing patterns over a long period of time

The correct answer is D. SIEMs allow us to capture information over a long period of time, which can help us see trends in the way that the data is changing. We can see spikes whenever a particular security event occurs, or we might be able to tell that a particular network is more or less utilized than normal. A is incorrect because it describes the ability to correlate data from different devices together, which is mentioned earlier in the text. B is incorrect because creating long term storage of logs is also mentioned earlier in the text. C is incorrect because proactively providing alarming and alerting is mentioned later in the text. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/siem-dashboards/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a method for acquiring data from a virtual machine? A. Backup file B. Memory dump C. Firmware modification D. Snapshot

The correct answer is D. Snapshot. A virtual machine snapshot is a way to image a virtual machine, starting with the original snapshot and all the incremental updates taken since then. This provides a complete image of the system, including the operating system, applications, and user data. A is incorrect because a backup file is a method for gathering data from a mobile device, not a virtual machine. B is incorrect because a memory dump is a method for gathering data from active RAM in a system, not a virtual machine. C is incorrect because firmware modification is a method for gaining access to a device and understanding how it was exploited, but not a method for acquiring data from a virtual machine. Source: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/forensics-data-acquisition-sy0-601-comptia-security-4-5/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich attribute is used to assign multiple hosts to a certificate? A) Common Name (CN) B) Certificate Revocation List (CRL) C) Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) D) Subject Alternative Name (SAN)

The correct answer is D. The Subject Alternative Name (SAN) attribute is used to assign multiple hosts to a certificate. While a single Common Name (CN) can be assigned to the CN attribute, in some cases, alternative hosts need to be added. The CRL and OCSP are used for checking the validity of certificates and do not deal with assigning hosts to a certificate. A) Common Name (CN) - Incorrect While the CN attribute on a certificate is used to specify the fully qualified domain name, it cannot assign multiple hosts to a single certificate. B) Certificate Revocation List (CRL) - Incorrect The CRL is used to keep track of revoked certificates and does not deal with assigning multiple hosts to a certificate. C) Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) - Incorrect The OCSP is used for checking the validity of certificates and does not deal with assigning multiple hosts to a certificate. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/public-key-infrastructure-3/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following best describes the process for implementing changes in an organization's IT infrastructure? A) The change is made immediately without any approval. B) A plan is created and presented to the users for approval, but no back plan is necessary. C) The change is documented after it has been made. D) The process includes understanding the scope and risk of the change, creating a plan, presenting the plan to a change control board, and having a back plan in case of problems."

The correct answer is D. Understanding the scope and risk of a change, creating a plan, presenting the plan to a change control board, and having a back plan in case of problems are all steps in the change control process. This process helps to prevent unnecessary downtime and confusion and ensures that changes are made in a controlled and organized way. A is incorrect because changes should not be made immediately without any approval. B is incorrect because having a back plan is an important part of the change control process. C is incorrect because documenting the change after it has been made is not the best practice; documentation should be done before and after the change to ensure proper tracking and understanding of the changes. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/organizational-policies/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a supply chain attack? A. A cyber-attack that seeks to damage an organization by targeting less secure elements in the supply chain B. A cyber-attack that targets only the financial sector C. A type of ransomware attack that demands payment to restore access to a victim's data D. A type of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack that uses a network of compromised devices to overwhelm a target system or website"

"Correct Answer Explanation: A. A supply chain attack is a cyber-attack that seeks to damage an organization by targeting less secure elements in the supply chain, such as a vendor, manufacturer, or distributor. Cybercriminals typically tamper with the manufacturing or distribution of a product by installing malware or hardware-based spying components. This can happen in software or hardware. The text provided mentions this as the correct answer. Incorrect Answer Explanations: B. A cyber-attack that targets only the financial sector is not a correct answer. A supply chain attack can occur in any industry, from the financial sector, oil industry, to a government sector. C. A type of ransomware attack that demands payment to restore access to a victim's data is not a correct answer. A supply chain attack does not involve ransomware or demand payment to restore access to a victim's data. D. A type of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack that uses a network of compromised devices to overwhelm a target system or website is not a correct answer. A supply chain attack involves tampering with the manufacturing or distribution of a product to install malware or hardware-based spying components, and is not related to DDoS attacks. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Supply_chain_attack"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary characteristic of pretexting as a social engineering attack? A) Involving the use of typosquatting to trick users into visiting malicious websites. B) Creating a situation to trick victims into revealing private information. C) Exploiting software vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access to a system. D) Sending phishing emails to the target organization's employees."

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B) Creating a situation to trick victims into revealing private information. Pretexting is a type of social engineering attack where an attacker creates a situation or pretext to lure victims into a vulnerable situation and trick them into giving private information they would typically not share outside the context of the pretext. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Typosquatting) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Involving the use of typosquatting to trick users into visiting malicious websites. This answer is incorrect because pretexting focuses on creating a situation to trick victims, not using typosquatting, which is a different type of cyberattack. C) Exploiting software vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access to a system. This answer is incorrect because pretexting is a social engineering attack that relies on manipulating human behavior rather than exploiting software vulnerabilities. D) Sending phishing emails to the target organization's employees. This answer is incorrect because pretexting involves creating a situation to trick victims, not sending phishing emails, which is another type of social engineering attack. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Typosquatting"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary technique used by advanced ransomware to extort victims for payment? A) Deleting files from the victim's system B) Encrypting the victim's files C) Overloading the victim's network D) Modifying system settings"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B) Encrypting the victim's files Advanced ransomware uses a technique called cryptoviral extortion, which encrypts the victim's files, making them inaccessible. The attacker then demands a ransom payment to decrypt the files. This encryption method makes it extremely difficult to recover the files without the decryption key. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ransomware) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Deleting files from the victim's system While some simple ransomware may lock the system without damaging files, advanced ransomware focuses on encrypting files rather than deleting them. C) Overloading the victim's network Overloading the victim's network is not the primary technique used by advanced ransomware; this would describe a denial-of-service attack, not ransomware. D) Modifying system settings Although modifying system settings may be a part of some ransomware attacks, the primary technique used by advanced ransomware to extort victims for payment is encrypting their files."

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is tailgating in the context of social engineering attacks? A) Sending fake emails to gain unauthorized access B) Following someone closely to enter a restricted area without authorization C) Manipulating people into revealing confidential information over the phone D) Spreading false rumors to manipulate a person's actions"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B) Following someone closely to enter a restricted area without authorization Tailgating is a social engineering attack where an unauthorized person gains entry to a restricted area by following someone with legitimate access. The attacker may pretend to be on a phone call or present a fake identity token to avoid suspicion, and often relies on the courtesy of the person with legitimate access to hold the door open for them. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Social_engineering_(security)) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Sending fake emails to gain unauthorized access This answer is incorrect because it refers to phishing, not tailgating. Phishing involves sending fake emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information or clicking on malicious links. C) Manipulating people into revealing confidential information over the phone This answer is incorrect because it refers to vishing or voice phishing, which involves manipulating people over the phone to obtain confidential information. Tailgating is a physical attack that involves unauthorized entry into restricted areas. D) Spreading false rumors to manipulate a person's actions This answer is incorrect because it doesn't describe tailgating. Tailgating is a physical attack where the attacker follows someone with legitimate access into a restricted area, rather than spreading false rumors to manipulate actions. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Social_engineering_(security)"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes invoice fraud? A) Sending fake invoices to customers B) Impersonating a trusted colleague or vendor to request payment or money transfer C) Overcharging clients on legitimate invoices D) Using a company's invoicing system to launder money"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B) Impersonating a trusted colleague or vendor to request payment or money transfer Invoice fraud is a type of attack used by cybercriminals in which they impersonate a trusted colleague, vendor, or supplier to extract payment information or request a transfer of money. (https://www.egress.com/blog/phishing/invoice-fraud-phishing-attack) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Sending fake invoices to customers This answer is incorrect because, while it involves fake invoices, it does not involve impersonating a trusted colleague or vendor to request payment or money transfer. C) Overcharging clients on legitimate invoices This answer is incorrect because overcharging clients on legitimate invoices is not a form of impersonation or cyberattack. D) Using a company's invoicing system to launder money This answer is incorrect because money laundering through a company's invoicing system is not related to impersonating a trusted colleague or vendor for the purpose of extracting payment information or requesting a money transfer. Reference URL: https://www.egress.com/blog/phishing/invoice-fraud-phishing-attack"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the main difference between pharming and phishing attacks? A) Pharming involves physical theft, while phishing is a social-engineering attack B) Pharming targets DNS servers, while phishing targets individual users C) Pharming relies on malware, while phishing relies on social engineering D) Pharming targets corporate business servers, while phishing targets home computers

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B) Pharming targets DNS servers, while phishing targets individual users Pharming is a cyberattack that redirects a website's traffic to a fake site by exploiting a vulnerability in DNS server software or altering the victim's computer hosts file. On the other hand, phishing is a social-engineering attack that aims to obtain access credentials like usernames and passwords by tricking users. While both pharming and phishing are used for online identity theft, they target different entities: pharming targets DNS servers, and phishing targets individual users. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pharming) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Pharming involves physical theft, while phishing is a social-engineering attack This answer is incorrect because pharming does not involve physical theft; it involves targeting DNS servers or altering the victim's hosts file. C) Pharming relies on malware, while phishing relies on social engineering Pharming can involve installing malicious software on the victim's computer, but its primary focus is on redirecting traffic through DNS server exploitation or hosts file manipulation. Phishing does rely on social engineering, but this answer does not accurately describe the main difference between the two types of attacks. D) Pharming targets corporate business servers, while phishing targets home computers This answer is incorrect because pharming typically targets a computer with unprotected access, not necessarily corporate business servers. Phishing targets individual users, which can include those using home computers or corporate devices. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pharming"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of dumpster diving in the context of cybersecurity? A) To recycle electronic waste B) To search for useful information, such as passwords or credit card numbers C) To physically damage the target's IT infrastructure D) To cause a public disturbance"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: B) To search for useful information, such as passwords or credit card numbers Dumpster diving in cybersecurity refers to the practice of going through someone's trash to find sensitive information like passwords or credit card numbers. This information can then be used to compromise a target's security or for other malicious purposes. (https://powerdmarc.com/dumpster-diving-in-cybersecurity/) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) To recycle electronic waste This answer is incorrect because dumpster diving in the context of cybersecurity is focused on acquiring sensitive information, not recycling electronic waste. C) To physically damage the target's IT infrastructure Dumpster diving does not involve physically damaging the target's IT infrastructure; instead, it involves searching for sensitive information in the target's trash. D) To cause a public disturbance This answer is incorrect because the primary purpose of dumpster diving in cybersecurity is to gather sensitive information, not to cause a public disturbance. Reference URL: https://powerdmarc.com/dumpster-diving-in-cybersecurity/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is eliciting information in the context of social engineering attacks? A) Physically accessing a secure area by following someone with authorization B) Sending emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information C) Extracting information through normal and innocent conversations D) Using fake websites to steal login credentials

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Extracting information through normal and innocent conversations Eliciting information is a social engineering technique where the attacker subtly extracts information during seemingly normal and innocent conversations. Intelligence operatives often use this technique to take advantage of professional or social situations with individuals who have access to classified or protected information. (https://www.technologygee.com/social-engineering-techniques-comptia-security-sy0-601-1-1a/) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Physically accessing a secure area by following someone with authorization This answer is incorrect because it describes tailgating, not eliciting information. Tailgating is a social engineering technique where an attacker gains entry to a restricted area by following someone with legitimate access. B) Sending emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information This answer is incorrect because it refers to phishing, not eliciting information. Phishing involves sending deceptive emails to recipients, tricking them into revealing sensitive information or clicking on malicious links. D) Using fake websites to steal login credentials This answer is incorrect because it describes pharming, not eliciting information. Pharming is a cyberattack where an attacker redirects a website's traffic to a fake site to steal login credentials or other sensitive information. Reference URL: https://www.technologygee.com/social-engineering-techniques-comptia-security-sy0-601-1-1a/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary strategy behind a watering hole attack? A) Infecting a popular software application with malware. B) Compromising the target's email accounts to spread malware. C) Infecting websites frequently used by the target organization with malware. D) Sending phishing emails to the target organization's employees."

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Infecting websites frequently used by the target organization with malware. A watering hole attack involves an attacker identifying the websites an organization frequently uses and then infecting one or more of those sites with malware. The goal is to infect a member of the targeted group eventually. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Watering_hole_attack) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Infecting a popular software application with malware. This answer is incorrect because watering hole attacks specifically target websites often used by an organization, not popular software applications. B) Compromising the target's email accounts to spread malware. This answer is incorrect because watering hole attacks focus on infecting websites, not compromising email accounts. D) Sending phishing emails to the target organization's employees. This answer is incorrect because watering hole attacks involve infecting websites, not sending phishing emails to the target organization's employees. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Watering_hole_attack"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What factor primarily contributes to the prevalence of pretexting among social engineering attacks? A) The ability to exploit software vulnerabilities. B) The use of phishing emails to gather information. C) The manipulation of human behavior to gain access to information. D) The reliance on typosquatting to redirect users to malicious websites.

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) The manipulation of human behavior to gain access to information. Pretexting's prevalence among social engineering attacks is primarily due to its reliance on manipulating the human mind in order to gain access to the information the attacker wants, instead of having to hack a technological system. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Typosquatting) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) The ability to exploit software vulnerabilities. This answer is incorrect because pretexting is a social engineering attack that focuses on manipulating human behavior rather than exploiting software vulnerabilities. B) The use of phishing emails to gather information. This answer is incorrect because pretexting involves creating a situation to trick victims, not sending phishing emails, which is another type of social engineering attack. D) The reliance on typosquatting to redirect users to malicious websites. This answer is incorrect because pretexting focuses on creating a situation to trick victims, not using typosquatting, which is a different type of cyberattack. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Typosquatting"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the purpose of prepending in a cybersecurity context? A) To encrypt the message content B) To create a stronger password C) To make a message appear more trustworthy D) To hide the sender's identity"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) To make a message appear more trustworthy In cybersecurity, prepending refers to when an attacker attaches a trustworthy value like ""RE:"" or ""MAILSAFE: PASSED"" to a message to make it appear more trustworthy. These values are typically added automatically by a user's email client, leading the user to believe that their email client trusts the message and that it is safe to open. (https://www.codecademy.com/learn/cyber-attacks/modules/social-engineering/cheatsheet) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) To encrypt the message content This answer is incorrect because prepending does not involve encryption. Instead, it aims to make a message appear more trustworthy by adding a seemingly trustworthy value. B) To create a stronger password This answer is incorrect because prepending is not related to creating passwords. It is a technique used by attackers to make messages appear more trustworthy to their targets. D) To hide the sender's identity This answer is incorrect because prepending focuses on making the message appear more trustworthy, not on hiding the sender's identity. While attackers may use various techniques to hide their identity, prepending is specifically about adding trustworthy values to messages. Reference URL: https://www.codecademy.com/learn/cyber-attacks/modules/social-engineering/cheatsheet"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of shoulder surfing in the context of computer security? A) To physically steal devices B) To install malware on the victim's device C) To obtain confidential information by observing the victim's actions D) To impersonate the victim in online transactions"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) To obtain confidential information by observing the victim's actions Shoulder surfing is a social engineering technique that involves looking over the victim's shoulder to gather confidential information such as PINs, passwords, and other sensitive data. This is typically done by observing the victim's keystrokes or listening to sensitive information being spoken. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shoulder_surfing_(computer_security)) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) To physically steal devices This answer is incorrect because shoulder surfing is focused on obtaining confidential information through observation, not physically stealing devices. B) To install malware on the victim's device Shoulder surfing is not directly related to installing malware on the victim's device. It is a technique used to gather confidential information by observing the victim. D) To impersonate the victim in online transactions Although the information obtained from shoulder surfing could potentially be used to impersonate the victim, the primary purpose of shoulder surfing itself is to collect confidential information by observing the victim's actions. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shoulder_surfing_(computer_security)"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What information is typically targeted in a credential harvesting attack? A) Company's financial records B) Intellectual property and trade secrets C) Usernames, passwords, email addresses, and emails D) Customer personal information, such as addresses and phone numbers"

"Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Usernames, passwords, email addresses, and emails Credential harvesting is an approach used by hackers to gain unauthorized access to an organization's credentials, which often include usernames, passwords, email addresses, and emails. (https://cybersecurity.att.com/blogs/security-essentials/credential-harvesting-is-it-too-big-of-an-attack-or-can-you-fight-back) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Company's financial records This answer is incorrect because, while hackers may ultimately use harvested credentials to access financial records, the primary target in credential harvesting is the collection of usernames, passwords, email addresses, and emails. B) Intellectual property and trade secrets This answer is incorrect because, although hackers may use harvested credentials to access intellectual property and trade secrets, the primary focus of credential harvesting is the collection of usernames, passwords, email addresses, and emails. D) Customer personal information, such as addresses and phone numbers This answer is incorrect because, while hackers may use harvested credentials to access customer personal information, the primary target of credential harvesting is the collection of usernames, passwords, email addresses, and emails. Reference URL: https://cybersecurity.att.com/blogs/security-essentials/credential-harvesting-is-it-too-big-of-an-attack-or-can-you-fight-back"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following techniques is NOT commonly used in phishing attacks? A) Creating a sense of urgency by threatening to close a victim's account. B) Using fake news articles to trick victims into clicking malicious links. C) Impersonating a trusted entity to trick users into revealing sensitive information. D) Encrypting sensitive data to render it unreadable without a decryption key."

"Correct Answer with Explanation: D) Encrypting sensitive data to render it unreadable without a decryption key. Encrypting sensitive data is not a phishing technique. Phishing often involves social engineering techniques to trick users into performing actions such as clicking a link or opening an attachment, or revealing sensitive information. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing#History) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Creating a sense of urgency by threatening to close a victim's account. This answer is incorrect because creating a sense of urgency is a common phishing technique used to manipulate users into taking action. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing#History) B) Using fake news articles to trick victims into clicking malicious links. This answer is incorrect because using fake news articles to trick victims into clicking malicious links is an alternative technique used in phishing attacks. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing#History) C) Impersonating a trusted entity to trick users into revealing sensitive information. This answer is incorrect because impersonating a trusted entity is a common phishing technique used to deceive users into revealing sensitive information. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing#History) Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing#History"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following methods can an attacker use to perform DNS poisoning? A. Modifying the host file on individual devices B. Launching an on-path attack to modify DNS queries C. Modifying the DNS information on the legitimate DNS server itself D. All of the above

"Correct Answer with Explanation: D. All of the above An attacker can use several methods to perform DNS poisoning, including modifying the host file on individual devices, launching an on-path attack to modify DNS queries, and altering the DNS information on the legitimate DNS server itself. These methods can redirect traffic to the attacker's website, potentially allowing them to gather personal information, login credentials, or install malicious software. Incorrect Answer Explanations: A. Modifying the host file on individual devices This is one method of DNS poisoning, but it's not the only one. The correct answer is D. B. Launching an on-path attack to modify DNS queries This is another method of DNS poisoning, but it's not the only one. The correct answer is D. C. Modifying the DNS information on the legitimate DNS server itself This is yet another method of DNS poisoning, but it's not the only one. The correct answer is D. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/dns-attacks/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a method an attacker can use to hijack a domain? A) Using social engineering to obtain the registrar's account password B) Altering the host file on every individual device C) Sending spam emails from the company's email server D) Manipulating the user's browser to download malicious software"

"Correct Answer: A) Using social engineering to obtain the registrar's account password Explanation: By using social engineering tactics, such as phishing, attackers can obtain the registrar's account password. With access to the account, they can modify the domain information and redirect users to their own malicious websites. Incorrect Answer: B) Altering the host file on every individual device Explanation: Although modifying the host file on individual devices can be used to execute DNS poisoning, it is not a method to hijack a domain. Incorrect Answer: C) Sending spam emails from the company's email server Explanation: Sending spam emails from the company's email server may impact the company's email reputation but does not result in domain hijacking. Incorrect Answer: D) Manipulating the user's browser to download malicious software Explanation: While manipulating a user's browser to download malicious software can be a potential outcome of visiting a malicious website, it is not a method used to hijack a domain. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/dns-attacks/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following describes a Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use (TOCTOU) attack? A) An attack where an attacker uses multiple parallel computing environments to perform a brute-force attack on a system. B) An attack where the attacker takes advantage of the system's race condition to execute malicious code. C) An attack where the attacker intercepts network traffic to obtain sensitive information. D) An attack where the attacker uses social engineering techniques to trick users into installing malware on their systems."

"Correct Answer: B Explanation: A Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use (TOCTOU) attack is an attack where the attacker takes advantage of the system's race condition to execute malicious code. In such attacks, the attacker checks a system's state at a particular point in time and then modifies it before the system can use it. By doing so, the attacker can bypass security mechanisms and execute arbitrary code. The other options are incorrect as they do not describe a TOCTOU attack. Option A describes a brute-force attack, where an attacker uses multiple parallel computing environments to perform a brute-force attack on a system. Option C describes a network traffic interception attack, where the attacker intercepts network traffic to obtain sensitive information. Option D describes a social engineering attack, where the attacker uses social engineering techniques to trick users into installing malware on their systems. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/race-conditions/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which principle of social engineering involves using other people's actions or decisions to justify the attacker's requests? A) Authority B) Consensus C) Scarcity D) Familiarity"

"Correct Answer: B) Consensus Consensus, also known as social proof, is a principle of social engineering where the attacker refers to other people's actions or decisions to justify their own requests. They may tell the target that their coworker was able to provide the requested information previously, implying that it should be acceptable for the target to do the same. Incorrect answers: A) Authority Authority is a principle of social engineering where the attacker pretends to have a position of authority that would grant them access to the information they are seeking. This is not the principle involving using other people's actions or decisions to justify their requests. C) Scarcity Scarcity is a principle of social engineering where the attacker creates a sense of urgency by stating that the situation is only valid for a limited amount of time, prompting the target to act quickly. This is not the principle involving using other people's actions or decisions to justify their requests. D) Familiarity Familiarity is a principle of social engineering where the attacker builds a rapport with the target by discussing topics they like, making the target more comfortable and more likely to comply with their requests. This is not the principle involving using other people's actions or decisions to justify their requests. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/principles-of-social-engineering/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a vulnerability that might allow attackers to read from different parts of a server, even areas of a server where normally they should not have access? A) Integer Overflow B) Directory Traversal Attack C) Memory Leak D) API Attack

"Correct Answer: B) Directory Traversal Attack Explanation: A directory traversal attack allows attackers to read from different parts of a server, even areas of a server where normally they should not have access. This attack takes advantage of vulnerabilities in the software or web server misconfigurations that allow an attacker to use ""../"" to move backward through the file system. By using this type of directory traversal, attackers can access files that were not intended to be viewed by them. Incorrect Answers: A) Integer Overflow: An integer overflow is where a large number might be placed into a smaller section of memory, which means that extra space has to go somewhere, and usually it goes into an area of memory that's overflowed. This vulnerability might allow attackers to manipulate the system in a way that's advantageous to them, but it does not allow them to read from different parts of a server. C) Memory Leak: A memory leak is a type of vulnerability in which memory is never returned back to the system and the application continues to use more and more memory until it crashes either the application or the operating system it's running on. Although a memory leak can lead to a denial of service, it does not allow attackers to read from different parts of a server. D) API Attack: An API attack occurs when attackers try to manipulate the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or gain access to data that would not normally be available to them. Although an API attack can be used to bring down the application or the system, it does not allow attackers to read from different parts of a server. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following statements best describes the impersonation method in social engineering attacks? A) Impersonation attacks always involve emails or phone calls. B) Impersonation attacks rely on people's trust and involve the attacker playing a known role to the user. C) Impersonation attacks only target the technical vulnerabilities of a security system. D) Impersonation attacks do not require any preparation or planning."

"Correct Answer: B) Impersonation attacks rely on people's trust and involve the attacker playing a known role to the user. Explanation: Impersonation attacks exploit the trust people have in others by having the attacker play a role that the user would typically trust. This makes it easier for the attacker to manipulate the victim and gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or systems. These types of attacks focus on the human element, rather than technical vulnerabilities. Incorrect Answers: A) Impersonation attacks do not always involve emails or phone calls. While some social engineers may use these methods, impersonation can also involve face-to-face interactions. C) Impersonation attacks target the human element of a security system, not the technical vulnerabilities. By exploiting people's trust, attackers can gain access to the network or system, commit fraud, or steal identities. D) Impersonation attacks require preparation and planning. Attackers need to understand the role they will play, gather information about the target, and develop a strategy to deceive the victim effectively. Reference URL: https://www.examcollection.com/certification-training/security-plus-social-engineering-attacks-associated-effectiveness-with-each-attack.html"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which social engineering principle exploits the victim's lack of knowledge about uncommon attacks to gain unauthorized access to their files? A) Authority B) Scarcity C) Familiarity D) Urgency"

"Correct Answer: B) Scarcity Explanation: Scarcity, in the context of social engineering attacks, refers to the exploitation of the victim's lack of knowledge about uncommon or rare attacks. Due to the victim's unfamiliarity with these types of attacks, they are less likely to recognize the threat and take necessary precautions. As a result, attackers can more easily gain unauthorized access to their files and cause data loss. Incorrect Answers: A) Authority focuses on the attacker pretending to have power or control to manipulate the victim into complying with their requests. It does not exploit the victim's lack of knowledge about uncommon attacks. C) Familiarity refers to an attacker leveraging a relationship or knowledge of the victim's personal information to gain their trust. This method does not rely on the victim's lack of knowledge about rare attacks. D) Urgency involves the attacker creating a sense of urgency or time-sensitive situations to manipulate the victim into acting quickly without fully evaluating the situation. This technique does not focus on exploiting the victim's unfamiliarity with uncommon attacks. Reference URL: https://www.examcollection.com/certification-training/security-plus-social-engineering-attacks-associated-effectiveness-with-each-attack.html"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a memory leak? A) An attack where a large number is placed into a smaller section of memory B) An attack where an attacker tries to manipulate the API of an application C) An attack where an attacker uses null pointer dereference to crash an application or system D) An attack where an attacker reads from different parts of a server where normally they should not have access

"Correct Answer: C) An attack where an attacker uses null pointer dereference to crash an application or system. Explanation of Correct Answer: A memory leak occurs when an application allocates memory for storage or calculations, but the memory is never returned back to the system when it's no longer in use. The application continues to use more and more memory until eventually it uses all of the available memory, which causes either the application or the operating system to crash. An attacker can cause a null pointer dereference by making an application point to a null section of memory where nothing exists, instead of the part of memory where the application data might exist, which commonly causes the application to crash. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This is an example of an integer overflow attack. B) This is an example of an API attack. D) This is an example of a directory traversal attack. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which type of vulnerability might allow attackers to read from different parts of a server that they should not have access to? A) Memory Leak B) Null Pointer Dereference C) Directory Traversal Attack D) API Attack

"Correct Answer: C) Directory Traversal Attack Explanation: Directory Traversal Attack is a type of vulnerability that allows attackers to read from different parts of a server, even areas of a server where normally they should not have access. This attack takes advantage of vulnerabilities in the software running on the web server or misconfigurations on the server that allow the attacker to use the two dots and a slash to move backward through the file system. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) Memory Leak: A memory leak is a type of vulnerability in which memory is allocated for storage or calculations, and when that memory is no longer in use, it is not returned back to the system. It's a type of vulnerability that often ends with the system crashing or the application failing. B) Null Pointer Dereference: Null Pointer Dereference happens when an attacker can make an application point to a null section of memory where nothing exists rather than the part of memory where the application data might exist. This causes the application to crash. D) API Attack: An API attack is an attempt to manipulate the application programming interface of an application, to gain additional access, or gain access to data that would not normally be available to them. It can also be used to bring down the application or the system, creating a denial of service. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following memory vulnerabilities might cause a system to crash or an application to fail? A) API attack B) Directory traversal attack C) Integer overflow D) Resource exhaustion

"Correct Answer: C) Integer overflow Explanation: A memory leak is a type of memory vulnerability where memory is allocated but never returned back to the system, leading to a system crash or an application failure. However, an integer overflow is the memory vulnerability that might cause a system to crash or an application to fail by storing information into smaller areas and causing some of that information to overflow into other parts of memory. If an attacker can find an overflow that can be duplicated, it allows them to manipulate the system in a way that's advantageous to them. Therefore, the correct answer is C. A) API attack is an attack where attackers try to manipulate the API of an application to gain additional access or gain access to data that would not normally be available to them, but it is not related to memory vulnerabilities that might cause a system to crash or an application to fail. B) Directory traversal attack allows attackers to move around a file system and read from different parts of a server where they should not have access, but it is not related to memory vulnerabilities that might cause a system to crash or an application to fail. D) Resource exhaustion is a denial of service attack that can use up the available resources on a device so that the application or the service that's being used by it is no longer accessible by others, but it is not related to memory vulnerabilities that might cause a system to crash or an application to fail. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about phishing? A) Phishing attacks always involve malware such as ransomware. B) Phishing attacks are decreasing in frequency due to improved security measures. C) Phishing attacks use lures to trick people into revealing sensitive information. D) Phishing attacks are only a concern for individuals and not for businesses.

"Correct Answer: C) Phishing attacks use lures to trick people into revealing sensitive information. Explanation: Phishing attacks involve tricking people into revealing sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, or credit card numbers. The term ""phishing"" comes from the use of lures to ""fish"" for information. While some phishing attacks may also involve malware such as ransomware, this is not always the case. Phishing attacks have actually been increasing in frequency and sophistication in recent years, making them a major concern for both individuals and businesses. Incorrect Answers: A) Phishing attacks always involve malware such as ransomware. This is incorrect because while some phishing attacks may involve malware such as ransomware, this is not always the case. Phishing attacks are primarily focused on tricking people into revealing sensitive information. B) Phishing attacks are decreasing in frequency due to improved security measures. This is incorrect because phishing attacks have actually been increasing in frequency and sophistication in recent years, making them a major concern for both individuals and businesses. D) Phishing attacks are only a concern for individuals and not for businesses. This is incorrect because phishing attacks have been on the rise among businesses, with the number of reported incidents increasing from 72% to 86% from 2017 to 2020. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What principle of social engineering involves creating a sense of urgency to persuade the target to act quickly? A) Authority B) Consensus C) Scarcity D) Familiarity

"Correct Answer: C) Scarcity Scarcity is a principle of social engineering where the attacker creates a sense of urgency by stating that a situation is only valid for a limited amount of time. This pressure encourages the target to act quickly and provide the requested information without thinking too much about the potential risks. Incorrect Answers: A) Authority Authority is a principle of social engineering where the attacker pretends to have a position of authority that would grant them access to the information they are seeking. This principle does not involve creating a sense of urgency. B) Consensus Consensus, also known as social proof, is a principle of social engineering where the attacker refers to other people's actions or decisions to justify their own requests. This principle does not involve creating a sense of urgency. D) Familiarity Familiarity is a principle of social engineering where the attacker builds a rapport with the target by discussing topics they like, making the target more comfortable and more likely to comply with their requests. This principle does not involve creating a sense of urgency. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/principles-of-social-engineering/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is a SQL injection attack? A) When an attacker injects HTML code into an existing data stream. B) When an attacker injects LDAP code into an existing data stream. C) When an attacker injects SQL code into an existing data stream. D) When an attacker injects DLL code into an existing data stream.

"Correct Answer: C) When an attacker injects SQL code into an existing data stream. Explanation: A SQL injection attack is a type of code injection attack where an attacker inserts SQL code into an application's input fields. If the application does not validate or sanitize user input, the attacker can bypass the application's security measures and gain unauthorized access to the database. The injected SQL code can then be used to manipulate or extract data from the database. Incorrect Answers: A) When an attacker injects HTML code into an existing data stream - HTML injection attacks, also known as cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, involve injecting HTML code into a website or web application. The injected code can execute in a victim's browser and potentially steal sensitive information or perform unauthorized actions. B) When an attacker injects LDAP code into an existing data stream - LDAP injection attacks involve inserting malicious LDAP statements into an application's input fields to bypass security measures and gain unauthorized access to LDAP directories or databases. D) When an attacker injects DLL code into an existing data stream - DLL injection attacks involve injecting malicious code into a running process on a Windows system to gain unauthorized access or execute arbitrary code. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/injection-attacks/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the main consequence of a successful MAC flooding attack on a switch? A) The switch becomes a multiport repeater, broadcasting traffic to all connected devices. B) The attacker gains complete control over the switch. C) The switch stops functioning entirely. D) The switch's MAC address table is reduced in size, limiting its functionality."

"Correct answer with explanation: A) The switch becomes a multiport repeater, broadcasting traffic to all connected devices. When a MAC flooding attack is successful, the switch's MAC address table becomes full, and it can no longer add new entries. As a result, the switch starts broadcasting every frame to all interfaces, effectively turning it into a hub or a multiport repeater without any intelligence regarding where to transmit frames. This allows the attacker to capture all traffic on the network. Explanation of the incorrect answers: B) The attacker gains complete control over the switch. Although the attacker can collect network traffic, they do not gain complete control over the switch itself. C) The switch stops functioning entirely. The switch does not stop functioning entirely, but it loses its intelligent frame transmission capabilities and starts behaving like a hub. D) The switch's MAC address table is reduced in size, limiting its functionality. The switch's MAC address table does not get reduced in size. Instead, it becomes full, leading to the switch broadcasting traffic to all connected devices. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mac-flooding-and-cloning/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following describes a possible consequence of MAC address cloning? A) The switch's MAC address table becomes full, turning the switch into a hub. B) The attacker gains unauthorized access to the network by matching an allowed MAC address. C) Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled, causing network loops. D) The switch is unable to maintain a loop-free environment."

"Correct answer with explanation: B) The attacker gains unauthorized access to the network by matching an allowed MAC address. MAC address cloning, or spoofing, is when an attacker modifies their device's MAC address to match that of a legitimate device on the network. This can enable the attacker to bypass MAC address filters and gain unauthorized access to the network. Incorrect answer explanations: A) The switch's MAC address table becomes full, turning the switch into a hub. This consequence is associated with MAC flooding, not MAC cloning. In a MAC flooding attack, an attacker sends numerous frames with different source MAC addresses to fill up the switch's MAC address table, effectively turning the switch into a hub. C) Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled, causing network loops. Disabling Spanning Tree Protocol can cause network loops, but this is not a direct consequence of MAC address cloning. D) The switch is unable to maintain a loop-free environment. This is not a consequence of MAC address cloning. Switches maintain loop-free environments using Spanning Tree Protocol, and MAC address cloning does not inherently disrupt this process. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mac-flooding-and-cloning/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary objective of an attacker using Bluejacking on a Bluetooth-enabled device? A) To access and steal data from the device B) To send unsolicited messages to the device C) To disrupt the Bluetooth connection between devices D) To impersonate the device to gain unauthorized access to other networks

"Correct answer with explanation: B) To send unsolicited messages to the device Bluejacking is an attack in which an attacker sends unsolicited messages to a victim's Bluetooth-enabled device, such as a mobile phone or tablet. The messages are sent exclusively over the Bluetooth communications channel and may also include other types of information like contact cards, videos, or other media. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) To access and steal data from the device Accessing and stealing data from a Bluetooth-enabled device is called Bluesnarfing, not Bluejacking. Bluesnarfing is a more severe security concern, as it involves unauthorized access to data. C) To disrupt the Bluetooth connection between devices Bluejacking does not aim to disrupt Bluetooth connections between devices. Its primary goal is to send unsolicited messages to the target device. D) To impersonate the device to gain unauthorized access to other networks Bluejacking does not involve impersonating the target device to gain unauthorized access to other networks. Its main purpose is to send unsolicited messages to the Bluetooth-enabled device. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/bluejacking-and-bluesnarfing-sy0-601-comptia-security-1-4/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following best describes the negative effects of potentially unwanted programs (PUPs)? A. PUPs always cause severe damage to the user's system. B. PUPs compromise privacy, weaken security, and may display intrusive advertising. C. PUPs only deliver unwanted advertising to users. D. PUPs are always malicious software created by hackers."

"Correct answer with explanation: B. PUPs compromise privacy, weaken security, and may display intrusive advertising. Potentially unwanted programs (PUPs) can compromise privacy or weaken the computer's security. They may also include software that displays intrusive advertising (adware), tracks the user's Internet usage to sell information to advertisers (spyware), injects its own advertising into web pages that a user looks at, or uses premium SMS services to rack up charges for the user. Incorrect answers explanation: A. PUPs always cause severe damage to the user's system. Incorrect because not all PUPs cause severe damage. Some may simply display unwanted advertising or compromise privacy. C. PUPs only deliver unwanted advertising to users. Incorrect because, although PUPs may deliver unwanted advertising, they can also compromise privacy, weaken security, and have other negative effects. D. PUPs are always malicious software created by hackers. Incorrect because PUPs are not always created by hackers. Some software developers may bundle wanted programs with unwanted applications, which can be classified as PUPs. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Potentially_unwanted_program"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of heap spraying in computer security exploits? A. To encrypt data in the target process's memory B. To facilitate arbitrary code execution C. To remove vulnerabilities from the target process D. To create a secure communication channel with the target process"

"Correct answer with explanation: B. To facilitate arbitrary code execution Heap spraying is a technique used in exploits to facilitate arbitrary code execution. It works by allocating large blocks in the target process's heap and filling the bytes in these blocks with specific values. Incorrect answers explanation: A. To encrypt data in the target process's memory Incorrect because heap spraying is not intended for encrypting data but rather for facilitating arbitrary code execution. C. To remove vulnerabilities from the target process Incorrect because heap spraying is used to exploit vulnerabilities, not to remove them. D. To create a secure communication channel with the target process Incorrect because heap spraying is used to facilitate arbitrary code execution, not to establish a secure communication channel. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heap_spraying"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is one reason that backdoors are deliberately and widely known? A. To provide an open-source platform for hackers B. To help manufacturers restore user passwords C. To bypass encryption for law enforcement purposes D. To create vulnerabilities in a device for educational purposes

"Correct answer with explanation: B. To help manufacturers restore user passwords Some backdoors are deliberately and widely known because they serve ""legitimate"" purposes, such as providing manufacturers with a way to restore user passwords when needed. Incorrect answers explanation: A. To provide an open-source platform for hackers Incorrect because backdoors are not intentionally designed to offer an open-source platform for hackers. C. To bypass encryption for law enforcement purposes Incorrect because, although this may be a goal of some backdoors, the question specifically asks about widely known and deliberate backdoors. The example provided in the text, the Clipper chip, was an unsuccessful attempt to create a backdoor for law enforcement purposes. D. To create vulnerabilities in a device for educational purposes Incorrect because backdoors are not deliberately designed to create vulnerabilities for educational purposes. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Backdoor_(computing)"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: In an ARP poisoning attack, what is the primary reason that the attacker can send an unsolicited ARP response message to a victim device and have it be accepted? A) The victim device's firewall is disabled B) The attacker has compromised the victim's encryption keys C) ARP lacks built-in security features D) The attacker has disabled the router's security features"

"Correct answer with explanation: C) ARP lacks built-in security features Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) poisoning attacks are possible because ARP lacks built-in security features such as authentication or encryption. This allows an attacker to send unsolicited ARP response messages to devices on the local subnet, which the devices interpret as if they were coming from a legitimate source. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) The victim device's firewall is disabled While a disabled firewall may make a device more vulnerable to attacks, it is not the primary reason why an ARP poisoning attack is successful. The main reason is that ARP lacks built-in security features. B) The attacker has compromised the victim's encryption keys Compromising encryption keys may be part of other types of attacks, but it is not the primary reason for the success of an ARP poisoning attack. The key issue with ARP is its lack of built-in security features. D) The attacker has disabled the router's security features Disabling the router's security features could make the network more vulnerable to attacks. However, the primary reason for the success of an ARP poisoning attack is the lack of security features in the ARP protocol itself. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/on-path-attacks/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the purpose of an Initialization Vector (IV) in encryption? A) To store password hashes in a database B) To provide a unique identifier for each user C) To add randomization to the encryption process D) To authenticate users during the login process

"Correct answer with explanation: C) To add randomization to the encryption process An Initialization Vector (IV) is a type of nonce used in encryption to add randomization to the encryption scheme. By incorporating an IV with an encryption key, particularly a key used repeatedly, the overall strength of the encryption method is enhanced. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) To store password hashes in a database Storing password hashes in a database involves using a different type of nonce called a ""salt."" A salt is used to randomize password hashes stored in a database, making it harder for attackers to identify similar passwords. B) To provide a unique identifier for each user Initialization Vectors are not used to provide unique identifiers for users. Their primary function is to add randomization to encryption processes. D) To authenticate users during the login process While nonces are used during the login process to help authenticate users, this specifically refers to cryptographic nonces sent by a server, not Initialization Vectors. These nonces are combined with password hashes and evaluated by the server to authenticate users. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/randomizing-cryptography-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary goal of a wireless disassociation attack on a Wi-Fi network? A) To steal data from devices on the network B) To impersonate the access point to gain unauthorized access to other networks C) To disconnect a device from the Wi-Fi network repeatedly D) To gain unauthorized control over the Wi-Fi access point

"Correct answer with explanation: C) To disconnect a device from the Wi-Fi network repeatedly A wireless disassociation attack is a denial of service attack that targets devices on a Wi-Fi network, causing them to lose their connection to the access point. This attack exploits the vulnerability of unprotected management frames in the original 802.11 standard, allowing the attacker to send disassociation frames to the access point and cause devices to lose connectivity. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) To steal data from devices on the network A wireless disassociation attack's main goal is not to steal data from devices on the network but to disconnect them from the Wi-Fi network repeatedly. B) To impersonate the access point to gain unauthorized access to other networks Impersonating an access point to gain unauthorized access to other networks is not the goal of a wireless disassociation attack. Instead, the attack aims to disconnect devices from the Wi-Fi network. D) To gain unauthorized control over the Wi-Fi access point Gaining unauthorized control over the Wi-Fi access point is not the objective of a wireless disassociation attack. The attack's primary goal is to disconnect devices from the Wi-Fi network repeatedly. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-disassociation-attacks-2/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the main characteristic of a Remote Access Trojan (RAT)? A. Encrypting user data and demanding a ransom B. Creating a botnet for launching DDoS attacks C. Controlling a system through a remote network connection with malicious intent D. Redirecting users to phishing websites

"Correct answer with explanation: C. Controlling a system through a remote network connection with malicious intent A Remote Access Trojan (RAT) is a type of malware that controls a system through a remote network connection. While desktop sharing and remote administration can have many legal uses, RATs are associated with criminal or malicious activity. They are typically installed without the victim's knowledge and try to hide their operation from both the victim and security software. Incorrect answers explanation: A. Encrypting user data and demanding a ransom Incorrect because this describes the behavior of ransomware, not RATs. B. Creating a botnet for launching DDoS attacks Incorrect because this describes the behavior of botnet-related malware, not RATs. D. Redirecting users to phishing websites Incorrect because this describes the behavior of phishing-related malware, not RATs. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Remote_desktop_software#RAT"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary reason fileless malware is difficult to detect and counteract? A. It relies on social engineering techniques. B. It is always encrypted and hidden within other files. C. It exists exclusively in computer memory and does not write to the hard drive. D. It is only active when the user is not using the computer.

"Correct answer with explanation: C. It exists exclusively in computer memory and does not write to the hard drive. Fileless malware exists exclusively as a computer memory-based artifact (i.e., in RAM). It does not write any part of its activity to the computer's hard drive, making it harder to detect using traditional antivirus software that incorporates file-based whitelisting, signature detection, hardware verification, pattern-analysis, time-stamping, etc. Its existence on the system lasts only until the system is rebooted. Incorrect answers explanation: A. It relies on social engineering techniques. Incorrect because fileless malware relies on its ability to exist in memory without writing to the hard drive, rather than on social engineering techniques. B. It is always encrypted and hidden within other files. Incorrect because fileless malware does not write to the hard drive, making it unnecessary to hide within other files or use encryption. D. It is only active when the user is not using the computer. Incorrect because the activity of fileless malware is not dependent on user interaction. Its primary evasion technique is its existence in memory without writing to the hard drive. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fileless_malware"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: In the context of computer security and cyberwarfare, what does the term ""command and control"" refer to? A. The hierarchy within an organization's security team. B. The process of securing sensitive data from unauthorized access. C. The influence an attacker has over a compromised computer system. D. The encryption methods used to protect data in transit."

"Correct answer with explanation: C. The influence an attacker has over a compromised computer system. In the context of computer security and cyberwarfare, ""command and control"" refers to the influence an attacker has over a compromised computer system that they control. Attackers use ""command and control infrastructure"" to issue ""command and control instructions"" to their victims, and advanced analysis of these methodologies can be used to identify attackers, associate attacks, and disrupt ongoing malicious activity. Incorrect answers explanation: A. The hierarchy within an organization's security team. Incorrect because ""command and control"" does not refer to the organizational structure of a security team but rather the control an attacker has over a compromised system. B. The process of securing sensitive data from unauthorized access. Incorrect because ""command and control"" refers to the attacker's influence over a compromised system, not the process of securing data from unauthorized access. D. The encryption methods used to protect data in transit. Incorrect because ""command and control"" refers to the attacker's influence over a compromised system, not the encryption methods used to protect data. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Command_and_control"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What differentiates a logic bomb from a trial program with disabled functionality after a set time? A. The use of a specific date for activation B. The presence of hidden malicious code C. The user's awareness and consent to the payload D. The ability to spread like a virus or worm"

"Correct answer with explanation: C. The user's awareness and consent to the payload A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that triggers a malicious function when specified conditions are met. To be considered a logic bomb, the payload should be unwanted and unknown to the user of the software. In contrast, trial programs with code that disables certain functionality after a set time are not normally regarded as logic bombs, as users are typically aware of and consent to these limitations. Incorrect answers explanation: A. The use of a specific date for activation Incorrect because both logic bombs and trial programs can use specific dates for activation, but the user's awareness and consent differentiate them. B. The presence of hidden malicious code Incorrect because, although logic bombs have hidden malicious code, the key difference between the two is the user's awareness and consent to the payload. D. The ability to spread like a virus or worm Incorrect because the ability to spread like a virus or worm is not the defining factor that differentiates a logic bomb from a trial program with disabled functionality. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logic_bomb"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is true about horizontal privilege escalation? A) An attacker gains access to resources that would normally only be available to a user of higher level. B) An attacker gains administrative or root access to the system through a vulnerability. C) An attacker gains elevated access on the system through a vulnerability. D) An attacker gains access to another user's account by exploiting a vulnerability."

"Correct answer: A) An attacker gains access to resources that would normally only be available to a user of higher level. Explanation: Horizontal privilege escalation is when one user gains access to resources that would normally only be available to another user of the same level. It doesn't necessarily have to be an administrator or root account. In contrast, vertical privilege escalation is when a normal user gains elevated access on the system. Option A correctly defines horizontal privilege escalation. Option B refers to vertical privilege escalation where an attacker gains administrative or root access to the system through a vulnerability. Option C correctly defines vertical privilege escalation. Option D refers to another type of attack known as account hijacking, where an attacker gains access to another user's account by exploiting a vulnerability. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privilege-escalation-3/"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is LDAP used for? A) Storing data for the client device B) Providing a platform for running software applications C) Storing authentication information for users D) Transferring data between different types of devices

"Correct answer: C) Storing authentication information for users Explanation: LDAP is commonly used to store information about authentication, such as username and password, or other information about devices or users. It's a lightweight protocol for accessing and maintaining directory services over an IP network. By injecting data into an LDAP database, attackers can gather a lot of valuable information they normally wouldn't have access to, including sensitive authentication data. Incorrect answers: A) Storing data for the client device - This is not correct. While LDAP may store information, it is not typically used to store data for client devices. B) Providing a platform for running software applications - This is not correct. LDAP is not a platform for running software applications. D) Transferring data between different types of devices - This is not correct. While XML is commonly used for transferring data between different types of devices, LDAP is not used for this purpose. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/injection-attacks/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a technique an attacker might use to manipulate an application's memory in a way that causes it to crash? A) Integer overflow B) Directory traversal attack C) API attack D) Null pointer dereference"

"The correct answer is D) Null pointer dereference. An attacker can manipulate an application's memory by making it point to a null section of memory where nothing exists rather than the part of memory where the application data might exist. This is called a null pointer dereference, and it very commonly causes the application to crash. This type of attack is often used to create a denial of service to bring down a system. A) Integer overflow is a type of attack where a large number might be placed into a smaller section of memory, which means that that extra space has to go somewhere, and usually it goes into an area of memory that's overflowed. Although an overflow can crash a system or application, it is not related to manipulating memory in a way that causes an application to crash. B) A directory traversal attack is a vulnerability that might give a way for attackers to move around your file system and read from different parts of a server. This type of attack is not related to manipulating memory in a way that causes an application to crash. C) An API attack occurs when an attacker tries to manipulate the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or gain access to data that would not normally be available to them. This type of attack is not related to manipulating memory in a way that causes an application to crash. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/"

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following countermeasures can prevent online dictionary attacks? A) Limiting key combinations that can be tried B) Increasing the answer's complexity C) Requiring the user to enter their email address D) Preventing an IP address from attempting too many password attempts"

"The correct answer is D) Preventing an IP address from attempting too many password attempts. This countermeasure can help prevent dictionary attacks by preventing a particular IP address from trying more than a predetermined number of password attempts against any account on the site. By blocking further attempts from an IP address, the attack can be stopped, and the account can remain secure. A) Limiting key combinations that can be tried is not an effective countermeasure for preventing dictionary attacks, as an attacker can still try different combinations until they find the correct one. B) Increasing the answer's complexity, such as requiring a CAPTCHA or multi-factor authentication, can be effective in preventing brute force attacks, but may not stop dictionary attacks. C) Requiring the user to enter their email address is not a countermeasure that can prevent dictionary attacks. It may be used to assist with password recovery, but it will not stop an attacker from attempting a dictionary attack. Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dictionary_attack"

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following describes a buffer overflow attack? A) When a section of memory is able to read a different section of memory B) When a section of memory is able to write to a different section of memory C) When a section of memory is able to delete a different section of memory D) When a section of memory is able to move to a different section of memory

Answer: B) When a section of memory is able to write to a different section of memory Explanation: A buffer overflow attack occurs when a section of memory writes or overwrites data into a different section of memory. This is a type of vulnerability that occurs due to poor programming and can allow attackers to gain access to the system or cause the application to behave in an unexpected manner. Bounds checking can prevent buffer overflow vulnerabilities by ensuring that no one is able to overwrite different sections of memory. The other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe a buffer overflow attack. Incorrect answers: A) When a section of memory is able to read a different section of memory - This is not a buffer overflow attack as reading memory does not overwrite or write to another section of memory. C) When a section of memory is able to delete a different section of memory - This is not a buffer overflow attack as deleting memory does not overwrite or write to another section of memory. D) When a section of memory is able to move to a different section of memory - This is not a buffer overflow attack as moving memory does not overwrite or write to another section of memory. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/buffer-overflows-3/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a birthday attack? A. A cryptographic attack that exploits the mathematics behind the birthday problem in probability theory B. A type of cyber-attack that targets individuals on their birthdays C. An attack that uses brute force to break an encryption scheme D. A type of social engineering attack that targets individuals through personal information obtained from social media

Correct Answer Explanation: A. A birthday attack is a type of cryptographic attack that exploits the mathematics behind the birthday problem in probability theory. This attack can be used to abuse communication between two or more parties. The attack depends on the higher likelihood of collisions found between random attack attempts and a fixed degree of permutations (pigeonholes). Although there are some digital signature vulnerabilities associated with the birthday attack, it cannot be used to break an encryption scheme any faster than a brute-force attack. The text provided mentions this as the correct answer. Incorrect Answer Explanations: B. A type of cyber-attack that targets individuals on their birthdays is not a correct answer. There is no evidence to suggest that attackers specifically target individuals on their birthdays. C. An attack that uses brute force to break an encryption scheme is not a correct answer. Although there are some digital signature vulnerabilities associated with the birthday attack, it cannot be used to break an encryption scheme any faster than a brute-force attack. D. A type of social engineering attack that targets individuals through personal information obtained from social media is not a correct answer. There is no evidence to suggest that attackers use personal information obtained from social media to perform birthday attacks. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptographic-attacks-sy0-601-comptia-security-1-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a downgrade attack? A. A type of cryptographic attack on a computer system that makes it abandon a high-quality mode of operation in favor of a low-quality mode of operation. B. A type of brute-force attack that attempts to guess the password of a user. C. A type of denial-of-service attack that floods a network with traffic. D. A type of attack that targets the physical security of a computer system.

Correct Answer Explanation: A. A downgrade attack is a form of cryptographic attack on a computer system or communications protocol that makes it abandon a high-quality mode of operation (e.g. an encrypted connection) in favor of an older, lower-quality mode of operation (e.g. cleartext) that is typically provided for backward compatibility with older systems. The text provided mentions this as the correct answer. Incorrect Answer Explanations: B. A type of brute-force attack that attempts to guess the password of a user is not a correct answer. A brute-force attack is a method of trying all possible combinations of a password until the correct one is found. It is not related to downgrade attacks. C. A type of denial-of-service attack that floods a network with traffic is not a correct answer. A denial-of-service attack is a type of cyber-attack where the attacker attempts to prevent legitimate users from accessing the targeted system, service, or network resource. It is not related to downgrade attacks. D. A type of attack that targets the physical security of a computer system is not a correct answer. Physical security attacks are a type of cyber-attack that targets the physical infrastructure of a system, such as stealing hardware or gaining physical access to a computer system. It is not related to downgrade attacks. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptographic-attacks-sy0-601-comptia-security-1-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the significance of collision attacks in cryptography? A. They allow an attacker to bypass authentication mechanisms B. They allow an attacker to perform a brute-force attack C. They allow an attacker to perform a denial-of-service attack D. They allow an attacker to encrypt data

Correct Answer Explanation: A. Collision attacks are significant in cryptography because they allow an attacker to use them to undermine the security granted by digital signatures, allowing them to fraudulently make data appear as if it has been verified for its integrity and authenticity. This means that collision attacks can circumvent the security mechanisms we rely on to keep our online world safe. The text provided mentions this as the correct answer. Incorrect Answer Explanations: B. They allow an attacker to perform a brute-force attack is not a correct answer. A brute-force attack is a method of trying all possible combinations of a password until the correct one is found. It is not related to collision attacks. C. They allow an attacker to perform a denial-of-service attack is not a correct answer. A denial-of-service attack is a type of cyber-attack where the attacker attempts to prevent legitimate users from accessing the targeted system, service, or network resource. It is not related to collision attacks. D. They allow an attacker to encrypt data is not a correct answer. Encryption is a process of encoding information in such a way that only authorized parties can access it. It is not related to collision attacks. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptographic-attacks-sy0-601-comptia-security-1-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What are the advantages of storing data in the cloud as compared to storing it on-premises? A. Lower costs, centralized security, and greater availability B. Complete control, better expertise, and greater uptime C. More customizable security, physical access to servers, and greater availability D. No physical access to servers, larger-scale security, and greater uptime

Correct Answer Explanation: A. Lower costs, centralized security, and greater availability are the advantages of storing data in the cloud as compared to storing it on-premises. With cloud security, everything is centralized, and therefore your costs tend to be lower. You don't have to worry about having your own data center or purchasing any hardware, and you have a third party that handles all of the IT services for you. The data in the cloud tends to be more available since it is a larger infrastructure with much more redundancy built in. The text provided mentions this as the correct answer. Incorrect Answer Explanations: B. Complete control, better expertise, and greater uptime are not advantages of storing data in the cloud as compared to storing it on-premises. These are the advantages of storing data on-premises. If all of your data is on-site, you obviously have your own data center. You have complete control, and you're in charge of your users and your support team. With all of the data in your local premises, you have a team that can handle all of the uptime and all of the availability. C. More customizable security, physical access to servers, and greater availability are not advantages of storing data in the cloud as compared to storing it on-premises. These are not true since in a cloud-based system, you get to control how much security you have on that data. There's usually no physical access to the servers and services that are in these cloud-based systems. D. No physical access to servers, larger-scale security, and greater uptime are not advantages of storing data in the cloud as compared to storing it on-premises. No physical access to servers is true, but this is not an advantage. Larger-scale security and greater uptime are advantages, but it is not true that there is no centralized security and lower costs with cloud security. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cloud-based-vs-on-premises-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: How do bad actors amplify their influence campaigns using social media? A) By targeting only one social media platform. B) By creating multiple fake accounts, posting content on various sites, and relying on real users and mass media to spread the message. C) By limiting their activities to traditional media outlets. D) By only using their personal accounts to post content.

Correct Answer with Explanation: B) By creating multiple fake accounts, posting content on various sites, and relying on real users and mass media to spread the message. Bad actors amplify their influence campaigns using social media by creating numerous fake accounts that appear as real users. They post content on multiple social media platforms and websites, increasing the scope of their reach. Real users start to see and share the content, which may eventually get picked up by mass media. This amplification process allows a message from a fake user to gain traction on widely trusted media outlets. (https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/influence-campaigns/) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) By targeting only one social media platform. This answer is incorrect because bad actors amplify their influence by spreading content across various social media platforms and websites, not just one. C) By limiting their activities to traditional media outlets. This answer is incorrect because influence campaigns using social media specifically take advantage of the internet and social media platforms rather than traditional media outlets. D) By only using their personal accounts to post content. This answer is incorrect because bad actors create multiple fake accounts to spread their messages, not just their personal accounts. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/influence-campaigns/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary difference between whaling attacks and CEO fraud? A) Whaling attacks target senior executives, while CEO fraud targets all employees B) CEO fraud involves sending fake emails from senior executives, while whaling attacks use spear phishing techniques C) Whaling attacks focus on stealing login credentials, while CEO fraud aims to trick employees into sending money D) CEO fraud has a low success rate, while whaling attacks have a high success rate

Correct Answer with Explanation: B) CEO fraud involves sending fake emails from senior executives, while whaling attacks use spear phishing techniques Whaling attacks use spear phishing techniques to target senior executives and other high-profile individuals with customized content, often related to a subpoena or customer complaint. On the other hand, CEO fraud involves sending fake emails impersonating senior executives to trick employees into sending money to an offshore account. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Whaling attacks target senior executives, while CEO fraud targets all employees This answer is incorrect because both whaling attacks and CEO fraud target senior executives or high-profile individuals. The main difference lies in the techniques used and the goals of each attack. C) Whaling attacks focus on stealing login credentials, while CEO fraud aims to trick employees into sending money This answer is incorrect because whaling attacks do not necessarily focus on stealing login credentials. Whaling attacks use spear phishing techniques to target high-profile individuals with customized content. D) CEO fraud has a low success rate, while whaling attacks have a high success rate This answer is incorrect because it does not emphasize the primary difference between the two attacks, which lies in the techniques used and their objectives. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a key characteristic of spear phishing attacks that makes them more effective than generic phishing attacks? A) They target a large number of individuals at once B) They use personalized emails and personal information about the target C) They always target executives or financial departments D) They only target older individuals with a high susceptibility to phishing

Correct Answer with Explanation: B) They use personalized emails and personal information about the target Spear phishing attacks are more effective than generic phishing attacks because they use personalized emails and personal information about the target to increase the chances of success. By appearing more legitimate and relevant to the target, spear phishing emails have a higher likelihood of being opened and acted upon. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) They target a large number of individuals at once This answer is incorrect because spear phishing attacks are targeted and focused on specific individuals or organizations, rather than targeting a large number of individuals indiscriminately. C) They always target executives or financial departments While it is true that spear phishing attacks often target executives or financial departments, they can also target other individuals or departments. This answer is incorrect because spear phishing attacks are not limited to these specific targets. D) They only target older individuals with a high susceptibility to phishing This answer is incorrect because spear phishing attacks can target individuals of any age. The study mentioned in the text shows that susceptibility to spear phishing varies among different age groups, but it does not suggest that spear phishing attacks exclusively target older individuals. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of footprinting in the context of cybersecurity? A) Identifying vulnerabilities within a network B) Exploiting vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access C) Gathering information about computer systems and their entities D) Launching a coordinated attack on multiple systems simultaneously

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) Gathering information about computer systems and their entities Footprinting, also known as reconnaissance, is a technique used to gather information about computer systems and the entities they belong to. Hackers can use various tools and technologies to collect this information, which can be useful when attempting to crack a whole system. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Footprinting) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Identifying vulnerabilities within a network This answer is incorrect because footprinting primarily focuses on gathering information about computer systems and their entities, not specifically identifying vulnerabilities within a network. B) Exploiting vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access This answer is incorrect because footprinting is a pre-attack phase that focuses on gathering information about computer systems and their entities, not exploiting vulnerabilities. D) Launching a coordinated attack on multiple systems simultaneously This answer is incorrect because footprinting is a pre-attack phase that focuses on gathering information about computer systems and their entities, not launching attacks on multiple systems. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Footprinting

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What makes influence campaigns a dangerous new paradigm in cybersecurity? A) They are highly visible and easy to attribute. B) They rely solely on traditional warfare techniques. C) They are secretive, deniable, difficult to attribute, and can severely influence public opinion. D) They only target individuals, not businesses or governments.

Correct Answer with Explanation: C) They are secretive, deniable, difficult to attribute, and can severely influence public opinion. Influence campaigns are a dangerous new paradigm in cybersecurity because they are secretive and deniable, making them hard to attribute. They can also significantly influence public opinion, making them a potent tool in hybrid warfare that combines traditional warfare techniques with hacking and influence campaigns. (https://www.codecademy.com/article/influence-campaigns) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) They are highly visible and easy to attribute. This answer is incorrect because influence campaigns are actually secretive, deniable, and difficult to attribute. B) They rely solely on traditional warfare techniques. This answer is incorrect because influence campaigns are part of hybrid warfare, which combines traditional warfare techniques with hacking and influence campaigns. D) They only target individuals, not businesses or governments. This answer is incorrect because influence campaigns can target businesses and governments as well as individuals, making them a significant concern in the realm of cybersecurity. Reference URL: https://www.codecademy.com/article/influence-campaigns

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the most effective measure to protect against SPIM in Instant Messaging? A) Make your IM user name and contact information public B) Use a reputable Service Provider for VoIP calls C) Encrypt all VoIP calls D) Avoid sharing your IM user name and contact information, and be cautious with your Buddy List

Correct Answer with Explanation: D) Avoid sharing your IM user name and contact information, and be cautious with your Buddy List To protect against SPIM, it is essential not to share your IM user name and contact information publicly. This will make it harder for spimmers to send you unwanted messages. Additionally, you should be cautious with your Buddy List, as spimmers can use various tactics to send harmful links through Instant Messaging. (https://www.networksplusco.com/what-is-spim-spam-and-spit/) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Make your IM user name and contact information public This answer is incorrect because making your IM user name and contact information public makes it easier for spimmers to target you with unwanted messages and potential threats. B) Use a reputable Service Provider for VoIP calls This answer is incorrect because it is related to SPIT (Spam over Internet Telephone), not SPIM (Spam over Instant Messaging). While using a reputable service provider can help with VoIP security, it does not directly protect against SPIM. C) Encrypt all VoIP calls This answer is also incorrect because it addresses SPIT rather than SPIM. Encrypting VoIP calls can protect against eavesdropping and other security threats related to VoIP, but it does not offer protection against SPIM in Instant Messaging. Reference URL: https://www.networksplusco.com/what-is-spim-spam-and-spit/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a primary difference between virus hoaxes and computer pranks? A) Virus hoaxes are harmless, while computer pranks cause serious damage to the system. B) Virus hoaxes are spread through social engineering, while computer pranks are spread through software vulnerabilities. C) Virus hoaxes contain real malware, while computer pranks are fake warnings. D) Virus hoaxes are typically harmless and spread through social engineering, while computer pranks involve unwanted and annoying actions on a computer.

Correct Answer with Explanation: D) Virus hoaxes are typically harmless and spread through social engineering, while computer pranks involve unwanted and annoying actions on a computer. Virus hoaxes are usually harmless messages that spread through social engineering, often using sensational claims and urging users to forward the message. In contrast, computer pranks are harmless programs that perform unwanted and annoying actions on a computer, such as randomly moving the mouse or turning the screen display upside down. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virus_hoax) Incorrect Answer Explanations: A) Virus hoaxes are harmless, while computer pranks cause serious damage to the system. This answer is incorrect because both virus hoaxes and computer pranks are generally harmless, although they may cause annoyance or wasted time. B) Virus hoaxes are spread through social engineering, while computer pranks are spread through software vulnerabilities. This answer is incorrect because, although virus hoaxes are spread through social engineering, computer pranks are not necessarily spread through software vulnerabilities. Computer pranks are programs that perform unwanted actions on a computer. C) Virus hoaxes contain real malware, while computer pranks are fake warnings. This answer is incorrect because virus hoaxes do not contain real malware; they are typically harmless messages that spread through social engineering. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virus_hoax

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following memory vulnerabilities often results in an application crashing or the operating system failing? A) Memory leak B) Null pointer dereference C) Integer overflow D) Directory traversal

Correct Answer: A Explanation: A memory leak is a type of memory vulnerability that occurs when memory allocated for storage or calculations is never returned back to the system. This causes the application to use more and more memory until it uses all available memory and ultimately crashes either the application or the operating system it's running on. Null pointer dereference, integer overflow, and directory traversal are different types of attacks that can manipulate memory and cause a variety of issues. Incorrect Answers: B) Null pointer dereference is an attack that can manipulate memory by making an application point to a null section of memory where nothing exists rather than the part of memory where the application data might exist. This commonly causes the application to crash, but it is not a memory vulnerability that often results in a crash or failure of the operating system. C) Integer overflow occurs when a large number is placed into a smaller section of memory and the extra space overflows into another area of memory. This is not a memory vulnerability that often results in a crash or failure of the operating system. D) Directory traversal is an attack that allows attackers to read from different parts of a server, even areas of a server where normally they should not have access. This is not a memory vulnerability that often results in a crash or failure of the operating system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following techniques is commonly used by vishing fraudsters to impersonate legitimate entities and impede detection by law enforcement agencies? A. Caller ID spoofing B. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks C. Port scanning D. Social engineering

Correct Answer: A. Caller ID spoofing Explanation: Vishing fraudsters often use modern Voice over IP (VoIP) features such as caller ID spoofing to impersonate legitimate entities and impede detection by law enforcement agencies. This allows them to appear more trustworthy to their victims, making it easier for them to steal sensitive information. Incorrect Answers: B. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks are used to overwhelm a target system or network with traffic, rendering it unavailable for its intended users. This technique is not directly related to vishing. C. Port scanning is a method used to discover open ports and services on a network or system, typically as part of reconnaissance for a potential cyber attack. This technique is not directly related to vishing. D. Social engineering is a broader term that refers to the manipulation of individuals to divulge confidential information or perform actions that may benefit the attacker. While vishing is a form of social engineering, this answer choice does not specifically address the technique used to impersonate legitimate entities and impede detection. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-401/vishing-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is smishing? A) A type of phishing attack that uses email to deliver a bait message. B) A type of phishing attack that uses text messages to deliver a bait message. C) A type of malware that infects smartphones and steals login credentials. D) A type of ransomware that encrypts data on smartphones.

Correct Answer: B) A type of phishing attack that uses text messages to deliver a bait message. Explanation: Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses text messages from a cell phone or smartphone to deliver a bait message. The victim is usually asked to click a link, call a phone number, or contact an email address provided by the attacker. They may then be asked to provide private information, such as login credentials for other websites. Smishing can be just as effective as email phishing, as many smartphones have fast internet connectivity. Incorrect Answers: A) A type of phishing attack that uses email to deliver a bait message. This is incorrect because smishing specifically refers to phishing attacks that use text messages, not email. C) A type of malware that infects smartphones and steals login credentials. This is incorrect because smishing refers to a type of phishing attack, not a specific type of malware. D) A type of ransomware that encrypts data on smartphones. This is incorrect because smishing refers to a type of phishing attack, not a specific type of ransomware. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is an API attack? A) An attack where an attacker floods the network with IP address requests, causing the DHCP pool to be exhausted. B) An attack where an attacker tries to manipulate the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or data. C) An attack where an attacker is trying to read from different parts of a server where they normally should not have access. D) An attack where an attacker uses a specific string of input to cause a denial of service and crash the application or operating system.

Correct Answer: B) An attack where an attacker tries to manipulate the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or data. Explanation of Correct Answer: An API attack is when an attacker tries to manipulate the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or data that would not normally be available to them. In some cases, the API can also be manipulated to bring down the application or the system, creating a denial of service. API attacks are common in mobile applications. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) This answer describes a DHCP starvation attack, which is a type of resource exhaustion attack. C) This answer describes a directory traversal attack, where an attacker can read from different parts of a server where they normally should not have access. D) This answer describes an attack where an attacker uses a specific string of input to cause a denial of service and crash the application or operating system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: How do social engineering attacks exploit trust to deceive victims? A) By using advanced technical exploits to compromise systems B) By providing realistic-looking false information or platforms C) By exploiting known vulnerabilities in software D) By using brute-force techniques to guess passwords

Correct Answer: B) By providing realistic-looking false information or platforms Explanation: Social engineering attacks exploit trust by providing realistic-looking false information or platforms, such as phishing websites that mimic legitimate websites. When victims believe they are interacting with a trustworthy source, they are more likely to provide sensitive information or perform actions that compromise their security. Incorrect Answers: A) Advanced technical exploits to compromise systems are not directly related to trust exploitation in social engineering attacks. These are more related to technical vulnerabilities. C) Exploiting known vulnerabilities in software is not a social engineering tactic; it is a technical attack vector that does not rely on trust manipulation. D) Brute-force techniques to guess passwords are not social engineering tactics; they are technical methods that do not rely on exploiting the trust of the victim. Reference URL: https://www.examcollection.com/certification-training/security-plus-social-engineering-attacks-associated-effectiveness-with-each-attack.html

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which social engineering technique involves creating a fake website similar to an original one to deceive the user? A) Impersonation B) Phishing C) Baiting D) Tailgating

Correct Answer: B) Phishing Explanation: Phishing involves creating a fake website or communication that closely resembles an authentic one to deceive users. The goal is to trick users into providing sensitive information, such as login credentials or personal data, which can then be used for malicious purposes. Incorrect Answers: A) Impersonation is a social engineering technique where the attacker plays the role of a trusted individual to manipulate the victim. This method focuses on gaining trust rather than using fake websites. C) Baiting is a social engineering attack that uses enticing lures, such as free software or gifts, to trick users into taking some action, such as downloading malware or revealing sensitive information. D) Tailgating is a physical security breach where an unauthorized individual follows an authorized person into a restricted area. It does not involve creating fake websites or communications. Reference URL: https://www.examcollection.com/certification-training/security-plus-social-engineering-attacks-associated-effectiveness-with-each-attack.html

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber What is the potential risk of using poisoned training data during the machine learning process? A) The system may be unable to recognize malicious content B) The machine learning may not work properly C) The system may be unable to capture legitimate data D) The machine learning may not be able to sift through enormous amounts of data

Correct Answer: B) The machine learning may not work properly Explanation: Machine learning is used to train computer systems to identify and recognize patterns within enormous amounts of data. If attackers use malicious or invalid data during the training process, the resulting artificial intelligence will be invalid and unable to perform its intended function. Attackers can also exploit vulnerabilities in the machine learning after the learning process is over. For example, attackers can slightly modify their spam messages, which can bypass the machine learning that was previously done. During the learning process, it is important that all of the data going into the machine learning is legitimate. The machine learning process should also be retrained with new data occasionally to ensure that it stays up to date with the latest information. Incorrect Answers: A) The system may be unable to recognize malicious content: This is not the correct answer, as this is the purpose of using machine learning. The machine learning is intended to recognize patterns and learn from them. C) The system may be unable to capture legitimate data: This is not the correct answer. Machine learning is able to capture both legitimate and illegitimate data, but it is up to the developers to ensure that only legitimate data is used during the training process. D) The machine learning may not be able to sift through enormous amounts of data: This is not the correct answer, as machine learning is specifically designed to sift through enormous amounts of data. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/adversarial-artificial-intelligence/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a common goal of phishing attacks that are delivered via email spam? A. To overload a network with excessive traffic B. To trick individuals into giving away sensitive information or login credentials C. To encrypt data and demand a ransom D. To exploit known vulnerabilities in software

Correct Answer: B. To trick individuals into giving away sensitive information or login credentials Explanation: Phishing attacks, often delivered via email spam, are designed to deceive individuals into divulging sensitive information or login credentials. Attackers may use this information to steal money, install malware, or conduct further targeted attacks within an organization. Incorrect Answers: A. Overloading a network with excessive traffic is a goal of Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks, not phishing attacks. C. Encrypting data and demanding a ransom is a goal of ransomware attacks, not phishing attacks. However, phishing emails can sometimes be used to deliver ransomware. D. Exploiting known vulnerabilities in software is a goal of various types of cyber attacks but is not the primary goal of phishing attacks. Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a type of attack where an attacker manipulates an API to gain access to data that would not normally be available to them or to bring down the application or system? A) Memory leak B) Directory traversal attack C) API attack D) Resource exhaustion

Correct Answer: C) API attack Explanation: An API attack is a type of attack where an attacker manipulates the application programming interface of an application to gain access to data that would not normally be available to them or to bring down the application or system, creating a denial of service. API based applications usually run from mobile devices and use many different application programming interface requests being sent to the server. The server performs functions to talk to the database server, and then the responses to those API requests are a series of API responses which are interpreted by the application running on the mobile device. A) Memory leak is a type of memory vulnerability where memory is never returned back to the system and the application continues to use more and more memory until eventually it uses all of the available memory, and ultimately that crashes either the application or the operating system it's running on. B) Directory traversal attack allows attackers to read from different parts of a server, even areas of a server where normally they should not have access. This vulnerability can be caused by certain versions of web server that might allow people to browse outside the scope of the web server software, vulnerabilities in the software that you're running on that web server that would allow attackers to move outside the scope of the web server file system or a web server misconfiguration. D) Resource exhaustion is a denial of service attack that can often be done by a single device over low bandwidths. It's a type of attack that uses up the available resources on a device so that the application or the service that's being used by it is no longer accessible by others. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements accurately describes DLL injection? A) DLL injection is a way to inject SQL code into an application to gain access to its database. B) DLL injection is a way to inject XML code into an application to gain access to its data. C) DLL injection is a way to inject code into an application to have that application execute the code for the attacker. D) DLL injection is a way to inject code into an application to disable security features.

Correct Answer: C) DLL injection is a way to inject code into an application to have that application execute the code for the attacker. Explanation: DLL injection is a technique used by attackers to inject code into a running process. This code can then execute in the address space of the target process and have access to its resources. The attacker can use this to perform malicious activities, such as capturing sensitive information or taking control of the system. The injected code is typically contained in a Dynamic-Link Library (DLL) file, which is loaded into the target process. Incorrect Answers: A) DLL injection does not involve SQL code injection. B) DLL injection does not involve XML code injection. D) DLL injection does not involve disabling security features. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/injection-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is XML injection? A) Injecting malicious code into a database B) Injecting malicious code into an LDAP server C) Injecting malicious code into an XML data stream D) Injecting malicious code into a DLL library

Correct Answer: C) Injecting malicious code into an XML data stream Explanation: XML injection is the process of injecting malicious code into an XML data stream. XML is a markup language that is commonly used to transfer data between different devices. By injecting malicious code into an XML data stream, attackers can manipulate the data or steal sensitive information. A well-written application should validate XML data to prevent XML injection attacks. Incorrect Answers: A) Injecting malicious code into a database - This describes a SQL injection attack, where an attacker can gain unauthorized access to a database by injecting malicious SQL code. B) Injecting malicious code into an LDAP server - This describes an LDAP injection attack, where an attacker can manipulate an LDAP database by injecting malicious code. D) Injecting malicious code into a DLL library - This describes a DLL injection attack, where an attacker can inject malicious code into a DLL library to gain additional privileges. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/injection-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following describes DLL injection? A) A type of SQL injection attack used to gain access to a database B) A way to inject malicious code into an LDAP server to gather authentication information C) A method used to inject malformed XML into a system D) A technique to inject code into an application to execute as a new thread

Correct Answer: D) A technique to inject code into an application to execute as a new thread Explanation: DLL injection is a technique used to inject code into a running process, by inserting a dynamic-link library (DLL) into the process address space. The injected code runs as part of the process and may be able to access resources and perform actions the process would not normally be able to. The malicious code can be used to steal sensitive information, alter system behavior or create a backdoor for the attacker. SQL injection, LDAP injection, and XML injection are different types of injection attacks that can be used to exploit vulnerabilities in web applications and databases. Incorrect Answers: A) A type of SQL injection attack used to gain access to a database - This answer describes SQL injection, which is a different type of injection attack. B) A way to inject malicious code into an LDAP server to gather authentication information - This answer describes LDAP injection, which is a different type of injection attack. C) A method used to inject malformed XML into a system - This answer describes XML injection, which is a different type of injection attack. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/injection-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is an API-based attack that aims to manipulate an application programming interface to gain unauthorized access or bring down the application or system? A) Null pointer dereference B) Integer overflow C) Directory traversal attack D) API attack

Correct Answer: D) API attack Explanation: An API attack is a type of application attack where the attacker attempts to manipulate an application programming interface to gain unauthorized access or bring down the application or system. API-based applications usually run on mobile devices and send a series of API requests to the server. The server performs similar functions on the back end to talk to the database server, and the responses to those API requests are a series of API responses that are interpreted by the application running on the mobile device. Incorrect Answers: A) Null pointer dereference - This is incorrect because null pointer dereference is a type of memory vulnerability that often ends with the system crashing or the application failing due to pointing to nothing in memory. This does not aim to manipulate an application programming interface to gain unauthorized access or bring down the application or system. B) Integer overflow - This is incorrect because integer overflow is a type of memory vulnerability that can cause an overflow of memory and can be very difficult to find. This does not aim to manipulate an application programming interface to gain unauthorized access or bring down the application or system. C) Directory traversal attack - This is incorrect because directory traversal attack is a type of attack that allows attackers to read from different parts of a server, even areas of a server where they normally should not have access. This does not aim to manipulate an application programming interface to gain unauthorized access or bring down the application or system. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is a denial of service attack that can often be done by a single device over low bandwidths? A) API Attack B) Integer Overflow C) Memory Leak D) DHCP Starvation

Correct Answer: D) DHCP Starvation Explanation: A DHCP starvation attack is a denial of service attack that can be performed by a single device and involves flooding a network with IP address requests, quickly using up all of the available IP addresses within the DHCP pool. This prevents other devices from obtaining an IP address and accessing the network. It is a type of resource exhaustion attack. Incorrect Answers: A) An API attack involves manipulating the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or gain access to data that would not normally be available, creating a denial of service. This is not a resource exhaustion attack. B) An integer overflow occurs when a large number is placed into a smaller section of memory, causing the extra space to overflow into another area of memory. This is not a resource exhaustion attack. C) A memory leak occurs when memory is not returned back to the system, causing the application to use more and more memory until it eventually crashes. This is not a resource exhaustion attack. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a vulnerability that might give a way for attackers to move around your file system? A) API attack B) Memory leak C) Integer overflow D) Directory traversal

Correct Answer: D) Directory traversal Explanation: Directory traversal is a vulnerability that allows attackers to read from different parts of a server, even areas of a server where normally they should not have access. Attackers can use a web server misconfiguration or vulnerabilities in the software that you're running on that web server to break out of the web server and view files that were in your system. Explanation of Incorrect Answers: A) API attack: An API attack is when an attacker tries to manipulate the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or gain access to data that would not normally be available to them. B) Memory leak: A memory leak is a type of memory vulnerability where memory is never returned back to the system and the application continues to use more and more memory until it crashes either the application or the operating system it's running on. C) Integer overflow: An integer overflow is where a large number might be placed into a smaller section of memory, causing some of that information to overflow into other parts of memory. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a type of memory vulnerability that can cause a system to crash or an application to fail? A) Integer overflow B) Directory traversal attack C) API attack D) Memory leak

Correct Answer: D) Memory leak Explanation: A memory leak is a type of memory vulnerability where memory is not released by the application and the application continues to use more and more memory until it uses all of the available memory, causing a system crash or an application failure. An integer overflow is a situation where a large number is placed into a smaller section of memory, causing the extra space to overflow into other parts of memory. A directory traversal attack is a vulnerability that allows attackers to move around a file system and read from different parts of a server. An API attack is an attack where attackers manipulate the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or data that would not normally be available to them. Incorrect Answers: A) Integer overflow is a type of memory vulnerability, but it is not the one described in the text above. B) Directory traversal attack is a type of attack, but it is not the one described in the text above. C) API attack is a type of attack, but it is not the one described in the text above. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a primary security concern associated with both RFID and NFC technologies? A) Data leakage due to weak encryption B) Susceptibility to denial-of-service attacks C) Vulnerability to man-in-the-middle attacks D) Risk of unauthorized access to backend databases

Correct answer with explanation: B) Susceptibility to denial-of-service attacks Both RFID and NFC technologies rely on wireless communication. As such, they are susceptible to denial-of-service attacks resulting from interference or jamming of the frequencies associated with their communication. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Data leakage due to weak encryption While weak encryption can lead to data leakage, it is not the primary security concern associated with both RFID and NFC technologies. The primary concern is their susceptibility to denial-of-service attacks. C) Vulnerability to man-in-the-middle attacks While RFID and NFC communication can be vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks if the communication is in the clear and not encrypted, the primary security concern for both technologies is their susceptibility to denial-of-service attacks. D) Risk of unauthorized access to backend databases The primary security concern for both RFID and NFC technologies is their susceptibility to denial-of-service attacks, not the risk of unauthorized access to backend databases. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/rfid-and-nfc-attacks-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary objective of an attacker using Bluesnarfing on a Bluetooth-enabled device? A) To send unsolicited messages to the device B) To access and steal data from the device C) To disrupt the Bluetooth connection between devices D) To impersonate the device to gain unauthorized access to other networks

Correct answer with explanation: B) To access and steal data from the device Bluesnarfing is an attack where an attacker accesses data on a Bluetooth-enabled device without authorization. The attacker can access contact lists, emails, calendar information, and other sensitive data stored on the device. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) To send unsolicited messages to the device Sending unsolicited messages to a Bluetooth-enabled device is known as Bluejacking, not Bluesnarfing. Bluejacking is a less severe security concern, as it only involves sending messages and does not involve unauthorized access to data. C) To disrupt the Bluetooth connection between devices Bluesnarfing does not aim to disrupt Bluetooth connections between devices. Its primary goal is to access and steal data from a Bluetooth-enabled device. D) To impersonate the device to gain unauthorized access to other networks Bluesnarfing does not involve impersonating the target device to gain unauthorized access to other networks. Its main purpose is to access and steal data from the Bluetooth-enabled device itself. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/bluejacking-and-bluesnarfing-sy0-601-comptia-security-1-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of radio frequency (RF) jamming in a wireless network attack? A) To steal data from devices on the network B) To disrupt the network by decreasing the signal-to-noise ratio C) To impersonate the access point and gain unauthorized access to other networks D) To gain unauthorized control over the Wi-Fi access point

Correct answer with explanation: B) To disrupt the network by decreasing the signal-to-noise ratio RF jamming is an attack method that aims to disrupt a wireless network and create a denial of service situation. The attacker seeks to decrease the signal-to-noise ratio at the receiving device, such as an end station or access point. When the amount of noise overwhelms the good signal, the signal-to-noise ratio decreases, preventing the receiving device from communicating on the wireless network. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) To steal data from devices on the network The primary goal of RF jamming is to disrupt the network by decreasing the signal-to-noise ratio, not to steal data from devices on the network. C) To impersonate the access point and gain unauthorized access to other networks RF jamming focuses on disrupting the network by decreasing the signal-to-noise ratio, not impersonating the access point to gain unauthorized access to other networks. D) To gain unauthorized control over the Wi-Fi access point The primary purpose of RF jamming is to disrupt the network by decreasing the signal-to-noise ratio, not to gain unauthorized control over the Wi-Fi access point. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/wireless-jamming-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of an attacker setting up a wireless evil twin in a network environment? A) To increase the bandwidth of the existing network B) To gather sensitive data by tricking users into connecting to the malicious access point C) To boost the signal strength of the legitimate access points D) To help users connect to the network more easily

Correct answer with explanation: B) To gather sensitive data by tricking users into connecting to the malicious access point A wireless evil twin is a rogue access point set up by an attacker to look like a legitimate access point. By using similar SSID names and configuration settings or placing it near users, the attacker aims to trick users into connecting to the malicious access point to gather sensitive information or perform other malicious activities. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) To increase the bandwidth of the existing network An attacker would not set up an evil twin to increase the bandwidth of the existing network. The primary purpose of an evil twin is to deceive users and collect sensitive data. C) To boost the signal strength of the legitimate access points The purpose of an evil twin is not to boost the signal strength of legitimate access points. Instead, an evil twin often overpowers the signal of legitimate access points to become the primary access point that users connect to. D) To help users connect to the network more easily An attacker setting up an evil twin is not interested in helping users connect to the network more easily. The primary goal is to deceive users and gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or the network. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/rogue-access-points-and-evil-twins-4/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: According to the 2016 study mentioned in the text, what percentage of found USB devices were plugged into computers by individuals who picked them up? (Note from Josh: This probably isn't something you need to memorize for the test, it's likely more of an FYI to give context into our field) A. 20% B. 45% C. 75% D. 98%"

Correct answer with explanation: B. 45% In the 2016 study, 297 USBs were dropped on a university campus. Out of the 98% of found devices that were picked up, 45% were plugged into computers, indicating that people are likely to use found USB devices without considering the potential security risks. Incorrect answers explanation: A. 20% Incorrect because this percentage is not mentioned in the study. C. 75% Incorrect because this percentage is not mentioned in the study. D. 98% Incorrect because this percentage refers to the proportion of USB devices that were picked up, not the proportion that was plugged into computers. Reference URL: https://www.redteamsecure.com/blog/usb-drop-attacks-the-danger-of-lost-and-found-thumb-drives

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is an example of an advanced skimming method in cybersecurity? A. Photocopying receipts B. Installing a small electronic device called a skimmer inside an ATM or EFTPOS terminal C. Manually copying card numbers from discarded receipts D. Guessing card numbers and PINs

Correct answer with explanation: B. Installing a small electronic device called a skimmer inside an ATM or EFTPOS terminal Advanced skimming methods in cybersecurity include installing a small electronic device, known as a skimmer, inside an ATM or EFTPOS terminal. This device is used to steal card numbers and PINs as victims use their cards at these terminals. Incorrect answers explanation: A. Photocopying receipts Incorrect because photocopying receipts is a less advanced, manual method of skimming. C. Manually copying card numbers from discarded receipts Incorrect because manually copying card numbers is a less advanced, manual method of skimming. D. Guessing card numbers and PINs Incorrect because guessing card numbers and PINs is not a reliable method of skimming and is not an advanced technique. Reference URL: https://www.knowledgehut.com/blog/security/what-is-skimming-in-cyber-security

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What makes rootkit detection particularly difficult? A. Rootkits cannot be detected by antivirus software B. Rootkits may be able to subvert the software intended to find them C. Rootkits are typically installed on non-critical system files D. Rootkits are only detectable when the system is offline

Correct answer with explanation: B. Rootkits may be able to subvert the software intended to find them Rootkit detection is difficult because a rootkit may be able to subvert the software that is intended to find it. This ability to hide from or manipulate detection methods makes it challenging for security professionals to identify and remove rootkits from compromised systems. Incorrect answers explanation: A. Rootkits cannot be detected by antivirus software Incorrect because rootkits can sometimes be detected by antivirus software, although they may attempt to evade detection. C. Rootkits are typically installed on non-critical system files Incorrect because rootkits usually target critical system files to maintain their presence and control over the system. D. Rootkits are only detectable when the system is offline Incorrect because, although some rootkits may be detected more easily when the system is offline, they can still be detected using various techniques while the system is online. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rootkit

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of a botnet? A. To provide a platform for legitimate software distribution. B. To perform Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attacks, steal data, send spam, and allow the attacker access to the device and its connection. C. To enhance the security of Internet-connected devices. D. To monitor network traffic for potential security threats.

Correct answer with explanation: B. To perform Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attacks, steal data, send spam, and allow the attacker access to the device and its connection. A botnet is a group of Internet-connected devices running one or more bots, and its primary purpose is to perform malicious activities such as DDoS attacks, data theft, sending spam, and allowing the attacker access to the device and its connection. The owner can control the botnet using command and control (C&C) software. Incorrect answers explanation: A. To provide a platform for legitimate software distribution. Incorrect because botnets are typically associated with malicious activities, not legitimate software distribution. C. To enhance the security of Internet-connected devices. Incorrect because botnets are used for malicious purposes, not to enhance the security of devices. D. To monitor network traffic for potential security threats. Incorrect because botnets are used to perform attacks and other malicious activities, not to monitor network traffic for security threats. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Botnet

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary purpose of a rainbow table in the context of computer security? A. To intercept and analyze encrypted communications B. To precompute the output of cryptographic hash functions for cracking password hashes C. To flood a network with requests to compromise its security D. To determine a decryption key or passphrase by testing a subset of likely possibilities

Correct answer with explanation: B. To precompute the output of cryptographic hash functions for cracking password hashes A rainbow table is a precomputed table for caching the output of cryptographic hash functions, usually for cracking password hashes. It represents a space-time tradeoff, using less computer processing time and more storage than a brute-force attack. Incorrect answers explanation: A. To intercept and analyze encrypted communications Incorrect because rainbow tables are used to precompute the output of cryptographic hash functions, not to intercept and analyze encrypted communications. C. To flood a network with requests to compromise its security Incorrect because this describes a denial-of-service attack, not a rainbow table. D. To determine a decryption key or passphrase by testing a subset of likely possibilities Incorrect because this describes a dictionary attack, not a rainbow table. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/password-attacks-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which network access control mechanism can help prevent unauthorized access to your network through a rogue access point? A) WEP encryption B) MAC address filtering C) 802.1x authentication D) WPA2 encryption

Correct answer with explanation: C) 802.1x authentication 802.1x is a network access control mechanism that requires users to provide a username, password, or other type of authentication before being allowed access to the network. This helps prevent unauthorized access to the network even if someone connects to a rogue access point, as long as the network is running 802.1x. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) WEP encryption WEP encryption is an outdated and insecure wireless security protocol. It does not provide sufficient protection against rogue access points or unauthorized access to the network. B) MAC address filtering MAC address filtering can limit the devices that can connect to the network by checking their hardware (MAC) addresses. However, it is not effective against rogue access points, as MAC addresses can be easily spoofed or bypassed. D) WPA2 encryption WPA2 encryption is a security protocol that protects the data transmitted over a wireless network. While it provides better security than WEP, it does not specifically address the issue of rogue access points and unauthorized access to the network. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/rogue-access-points-and-evil-twins-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which protocol is commonly exploited in an on-path attack on a local IP subnet due to its lack of security features? A) HTTPS B) SSL C) ARP D) SSH

Correct answer with explanation: C) ARP The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is commonly exploited in an on-path attack on a local IP subnet because it lacks security features, such as authentication or encryption. Attackers can send ARP messages to devices on the local subnet, and those devices will interpret the messages as if they were coming from a legitimate source. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) HTTPS HTTPS is a secure version of the HTTP protocol that uses encryption to ensure the confidentiality of the transmitted data. It is not commonly exploited in on-path attacks because it provides a secure communication channel. B) SSL SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a computer network. It is not commonly exploited in on-path attacks because it adds a layer of security to the transmitted data. D) SSH SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic network protocol used for secure data communication, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers. It is not commonly exploited in on-path attacks because it provides a secure communication channel. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/on-path-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is a common use of NFC technology in mobile devices? A) Remote access to secure databases B) Long-range wireless communication C) Contactless payment and simplified Bluetooth pairing D) Encrypting communication between devices

Correct answer with explanation: C) Contactless payment and simplified Bluetooth pairing NFC (Near Field Communication) is commonly used in mobile devices to facilitate contactless payment at stores and to simplify the Bluetooth pairing process between devices. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Remote access to secure databases NFC technology is not primarily used for remote access to secure databases. Its main applications are contactless payment and simplified Bluetooth pairing. B) Long-range wireless communication NFC technology is designed for short-range communication between devices, typically a few centimeters apart, rather than long-range wireless communication. D) Encrypting communication between devices While encrypting communication between devices is an important aspect of secure communication, it is not the primary purpose of NFC technology. NFC is mainly used for contactless payment and simplified Bluetooth pairing. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/rfid-and-nfc-attacks-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a physical attack that involves adding additional electronics inside a USB cable or flash drive to trick the operating system into recognizing it as a human interface device (HID)? A. Dictionary attack B. Skimming attack C. Malicious USB cable or flash drive attack D. Cloning attack

Correct answer with explanation: C. Malicious USB cable or flash drive attack A malicious USB cable or flash drive attack involves adding additional electronics inside a USB cable or flash drive to trick the operating system into recognizing it as a human interface device (HID), such as a keyboard or mouse. This allows the attacker to run commands and potentially infect the system with malware. Incorrect answers explanation: A. Dictionary attack Incorrect because a dictionary attack is a type of attack where an attacker tries thousands or millions of likely possibilities, often obtained from lists of past security breaches, to crack a password or encryption key. B. Skimming attack Incorrect because a skimming attack is a method used to steal credit card information by copying the information from the magnetic stripe or capturing it from the computer system the card is plugged into. D. Cloning attack Incorrect because a cloning attack refers to creating an exact duplicate of a credit card, including the same numbers and information, and cloning the magnetic stripe on the back of the card. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/physical-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: In cybersecurity, what is the relationship between card cloning and skimming? A. Skimming is a technique used to protect cards from cloning. B. Card cloning is a technique used to prevent skimming. C. Skimming is an attack used to gain card information, which can be used for card cloning. D. Card cloning and skimming are unrelated techniques.

Correct answer with explanation: C. Skimming is an attack used to gain card information, which can be used for card cloning. Skimming is a technique used by attackers to steal card information, often from the magnetic stripe on the card. This stolen information can then be used to create a duplicate card, a process known as card cloning. Incorrect answers explanation: A. Skimming is a technique used to protect cards from cloning. Incorrect because skimming is an attack technique, not a protective measure. B. Card cloning is a technique used to prevent skimming. Incorrect because card cloning is an attack technique, not a protective measure. D. Card cloning and skimming are unrelated techniques. Incorrect because skimming is used to gather card information, which can then be used for card cloning. Reference URL: https://www.codecademy.com/learn/promo-fundamentals-of-cybersecurity/modules/malware-password-physical-attacks/cheatsheet

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: What is the primary goal of a dictionary attack in cryptanalysis and computer security? A. To exploit software vulnerabilities B. To compromise a network by flooding it with requests C. To determine a decryption key or passphrase by testing a subset of likely possibilities D. To intercept and analyze encrypted communications

Correct answer with explanation: C. To determine a decryption key or passphrase by testing a subset of likely possibilities A dictionary attack is an attack that uses a restricted subset of a keyspace to defeat a cipher or authentication mechanism. The goal is to determine the decryption key or passphrase by trying thousands or millions of likely possibilities, often obtained from lists of past security breaches. Incorrect answers explanation: A. To exploit software vulnerabilities Incorrect because a dictionary attack focuses on determining decryption keys or passphrases rather than exploiting software vulnerabilities. B. To compromise a network by flooding it with requests Incorrect because this describes a denial-of-service attack, not a dictionary attack. D. To intercept and analyze encrypted communications Incorrect because a dictionary attack is primarily aimed at determining decryption keys or passphrases, not intercepting and analyzing encrypted communications directly. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dictionary_attack

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: In the context of cryptanalysis, what is the primary objective of a known-plaintext attack (KPA)? A. To recover a secret key by analyzing encrypted communications without knowledge of the plaintext B. To crack password hashes by precomputing the output of cryptographic hash functions C. To reveal further secret information such as secret keys and code books by having access to both plaintext and ciphertext D. To flood a network with requests to compromise its security

Correct answer with explanation: C. To reveal further secret information such as secret keys and code books by having access to both plaintext and ciphertext In a known-plaintext attack, the attacker has access to both plaintext and ciphertext. The attacker can use this information to reveal further secret information such as secret keys and code books. Incorrect answers explanation: A. To recover a secret key by analyzing encrypted communications without knowledge of the plaintext Incorrect because in a known-plaintext attack, the attacker has access to both plaintext and ciphertext, not just the encrypted communications. B. To crack password hashes by precomputing the output of cryptographic hash functions Incorrect because this describes the use of rainbow tables, not a known-plaintext attack. D. To flood a network with requests to compromise its security Incorrect because this describes a denial-of-service attack, not a known-plaintext attack. Reference URL: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Known-plaintext_attack

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Question: Which of the following is a vulnerability that might give a way for attackers to move around a file system? A) Null pointer dereference B) Directory traversal attack C) Integer overflow D) API attack

Correct answer: B) Directory traversal attack Explanation: A directory traversal attack allows attackers to read from different parts of a server, even areas of a server where normally they should not have access. It allows attackers to break out of the web server and view files that were in the file system. This vulnerability might arise from certain versions of web servers that might allow people to browse outside the scope of the web server software or vulnerabilities in the software that you're running on that web server that would allow attackers to move outside the scope of the web server file system. A) Null pointer dereference is a type of memory vulnerability that often ends with the system crashing or the application failing. This vulnerability might cause the application to crash if an attacker can make an application point to a null section of memory where nothing exists rather than the part of memory where the application data might exist. C) Integer overflow is another way that attackers like to manipulate memory. It is where a large number might be placed into a smaller section of memory, causing that extra space to overflow into an area of memory that's overflowed. D) API attack is when an attacker tries to manipulate the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or gain access to data that would not normally be available to them. Reference URL: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/

"🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhat is machine learning in cybersecurity? A) A subset of quantum computing that uses statistical analysis to predict threats B) A type of AI that uses a predefined set of rules to identify and block threats C) An approach that uses previous datasets to create models that help identify and prevent threats D) An algorithmic approach that detects threats by monitoring a network's activity"

Correct answer: C Explanation: Machine learning is a subset of artificial intelligence that involves using algorithms and statistical models to allow computers to learn from previous data sets and make decisions based on the patterns and trends identified. In cybersecurity, machine learning can be used to create models that can help identify and prevent threats, such as malware or phishing attacks, by analyzing previous data and identifying patterns that indicate malicious activity. Option A is incorrect because machine learning is not a subset of quantum computing, and option B is incorrect because machine learning involves creating models based on data, not predefined rules. Option D is incorrect because although machine learning can be used to monitor network activity, it is not limited to this approach. Reference: https://personalsavings.americanexpress.com/onlinebanking/webclientLogin.do?_flowExecutionKey=_cA208D9DF-D767-0AF1-950F-FA832210A43F_kFBD7382A-2381-648F-A5D6-AE7DDEB62F3A

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyberWhich of the following is true about offline dictionary attacks? A) Attackers can try key combinations without the risk of discovery or interference. B) Attackers are limited in the number of attempts they can make. C) The use of multi-factor authentication is an effective countermeasure. D) Account lockout policies are ineffective against offline attacks.

The correct answer is A) Attackers can try key combinations without the risk of discovery or interference. In an offline dictionary attack, the attacker has gained access to the encrypted material and can try various key combinations without the risk of discovery or interference. This makes it easier for the attacker to crack the encryption and access the sensitive data. B) Attackers are not limited in the number of attempts they can make in offline attacks. Offline attacks are not subject to the same countermeasures as online attacks, such as limiting attempts or introducing time delays. C) The use of multi-factor authentication is not effective in preventing offline dictionary attacks. Multi-factor authentication is designed to prevent unauthorized access in online attacks, where the attacker is attempting to gain access to a system remotely. D) Account lockout policies are also ineffective against offline attacks. Account lockout policies are designed to prevent brute-force attacks by locking out accounts after a certain number of failed login attempts. However, in an offline attack, the attacker is not subject to account lockout policies. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/password-attacks-2/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a type of memory vulnerability that can allow an attacker to manipulate an application to crash or operate in an advantageous way? A) Buffer overflow B) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) C) SQL injection D) Cross-site scripting (XSS)

The correct answer is A) Buffer overflow. Explanation: A buffer overflow is a type of memory vulnerability that can allow an attacker to manipulate an application to crash or operate in an advantageous way. An attacker can insert more data than the application can handle into a specific memory location, causing the system to crash or behave unpredictably. Improper input handling can lead to a buffer overflow vulnerability. Explanation of incorrect answers: B) DDoS is not related to memory vulnerabilities or improper input handling, and is a type of attack that overwhelms a system with a flood of traffic from multiple sources. C) SQL injection and D) XSS are types of attacks that exploit vulnerabilities in web applications, but they do not involve manipulating memory or causing the application to crash. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which type of cross-site scripting attack can be embedded within a post or message and spread rapidly over social media? A) Non-persistent cross-site scripting B) Reflected cross-site scripting C) Stored cross-site scripting (persistent) D) Distributed cross-site scripting

The correct answer is C) Stored cross-site scripting (persistent). Explanation: A stored cross-site scripting (persistent) attack is embedded within a post or message and can spread rapidly over social media. Anyone who reads the post will also get the malicious script and run it on their local machine. Non-persistent cross-site scripting (also called reflected cross-site scripting) and reflected cross-site scripting attacks require the attacker to craft a specific link and convince the victim to click it to exploit the vulnerability. Distributed cross-site scripting is not a type of cross-site scripting attack. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cross-site-scripting-4/

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following statements is true about Trojans? A) They propagate themselves by injecting their code into other files. B) They can only spread through email attachments. C) They mislead users about their true intent. D) They always act as ransomware.

The correct answer is C) They mislead users about their true intent. A Trojan is a type of malware that misleads users about its true purpose or intent. It can be disguised as a legitimate software or file and trick the user into executing it. Once executed, the Trojan can perform various malicious activities, such as stealing sensitive information or providing unauthorized access to the affected computer. A) The statement that Trojans propagate themselves by injecting their code into other files is false. Unlike viruses and worms, Trojans do not attempt to propagate themselves to other files. B) The statement that Trojans can only spread through email attachments is false. While social engineering attacks using email attachments are a common method of spreading Trojans, they can also be spread through fake advertisements on social media or other means. D) The statement that Trojans always act as ransomware is false. While ransomware attacks are often carried out using Trojans, Trojans can have a variety of payloads and can be used for different types of attacks. Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trojan_horse_(computing)

🔒 Hands-On Cybersecurity / SOC Analyst Training (REAL EXPERIENCE) 🔒 joshmadakor.tech/cyber Which of the following is a type of memory vulnerability that can result in the system crashing or the application failing? A) Directory traversal attack B) API attack C) Resource exhaustion attack D) Integer overflow attack

The correct answer is D) Integer overflow attack. Explanation: An integer overflow is a type of memory vulnerability that can cause an application to store information into smaller areas and cause some of that information to overflow into other parts of memory. If an attacker can find an overflow that can be duplicated and it's one that allows them to manipulate the system in a way that's advantageous to them, this makes for a very powerful attack. Explanation of incorrect answers: A) Directory traversal attack is a type of attack that allows attackers to read from different parts of a server, even areas of a server where normally they should not have access. B) An API attack is when an attacker tries to manipulate the application programming interface of an application to gain additional access or gain access to data that would not normally be available to them. C) Resource exhaustion attack is a type of denial of service attack that can often be done by a single device over low bandwidths. Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/