Server+ Exam

A. Zones Zones are divisions of the storage created for performance and/or security reasons

Which of the following are divisions of storage created for performance and/or security reasons? A. Zones B. Domains C. Organizers D. Quadrants

B. PCI-X PCI-eXtended (PCI-X) is a double-wide version of the 32-bit PCI local bus. It runs at up to four times the clock speed, achieving higher bandwidth, but otherwise uses the same protocol and a similar electrical implementation.

5. Which if the following is a double-wide version of the 32-bit PCI local bus? A. PCI B. PCI-X C. PCIe D. PCI/2

B. Layer 2 Even if we assign devices in different VLANs with IP addresses in the same subnet, they will not be able to communicate because they are also separated at Layer 2.

At what layer of the OSI model are devices in different VLANs separated? A Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer4 D. Layer 7

A. True DDR doubles the rate by accessing the memory moduletwice per clock cycle

DDR doubles the rate by accessing the memory moduletwice per clock cycle. A. True B. False

B. Twice The primary benefit of DDR3 over DDR2 is that it transfers data at twice the rate of DDR2 (eight times the speed of its internal memory arrays), enabling higher bandwidth or peak data rates.

DDR3 memory is ______ as fast as DDR2? A. Three times B. Twice C. Half D. One-third

C. 111.8 GB When the hard disk manufacturer advertises a 120 GB hard drive, they are selling you 120,000,000,000 bytes. Windows divides this number by what it considers a GB (1073741824) and reports the hard disk size as: 120000000000 (bytes) / 1073741824 (bytes per GB) = 111.8 GB.

If a hard drive has 120 GB as calculated using the Base 10 number system, what will be the capacity reported by Windows? A. 120 GB B. 110 GB C. 111.8 GB D. 122.5 GB

D. 500 MB A minimum of three drives is required. RAID 5 uses 1/n (n = the number of drives in the array) for parity information (for example, one third of the space in a three-drive array), and only 1 - (1/n) is available for data. So if three 250 GB drives are used in the array (for a total of 750 GB), 500 GB will be the available drive space.

If three 250 MB disks are present in a RAID 5 array, how much space is actually usable for data? A. 125 MB B. 200 MB C. 250 MB D. 500 MB

C. 1.75 inches Each U is 1.75 inches (4.445 cm) high.

How large is each U in a rack? A. 19 inches B. 4.445 inches C. 1.75 inches D. It depends on the rack.

C. 1.5 times the size of RAM With Windows servers, set the pagefile to 1.5 times the RAM.

How large should the pagefile be on a Windows server that is not a database server? A. Half the size of RAM B. Equal to the size of RAM C. 1.5 times the size of RAM D. Twice the size of RAM

B. short bursts You can remove dust and debris from inside servers with compressed air blown in short bursts. The short bursts are useful in preventing the dust from flying too far out and entering another machine, as well as in preventing the can from releasing the air in liquid form.

How should you use compressed air inside the case? A long sustained bursts B. short bursts C. hold can 12 inches away from the system D. hold the can upside down

D. /var/log/messages In Linux this log file is located at /var/log/messages.

In Linux the log file that contains general and system-related messages like any you would be interested in for storage issues is located where? A. /var/messagas B. /var/log C. /log/messages D. /var/log/messages

B. Missing GRUB In Linux and Unix, this issue can be caused by a missing GRUB/LILO.

In Linux, which of the following can cause an inability to locate the operating system? A. Missing NTLDR B. Missing GRUB C. Missing Bootmgr D. Missing boot.ini

A. Stateful firewall In stateful inspection (or stateful packet filtering), records are kept using a state table that tracks every communications channel.

In which of the following devices are records kept using a table that tracks every communications channel? A. Stateful firewall B. Packet filtering firewall C. Application-level proxy D. Host-based firewall

A. NAS Networked-attached storage, as the name implies, consists of storage devices that are attached to the network and not attached locally to the server or servers that may be accessing the NAS. Although the storage may not be attached locally to the server, it is reachable via the TCP/IP network.

In which of the following is the storage natively reachable through a TCP/IP network? A. NAS B. SAN C. DAS D. PAS

C. Linux On Linux-based systems, a common host-based firewall is iptables, replacing a previous package called ipchains. It has the ability to accept or drop packets.

In which operating system is iptables used? A. Windows B. Sun Solaris C. Linux D. Novell

C. DAS (Direct-Attached Storage) One of the key features of DAS is that there is no network connection standing between the server and the storage, as is the case with SAN and NAS.

In which storage technology are all storages devices attached locally? A. NAS B. SAN C. DAS D. PAS

C. arp -d You can determine the MAC address of the computer with which you are experiencing the conflict by using the ping command followed by the "arp -d" command.

What command allows you to determine the MAC address of the computer with which you are experiencing a conflict after pinging the IP address? A. Ipconfig/id B. Ping -i C. Arp -d D. Mac-ld

B. badblocks badblocks has several different modes that allow you to detect bad sectors in Linux.

What command can be used in Linux to detect bad sectors? A. fschk B. badblocks C. fstab D. grub

A. fschk -a /dev/dda If you want fsck to attempt to repair any errors it finds, add the -a or -y parameter after the command.

What command can be used to attempt a repair of the dda drive in Linux? A. fschk -a /dev/dda B. fdisk -s /dev/dda C. fschk /dev/dda D. fdisk /dev/dda

B. LDAP Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a protocol that provides a mechanism to access and query directory services systems.

PT 2. Which of the following provides a mechanism to access and query directory services systems? A. TACACS B. LDAP C. TACACS+ D. RADIUS B. LDAP

C. Hurts performance One disadvantage in using RAID 6 is that each set of parities must be calculated separately, which slows write performance.

RAID 6 writes parity information across the drives as is done in RAID 5, but it writes two stripes. What is the effect of writing two stripes? A. Speeds performance B. Allows the cable to be longer C. Hurts performance D. Allows you to use only two drives

B. Overheating Replacing slot covers is vital. Servers are designed to circulate air with slot covers in place or cards plugged into the ports. Leaving slots on the back of the computer open alters the air circulation and causes more dust to be pulled into the system.

Replacing slots covers helps to prevent which event? A. Corrosion B. Overheating C. Theft D. EMI

D. Show ip route The show ip route command can be used to identify the routes of which the router is aware.

What command is used on a router to identify the routes of which the router is aware? A. Ip route B. Show route C. Route print D. Show ip route

B. net use The net use command is used to connect users to shared drives.

What command is used to connect users to shared drives? A. net share B. net use C. mount D. dmap

C. Backplane Servers have backplanes that abut the drives and make a connection with the drive so no cables are required. These can go bad and sometimes need replacing.

To which component do drive trays make a connection with the server so no cables are required? A. Front plane B. Drive board C. Backplane D. Disk plane

A. WDS Windows Deployment Services in Server 2012 R2 can be used to create and deploy images.

What Windows tool can be used to create and deploy images? A. WDS B. NFS C. PXE D. DAV

C. DTP Switch ports can be set to use a protocol called Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) to negotiate the formation of a trunk link. If an access port is left configured to use DTP, it is possible for a hacker to set their interface to spoof a switch and use DTP to create a trunk link. If this occurs, the hacker can capture traffic from all VLANs. To prevent this, disable DTP on all switch ports.

Using which of the following protocols can expose your switches to a switch spoofing attack? A. SSL B. VTP C. DTP D. STP

C. T568A and T568BYour selection is incorrect If the same standard is used on each end, the cable will be a straight-through cable, and if a different standard is used on either end, it will be a crossover cable. If one end is completely reversed, it results in a rollover cable.

Using which pair of configurations will result in a crossover cable? A. T568A and T568A B. T568B and T658B C. T568A and T568BYour selection is incorrect D. T568A and a completely reversed wiring pattern

D. Stepping levels When CPUs undergo revisions, the revisions are called stepping levels. When a manufacturer invests money to do a stepping, that means they have found bugs in the logic or have made improvements to the design that allow for faster processing.

What are revisions in CPUs called? A. Service packs B. Hot Cycles C. Base layers D. Stepping levels

A. Dual-drive C. Solid-state There are two main approaches to this: dual-drive hybrid and solid-state hybrid.

What are the two implementations of hybrid drives? A. Dual-drive B. Single-drive C. Solid-state D. Dual-state

D. Network name The service set identifier (SSID) is used as a both a network name and in some cases the magic word that allows access to the network.

What are you hiding when you disable SSID broadcast? A. MAC address of the AP B. IP address of the AP C. Hostname of the AP D. Network name

B. ESD It is a balancing act keeping humidity at the right level since low humidity causes ESD and high humidity causes moisture condensation.

What can be the result of low humidity? A. corrosion B. ESD C. RFI D. EMI

B. RDP Developed by Microsoft, Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) allows you to connect to remote computers and run programs on them. When you use RDP, you see the desktop of the computer you've signed into on your screen

What Microsoft technology allows you to connect to remote computers and run programs on them? A. DRAC B. RDP C. KVM D. SSL

B. Number of users assigned to the printer Print servers need lots of memory to hold the print jobs waiting in the print queue. The exact amount will depend on the number of users assigned to the printers being managed by this print server.

What drives the amount of memory for a print server? A. Number of printers B. Number of users assigned to the printer C. Size of the network D. Fault tolerance required

B. Archive The archive bit is used to communicate to the backup system whether a particular file has changed since the last backup. When the archive bit is cleared (0), it communicates that the file has been backed up already and has not changed since. When the bit is on (1), it communicates that the file has changed since the last backup and should be backed up again.

What file attribute is used to communicate to the backup system whether a particular file has changed since the last backup? A. Read only B. Archive C. System D. Hidden

C. ifcfg-eth6 To configure Ethernet 6 to be used as a slave by a NIC team, open the ifcfg-eth6 file and edit it as follows. In this case, the NIC team will be created and identified as bond0. # vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth1 DEVICE="eth1" TYPE=Ethernet ONBOOT="yes" BOOTPROTO="none" USERCTL=no MASTER=bond0 SLAVE=yes

What file do you edit in Linux to configure the Ethernet 6 interface to be used in a NIC team? A. ifcfg-eth1 B. ifcfg-bond0 C. ifcfg-eth6 D. ifcfg-bond1

A. fstab fstab (File System Table) is a file used by Linux operating systems to mount partitions on boot.

What file is used by Linux to mount partitions on boot? A. fstab B. grub C. filo D. remount

B. IOPS IOPS (Input/Output Operations per Second, pronounced eye-ops) is a common disk metric that describes how fast the disk subsystem is able to read and write to the drive. The higher this value, the better.

What is a common disk metric that describes how fast the disk subsystem is able to read and write to the drive? A. ILO B. IOPS C. IOS D. TIOS

A. 32-74 degrees (>32 to <74) Temperature shield not exceed 110 degrees F (43 degrees C) or fall below 32 degrees (0 degrees C). Ideally it should be kept below 74 degrees F (23 degrees C).

What is a safe temperature range for tape media? A. 32-74 degrees B. 50-90 degrees C. 32-100 degrees D. 60-80 degrees

B. Tape library A tape library is a storage device that contains multiple tape drives. It also contains a number of slots to hold tape cartridges and a bar-code reader that is used to identify the cartridges. Finally, they typically contain a robotic method for loading the tapes.

What is a storage device that contains multiple tape drives? A. JBOD B. Tape library C. Disk box D. Tape box

B. PageFile The swap file is often called the pagefile.

What is another term for a swap file? A. vDisk B. PageFile C. Virtual RAM D. Checkpoint file

B. 1 It will appear as a destination unreachable message (this is a group of message types that all have code numbers) with a code number of 1.

What is the code number of a destination unreachable message when it indicates the destination host is unreachable? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

B. 3.5" 1U and 2U systems, which are 1.75" and 3.5", respectively

What is the height of a 2U system? A. 1.75" B. 3.5" C. 5.25" D. 7"

C. 6 The Linear Tape Open (LTO) drives have been through a number of generations, the latest of which, LTO-6, has a maximum capacity of 2.5 TB.

What is the latest version of an LTO drive? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

D. 3000 volts The lowest static voltage transfer that you can feel is around 3,000 volts (it doesn't electrocute you because there is extremely little current). A static transfer that you can see is at least 10,000 volts! However, a component can be damaged with as little as 300 volts.

What is the lowest static voltage one can feel? A. 1500 volts B. 2000 volts C. 2500 volts D. 3000 volts

A. Capacity Capacity is the maximum amount of power a UPS can supply at any moment in time. So if it has a capacity of 650 volt amperes (VA) and you attempt to pull 800 VA from the UPS, it will shut itself down.

What is the maximum amount of power a UPS can supply at any moment in time? A. Capacity B. Volt limit C. Ceiling D. Maximum volts

B. 3 A minimum of three drives is required.

What is the minimum number of disk required for RAID 5? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

A. For integrity verification If you create the backup using checksums (which is an option with many utilities) it will allow you to check that the data has not changed since it was made or that it has been corrupted or damaged.

What is the purpose of creating a backup using checksums? A. For integrity verification B. To encrypt the data C. To speed restoration D. To deduplicate the data

C. Replace the motherboard Onboard components (also called integrated components) are those that are built into the motherboard. Unfortunately, when these components fail, a replacement of the motherboard is usually required.

What is typically the solution if an integrated component does bad.? A. Replace the component B. Replace the socket C. Replace the motherboard D. Disable the component

C. 50% Maintain the relative humidity at around 50 percent.

What should the humidity be in the server room? A. 30% B. 40% C. 50% D. 80%

A. 802.1ax-2008 Combining physical links can be done using proprietary methods, and there is also an IEEE standard for the process called 802.3ad, later replaced by 802.1ax-2008.

Which of the following is a standard method of implementing NIC teaming? A. 802.1ax-2008 B. 802.3 C. 802.1x D. 802.3g

A. Installing different size modules in the same bank will result in the modules operating in single-channel mode.

What statement is true with regard to dual-channel memory? A. Installing different size modules in the same bank will result in the modules operating in single-channel mode. B. Installing different size modules in the same bank will result in the modules operating in dual-channel mode. C. Installing equal size modules in the same bank will result in the modules operating in single-channel mode. D. Installing different size modules in the same bank will increase the performance of the bank.

D. Blade technology This technology consists of a server chassis housing multiple thin, modular circuit boards, known as server blades. Each blade (or card) contains processors, memory, integrated network controllers, and other input/output (I/O) ports.

What technology consists of a server chassis housing multiple thin, modular circuit boards, each of which acts as a server? A. Rack servers B. Towers C. KVM D. Blade technology

B. Multiplier The internal speed may be the same as the motherboard's speed (the external or bus speed), but it's more likely to be a multiple of it. For example, a CPU may have an internal speed of 1.3 GHz but an external speed of 133 MHz. That means for every tick of the system crystal's clock, the CPU has 10 internal ticks of its own clock.

What term describes the relationship between the internal speed of the CPU and the speed of the system bus? A. CPU time B. Multiplier C. Differential D. Coefficient

C. System time When monitoring CPU performance, the following are common metrics and their meanings: User time—the time the CPU was busy executing code in user space System time—the time the CPU was busy executing code in kernel space Idle time—the time the CPU was not busy; measures unused CPU capacity Steal time (virtualized hardware)—the time the operating system wanted to execute but was not allowed to by the hypervisor, because it was not the CPU's turn for a time

What term describes the time the CPU was executing in kernel mode? A. User time B. Steal time C. System time D. Idle time

A. Performance Monitor You can use third-party monitoring tools or you can rely on some that are built into the system, such as the Performance Monitor tool in Server 2012 R2. This tool can be used to take snapshots over a period of time as well so you get a feel for the rise and fall of the workload on the server.

What tool is used in Windows Server 2012 to create a baseline? A. Performance Monitor B. Action Center C. System Information D. Event Viewer

A. L1 The Level 1 cache, also known as the L1 or front-side cache, holds data that is waiting to enter the CPU. On modern systems, the L1 cache is built into the CPU.

What type of CPU cache holds data that is waiting to enter the CPU? A. L1 B. L2 C. L3 D. L4

D. HBA Many servers attach to storage networks and may run converged network adapters (CNA), which acts both as a host bus adapter (HBA) for the SAN and as the network card for the server.

What type of NIC acts as both a host bus adapter (HBA) for the SAN and also as the network card for the server? A. Auto-MDIX B. Full-duplex C. Converged D. HBA

C. MPPE In VPN operations, tunneling protocols wrap around or encapsulate the original packet when this process occurs. PPTP will encrypt the result using Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE).

What type of encryption does PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) use? A. AES B. IPsec C. MPPE D. Triple DES

C. Active Some systems use a passive terminator, while others that use Low Voltage Differential (LVD) mode will require active terminators.

What type of terminator is used with SCSI drives operating in LVD mode? A. Static B. Dynamic C. Active D. Passive

B. Dell Dell Remote Access Controller, or DRAC, is an interface card from Dell that provides out-ofband management facilities. The iDRAC refers to a version of these interface cards that is integrated on the motherboard of the server.

What vendor creates DRAC cards? A. EMC B. Dell C. HP D. Cisco

D 0.67 It's unlikely, but there may be a point in time where all your devices require what's called maximum power at the same time. Multiplying total wattage by 0.67 gives a truer idea of what a spike could be. Then divide the result by 1000 to establish the kilowatt (kW) load level of the anticipated critical load.

When determining the critical load of all devices, by what value should you multiply the total wattage listed on each device? A. 1.5 B. 0.9 C 0.75 D 0.67

C. Authentication server The role of the authentication server can be performed by a Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) or Terminal Access Controller Access Control System+ (TACACS+) server. Both of these server types centralize the authentication process on behalf of the multiple authenticators.

When discussing 802.1x, which of the following roles is played by the RADIUS server? A. Supplicant B. Authenticator C. Authentication server D. Imperative

A. Traceroute B. Tracert The tracert command (called traceroute in Linux and Unix) is used to trace the path of a packet through the network on routers.

Which commands are used on a router to identify the path taken to a destination network? (Choose two.) A. Traceroute B. Tracert C. Ipconfig/trace D. Trace

B. Endpoint When discussing network security, an endpoint is any point of entry into the network. A typical example of an endpoint is a laptop connected to the network with a remote access connection. Therefore, the process of providing endpoint security is the process of ensuring that every endpoint (including servers) has been secured in the same way in which you would secure the network gateway.

When discussing security, which of the following is defined as any point of entry into the network? A. Access Point B. Endpoint C. Drop Point D. Access Link

B. When an unqualified hostname is encountered In many instances, users make references to unqualified hostnames when accessing resources. When this occurs, DNS needs to know how to handle these unqualified domain names. It is possible to configure a list of domain names called "suffixes" for the DNS to append to unqualified hostnames and the order in which they should be tried.

When does a device use a DNS suffix search list? A. At all times B. When an unqualified hostname is encountered C. When an FQDN is encountered D. When the users select to use the list

B. Subnet mask Using CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing), administrators can create smaller networks called subnets by manipulating the subnet mask of a larger classless or major network ID. This allows you to create a subnet that is much closer in size to what you need, thus wasting fewer IP addresses and increasing performance in each subnet.

When implementing CIDR, what configuration setting is manipulated to size the subnet as desired? A. IP address B. Subnet mask C. Default gateway D. Duplex

C. Disk duplexing Disk duplexing is the use of separate controller cards for each disk when implementing disk mirroring (RAID 1), thus providing fault tolerance at both the disk level and the disk controller level, protecting against both a single disk failure and a single controller card failure.

When separate controller cards are used for each disk, what is it called? A. Disk jukebox B. JBOD C. Disk duplexing D. Disk triplexing

D. From a local device to a local device If the computers cannot connect to the default gateway (which will be the case if the gateway is incorrect), it will be confined to communicating with devices on the local network.

When the default gateway address is incorrect on the router, which connections will succeed? A From a local device to a remote device B. From a remote device to a local device C. From a local device to the Internet D. From a local device to a local device

C. On the hard drive Today's operating systems support the use of swap files. These are files located on the hard drive that are used to temporarily hold items moved from memory when there is a shortage of memory required for a particular function.

Where is the swap file located? A. In memory B. In the L1 cache C. On the hard drive D. Across the network

A. ARM ARM requires fewer resources than either x86 or the x64. In that regard they are suitable for tablets, smartphones, and other smaller devices.

Which CPU architecture was designed for a tablet? A. ARM B. x86 C. x64 D. LGA

B. ZFS The Zettabyte filesystem (ZFS) was developed by Sun Microsystems. It is part of Sun's Solaris operating system and is thus available on both SPARC and x86-based systems, but it's also an open source project.

Which File system was created by Sun Microsystems? A. ext2 B. ZFS C. ReiserFS D. UFS

D. RAID 5 RAID 5 can recover from a single disk failure, and it can read multiple drives, thus increasing performance.

Which RAID type increases fault tolerance and performance? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5

B. RAID 1 RAID 1 is also known as disk mirroring. This is a method of producing fault tolerance by writing all data simultaneously to two separate drives.

Which RAID type is also called mirroring? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5

A. RAID 0 RAID 0 is also known as disk striping. This is RAID that doesn't provide fault tolerance. Data is written across multiple drives, so one drive can be reading or writing while the next drive's read/write head is moving. This makes for faster data access. However, if any one of the drives fails, all content is lost.

Which RAID type provides no fault tolerance? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5

C. Smart Card While passwords and usernames are examples of something you know and a retina scan is an example of something you are, possessing a smart card is an example of something you have.

Which authentication mechanism is an example of something you have? A. Password B. Username C. Smart Card D. Retina Scan

B. Tape While younger technicians may be unfamiliar with the task of rewinding or fast-forwarding a music tape or cassette to access a particular song, it illustrates the way linear access works. A 4 song cannot be played until the tape head (reader) is positioned over the location where that song resides. Accessing data on a tape must be done the same way

Which backup media type provides linear access to the data? A. CD B. Tape C. DVD D. External hard drive

B. Differential D. Copy Neither the differential nor the copy backup clears the archive bit.

Which backup method does not clear the archive bit? (Choose two.) A. Full B. Differential C. Incremental D. Copy

A. sfc /scannow To ensure the system files are all intact execute the following command at the command prompt sfc /scannow

Which command ensures the system files are all intact? A. sfc /scannow B. Bootrec /Rebuild Bed C. BOOTREC IFIXBOOT D. BOOTREC IFIXMBR

B. wevtutil Managing log files can be done at the command line using the following command, inserting the name of log file and the maximum size in bytes: wevtutil sl <LogName> /ms:<MaxSizeInBytes>

Which command-line utility can be used to manage the size of log Cycles? A. winsxs B. wevtutil C. nlookup D. logutil

C. KVM When working with servers locally—that is, standing in the same room with the server—one of the most common ways technicians connect to the server is through a KVM. A keyboard, video, and mouse (KVM) device allows you to plug multiple PCs (usually servers) into the device and to switch easily back and forth from system to system using the same mouse, monitor, and keyboard.

Which device allows you to plug multiple PCs (usually servers) into the device and to switch easily back and forth from system to system using the same mouse, monitor, and keyboard? A. ILO B. iDRAC C. KVM D. vSwitch

A. BCP Each organizational function or system will have its own disaster recovery plan (DRP). The DRP for each function or system is created as a direct result of that function or system being identified as part of the business continuity plan (BCP).

Which document provides the information necessary to create the DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan )? A.BCP B.DCP C.BIA D.DIA

B. UEFI UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a standard firmware interface for PCs, designed to replace BIOS.

Which if the following is designed to replace the BIOS? A. EEPROM B. UEFI C. BCD D. GUID

A. CAS Latency Memory timing measures the performance of RAM and is composed of four components: CAS Latency—the time to access an address column if the correct row is already open Row Address to Column Address Delay—the time to read the first bit of memory without an active row Row Precharge Time—the time to access an address column if the wrong row is open Row Active Time—the time needed to internally refresh a row

Which if the following is the time to access a memory address column if the correct row is already open? A. CAS Latency B. Row Address to Column Address Delay C. Row Precharge Time D. Row Active Time

C. Multiple network cards While other items require careful matching, it is not required of network cards

Which if the following need not be matched correctly? A. multiple CPUs B. multiple memory modules C. multiple network cards D. multiple power supplies

C. Memory leak Memory leaks occur when an application is issued some memory to use and does not return the memory and any temporary file to the operating system after the program no longer needs it.

Which if the following occurs when an application is issued some memory to use and does not return the memory? A. Kernel panic B. BSOD C. Memory leak D. Mantrap

D. CAT 6Your selection is incorrect CAT6 transmits data at speed up to 10 Gbps, has a minimum of 250 MHz of bandwidth, and specifies cable lengths up to 100 meters (using CAT6a).

Which is the category of cable required for 10 Gbps transmissions? A. CAT 3 B. CAT 5 C. CAT 5e D. CAT 6Your selection is incorrect

C. Intranet Personally identifiable information (PII)—information that can be used to identify an employee or customer and perhaps steal their identity—should only be located in secure zones and never in the DMZ or the extranet or in public clouds.

Which is the only security zone in which PII should be located? A. DMZ B. Extranet C. Intranet D. Public cloud

D. Server to server While server-to-server replication is typically less costly than disk- (array)-based, it will impact the performance of the servers on which it is running.

Which method has the biggest impact on the performance of the host being replicated? A. Bare metal B. Disk to disk C. Site to site D. Server to server

B. 255.255.0.0 The default masks are: - A 255.0.0.0 - B 255.255.0.0 - C 255.255.255.0

Which of the default mask of a Class B network? A 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255

D. AH Authentication Header (AH) provides authentication and integrity, but not confidentiality

Which of the following IPsec components provides authentication and integrity only? A. SPI B. SA C. ESP D. AH

D. 10000 The faster the RPM, the faster the disk access will be.

Which of the following RPMs will provide the fastest access speed when discussing hard disk drives? A. 4800 B. 5400 C. 7200 D. 10000

B. Running Disk Cleanup Manually performing a disk cleanup will allow you to get rid of these files (and many other useless files as well), but if you would like to create a batch file, you can automate the process.

Which of the following actions can empty temporary directories? A. Running wevutil B. Running Disk Cleanup C. Running defrag D. Running Disk Check

B. Perform a backup You may find yourself attempting significant changes on a server in an attempt to locate and/or solve the issue. Be sure that you do a backup before you make any changes so that all your actions can be undone, if necessary

Which of the following actions should be taken before making changes during troubleshooting? A reboot the computer in safe mode B. perform a backup C. notify the user D. disable the antimalware

B. 127.0.0.1 Ensure that the NIC is functional and the TCP/IP protocol is installed and functional by pinging the loopback address 127.0.0.1.

Which of the following addresses is used to test the functionality of the NIC? A 0.0.0.0 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 255.255.255.255 D. 0.0.0.1

A. SATA SATA is the slowestand least expensive of the options with a maximum cable length of 1 meter (3 feet).

Which of the following allows a cable to be a maximum of 1 meter in length? A. SATA B. SCSI C. Fibre Channel D. iSCSI

B. WOL Many NICs are capable of a function called Wake on LAN (WOL). This allows the device to be started up from

Which of the following allows a device to be started up from the network by sending a special packet to the NIC? A. RAID B. WOL C. JBOD D. LANwake

B. Soft reboot A soft reboot is better for the system and allows the proper shutdown of all running applications and services. But it requires that you be logged in as either administrator or root and that the server be in a responsive state.

Which of the following allows the proper shutdown of all running applications and services? A. Hard reboot B. Soft reboot C. Slow reboot D. Easy boot

B. Differential While a full backup requires only one backup tape for restoration and the number of tapes required when using incremental and copy methods depends on when the failure occurs, when the differential method is used you always only need the last full backup and the last differential backup tapes to restore.

Which of the following always requires exactly two tapes to restore? A. Full B. Differential C. Incremental D. Copy

A. Drivers Device drivers are the software stubs that allow devices to communicate with the operating system. Drivers are used for interacting with printers, monitors, network cards, sound cards, and just about every type of hardware attached to the server.

Which of the following are the software stubs that allow devices to communicate with the operating system? A. Drivers B. Patches C. Shims D. Manifests

A. Password Biometric devices use physical characteristics to identify the user. Such devices are becoming more common in the business environment. Biometric systems include hand scanners, retinal scanners, and soon, possibly, DNA scanners.

Which of the following authentication methods is not an example of biometrics? A. Password B. Hand Scanner C. Fingerprint Scan D. Retina Scan

C. Interference On a wireless network, cordless phones, microwave ovens, and other wireless networks can interfere with transmissions. Also, users who stray too far from the access point can experience a signal that comes and goes.

Which of the following behaviors affects a WLAN but not a wired LAN? A. Collisions B. CRC failures C. Interference D. DNS issues

A. Different speeds D. Different manufacturers

Which of the following can be mixed when installing memory? Choose two. A. Different speeds B. Different types C. Different form factors D. Different manufacturers

C. Application-level proxy The proxy function can occur at either the application level or the circuit level. Application level proxy functions read the individual commands of the protocols that are being served. This type of server is advanced and you must know the rules and capabilities of the protocol used.

Which of the following can read the individual commands of the protocols that are being served? A. Stateful firewall B. Packet filtering firewall C. Application-level proxy D. Host-based firewall

A. Set the minimum number of MAC addresses that can be seen on a port. It is not possible to specify a minimum number of MAC addresses allowed on a port.

Which of the following cannot be accomplished using port security? A. Set the minimum number of MAC addresses that can be seen on a port. B. Take a specific action when a port violation occurs C. Define exactly which MAC addresses are allowed on the port. D. Set the maximum number of MAC addresses that can be seen on a port.

D. 1/0 is high, use of swap is low, and use of memory is high A real I/O issue is only indicated when I/O is high, use of swap is low, and use of memory is high.

Which of the following combinations of factors indicates an 1/0 issue? A. 1/0 is low, use of swap is low, and use of memory is high B. 1/0 is high, use of swap is high, and use of memory is high 17 C. 1/0 Is high, use of swap Is low, and use of memory Is low D. 1/0 is high, use of swap is low, and use of memory is high

A. ipconfigtnushdns If recent changes have occurred in the DNS mappings or if your connection to the destination device has recently failed because of a temporary network issue that has been solved, you may need to clear the local DNS cache using the ipconfig/flushdns command.

Which of the following commands clears the local DNS cache? A. ipconfigtnushdns B. flushdns C. cachelflushdns D. lpconflglflush

C. Telnet 192.168.5.65 80 You can determine this by attempting a Telnet connection to the IP address of the device and adding the port number.

Which of the following commands could be used to see if HTTP is working on a server? A. Telnet 192.168.5.5 B. Ping 192.168.5.5:80 C. Telnet 192.168.5.65 80 D. Pathping 192.168.5.5

B. top Among the issues that can be diagnosed with this command is memory issues.

Which of the following commands in Linux can be used to diagnose a memory issue? A. fschk B. top C. grub D. grep

A. sudo fdisk -1 The sudo fdisk -l command lists the partitions on the system

Which of the following commands lists the partitions in a Linux system? A. sudo fdisk -1 B. sudo fdlsk /dev C. fstab -a D. sudo fstab -a

D. Spyware Spyware would compromise the privacy of the users browsing but would not prevent them from logging on

Which of the following could NOT be reason why a user cannot logon? A. User error typing the password B. Unauthorized user C. Incorrect password D. spyware

A. Encapsulates Fibre Channel traffic within Ethernet frames Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) encapsulates Fibre Channel traffic within Ethernet frames much as iSCSI encapsulates SCSI commands in IP packets. However, unlike iSCSI, it does not use IP at all.

Which of the following describes FCoE ? A. Encapsulates Fibre Channel traffic within Ethernet frames B. Encapsulates Fibre Channel traffic within IP frames C. Encapsulates SCSI traffic within Ethernet frames D. Encapsulates SCSI traffic within IP frames

C. Cold pluggable A hot-swap disk is one that can be changed without shutting down the server. In some cases, while the server may be left on, the software in the server may need to be disconnected from the disk being changed and them reconnected after the swap is done. Lower-end SCSI devices may be of this type, which is also called cold pluggable.

Which of the following describes a drive that needs to be disconnected from the software in the server before being changed out and them reconnected after the swap is done? A. Hot pluggable B. Warm pluggable C. Cold pluggable D. Hot swappable

A. IOPS Input/Output Operations per Second (IOPS) is a value that describes how fast the drive can read and write to the disk.

Which of the following describes how fast the drive can read and write to the disk? A. IOPS B. RPMs C. Seek time D. Form factor

C. Runtime The runtime is the amount of time that a UPS can provide power at a given power level. This means you can't really evaluate this metric without knowing the amount of load you will be placing on the UPS the network by sending a special packet to the NIC (which is not ever actually off).

Which of the following describes the amount of time a UPS can provide a given level of power? A. Capacity B. Volts ampere C. Runtime D. Charge time

C. MTTR One of the metrics that used in planning both SLAs and IT operations in general is mean time to repair (MTTR). This value describes the average length of time it takes a vendor to repair a device or component.

Which of the following describes the average length of time it takes a vendor to repair a device or component? A. MTBF B. MMTR C. MTTR D. MTR

C. BIA The resulting document (Business Impact Analysis) that is produced lists the critical and necessary business functions, their resource dependencies, and their level of criticality to the overall organization.

Which of the following describes who and what are affected by the loss of each business process or function? A. BCP B. DCP C. BIA D. DIA

A. Proxy firewall The proxy firewall can also offer web caching, should the same request be made again, and can increase the efficiency of data delivery.

Which of the following devices can also provide web caching services? A. Proxy firewall B. Packet filtering firewall C. Stateful firewall D. Host-based firewall

A. resolv.conf In a Linux environment, creating a DNS suffix search list can be done by editing a file called resolv.conf, which is located at/etc/resolv.conf.

Which of the following do you edit to affect a DNS suffix search list in Linux? A. resolv.conf B. suffix.lst C. search.lst D. resolv.sfx

B. Overheating Chip creep—the unseating of components—is one of the more common byproducts of a cycle of overheating and cooling of the inside of the system.

Which of the following events causes chip creep? A High humidity B. Overheating C. Dropping the device D. Power surges

B. CIDR To allow for the creation of smaller networks that operate better, the concept of classless routing, or Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR), was born.

Which of the following features can administrators use to create smaller networks called subnets, by manipulating the subnet mask of a larger classless or major network? A. NAT B. CIDR C. DHCP D.DNS

B. Port security 13 Some of the things you can specify using this feature are the only MAC address or addresses allowed to send traffic in the port, the total number of MAC addresses that can transmit on the port, and an action to be taken when a violation occurs (either shut the port down or prevent transmissions by the guilty MAC address)

Which of the following features can be used to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to a switch? A NAT B. Port security 13 C. Portfast D. Cipher

C. APIPA Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a TCP/IP feature Microsoft added to its operating systems. If a DHCP server cannot be found, the clients automatically assign themselves an IP address, somewhat randomly, in the 169.254.x.x range with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0

Which of the following features will assign a host with an address in the 169.254.x.x range with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0? A. NAT B.DHCP C. APIPA D.SSID

B. C:\windows/winsxs One of the things that you can do in Windows to mitigate the amount of space used by constant updates is to manage a folder called the component store. This folder, called windows\winsxs, contains all the files that are required for a Windows installation.

Which of the following folders is the component store directory? A. C:\windows B. C:\windows/winsxs C. C:\winsxs D. C:\winnt/winsxs

B. Telnet 5 Telnet is a protocol that functions at the Application layer of the OSI model, providing terminal-emulation capabilities. Telnet runs on port 23, but has lost favor to SSH because Telnet sends data—including passwords—in plain-text format.

Which of the following has lost favor to SSH because it sends data—including passwords—in plain-text format? A. POP3 B. Telnet 5 C. RDP D. IMAP

A. LUN A logical unit number (LUN) identifies a device addressed by the SCSI protocol or protocols that encapsulate SCSI, such as Fibre Channel or iSCSI

Which of the following identifies a device addressed by the SCSI protocol or protocols that encapsulate SCSI? A. LUN B. Zone C. WWW D. Mask

D. Excessive interrupts Excessive interrupts effect the CPU, not the disk system.

Which of the following is NOT a source of slow hard drive performance? A Fragmentation B. Lack of memory C. Improper data cables D. Excessive interrupts

B. NTFS Introduced by Microsoft along with Windows NT (and available on all Windows Server operating systems), NTFS is a much more advanced filesystem in almost every way than all versions of the FAT filesystem.

Which of the following is a Microsoft filesystem? A. ext2 B. NTFS C. ReiserFS D. UFS

B. PDU A power distribution unit (PDU) is a device that looks much like a simple power strip with multiple outlets, but depending on the model a PDU can be much more than that. Some are large freestanding devices. Some of the features these devices can provide besides multiple outlets are: Power conditioning (evening out sags and surges) a. Surge protection b. Environmental monitoring c. Case alarms

Which of the following is a device that looks much like a simple power strip with multiple outlets but can provide case alarms and environmental monitoring as well? A. HIDS B. PDU C. Surge Protector D. UPS

B. EIU-64 format When EUI-64 is used, it doesn't actually change the format of the physical 48-bit MAC address. It is a method of spreading the 48-bit MAC across 64 bits so that it can be used as the last 64 bits of the 128-bit IPv6 address.

Which of the following is a method of spreading the 48-bit MAC across 64 bits so that it can be used as the last 64 bits of the 128-bit IPv6 address? A. TACACS B. EIU-64 format C. TACACS+ D. MAC-48 format

D. Assigning a BIOS password Assigning a BIOS password is considered a physical hardening technique.

Which of the following is a physical hardening technique? A. Stopping unneeded services B. Closing unneeded ports C. Installing only required software D. Assigning a BIOS password

A. Mantrap A mantrap is a series of two doors with a small room between them. The user is authenticated at the first door and then allowed into the room. At that point additional verification will occur (such as a guard visually identifying the person) and then the user is allowed through the second door

Which of the following is a series of two doors with a small room between them? A. Mantrap B. Bi-Gate C. Holding Cell D. Visual check door

D. sag A sag is a short-term voltage drop.

Which of the following is a short term voltage drop? A. blackout B. surge C. brownout D. sag

B. One double port HBA A dual port HBA may provide another path to the network, but if the HBA fails it's still a single point of failure.

Which of the following is a single point of failure? A. Two single port HBAs B. One double port HBA C. Two double port HBAs D. Two triple port HBAs

A. They can be a single point of failure Backplanes are advantageous in that they provide data and control signal connectors for the hard drives. They also provide the interconnect for the front I/O board, power and locator buttons, and system/component status LEDs. Unfortunately, this creates a serious single point of failure because if the backplane fails, we lose communication with the servers to which it is connected.

Which of the following is a true of server backplanes? A. They can be a single point of failure B. They provide data and control signal connectors for CPU C. Backplane failure are common D. You could implement redundant backplanes

B. SAS Serial attached SCSI (SAS) is a type of SCSI that uses serial operation rather than parallel as the original SCSI did

Which of the following is a type of SCSI that uses serial operation rather than parallel as the original SCSI did? A. SATA B. SAS C. FCP D. UAS

A. SPI The Security Parameter Index (SPI) is a type of table that tracks the different SAs used and ensures that a device uses the appropriate SA to communicate with another device. Each device has its own SPI.

Which of the following is a type of table that tracks IPsec security associations? A. SPI B. SA C. ESP D. AH

A. MBSA For your Windows servers, an excellent tool is the Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA). This tool can identify missing security patches, weak passwords and other security issues that are specific to installed products.

Which of the following is a vulnerability scanner for Windows only? A. MBSA B. Nessus C. NIDS D. Tripwire

B. Disk to disk When implementing disk-to-disk replication (also sometimes called storage- or array-based replication), the data is copied from the local disk on the server to either another disk on the same server or to another disk in the remote office

Which of the following is also called array-based replication? A. Differential B. Disk to disk C. Site to site D. Server to server

B. RAID 1 RAID 1 is also known as disk mirroring. This is a method of producing fault tolerance by writing all data simultaneously to two separate drives.

Which of the following is also called disk mirroring? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6

D. 169.254.5.6 Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a TCP/IP feature Microsoft added to their operating systems. If a DHCP server cannot be found and the clients are configured to obtain IP addresses automatically, the clients automatically assign themselves an IP address, somewhat randomly, in the 169.254.x.x range with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.

Which of the following is an APIPA address? A. 168.254.3.3 B. 172.16.5.9 C. 192.168.5.9 D. 169.254.5.6

B. iSCSI Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) is an IP-based networking storage standard method of encapsulating SCSI commands (which are used with SANs) within IP packets. This allows the use of the same network for storage as is used for the balance of the network.

Which of the following is an IP-based networking storage standard method of encapsulating SCSI commands? A. HBA B. iSCSI C. FCoE D. Fibre Channel

D. Sharing is made easier by the fact that the SAN is not connected directly to any network or server While sharing is made easier by the fact that the SAN is not connected directly to any network or server, a SAN is expensive, doesn't use Ethernet, and doesn't allow you to leverage legacy investments in non-fiber technologies.

Which of the following is an advantage of a SAN? A. Ethernet troubleshooting is well understood. B. Implementing a SAN is inexpensive. C. It's possible to leverage legacy investments. D. Sharing is made easier by the fact that the SAN is not connected directly to any network or server

B. Lower cost The advantages of using software RAID are: Lower cost The ability to implement disk duplexing

Which of the following is an advantage of software RAID over hardware RAID? A. Better performance B. Lower cost C. Better security D. Faster recovery

A. FE80::2237:06FF:FECF:67E4/64 In IPv6, there is a type of address called a link local address that in many ways is like an APIPA address in that the device will generate one of these addresses for each interface with no intervention from a human, as is done with APIPA. The devices always generate the address using the same IPv6 prefix (the equivalent of a network ID in IPv4), which is FE80::/64. The reminder of the address is created by spreading the 48-bit MAC address across the last 64 bits.

Which of the following is an example of a link local IPv6 address? A. FE80::2237:06FF:FECF:67E4/64 B. FE80::1/64 C. ::1 D. FEC0: 2237:06FF:FECF:67E4/64

B. PXE The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client-server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator.

Which of the following is an industry standard client-server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator? A. DNS B. PXE C. iDRAC D. NBP

B. System state When the operating system is backed up, the configuration of the operating system, sometimes called the system state, is what is saved.

Which of the following is another name for the system configuration data? A. Bare metal B. System state C. Head files D. BCD

C. Cold spare A cold spare is one that is attached to the system and available but cannot replace the bad disk without administrator intervention and in some cases a reboot.

Which of the following is attached to the system but cannot replace a bad disk without manual intervention? A. Hot swap B. Hot spare C. Cold spare D. Standby

D. Storage space Configuring storage spaces is a fault tolerance and capacity expansion technique that can be used as an alternative to the techniques described in the section on dynamic volume types. It enables you to virtualize storage by grouping industry-standard disks into storage pools, and then creating virtual disks called storage spaces from the available capacity in the storage pools.

Which of the following is conceptually like a virtual disk? A. Witness B. Basic disk C. Page file D. Storage space

C. JBOD The acronym JBOD refers to "just a bunch of disks." The disks in this "bunch of disks" are independent of one another, unlike disks that participate in a RAID arrangement of some sort. While the data may be striped across the disks, no fault tolerance is provided.

Which of the following is defined as the use of multiple disks, which operate independently of one another? A. RAID 1 B. RAID 5 C. JBOD D. vRAID

C. It increases the risk of vandalism or theft of the backup media. Risk of theft and vandalism is reduced when using onsite and not offsite storage.

Which of the following is false with regard to using offsite storage for backup media? A. It results in a higher cost per GB for the protection provided. B. There will be some delay transporting the media onsite when a restoration is required. C. It increases the risk of vandalism or theft of the backup media. D. It protects against worst-case scenarios (such as the destruction of the entire building).

B. Memory The problem is frequently related to defective RAM, L2 RAM cache, or video RAM.

Which of the following is frequently the source of the error message Data_Bus_Error? A Motherboard B. Memory C. CPU D. Hard drive

C. The drives should be placed back In the reversed order of remove Is. The drives should be placed back in the reversed order of failures (failures, not removals).

Which of the following is nat a best practice when manually rebuilding RAID arrays? A. Clearly label the disks as you remove them and note the corresponding port. B. Identify, remove, and similarly label the faulty drive. C. The drives should be placed back In the reversed order of remove Is. D. If you are replacing a failed drive, ensure that it and the other drives are connected to the original port numbers.

A. Halon At one time, fire suppression systems used Halon gas, which works well by suppressing combustion through a chemical reaction. However, these systems are no longer used because they have been found to damage the ozone layer.

Which of the following is no longer legal to use in a fire suppression system? A. Halon B. Water C. Argon D. NAS-S-III

A. tmcmillan Fully qualified domain names (FQDN) identify the host and the location of the hostname in the DNS namespace of the organization. It consists of at least two parts and perhaps more. All FQDNs will have a hostname and a domain name.

Which of the following is not a FQDN? A. tmcmillan B. tmcmillan.acme.com C. ws5.ajax.com D. smitht.smithcorp.com

B. The tag signal can only go a few feet. The tags can be of two types: passive and active. Active tags have batteries whereas passive tags receive their energy from the reader when the reader interrogates the device. As you would expect, the passive tags are cheaper but have a range of only a few meters and the active tags are more expensive but can transmit up to a hundred meters.

Which of the following is not a drawback of using active RFID chips? A. The tag signal can be read by any reader in range. B. The tag signal can only go a few feet. C. Multiple readers in an area can interfere with one another. D. Multiple devices can interfere with one another when responding.

D. Ensuring sufficient processing power Although a good idea, ensuring the server has sufficient processing power is not a part of hardening the system as it does nothing to reduce the attack surface.

Which of the following is not a part of hardening the system? A. Disabling all unused services B. Uninstalling unneeded applications C. Ensuring all patches are installed D. Ensuring sufficient processing power

D. 172.32.63Your selection is incorrect The Class B range of private IP addresses is from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255.

Which of the following is not a private IP address? A. 10.0.0.5 B. 172.16.5.9 C. 192.168.5.9 D. 172.32.63Your selection is incorrect

B. RPMs Revolutions per minute (RPM) is a value that indicates how fast the drive spins. This is a value with meaning only for hard disk drives. SSDs do not spin at all.

Which of the following is not a specification of an SSD? A. IOPS B. RPMs C. Seek time D. Form factor

A. A NAS has lower latency and higher reliability than a SAN. A NAS has higher latency and lower reliability than a SAN

Which of the following is not an advantage of NAS? A. A NAS has lower latency and higher reliability than a SAN. B. A NAS typically supports multiple RAID methods. C. A NAS supports high throughput. D. Implementing a NAS is inexpensive.

B. Ability to do disk duplexing The ability to implement disk duplexing is an advantage of software RAID, not hardware RAID.

Which of the following is not an advantage of hardware RAID over software RAID? A. Decreased processor load B. Ability to do disk duplexing C. Support for online spares D. Faster performance

D. Impervious to network congestion iSCSI is susceptible to network congestion.

Which of the following is not an advantage of iSCSI? A. Inexpensive in simple deployments B. Eliminates distance limitations imposed by SCSI transfers C. Simple, due to its reliance on Ethernet, which is well known D. Impervious to network congestion

C. RADIUS server The role of the authenticator can be performed by a wide variety of network access devices, including remote access servers (both dial-up and VPN), switches, and wireless access points. The role of the authentication server can be performed by a RADIUS or TACACS+ server. (this questions is wrong, Radius does perform authentication)

Which of the following is not an example of an authenticator in an 802.1x architecture? A. 802.1x capable switch B. Access point C. RADIUS server D. VPN server

B. Implementing strong authentication to log into the server While important, implementing strong authentication is a form of digital security.

Which of the following is not an example of physical hardening of the server? A. Disabling USB ports B. Implementing strong authentication to log into the server C. Installing locks on server racks D. Installing locks on the server room door

A. The amount of data The amount of time you should retain tapes or other backup media will be driven by several issues: a. Any regulations that may apply to the industry in which the company operates b. The criticality of the data c. Any company policies that may exist

Which of the following is not an issue that affects retention time? A. The amount of data B. Regulations that may apply to the industry C. Criticality of the data D. Company policies

D. PageCycle The four are disk, CPU, memory, and NIC or network.

Which of the following is not one of the four major resources? A. Memory B. CPU C. Disk D. PageCycle

A. SFTP Secure File Transfer Protocol over SSH, or SFTP, is a version of FTP that is encrypted by SSH. Since it operates over an SSH session and SSH uses port 22, SFTP uses port 22.

Which of the following services uses port number 22? A. SFTP B. NTP C. HTTP D. HTTPS

D. A HIDS monitors all traffic that goes through it looking for signs of attack on any machine in the network. A host-based system is installed on the device (for purposes of our discussion, a server) and the system focuses solely on identifying attacks on that device only. This is in contrast to a network based system, which monitors all traffic that goes through it looking for signs of attack on any machine in the network

Which of the following is not true of an HIDS (Host-based intrusion detection system)? A. A high number of false positives can cause a lax attitude on the part of the security team. B. A HIDS cannot address authentication issues. C. Encrypted packets cannot be analyzed. D. A HIDS monitors all traffic that goes through it looking for signs of attack on any machine in the network.

C. It does not provide support for drives larger than 2.2 terabytes (TB). Some of the enhancements this new interface provides are Better security by helping to protect pre-boot process against boot-kit attacks Faster startup times and resuming from hibernation Support for drives larger than 2.2 TB Support for modern, 64-bit firmware device drivers that the system can use to address more than 17.2 billion GB of memory during startup Capability to use BIOS with UEFI hardware

Which of the following is not true with respect to UEFI? A. It provides better security by helping to protect the preboot process. B. It provides faster startup times and resuming from hibernation. C. It does not provide support for drives larger than 2.2 terabytes (TB). D. It supports modern, 64-bit firmware device drivers.

A. VSS Back programs that use the Windows Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) can back up open files. However, you should know that when you back up open files in this manner, changes that may have been made to the file while it was open and the backup job was proceeding will not be present in the backup of the open file and will not be recorded until the next backup

Which of the following is required to be supported to perform an open file backup? A. VSS B. BAA C. OUI D. EUI-64

D. FE80: :164 Devices always generate the address using the same IPv6 prefix (the equivalent of a network ID in IPv4), which is fe80::/64. The reminder of the address is created by spreading the 48-bit MAC address across the last 64 bits.

Which of the following is the 1Pv6 prefix of a link local address? A. FE20: :/64 B. 2001: :164 C. FFEE: :/64 D. FE80: :164

B. FE80:: When autoconfiguration is used, the first hextet will always be FE80::. The rest of the address will be derived from the MAC address of the device.

Which of the following is the IPv6 prefix of an auto configured address? A. 127.0.0.1 B. FE80:: C. ::1 D. FEC0:

C. Memory\Available Mbytes Memory\Available Mbytes is the amount of physical memory, in megabytes, available for running processes. If this is less than 5 percent, you need more memory.

Which of the following is the amount of physical memory, in megabytes, available for running processes? A. Memory\% Committed Bytes in Use B. Memory\Pool Non-Paged Bytes C. Memory\Available Mbytes D. Memory\Pool Paged Bytes

D. A folder accessed on average once a year Be aware that when you do this to files and folders that are frequently accessed, you will placing a load on the CPU of the server because it decompresses the file to make it available and then compresses it again when saved.

Which of the following is the best candidate for compression in the server? A. A folder accessed on average once a month B. A folder accessed on average once a day C. A folder accessed on average three times a day D. A folder accessed on average once a year

C. 24 amps The National Electric Code, which is published by the National Fire Protection Association, requires that the continuous current drawn from a branch circuit not exceed 80 percent of the circuit's maximum rating. Therefore, PDUs have a maximum input value and a de-rated value. The de-rated value will be 80 percent of the maximum input value. So a PDU with a maximum value of 30 amps will have a de-rated value of 24 amps.

Which of the following is the de-rated value of a PDU (Protocol data unit) with a maximum input value of 30 amps? A. 35 amps B. 30 amps C. 24 amps D. 20 amps

C. ::1 In IPv6 the loopback address is all zeroes in every hextet except the last. Closing up the first seven hextets with a double colon results in ::, and the one in the last hextet results in ::1 after omitting the leading zeroes in the last hextet.

Which of the following is the loopback address in IPV6? A. 127.0.0.1 B. FE80:: C. ::1 D. FEC0:

B. Human error While most data recovery failures are due to human error in the data backup process (running multiple jobs simultaneously, failure to change tapes, forgetting to remove a cleaning tape), there are some issues that are beyond your control.

Which of the following is the most common cause of backup failures? A. Tape drive failure B. Human error C. Software errors D. SAN issues

C. Fibre Channel While Fibre Channel is the fastest and provides the longest allowable cable length, it is the most costly.

Which of the following is the most costly to implement? A. SATA B. SCSI C. Fibre Channel D. iSCSI

A. Processor\% Processor Time Processor\% Processor Time is the percentage of time the CPU spends executing a non-idle thread. This should not be over 85 percent.

Which of the following is the percentage of time the CPU spends executing a non-idle thread? A. Processor\% Processor Time B. Processor\% User Time C. Processor\% Interrupt Time D. System\Processor Queue Length

C. 25 Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending email. SMTP uses port 25 by default.

Which of the following is the port number for SMTP? A. 21 B. 161 C. 25 D. 20

C. Seek time Seek time is the time it takes for the actuator arm to arrive at the proper location where the read or write will occur.

Which of the following is the time it takes for the actuator arm to arrive at the proper location where the read or write will occur? A. IOPS B. RPMs C. Seek time D. Form factor

D. Latency Latency is a measure of the time it takes the platter to spin the disk around so the actuator arm is over the proper section. Latency is largely a function of the RPMs as a faster spinning disk will arrive at the desired location faster than a slower disk.

Which of the following is the time it takes for the platter to spin the disk around so the actuator arm is over the proper section? A. IOPS B. RPMs C. Seek time D. Latency

A. The web server must have a certi7cate. SSL is related to a PKI in that a certificate is required on the server end and optionally can be used on the client end of an SSL communication.

Which of the following is true of the requirements to use SSL on a website? A. The web server must have a certi7cate. B. The client must have a certi7cate. C. The web server and the client must have a certi7cate. D. Neither the web server nor the client must have a certi7cate.

B. World Wide Names HBAs have World Wide Names (WWNs) that identify them, much like MAC addresses.

Which of the following is used as identifiers for host bus adapters? A. MAC addresses B. World Wide Names C. IP addresses D. LUNs

A. IKE One of the challenges with IPsec is how to generate an encryption key for the session (each session key is unique). Internet Key Exchange (IKE) is the key exchange method that is most commonly used by IPsec. IKE with IPsec provides authentication and key exchange.

Which of the following is used to generate each session key in IPsec? A. IKE B. SA C. ESP D. AH

B. Rail kits Rail kits, when implemented, allow you to slide the server out of the rack for maintenance.

Which of the following is used to make maintenance easier with a rack server? A. KVM B. Rail kits C. Badges D. Rack slot

C. diskpart In Windows Server 2012 R2, the diskpart command is used to manage storage from the command line.

Which of the following is used to manage storage in Windows Server 2012 R2 at the command line? A. fdisk B. format C. diskpart D. fstab

C. multimeter With one basic multimeter, you can measure voltage, current, and resistance (some will even measure temperature).

Which of the following is used to test a power supply? A. POST card B. toner probe C. multimeter D. ESD strap

D. Poor performance Issues such as cuts in the outer cover and stressed connectors can cause the cable to allow noise into the cable (RFI, EMI) that causes packets to be damaged or corrupted.

Which of the following issues can be caused by a cable with a cut in the outer covering? A. Crosstalk B. EMI C. Collisions D. Poor performance

C. End of life End of life can mean a couple of different things. From the vendor perspective, it probably means that they are no longer providing support for a product.

Which of the following means that the device is no longer supported by the vendor? A. Proprietary B. Legacy C. End of life D. Expiration

C. Bypass Putting a UPS in bypass mode removes the UPS from between the device and the wall output conceptually, without disconnecting it

Which of the following modes removes a UPS from between the device and the wall output conceptually, without disconnecting it? A. Override B. Link Switch C. Bypass D. Closed Circuit

C. Architecture While it is possible to use mismatched drives, you should have a clear understanding of the implications of each type of mismatch. The only requirement set in stone is that they be of the same architecture.

Which of the following must match when adding drives to a set of existing drives? A. Speed B. Capacity C. Architecture D. Vendor

B. Security Guards Security guards offer the most flexibility in reacting to whatever occurs. Guards can use discriminating judgment based on the situation, which automated systems cannot do. This makes guards an excellent addition to the layers of security you should be trying to create.

Which of the following offers the most flexibility in reacting to security events? A. Cameras B. Security Guards C. Motion Sensor D. Intrusion prevention systems

A. A packet from 192.168.1.6/24 This rule set blocks all incoming traffic sourced from the 192.168.0.0/24 network, which is from 192.168.0.1-192.168.0.255. (subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 = /24

Which of the following packets will be allowed according to the iptables rule that follows? iptables -A INPUT -i eth1 -s 192.168.0.0/24 -j DROP A. A packet from 192.168.1.6/24 B. A packet from 192.168.0.6/24 C. A packet from 192.168.0.1/24 D. A packet from 192.168.0.240/24

C. OUI Each part of this address communicates information. The left half of the address is called the organizationally unique identifier (OUI). The right half is called the universally administered address (UAA). Together they make a globally unique MAC address.

Which of the following parts of a MAC address identify the manufacturer of the interface? A. UAA B. BAA C. OUI D. EUI-64

B. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) Mail servers run email server software and use SMTP to send and receive email on behalf of users who possess mailboxes on the server.

Which of the following protocols is used when mail servers send email? A. POP3 B. SMTP C. SNMP D. IMAP4

A. RAID 0 RAID 0, also known as disk striping, provides no fault tolerance.

Which of the following provide no fault tolerance? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6

C. Site to site Site to site (sometimes called network-based replication) uses Fibre Channel switches to replicate from one site to another. It is also likely the most expensive solution.

Which of the following replication methods is the most expensive? A. Bare metal B. Full C. Site to site D. Server to server

A. Counters When monitoring resources, you select performance counters that represent aspects of the workload the resource is undergoing.

Which of the following represents aspects of the workload the resource is undergoing? A. Counters B. Alerts C. Metrics D. Markers

C. FIFO In this scheme, the newest backup is saved to the oldest media. Although this is the simplest rotation scheme, it does not protect against data errors. If an error in data occurs, this system may result over time in all copies containing the error.

Which of the following rotation schemes does not protect against data errors? A. GFS B. Tower of Hanoi C. FIFO D .LIFO

C. Directory A directory server is one that accepts and verifies the credentials of users. Typically it not only authenticates them but also provides them with access to resources using single sign-on.

Which of the following server roles is used to authenticate users to the network? A. Web B. Application C. Directory D. Database

B. Subnet mask Sometimes an incorrect mask will prevent all communication, but in some cases it results in successful connections locally but not remotely (outside the local subnet). The subnet mask value should be the same mask used on the router interface connecting to the local network.

Which of the following should be the same on all devices in the same subnet? A. IPaddrass B. Subnet mask C. Hostname D. FQDN

C. Cold A cold site is a leased facility that contains only electrical and communications wiring, air conditioning, plumbing, and raised flooring. No communications equipment, networking hardware, or computers are installed at a cold site until it is necessary to bring the site to full operation.

Which of the following site types contains only electrical and communications wiring, air conditioning, plumbing, and raised flooring? A. Mirrored B. Warm C. Cold D. Hot

A. Clean boot When you start the server in clean boot, it starts by using a pre-selected minimal set of drivers and startup programs, and because the computer starts with a minimal set of drivers, some programs may not work as you expected.

Which of the following starts by using a pre-selected minimal set of drivers and startup programs? A. Clean boot B. Safe mode C. Diagnostic Boot D. Core Mode

A. All safes are fireproof. With respect to fire, first understand that no safe is fireproof. Many are fire resistant and will protect a document from being destroyed, which occurs at a much higher temperature than many of the other items (such as backup tapes and CDs) can tolerate without damage. For reasons, items such as backup tapes should be stored offsite.

Which of the following statements is false with respect to safes? A. All safes are fireproof. B. United Laboratories (UL) assigns ratings to safes that you can use to assess the suitability of the safe. C. Those that are fire resistant will protect a document from being destroyed. D. When considering a safe, you should focus on two items: the ease with which the safe can be compromised and the ability of the safe to withstand a fire.

A. Make one change at a Ume When you make multiple changes at a time, those changes might interact with one another and make the picture even muddier.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to troubleshooting? A. Make one change at a Ume B. If multiple users are involved, the source is likely their local computers C. You should always try to replicate the issue in the production environment D. Always assume the cabling Is good

B. Document findings, actions and outcomes throughout the process The steps in order are: - Identify the problem and determine the scope - Establish a theory of probable cause, - test the theory to determine cause - Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and notify impacted users - Implement the solution or escalate as appropriate - Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures - Perform a root cause analysis - Document findings, actions and outcomes throughout the process

Which of the following steps in the CompTIA troubleshooting method come last? A Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures B. Document findings, actions and outcomes throughout the process C. Identifying the problem and determining the scope D. Perform a root cause analysis

B. SATA If you are using SATA disks, hot swapping is inherently supported due to the pin layout.

Which of the following technologies supports hot swapping inherently? A. SAS B. SATA C. SCSI D. Fibre Channel

D. fdisk fdisk is not available in Windows Server 2012 R2.

Which of the following tools cannot be used to mount a volume on a basic disk in Windows Server 2012 R2? A. mountvol B. diskpart C. Disk Management D. fdisk

B. Device Manager You set the speed and duplex of an interface by using the Configuration button found in the Properties window of the network card in Device Manager.

Which of the following tools is used to set the speed and duplex of an interface in Windows? A. Network and Sharing B. Device Manager C. Server Manager D. Devices and Printers

B. SAN (Storage Area Network) In a classic SAN, devices communicate using the Fibre Channel protocol over a fiber network of storage devices typically connected to a Fibre Channel switch. This means that any servers that will be directly connected to this fiber network must have a host bus adapter (HBA) installed that can communicate on the fiber network.

Which of the following uses the Fibre Channel protocol? A. NAS B. SAN C. DAS D. PAS

A. VNC Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a graphical desktop sharing system that uses the RFB protocol to remotely control another computer.

Which of the following uses the Remote Framebuffer (RFB) protocol? A. VNC B. RDP C. DRAC D. ILO

A. GFS GFS, GrandFather, Father, Son. In this scheme, three sets of backups are defined. Most often these three definitions are daily, weekly, and monthly

Which of the following uses three sets of backup tapes? A. GFS B. Tower of Hanoi C. FIFO D. LIFO

C. Degraded performance L2 cache failure will impact the performance of the server as it will slow the processor down.

Which of the following will result from an L2 cache failure? A. Increased performance B. Increased use of swap C. Degraded performance D. Depleted drive space

D. Sally's public key To provide encryption, the data is encrypted with the receiver's public key, which results in cipher text that only his private key can decrypt.

Which of the following would Joe use to encrypt a message that only Sally could decrypt? A. Joe's private key B. Sally's private key C. Joe's public key D. Sally's public key

B. MAC address of the computer This issue can have a number of sources, including - The IP configuration of the user's computer - The IP configuration of the users default gateway or router - The IP configuration of any routers that stand between the gateway and the Internet - The DNS server The ISP - The DHCP server

Which of the following would not be a cause of an inability to connect to the Internet? A. IP address of the computer B. MAC address of the computer C. Default gateway addr&llll of the computer D. DNS server address of the computer

B. SSH If you don't need access to the graphical interface and you just want to connect to a server to operate at the command line, you have two options: Telnet and SSH. While Telnet works just fine, it transmits all of the data in cleartext, which obviously would be a security issue. Therefore, the connection tool of choice has become Secure Shell (SSH).

Which remote management technology is not graphical in nature? A. VNC B. SSH C. RDP D. Shell

C. CPU The CPU is the component that is stressed on an application server since it is doing all of the processing on behalf of the clients. Multicore and multiple processors are advisable.

Which resource is stressed the most on an application server? A. Disk B. NIC C. CPU D. Memory

C. DNS server If this is not possible, it is a name resolution issue or a DNS issue

Which server could be the source of an inability to connect to a local host by name? A NAT server B. SQL server C. DNS server D. Web server

C. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) DHCP servers are used to automate the process of providing an IP configuration to devices in the network. These servers respond to broadcast-based requests for a configuration by offering an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway to the DHCP client.

Which server role automates the process of providing an IP configurations to devices in the network? A. DNS B. Routing and Remote Access C. DHCP D. NTP

D. NTP Network Time Protocol (NTP) servers are used as a time source by the devices in the network. This service ensures that log entries that are time stamped can be properly interpreted and that digital certificates, which depend heavily on time, continue to function correctly.

Which server role is critical to the operation of digital certificates? A. DNS B. Routing and Remote Access C. DHCP D. NTP

A. DNS DNS servers resolve device and domain names (website names) to IP addresses, and vice versa

Which server role resolves hostnames to IP addresses? A. DNS B. Routing and Remote Access C. DHCP D. NTP

A. Web Web servers are used to provide access to information to users connecting to the server using a web browser, which is the client part of the application. It uses the HTTP protocol as its transfer mechanism.

Which server role uses HTTP as its transfer mechanism? A. Web B. Application C. Directory D. Database

B. Copy-on-write This type of snapshot is taken every time a user enters data or changes data, and it only includes the changed data. Although it allows for very rapid recovery from a loss of data, it requires you to have access to all previous snapshots during recovery.

Which snapshot type is taken every time a user enters data or changes data and it only includes the changed data? A. Site to site B. Copy-on-write C. Array-based D. Split mirror

B. 802.1x The IEEE 802.1x security standard describes a method of centralizing the authentication, authorization, and accounting of users who connect either locally or remotely connect to the 2 network. It is sometimes called port-based access control because in an 802.1x architecture, the user's port to the network is not opened until the process is complete.

Which standard describes centralized port-based access control? A. 802.11i B. 802.1x C. 802.12 D. 802.10

B. It has a slower startup time than BIOS. UEFI provides faster startup times and resuming from hibernation.

Which statement is false with regard to UEFI? A. It protects the pre-boot process. B. It has a slower startup time than BIOS. C. It supports 64-bit firmware device drivers. D. It supports drives larger than 2.2 terabytes (TB).

B. It performs hostname name resolution on behalf of WINS clients. WINS servers perform NETBIOS name resolution on behalf of WINS clients.

Which statement is false with regard to WINS? A. It is an alternate method of locating devices that is based on the use of NetBIOS names. B. It performs hostname name resolution on behalf of WINS clients. C. It is mostly used in Windows environments. D. In the absence of a WINS server, clients requiring NetBIOS name resolution will resort to other methods that create much more network traffic.

D. All rules in the list are considered before the traffic is allowed. If traffic matches a rule, the action specified by the rule will be applied, and no other rules will be read

Which statement is false with respect to router ACLs (Access-control list)? A. The order of the rules is important. B. An implied deny all rule is located at the end of all ACLs. C. It is possible to log all traffic that meets any of the rules. D. All rules in the list are considered before the traffic is allowed.

C. A Type II hypervisor runs within a conventional operating system environment. Type I hypervisor (or native, bare-metal) runs directly on the host's hardware. A Type II hypervisor runs within a conventional operating system. VMware Workstation and VirtualBox exemplify Type II hypervisors.

Which statement is true with respect to hypervisors? A. Type II is called native. B. Type II runs directly on the host's hardware. C. A Type II hypervisor runs within a conventional operating system environment. D. VMware Workstation and VirtualBox exemplify Type I hypervisors.

C. Shares Values such as Low, Normal, High, and Custom (using VMware as an example) are compared to the sum of all shares of all VMs on the server. Therefore, they define the relative percentage each VM can use.

Which technique is used to allocate relative access to the CPU among VMs? A. Reservations B. Limits C. Shares D. Time slots

A. iLO Integrated Lights-Out, or iLO, is a proprietary embedded server management technology from Hewlett-Packard that provides out-of-band management facilities.

Which technology is found on HP servers? A. iLO B. iDRAC C. vSwitch D. VMM

A. Form factor When we use the term form factor when discussing any computing device or component, we are talking about its size, appearance, or dimensions. It is typically used to differentiate one physical implementation of the same device or component from another. In the case of servers, we are talking about the size and dimensions of the enclosure in which the server exists.

Which term refers to the size, appearance, or dimensions of a server? A. Form factor B. Footprint C. Physical reference D. U measure

A. Auto-MDIX An auto-MDIX card is capable of detecting what type of device is on the other end and changing the use of the wire pairs accordingly. For example, normally a PC connected to another PC requires a crossover cable, but if both ends can perform this sensing, that is not required.

Which type of NIC detects the type of device on the other end and changes the use of the wire pairs accordingly? A. Auto-MDIX B. Full-duplex C. Converged D. HBA

A. Load balancing In load balancing, a frontend device or service receives work requests and allocates the requests to a number of backend servers. This type of fault tolerance is recommended for applications that do not have long-running in-memory state or frequently updated data.

Which type of fault tolerance is recommended for servers running applications that do not have long-running in-memory state or frequently updated data? A. Load balancing B. Hot site C. Clustering D. Cold site

D. 6 You will need the last full tape from Saturday and the incremental tapes from Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday.

You do a full backup every Saturday at 1 a.m. and an incremental backup every other day of the week at 1 a.m. A drive failure occurs on Thursday afternoon at 5:30. How many backup tapes do you need to restore? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

C. 1000 GB Since this is effectively a mirrored stripe set and a stripe set gets 100 percent use of the drive without mirroring, this array will provide half of the total drive space in the array as available drive space.

You have four 500 GB disk in a RAID 10 array. How much space is available for data? A. 500 GB B. 750 GB C. 1000 GB D. 2500 GB

A. 1500 MB Mixing any of the following drive specifications in the same array will result in the entire array using the least capable specification (also called "dumbing down" the array): Slowest speed (performance) Smallest size Smallest buffer

You have three drives that have capacities of 500 MB, 750 MB, and 1000 MB. Setting the cost of parity information aside, what is the total capacity of the array? A. 1500 MB B. 2250 MB C. 3000 MB D. 3500 MB

B. Data link Devices in different VLANs usually have IP addresses in different IP subnets. However, even if they have IP addresses in the same subnet, communication cannot occur without routing—if they reside in different VLANs—because VLANs separate devices at Layer 2, or the Data Link layer, of the OSI model.

You have two devices that are connected to the same switch with IP addresses in the same network. After placing the two devices in separate VLANs, they can no longer ping one another. At what layer of the OSI model are the VLANs providing separation? A. Network B. Data link C. Session D. Transport

D. The local router If the message comes with no source IP address, the message is coming from the local router (the default gateway of the sender). If it has the source IP address of the sender, then it is another router in the path.

You receive a destination unreachable message with no source IP address. Where is it coming from? A. A remote router B. A remote DNS server C. A local DNS server D. The local router

D. Drive is not formatted In Windows, if the error message says "Data error (cyclical redundancy check)," it could be a result of corruption of the drive, bad sectors, or an encrypted drive.

You receive the error message "Data error (cyclical redundancy check)" when attempting to access a logical drive. Which of the following is not a possible cause of his message? A. Corruption of the drive B. Bad sectors C. Drive is encrypted D. Drive is not formatted