Sexuality test

A female nurse is giving a complete bed bath to a young male patient. She notices the patient has an erection. What should she do? A) Nothing; an erection is not under voluntary control. B) Report and document the incident as sexual harassment. C) Share the information to protect other staff. D) Tell the patient she is offended by his physical response.

A

A nurse is counseling a female victim of sexual assault. Which of the following statements accurately describe the increased risks for this patient? A) The patient is 3 times more likely to suffer from depression. B) The patient is 10 times more likely to suffer from post-traumatic stress disorder. C) The patient is 20 times more likely to abuse alcohol and 26 times more likely to abuse drugs. D) The patient is 20 times more likely to contemplate suicide

A

After assessing a woman who has come to the clinic, the nurse suspects that the woman is experiencing dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Which statement by the client would support the nurse's suspicions? A) "I've been having bleeding off and on that's irregular and sometimes heavy." B) "I get sharp pain in my lower abdomen usually starting soon after my period comes." C) "I get really irritable and moody about a week before my period." D) "My periods have been unusually long and heavy lately."

A

A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response? A) A number of studies have identified an association of BRCA-2 mutation with an increased risk of prostate cancer. B) HNPCC is a mutation of two genes that causes prostate cancer in men and it is autosomal dominant. C) Studies have shown that the presence of the TP53 gene strongly influences the incidence of prostate cancer. D) Recent research has demonstrated that prostate cancer is the result of lifestyle factors and that genetics are unrelated.

A A number of studies have identified an association of BRCA-2 mutation with an increased risk of prostate cancer. HPNCC is a form of colon cancer. The TP53 gene is associated with breast cancer.

A 56-year-old woman is concerned about having a moderate amount of vaginal bleeding after 4 years of menopause. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. endometrial biopsy. b. endometrial ablation. c. uterine balloon therapy. d. dilation and curettage (D&C).

A A postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding should be evaluated for endometrial cancer, and endometrial biopsy is the primary test for endometrial cancer. D&C will be needed only if the biopsy does not provide sufficient information to make a diagnosis. Endometrial ablation and balloon therapy are used to treat menorrhagia, which is unlikely in this patient.

The nurse is working with a couple who have been unable to conceive despite more than 2 years of trying to get pregnant. The couple has just learned that in vitro fertilization (IVF) was unsuccessful and they are both tearful. What nursing diagnosis is most likely to apply to this couple? A) Hopelessness related to failed IVF B) Acute confusion related to reasons for failed IVF C) Compromised family coping related to unsuccessful IVF D) Moral distress related to unsuccessful IVF

A Although further assessment is undoubtedly necessary, it is likely that the couple will be experiencing hopelessness at the news that a potentially promising intervention has failed. Acute confusion denotes a cognitive deficit, not a sense of despair. Sadness at this news is not necessarily suggestive of impaired coping. Moral distress is unlikely because this is not a situation involving morality.

A patient has just returned to the postsurgical unit from post-anesthetic recovery after breast surgery for removal of a malignancy. What is the most likely major nursing diagnosis to include in this patients immediate plan of care? A) Acute pain related to tissue manipulation and incision B) Ineffective coping related to surgery C) Risk for trauma related to post-surgical injury D) Chronic sorrow related to change in body image

A Although many patients experience minimal pain, it is still important to assess for this postsurgical complication. Sorrow and ineffective coping are possible, but neither is likely to be evident in the immediate postoperative period. There is minimal risk of trauma.

A nurse is collecting assessment data from a premenopausal patient who states that she does not have menses. What term should the nurse use to document the absence of menstrual flow? A) Amenorrhea B) Dysmenorrhea C) Menorrhagia D) Metrorrhagia

A Amenorrhea refers to absence of menstrual flow, whereas dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation. Menorrhagia, also called hypermenorrhea, is defined as prolonged or excessive bleeding at the time of the regular menstrual flow. Metrorrhagia refers to vaginal bleeding between regular menstrual periods.

The nurse is caring for a 63-year-old patient with ovarian cancer. The patient is to receive chemotherapy consisting of Taxol and Paraplatin. For what adverse effect of this treatment should the nurse monitor the patient? A) Leukopenia B) Metabolic acidosis C)HyperphosphatemIa D) Respiratory alkalosis

A Chemotherapy is usually administered IV on an outpatient basis using a combination of platinum and taxane agents. Paclitaxel (Taxol) plus carboplatin (Paraplatin) are most often used because of their excellent clinical benefits and manageable toxicity. Leukopenia, neurotoxicity, and fever may occur. Acidbase imbalances and elevated phosphate levels are not anticipated.

Which statement by the patient indicates that the nurse's teaching about treating vaginal candidiasis has been effective? a. "I should clean carefully after each urination and bowel movement." b. "I can douche with warm water if the itching continues to bother me." c. "I will insert the antifungal cream right before I get up in the morning." d. "I will tell my husband that we cannot have intercourse for the next month."

A Cleaning of the perineal area will decrease itching caused by contact of the irritated tissues with urine and reduce the chance of further infection of irritated tissues by bacteria in the stool. Sexual intercourse should be avoided for 1 week. Douching will disrupt normal protective mechanisms in the vagina. The cream should be used at night so that it will remain in the vagina for longer periods of time.

A 58-year-old patient who has undergone a radical vulvectomy for vulvar carcinoma returns to the medical-surgical unit after the surgery. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient at this time is a. risk for infection related to contact of the wound with urine and stool. b. self-care deficit: bathing/hygiene related to pain and difficulty moving. c. imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to low-residue diet. d. risk for ineffective sexual pattern related to disfiguration caused by the surgery.

A Complex and meticulous wound care is needed to prevent infection and delayed wound healing. The other nursing diagnoses may also be appropriate for the patient but are not the highest priority immediately after surgery.

Which infection, reported in the health history of a woman who is having difficulty conceiving, will the nurse identify as a risk factor for infertility? a. N. gonorrhoeae b. Treponema pallidum c. Condyloma acuminatum d. Herpes simplex virus type 2

A Complications of gonorrhea include scarring of the fallopian tubes, which can lead to tubal pregnancies and infertility. Syphilis, genital warts, and genital herpes do not lead to problems with conceiving, although transmission to the fetus (syphilis) or newborn (genital warts or genital herpes) is a concern.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has recently been admitted to the postsurgical unit from PACU following a transuretheral resection of the prostate. The nurse is aware of the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume. In order to assess for this risk, the nurse should prioritize what action? A) Closely monitoring the input and output of the bladder irrigation system B) Administering parenteral nutrition and fluids as ordered C) Monitoring the patients level of consciousness and skin turgor D) Scanning the patients bladder for retention every 2 hours

A Continuous bladder irrigation effectively reduces the risk of clots in the GU tract but also creates a risk for fluid volume excess if it becomes occluded. The nurse must carefully compare input and output, and ensure that these are in balance. Parenteral nutrition is unnecessary after prostate surgery and skin turgor is not an accurate indicator of fluid status. Frequent bladder scanning is not required when a urinary catheter is in situ.

A nurse is teaching a group of women about the potential benefits of breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse should teach the women that effective BSE is dependent on what factor? A) Womens knowledge of how their breasts normally look and feel B) The rapport that exists between the woman and her primary care provider C) Synchronizing womens routines around BSE with the performance of mammograms D) Womens knowledge of the pathophysiology of breast cancer

A Current practice emphasizes the importance of breast self-awareness, which is a womans attentiveness to the normal appearance and feel of her breasts. BSE does not need to be synchronized with the performance of mammograms. Rapport between the patient and the care provider is beneficial, but does not necessarily determine the effectiveness of BSE. The woman does not need to understand the pathophysiology of breast cancer to perform BSE effectively.

A 28-year-old patient with endometriosis asks why she is being treated with medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera), a medication that she thought was an oral contraceptive. The nurse explains that this therapy a. suppresses the menstrual cycle by mimicking pregnancy. b. will relieve symptoms such as vaginal atrophy and hot flashes. c. prevents a pregnancy that could worsen the menstrual bleeding. d. will lead to permanent suppression of abnormal endometrial tissues.

A Depo-Provera induces a pseudopregnancy, which suppresses ovulation and causes shrinkage of endometrial tissue. Menstrual bleeding does not occur during pregnancy. Vaginal atrophy and hot flashes are caused by synthetic androgens such as danazol or gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists (GNRH) such as leuprolide. Although hormonal therapies will control endometriosis while the therapy is used, endometriosis will recur once the menstrual cycle is reestablished.

A couple has come to the infertility clinic because they have been unable to get pregnant even though they have been trying for over a year. Diagnostic tests are planned for the woman to ascertain if ovulation is regular and whether her endometrium is adequately supported for implantation. What test would the nurse expect to have ordered for this woman? A) Serum progesterone B) Abdominal CT C) Oocyte viability test D) Urine testosterone

A Diagnostic studies performed to determine if ovulation is regular and whether the progestational endometrium is adequate for implantation may include a serum progesterone level and an ovulation index. None of the other listed tests is used to investigate infertility

A patient has just been told she needs to have an incisional biopsy of a right breast mass. During preoperative teaching, how could the nurse best assess this patient for specific educational, physical, or psychosocial needs she might have? A) By encouraging her to verbalize her questions and concerns B) By discussing the possible findings of the biopsy C) By discussing possible treatment options if the diagnosis is cancer D) By reviewing her medical history

A During the preoperative visit, the nurse assesses the patient for any specific educational, physical, or psychosocial needs that she may have. This can be accomplished by encouraging her to verbalize her fears, concerns, and questions. Reviewing her medical history may be beneficial, but it is not the best way to ascertain her needs. Discussing possible findings of the biopsy and possible treatment options is the responsibility of the treating physician.

An adolescent is brought to the clinic by her mother because of abnormal uterine bleeding. The nurse should understand that the most likely cause of this dysfunctional bleeding pattern is what? A) Lack of ovulation B) Chronic vaginitis C) A sexually transmitted infection D) Ectopic pregnancy

A Dysfunctional uterine bleeding can occur at any age, but is most common at opposite ends of the reproductive life span. It is usually secondary to anovulation (lack of ovulation) and is common in adolescents. It is not suggestive of vaginitis, an STI, or ectopic pregnancy.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been told that her ovarian cancer is terminal and that no curative options remain. What would be the priority nursing care for this patient at this time? A) Provide emotional support to the patient and her family. B) Implement distraction and relaxation techniques. C) Offer to inform the patients family of this diagnosis. D) Teach the patient about the importance of maintaining a positive attitude.

A Emotional support is an integral part of nursing care at this point in the disease progression. It is not normally appropriate for the nurse to inform the family of the patients diagnosis. It may be inappropriate and simplistic to focus on distraction, relaxation, and positive thinking.

1. A school nurse is presenting information on human development and sexuality. When describing the role of hormones in sexual development, which hormone does the nurse teach the class is the most important one for developing and maintaining the female reproductive organs? A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Androgens D) Follicle-stimulating hormone

A Estrogens are responsible for developing and maintaining the female reproductive organs. Progesterone is the most important hormone for conditioning the endometrium in preparation for implantation of the fertilized ovum. Androgens, secreted by the ovaries in small amounts, are involved in the early development of the follicle and affect the female libido. Follicle-stimulating hormone is responsible for stimulating the ovaries to secrete estrogen.

A patient has just returned to the floor following a transurethral resection of the prostate. A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter has been inserted for continuous bladder irrigation. What, in addition to balloon inflation, are the functions of the three lumens? A) Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution B) Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution C) Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution D) Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage

A For continuous bladder irrigation, a triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted. The three lumens provide for balloon inflation and continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

The nurse is reviewing the physicians notes from the patient who has just left the clinic. The nurse learns that the physician suspects a malignant breast tumor. On palpation, the mass most likely had what characteristic? A) Nontenderness B) A size of 5 mm C) Softness and a regular shape D) Mobility

A Generally, the lesions are nontender, fixed rather than mobile, and hard with irregular borders. Small size is not suggestive of malignancy.

A patient comes to the free clinic complaining of a gray-white discharge that clings to her external vulva and vaginal walls. A nurse practitioner assesses the patient and diagnoses Gardnerella vaginalis. What would be the most appropriate nursing action at this time? A) Advise the patient that this is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. B) Discuss the effect of this diagnosis on the patients fertility. C) Document the vaginal discharge as normal. D) Administer acyclovir as ordered.

A Gray-white discharge that clings to the external vulva and vaginal walls is indicative of an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. The patients discharge is not a normal assessment finding. Antiviral medications are ineffective because of the bacterial etiology. This diagnosis is unlikely to have a longterm bearing on the patients fertility.

A female patient with HIV has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is most appropriate for the nurse to tell this patient? A) This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) test annually. B) The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days. C) The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse. D) The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, cannot be transmitted during oral sex.

A HIV-positive women have a higher rate of HPV. Infections with HPV and HIV together increase the risk of malignant transformation and cervical cancer. Thus, women with HIV infection should have frequent Pap smears. Because condylomata acuminata is a virus, there is no permanent cure. Because condylomata acuminata can occur on the vulva, a condom will not protect sexual partners. HPV can be transmitted to other parts of the body, such as the mouth, oropharynx, and larynx.

A patient has had a total mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient asks the nurse when she can take a shower. What should the nurse respond? A) Not until the drain is removed B) On the second postoperative day C) Now, if you wash gently with soap and water D) Seven days after your surgery

A If immediate reconstruction has been performed, showering may be contraindicated until the drain is removed.

A patient who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has experienced an incomplete abortion. The obstetric nurse should prepare the patient for what possible intervention? A) Dilation and evacuation B) Several days of bed rest C) Administration of hydromorphone D) IV administration of clomiphene

A If only some of the tissue is passed, the abortion is referred to as incomplete. An emptying or evacuation procedure (D&C, or dilation and evacuation [D&E]) or administration of oral misoprostol (Cytotec) is usually required to remove the remaining tissue. Bed rest will not necessarily result in the passing of all the tissue. Clomiphene and hydromorphone are of no therapeutic benefit.

A nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with active herpes. The teaching plan for this patient should include which of the following? A) Babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. B) Recommended treatment is excision of the herpes lesions. C) Pain generally does not occur with a herpes outbreak during pregnancy. D) Pregnancy may exacerbate the mothers symptoms, but poses no risk to the infant.

A In pregnant women with active herpes, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. There is a risk for fetal morbidity and mortality if this occurs. Lesions are not controlled with excision. Itching and pain accompany the process as the infected area becomes red and swollen. Aspirin and other analgesics are usually effective in controlling the pain.

A patient who came to the clinic after finding a mass in her breast is scheduled for a diagnostic breast biopsy. During the nurses admission assessment, the nurse observes that the patient is distracted and tense. What is it important for the nurse to do? A) Acknowledge the fear the patient is likely experiencing. B) Describe the support groups that exist in the community. C) Assess the patients stress management skills. D) Document a nursing diagnosis of ineffective coping.

A In the breast cancer diagnostic phase it is appropriate to acknowledge the patients feelings of fear, concern, and apprehension. This must precede interventions such as referrals, if appropriate. Assessment of stress management skills made be necessary, but the nurse should begin by acknowledging the patients feelings. Fear is not necessarily indicative of ineffective coping.

A woman presents at the ED with sharp, colicky pain in her right abdomen that radiates to her right shoulder. She tells the nurse that she has been spotting lightly for the past few days. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy. What major nursing diagnosis most likely relates to this patients needs? A) Anxiety related to potential treatment options and health outcomes B) Chronic sorrow related to spontaneous abortion C) Chronic pain related to genitourinary trauma D) Impaired tissue integrity related to keloid scarring

A It is highly likely that the woman diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy will experience intense anxiety. Pain and sorrow are also plausible, but are unlikely to become chronic. Impaired tissue integrity and keloid scarring are atypical

A patient who is postoperative day 12 and recovering at home following a laparoscopic prostatectomy has reported that he is experiencing occasional dribbling of urine. How should the nurse best respond to this patients concern? A) Inform the patient that urinary control is likely to return gradually. B) Arrange for the patient to be assessed by his urologist. C) Facilitate the insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter by the home care nurse. D) Teach the patient to perform intermittent self-catheterization.

A It is important that the patient know that regaining urinary control is a gradual process; he may continue to dribble after being discharged from the hospital, but this should gradually diminish (usually within 1 year). At this point, medical follow-up is likely not necessary. There is no need to perform urinary catheterization.

A 21-year-old woman has sought care because of heavy periods and has subsequently been diagnosed with menorrhagia. The nurse should recognize which of the following as the most likely cause of the patients health problem? A) Hormonal disturbances B) Cervical or uterine cancer C) Pelvic inflammatory disease D) A sexually transmitted infection (STI)

A Menorrhagia is prolonged or excessive bleeding at the time of the regular menstrual flow. In young women, the cause is usually related to endocrine disturbance; in later life, it usually results from inflammatory disturbances, tumors of the uterus, or hormonal imbalance. STIs, pelvic inflammatory disease, and cancer are less likely causes.

A 46-year-old man who has had blood drawn for an insurance screening has a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient about past treatment for syphilis. b. Explain the need for blood and spinal fluid cultures. c. Obtain a specimen for fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FAT-Abs) testing. d. Assess for the presence of chancres, flulike symptoms, or a bilateral rash on the trunk.

A Once antibody testing is positive for syphilis, the antibodies remain present for an indefinite period of time even after successful treatment, so the nurse should inquire about previous treatment before doing other assessments or testing. Culture, FAT-Abs testing, and assessment for symptoms may be appropriate, based on whether the patient has been previously treated for syphilis.

A 22-year-old male is being discharged home after surgery for testicular cancer. The patient is scheduled to begin chemotherapy in 2 weeks. The patient tells the nurse that he doesnt think he can take weeks or months of chemotherapy, stating that he has researched the adverse effects online. What is the most appropriate nursing action for this patient at this time? A) Provide empathy and encouragement in an effort to foster a positive outlook. B) Tell the patient it is his decision whether to accept or reject chemotherapy. C) Report the patients statement to members of his support system. D) Refer the patient to social work.

A Patients may be required to endure a long course of therapy and will need encouragement to maintain a positive attitude. It is certainly the patients ultimate decision to accept or reject chemotherapy, but the nurse should focus on promoting a positive outlook. It would be a violation of confidentiality to report the patients statement to members of his support system and there is no obvious need for a social work referral.

A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following? A) Pelvic floor exercises B) Intermittent urinary catheterization C) Reduced physical activity D) Active range of motion exercises

A Pelvic floor muscles can promote the resumption of normal urinary function following prostate surgery. Catheterization is normally unnecessary, and it carries numerous risks of adverse effects. Increasing or decreasing physical activity is unlikely to influence urinary function.

A 22-year-old tells the nurse that she has not had a menstrual period for the last 2 months. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Obtain a urine specimen for a pregnancy test. b. Ask about any recent stressful lifestyle changes. c. Measure the patient's current height and weight. d. Question the patient about prescribed medications.

A Pregnancy should always be considered a possible cause of amenorrhea in women of childbearing age. The other actions are also appropriate, but it is important to check for pregnancy in this patient because pregnancy will require rapid implementation of actions to promote normal fetal development such as changes in lifestyle, folic acid intake, etc.

A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother to see her primary care provider. The mother states that her daughter has not started to develop sexually. The physical examination shows that the patient has no indication of secondary sexual characteristics. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect? A) Primary amenorrhea B) Dyspareunia C) Vaginal atrophy D) Secondary dysmenorrhea

A Primary amenorrhea (delayed menarche) refers to the situation in which young women older than 16 years of age have not begun to menstruate but otherwise show evidence of sexual maturation, or in which young women have not begun to menstruate and have not begun to show development of secondary sex characteristics by 14 years of age. In secondary dysmenorrhea, pelvic pathology such as endometriosis, tumor, or pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) contributes to symptoms. Dyspareunia is painful intercourse and vaginal atrophy would not contribute to the delayed onset of puberty.

A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic because he is experiencing recurring episodes of urinary frequency, dysuria, and fever. The nurse should recognize the possibility of what health problem? A) Chronic bacterial prostatitis B) Orchitis C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia D) Urolithiasis

A Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate gland that is often associated with lower urinary tract symptoms and symptoms of sexual discomfort and dysfunction. Symptoms are usually mild, consisting of frequency, dysuria, and occasionally urethral discharge. Urinary incontinence and retention occur with benign prostatic hyperplasia or hypertrophy. The patient may experience nocturia, urgency, decrease in volume and force of urinary stream. Urolithiasis is characterized by excruciating pain. Orchitis does not cause urinary symptoms.

A 29-year-old female patient is diagnosed with Chlamydia during a routine pelvic examination. The nurse knows that teaching regarding the management of the condition has been effective when the patient says which of the following? a. "My partner will need to take antibiotics at the same time I do." b. "Go ahead and give me the antibiotic injection, so I will be cured." c. "I will use condoms during sex until I finish taking all the antibiotics." d. "I do not plan on having children, so treating the infection is not important."

A Sex partners should be treated simultaneously to prevent reinfection. Chlamydia is treated with oral antibiotics. Abstinence from sexual intercourse is recommended for 7 days after treatment, and condoms should be recommended during all sexual contacts to prevent infection. Chronic pelvic pain, as well as infertility, can result from untreated Chlamydia.

To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what? A) Report the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician. B) Decrease the intake of fluids to prevent urinary retention. C) Abstain from sexual activity for 2 weeks following the initiation of treatment. D) Anticipate a temporary worsening of urinary retention before symptoms subside

A Some herbal supplements are contraindicated with Proscar, thus their planned use should be discussed with the physician or pharmacist. The patient should maintain normal fluid intake. There is no need to abstain from sexual activity and a worsening of urinary retention is not anticipated.

A patient who has had a lumpectomy calls the clinic to talk to the nurse. The patient tells the nurse that she has developed a tender area on her breast that is red and warm and looks like someone drew a line with a red marker. What would the nurse suspect is the womans problem? A) Mondor disease B) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the breast C) Recurrent malignancy D) An area of fat necrosis

A Superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast (Mondor disease) is an uncommon condition that is usually associated with pregnancy, trauma, or breast surgery. Pain and redness occur as a result of a superficial thrombophlebitis in the vein that drains the outer part of the breast. The mass is usually linear, tender, and erythematous. Fat necrosis is a condition of the breast that is often associated with a history of trauma. The scenario described does not indicate a recurrent malignancy. DVTs of the breast do not occur.

A public health nurse is teaching a health class for the male students at the local high school. The nurse is teaching the boys to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. What point would be appropriate to emphasize? A) Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer. B) Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose. C) Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males. D) Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

A Testicular cancer is highly curable, particularly when its treated in its early stage. Self-examination allows early detection and facilitates the early initiation of treatment. The highest mortality rates from cancer among men are with lung cancer. Testicular cancer is found more commonly in younger men.

A 20-year-old woman who is being seen in the family medicine clinic for an annual physical exam reports being sexually active. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. testing for Chlamydia infection. b. immunization for herpes simplex. c. infertility associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). d. the relationship between the herpes virus and cervical cancer.

A Testing for Chlamydia is recommended for all sexually active females under age 25 by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. HPV infection does not cause infertility. There is no vaccine available for herpes simplex, and herpes simplex infection does not cause cervical cancer.

A 48-year-old woman in the emergency department reports that she has been sexually assaulted. Which action by the nurse will be most important in maintaining the medicolegal chain of evidence? a. Labeling all specimens and other materials obtained from the patient. b. Assisting the patient in filling out the application for financial compensation. c. Discussing the availability of the "morning-after pill" for pregnancy prevention. d. Educating the patient about baseline sexually transmitted infection (STI) testing.

A The careful labeling of specimens and materials will assist in maintaining the chain of evidence. Assisting with paperwork, and discussing STIs and pregnancy prevention are interventions that might be appropriate after sexual assault, but they do not help maintain the legal chain of evidence.

A female patient tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection because she has noted inflammation of her vulva and the presence of a frothy, yellow-green discharge. The nurse recognizes that the clinical manifestations described are typical of what vaginal infection? A) Trichomonas vaginalis B) Candidiasis C) Gardnerella D) Gonorrhea

A The clinical manifestations indicate T. vaginalis, which is treated with metronidazole in the form of oral tablets. Candidiasis produces a white, cheese-like discharge. Gardnerella is characterized by gray-white to yellow-white discharge clinging to external vulva and vaginal walls. Gonorrhea often produces no symptoms.

A 19-year-old visits the health clinic for a routine checkup. Which question should the nurse ask to determine whether a Pap test is needed? a. "Have you had sexual intercourse?" b. "Do you use any illegal substances?" c. "Do you have cramping with your periods?" d. "At what age did your menstrual periods start?"

A The current American Cancer Society recommendation is that a Pap test be done every 3 years, starting 3 years after the first sexual intercourse and no later than age 21. The information about menstrual periods and substance abuse will not help determine whether the patient requires a Pap test

A 54-year-old patient is on the surgical unit after a radical abdominal hysterectomy. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Urine output of 125 mL in the first 8 hours after surgery b. Decreased bowel sounds in all four abdominal quadrants c. One-inch area of bloody drainage on the abdominal dressing d. Complaints of abdominal pain at the incision site with coughing

A The decreased urine output indicates possible low blood volume and further assessment is needed to assess for possible internal bleeding. Decreased bowel sounds, minor drainage on the dressing, and abdominal pain with coughing are expected after this surgery.

A 32-year-old woman brought to the emergency department reports being sexually assaulted. The patient is confused about where she is and she has a large laceration above the right eye. Which action should the nurse takefirst? a. Assess the patient's neurologic status. b. Assist the patient to remove her clothing. c. Contact the sexual assault nurse examiner (SANE). d. Ask the patient to describe what occurred during the assault.

A The first priority is to treat urgent medical problems associated with the sexual assault. The patient's head injury may be associated with a head trauma such as a skull fracture or subdural hematoma. Therefore her neurologic status should be assessed first. The other nursing actions are also appropriate, but they are not as high in priority as assessment and treatment for acute physiologic injury.

A nurse is teaching a 53-year-old man about prostate cancer. What information should the nurse provide to best facilitate the early identification of prostate cancer? A) Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. B) Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years. C) Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 60. D) Have a complete blood count (CBC), blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine assessment performed annually.

A The incidence of prostate cancer increases after age 50. The digital rectal examination, which identifies enlargement or irregularity of the prostate, and the PSA test, a tumor marker for prostate cancer, are effective diagnostic measures that should be done yearly. Testicular self-examinations wont identify changes in the prostate gland due to its location in the body. A transrectal ultrasound and CBC with BUN and creatinine assessment are usually done after diagnosis to identify the extent of disease and potential metastases.

The nurse is working with a patient who expects to begin menopause in the next few years. What educational topic should the nurse prioritize when caring for a healthy woman approaching menopause? A) Patient teaching and counseling regarding healthy lifestyles B) Referrals to local support groups C) Nutritional counseling regarding osteoporosis prevention D) Drug therapy options

A The individual womans evaluation of herself and her worth, now and in the future, is likely to affect her emotional reaction to menopause. Patient teaching and counseling regarding healthy lifestyles, health promotion, and health screening are of paramount importance. This broad goal of fostering healthy lifestyles transcends individual topics such as drug treatment, support groups, and osteoporosis prevention.

A patient with trichomoniasis comes to the walk-in clinic. In developing a care plan for this patient the nurse would know to include what as an important aspect of treating this patient? A) Both partners will be treated with metronidazole (Flagyl). B) Constipation and menstrual difficulties may occur. C) The patient should perform Kegel exercises 30 to 80 times daily. D) Care will involve hormone therapy to control the pain.

A The most effective treatment for trichomoniasis is metronidazole (Flagyl). Both partners receive a onetime loading dose or a smaller dose three times a day for 1 week. In pelvic inflammatory disease, menstrual difficulties and constipation may occur. Kegel exercises are prescribed to help strengthen weakened muscles associated with cystocele and other structural deficits. Hormone therapy does not address the etiology of trichomoniasis.

A 19-year-old patient has genital warts around her external genitalia and perianal area. She tells the nurse that she has not sought treatment until now because "the warts are so disgusting." Which nursing diagnosis is mostappropriate? a. Disturbed body image related to feelings about the genital warts b. Ineffective coping related to denial of increased risk for infection c. Risk for infection related to lack of knowledge about transmission d. Anxiety related to impact of condition on interpersonal relationships

A The patient's statement that her lesions are disgusting suggests that disturbed body image is the major concern. There is no evidence to indicate ineffective coping or lack of knowledge about mode of transmission. The patient may be experiencing anxiety, but there is nothing in the data indicating that the genital warts are impacting interpersonal relationships.

A 28-year-old patient reports anxiety, headaches with dizziness, and abdominal bloating occurring before her menstrual periods. Which action is best for the nurse to take at this time? a. Ask the patient to keep track of her symptoms in a diary for 3 months. b. Suggest that the patient try aerobic exercise to decrease her symptoms. c. Teach the patient about appropriate lifestyle changes to reduce premenstrual syndrome (PMS) symptoms. d. Advise the patient to use nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen (Advil) to control symptoms.

A The patient's symptoms indicate possible PMS, but they also may be associated with other diagnoses. Having the patient keep a symptom diary for 2 or 3 months will help in confirming a diagnosis of PMS. The nurse should not implement interventions for PMS until a diagnosis is made.

A 29-year-old patient has just been told that he has testicular cancer and needs to have surgery. During a presurgical appointment, the patient admits to feeling devastated that he requires surgery, stating that it will leave him emasculated and a shell of a man. The nurse should identify what nursing diagnosis when planning the patients subsequent care? A) Disturbed Body Image Related to Effects of Surgery B) Spiritual Distress Related to Effects of Cancer Surgery C) Social Isolation Related to Effects of Surgery D) Risk for Loneliness Related to Change in Self-Concept

A The patients statements specifically address his perception of his body as it relates to his identity. Consequently, a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image is likely appropriate. This patient is at risk for social isolation and loneliness, but theres no indication in the scenario that these diagnoses are present. There is no indication of spiritual element to the patients concerns.

You are caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with genital herpes. When preparing a teaching plan for this patient, what general guidelines should be taught? A) Thorough handwashing is essential. B) Sun bathing assists in eradicating the virus. C) Lesions should be massaged with ointment. D) Self-infection cannot occur from touching lesions during a breakout.

A The risk of reinfection and spread of infection to others or to other structures of the body can be reduced by handwashing, use of barrier methods with sexual contact, and adherence to prescribed medication regimens. The lesions should be allowed to dry. Touching of lesions during an outbreak should be avoided; if touched, appropriate hygiene practices must be followed

A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans? A) Cottage cheese-like discharge B) Yellow-green discharge C) Gray-white discharge D) Watery discharge with a fishy odor

A The symptoms of C. albicans include itching and a scant white discharge that has the consistency of cottage cheese. Yellow-green discharge is a sign of T. vaginalis. Gray-white discharge and a fishy odor are signs of G. vaginalis.

The nurse is assessing the sexual-reproductive functional health pattern of a 32-year-old woman. Which question is most useful in determining the patient's sexual orientation and risk factors? a. "Do you have sex with men, women, or both?" b. "Which gender do you prefer to have sex with?" c. "What types of sexual activities do you prefer?" d. "Are you heterosexual, homosexual, or bisexual?"

A This question is the most simply stated and will increase the likelihood of obtaining the relevant information about sexual orientation and possible risk factors associated with sexual activity. A patient who prefers sex with women may also have intercourse at times with men. The types of sexual activities engaged in may not indicate sexual orientation. Many patients who have sex with both men and women do not identify themselves as homosexual or bisexual.

A patient has been referred to the breast clinic after her most recent mammogram revealed the presence of a lump. The lump is found to be a small, well-defined nodule in the right breast. The oncology nurse should recognize the likelihood of what treatment? A) Lumpectomy and radiation B) Partial mastectomy and radiation C) Partial mastectomy and chemotherapy D) Total mastectomy and chemotherapy

A Treatment for breast cancer depends on the disease stage and type, the patients age and menopausal status, and the disfiguring effects of the surgery. For this patient, lumpectomy is the most likely option because the nodule is well-defined. The patient usually undergoes radiation therapy afterward. Because a lumpectomy is possible, mastectomy would not be the treatment of choice.

A new mother who is breastfeeding calls the clinic to speak to a nurse. The patient is complaining of pain in her left breast and describes her breast as feeling doughy. The nurse tells her to come into the clinic and be checked. The patient is diagnosed with acute mastitis and placed on antibiotics. What comfort measure should the nurse recommend? A) Apply cold compresses as ordered. B) Avoid wearing a bra until the infection clears. C) Avoid washing the breasts. D) Perform gentle massage to stimulate neutrophil migration.

A Treatment of mastitis consists of antibiotics and local application of cold compresses to relieve discomfort. A broad-spectrum antibiotic agent may be prescribed for 7 to 10 days. The patient should wear a snug bra and perform personal hygiene carefully. Massage is not recommended.

A patient is to undergo an ultrasound-guided core biopsy. The patient tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a stereotactic core biopsy. She wants to understand the differences between the two procedures. What would be the nurses best response? A) An ultrasound-guided core biopsy is faster, less expensive, and does not use radiation. B) An ultrasound-guided core biopsy is a little more expensive, but it doesnt use radiation and it is faster. C) An ultrasound-guided core biopsy is a little more expensive, and it also uses radiation but it is faster. D) An ultrasound-guided core biopsy takes more time, and it also uses radiation, but it is less expensive

A Ultrasound-guided core biopsy does not use radiation and is also faster and less expensive than stereotactic core biopsy.

Which topic will the nurse include in the preoperative teaching for a patient admitted for an abdominal hysterectomy? a. Purpose of ambulation and leg exercises b. Adverse effects of systemic chemotherapy c. Decrease in vaginal sensation after surgery d. Symptoms caused by the drop in estrogen level

A Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a potential complication after the surgery, and the nurse will instruct the patient about ways to prevent it. Vaginal sensation is decreased after a vaginal hysterectomy but not after abdominal hysterectomy. Leiomyomas are benign tumors, so chemotherapy and radiation will not be prescribed. Because the patient will still have her ovaries, the estrogen level will not decrease.

A woman comes to the clinic complaining of a vaginal discharge. The nurse suspects trichomoniasis based on which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A) Urinary frequency B) Yellow/green discharge C) Joint pain D) Blister-like lesions E) Muscle aches

A, B

Following a recent history of dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, a patient has received a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When providing health education related to self-care, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply. A) Use of condoms to prevent infecting others B) Appropriate use of antibiotics C) Taking measures to prevent pregnancy D) The need for a Pap smear every 3 months E) The importance of weight loss in preventing symptoms

A, B Patients with PID need to take action to avoid infecting others. Antibiotics are frequently required. Pregnancy does not necessarily need to be avoided, but there is a heightened risk of ectopic pregnancy. Weight loss does not directly alleviate symptoms. Regular follow-up is necessary, but Pap smears do not need to be performed every 3 months.

The nurse is planning the sexual assessment of a new adolescent patient. The nurse should include what assessment components? Select all that apply. A) Physical examination findingsB) Laboratory results C) Health history D) Interpersonal skills E) Understanding of menopause

A, B, C A sexual assessment includes both subjective and objective data. Health and sexual histories, physical examination findings, and laboratory results are all part of the database. A sexual assessment would not normally include the patients interpersonal skills. It is not likely to necessary to assess an adolescents understanding of menopause.

A patient has been discharged home after a total mastectomy without reconstruction. The patient lives alone and has a home health referral. When the home care nurse performs the first scheduled visit this patient, what should the nurse assess? Select all that apply. A) Adherence to the exercise plan B) Overall psychological functioning C) Integrity of surgical drains D) Understanding of cancer E) Use of the breast prosthesis

A, B, C Patients who have difficulty managing their postoperative care at home may benefit from a home health care referral. The home care nurse assesses the patients incision and surgical drain(s), adequacy of pain management, adherence to the exercise plan, and overall physical and psychological functioning. It is unnecessary to assess the patients understanding of cancer at this stage of recovery. Prostheses may be considered later in the recovery process.

After teaching a group of students about the different methods for contraception, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as a mechanical barrier method? (Select all that apply.) A) Condom B) Cervical cap C) Cervical sponge D) Diaphragm E) Vaginal ring

A, B, C, D

A public health nurse is participating in a campaign aimed at preventing cervical cancer. What strategies should the nurse include is this campaign? Select all that apply. A) Promotion of HPV immunization B) Encouraging young women to delay first intercourse C) Smoking cessation D) Vitamin D and calcium supplementation E) Using safer sex practices

A, B, C, E Preventive measures relevant to cervical cancer include regular pelvic examinations and Pap tests for all women, especially older women past childbearing age. Preventive counseling should encourage delaying first intercourse, avoiding HPV infection, participating in safer sex only, smoking cessation, and receiving HPV immunization. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation are not relevant.

Which nonhormonal therapies will the nurse suggest for a healthy perimenopausal woman who prefers not to use hormone therapy (HT) (select all that apply)? a. Reduce coffee intake. b. Exercise several times a week. c. Take black cohosh supplements. d. Have a glass of wine in the evening. e. Increase intake of dietary soy products.

A, B, C, E Reduction in caffeine intake, use of black cohosh, increasing dietary soy intake, and exercising three to four times weekly are recommended to reduce symptoms associated with menopause. Alcohol intake in the evening may increase the sleep problems associated with menopause.

13. A nurse is conducting a class for a group of teenage girls about female reproductive anatomy and physiology. Which of the following would the nurse include as an external female reproductive organ? Select all that apply. A) Mons pubis B) Labia C) Vagina D) Clitoris E) Uterus

A, B, D

By initiating an assessment about sexual concerns what does the nurse convey to the patient? Select all that apply. A) That sexual issues are valid health issues B) That it is safe to talk about sexual issues C) That sexual issues are only a minor aspect a persons identity D) That changes or problems in sexual functioning should be discussed E) That changes or problems in sexual functioning are highly atypical

A, B, D By initiating an assessment about sexual concerns, the nurse communicates to the patient that issues about changes or problems in sexual functioning are valid and significant health issues. The nurse communicates that it is safe to talk about sexual issues and that changes or challenges in sexual function are not unusual.

The nurse in the outpatient clinic notes that the following patients have not received the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine. Which patients should the nurse plan to teach about benefits of the vaccine (select all that apply)? a. 24-year-old man who has a history of genital warts b. 18-year-old man who has had one male sexual partner c. 28-year-old woman who has never been sexually active d. 20-year-old woman who has a newly diagnosed Chlamydia infection e. 30-year-old woman whose sexual partner has a history of genital warts

A, B, D The HPV vaccines are recommended for male and female patients between ages 9 through 26. Ideally, the vaccines are administered before patients are sexually active, but they offer benefit even to those who already have HPV infection.

A nurse is preparing a class for a group of women at a family planning clinic about contraceptives. When describing the health benefits of oral contraceptives, which of the following would the nurse most likely include? (Select all that apply.) A) Protection against pelvic inflammatory disease B) Reduced risk for endometrial cancer C) Decreased risk for depression D) Reduced risk for migraine headaches E) Improvement in acne

A, B, E

Which of the following are considered external male genitalia? Select all that apply. A) testes B) scrotum C) epididymis D) prostate gland E) penis F) seminal vesicles

A, B, E

The nurse is assessing a 53-year-old woman who has been experiencing dysmenorrhea. What questions should the nurse include in an assessment of the patients menstrual history? Select all that apply. A) Do you ever experience bleeding after intercourse? B) How long is your typical cycle? C) Did you have any sexually transmitted infections in early adulthood? D) When did your mother and sisters get their first periods? E) Do you experience cramps or pain during your cycle?

A, B, E Menstrual history addresses such factors as the length of cycles, duration and amount of flow, presence of cramps or pain, and bleeding between periods or after intercourse. Family members menarche and prior STIs are not likely to affect the patients current cycles.

The nurse is leading a workshop on sexual health for men. The nurse should teach participants that organic causes of erectile dysfunction include what? Select all that apply. A) Diabetes B) Testosterone deficiency C) Anxiety D) Depression E) Parkinsonism

A, B, E Organic causes of ED include cardiovascular disease, endocrine disease (diabetes, pituitary tumors, testosterone deficiency, hyperthyroidism, and hypothyroidism), cirrhosis, chronic renal failure, genitourinary conditions (radical pelvic surgery), hematologic conditions (Hodgkin disease, leukemia), neurologic disorders (neuropathies, parkinsonism, spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis), trauma to the pelvic or genital area, alcohol, smoking, medications, and drug abuse. Anxiety and depression are considered to be psychogenic causes.

A nurse is teaching a client how to perform Kegel exercises. Which of the following would the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) A) "Squeeze your rectal muscles as if you are trying to avoid passing flatus." B) "Tighten your pubococcygeal muscles for a count of 10." C) "Contract and relax your pubococcygeal muscles rapidly 10 times." D) "Try bearing down for about 10 seconds for no more than 5 times." E) "Do these exercises at least 5 times every hour."

A, C

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of women at the clinic who have been diagnosed with genital herpes. Which of the following would the nurse expect to include as a possible precipitating factor for a recurrent outbreak?(Select all that apply.) A) Exposure to ultraviolet light B) Exercise C) Use of corticosteroids D) Emotional stress E) Sexual intercourse.

A, C, D, E

A nurse is reading a journal article about care of the woman with pelvic organ prolapse. The nurse would expect to find information related to which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A) Rectocele B) Fecal incontinence C) Cystocele D) Urinary incontinence E) Enterocele

A, C, E

A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply. A) Phimosis B) Priapism C) Herpes simplex infection D) Increasing age E) Lack of circumcision

A, D, E Several risk factors for penile cancer have been identified, including lack of circumcision, poor genital hygiene, phimosis, HPV, smoking, ultraviolet light treatment of psoriasis on the penis, increasing age (two-thirds of cases occur in men older than 65 years of age), lichen sclerosus, and balanitis xerotica obliterans. Priapism and HSV are not known risk factors.

A 39-year-old patient with a history of IV drug use is seen at a community clinic. The patient reports difficulty walking, stating "I don't know where my feet are." Diagnostic screening reveals positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-Abs) tests. Based on the patient history, what will the nurse assess (select all that apply)? a. Heart sounds b. Genitalia for lesions c. Joints for swelling and inflammation d. Mental state for judgment and orientation e. Skin and mucous membranes for gummas

A, D, E The patient's clinical manifestations and laboratory tests are consistent with tertiary syphilis. Valvular insufficiency, gummas, and changes in mentation are other clinical manifestations of this stage

11. The nurse is preparing an outline for a class on the physiology of the male sexual response. Which event would the nurse identify as occurring first? A) Sperm emission B) Penile vasodilation C) Psychological release D) Ejaculation

B

14. When describing the hormones involved in the menstrual cycle, a nurse identifies which hormone as responsible for initiating the cycle? A) Estrogen B) Luteinizing hormone C) Progesterone D) Prolactin

B

15. A nursing instructor is describing the hormones involved in the menstrual cycle to a group of nursing students. The instructor determines the teaching was successful when the students identify follicle-stimulating hormone as being secreted by which of the following? A) Hypothalamus B) Anterior pituitary gland C) Ovaries D) Corpus luteum

B

16. A woman comes to the clinic for an evaluation. During the visit, the woman tells the nurse that her menstrual cycles have become irregular. "I've also been waking up at night feeling really hot and sweating. The nurse interprets these findings as which of the following? A) Menopause B) Perimenopause C) Climacteric D) Menarche

B

18. A woman comes to the clinic complaining of a vaginal discharge. The nurse suspects that the client has an infection. When gathering additional information, which of the following would the nurse be least likely to identify as placing the client at risk for an infection? A) Recent antibiotic therapy for an upper respiratory infection B) Last menstrual period about 5 days ago. C) Weekly douching D) Frequent use of feminine hygiene sprays.

B

21. When describing the male sexual response to a group of students, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when they identify emission as which of the following? A) Semen forced through the urethra to the outside B) Movement of sperm from the testes and fluid into the urethras C) Dilation of the penile arteries with increased blood flow to the tissues. D) Body's return to the physiologic nonstimulated state

B

22. A nurse is describing the structure and function of the reproductive system to an adolescent health class. The nurse describes the secretion of the seminal vesicles as which of the following? A) Mucus-like B) Alkaline C) Acidic D) Semen

B

6. The nurse is assessing a 13-year-old girl who has had her first menses. Which of the following events would the nurse expect to have occurred first? A) Evidence of pubic hair B) Development of breast buds C) Onset of menses D) Growth spurt

B

A group of students are reviewing information about STIs. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as the most common bacterial STI in the United States? A) Gonorrhea B) Chlamydia C) Syphilis D) Candidiasis

B

A male patient tells the nurse that he does not understand why he feels the way he does when he is sexually excited. What would the nurse teach the patient? A) I don't know, but I will ask my boyfriend if he can describe his feelings to me. B) The sexual response cycle includes excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. C) That is something that just happens and nobody knows why. D) Isn't sex wonderful? I think it has different parts to the experience.

B

A mother brings her 12-year-old daughter in for well-visit checkup. During the visit, the nurse is discussing the use of prophylactic HPV vaccine for the daughter. The mother agrees and the daughter receives her first dose. The nurse schedules the daughter for the next dose, which would be given at which time? A) In 2 month B) In 2 months C) In 3 months D) In 4 months

B

A nurse at a local community clinic is developing a program to address STI prevention. Which of the following would the nurse least likely include in the program? A) Outlining safer sexual behavior B) Recommending screening for symptomatic individuals C) Promoting the use of barrier contraceptives D) Offering education about STI transmission

B

A nurse is assessing a client for possible risk factors for chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which of the following would the nurse identify? A) Asian American ethnicity B) Age under 25 years C) Married D) Consistent use of barrier contraception

B

A nurse is teaching a female patient about breast self-examination (BSE). At what time of the month would the nurse recommend BSE? A) any day of the month is satisfactory B) once a month right after the menstrual period C) once a month right before the menstrual period D) on Friday evening or Saturday morning each week

B

A nurse is teaching a women with genital ulcers how to care for them. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? A) "I need to wash my hands after touching any of the ulcers." B) "I need to abstain from intercourse primarily when the lesions are present." C) "I should avoid applying ice or heat to my genital area." D) "I can try lukewarm sitz baths to help ease the discomfort."

B

A pregnant woman diagnosed with syphilis comes to the clinic for a visit. The nurse discusses the risk of transmitting the infection to her newborn, explaining that this infection is transmitted to the newborn through the: A) Amniotic fluid B) Placenta C) Birth canal D) Breast milk

B

A woman has opted to use the basal body temperature method for contraception. The nurse instructs the client that a rise in basal body temperature indicates which of the following? A) Onset of menses B) Ovulation C) Pregnancy D) Safe period for intercourse

B

A young adult tells the nurse that he has been sexually active with his girlfriend. What teaching is most important for this individual? A) proper hygiene B) condom use C) relationships D) stress

B

After teaching a woman with pelvic organ prolapse about dietary and lifestyle measures, which of the following statements would indicate the need for additional teaching? A) "If I wear a girdle, it will help support the muscles in the area." B) "I should take up jogging to make sure I exercise enough." C) "I will try to drink at least 64 oz of fluid each day." D) "I need to increase the amount of fiber I eat every day."

B

After undergoing diagnostic testing, a woman is diagnosed with a corpus luteum cyst. The nurse anticipates that the woman will require: A) Biopsy B) No treatment C) Oral contraceptives D) Glucophage

B

In which of the phases of the sexual response cycle may secretions from Cowper's glands appear at the glans of the penis? A) excitement B) plateau C) orgasm D) resolution

B

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB). Which finding would be of concern? A) Negative pregnancy test B) Hemoglobin level of 10.1 g/dL C) Prothrombin time of 60 seconds D) Serum cholesterol of 140 mg/dL

B

The nurse would be least likely to find which of the following in a client with uterine fibroids? A) Regularly shaped, shrunken uterus B) Acute pelvic pain C) Menorrhagia D) Complaints of bloating

B

What are the primary nursing considerations when assisting with or conducting a physical assessment of the genitalia? A) ensuring sterility of all equipment and supplies B) respecting the patient's privacy and modesty C) providing a means for cleansing the area D) leaving the room during the assessment

B

What is the most significant difficulty regarding sexuality faced by people taking medications for hypertension? A) Medications result in increased desire for sex. B) Medications change sexual functioning. C) Patients experience a growth of body hair. D) Patients experience increased body odors.

B

When developing a teaching plan for a community group about HIV infection, which group would the nurse identify as an emerging risk group for HIV infection? A) Native Americans B) Heterosexual women C) New health care workers D) Asian immigrants

B

When developing the plan of care for a woman who has had an abdominal hysterectomy, which of the following would be contraindicated? A) Ambulating the client B) Massaging the client's legs C) Applying elasticized stockings D) Encouraging range-of-motion exercises

B

When obtaining the health history from a client, which factor would lead the nurse to suspect that the client has an increased risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)? A) Hive-like rash for the past 2 days B) Five different sexual partners C) Weight gain of 5 lbs in 1 year D) Clear vaginal discharge

B

When teaching a group of postmenopausal women about hot flashes and night sweats, the nurse would address which of the following as the primary cause? A) Poor dietary intake B) Estrogen deficiency C) Active lifestyle D) Changes in vaginal pH

B

Which findings would the nurse expect to find in a client with bacterial vaginosis? A) Vaginal pH of 3 B) Fish-like odor of discharge C) Yellowish-green discharge D) Cervical bleeding on contact

B

Which statement is true of gender identity? A) It is the opposite of biologic identity. B) It may be the same as or different from biologic identity. C) It is determined by male (XY) or female (XX) chromosomes. D) It guides one's gender role behavior as male or female.

B

A 22-year-old man tells the nurse at the health clinic that he has recently had some problems with erectile dysfunction. Which question should the nurse ask first to assess for possible etiologic factors? a. "Do you experience an unusual amount of stress?" b. "Do you use any recreational drugs or drink alcohol?" c. "Do you have chronic cardiovascular or peripheral vascular disease?" d. "Do you have a history of an erection that lasted for 6 hours or more?"

B A common etiologic factor for erectile dysfunction (ED) in younger men is use of recreational drugs or alcohol. Stress, priapism, and cardiovascular illness also contribute to ED, but they are not common etiologic factors in younger men.

After scheduling a patient with a possible ovarian cyst for ultrasound, the nurse will teach the patient that she should a. expect to receive IV contrast during the procedure. b. drink several glasses of fluids before the procedure. c. experience mild abdominal cramps after the procedure. d. discontinue taking aspirin for 7 days before the procedure.

B A full bladder is needed for many ultrasound procedures, so the nurse will have the patient drink fluids before arriving for the ultrasound. The other instructions are not accurate for this procedure.

A new patient has come to the clinic seeking an appropriate method of birth control. What would the nurse teach this patient about a diaphragm? A) One size fits all females. B) The diaphragm may be cleaned with soap and water after use. C) A diaphragm eliminates the need for spermicidal jelly. D) The diaphragm should be removed 1 hour following intercourse

B A new patient has come to the clinic seeking an appropriate method of birth control. What would the nurse teach this patient about a diaphragm? A) One size fits all females. B) The diaphragm may be cleaned with soap and water after use. C) A diaphragm eliminates the need for spermicidal jelly. D) The diaphragm should be removed 1 hour following intercourse

A patient who is scheduled for an open prostatectomy is concerned about the potential effects of the surgery on his sexual function. What aspect of prostate surgery should inform the nurses response? A) Erectile dysfunction is common after prostatectomy as a result of hormonal changes. B) All prostatectomies carry a risk of nerve damage and consequent erectile dysfunction. C) Erectile dysfunction after prostatectomy is expected, but normally resolves within several months. D) Modern surgical techniques have eliminated the risk of erectile dysfunction following prostatectomy.

B All prostatectomies carry a risk of impotence because of potential damage to the pudendal nerves. If this damage occurs, the effects are permanent. Hormonal changes do not affect sexual functioning after prostatectomy.

The nurse is being trained to perform assessment screenings for abuse on patients who come into the walk-in clinic where the nurse works. Which of the following assessment questions is most appropriate? A) Would you describe your relationship as healthy and functional? B) Have you ever been forced into sexual activity? C) Do you make your husband uncontrollably angry? D) How is conflict usually handled in your home?

B Asking about abuse directly is effective in identifying the presence of abuse and should be included in the health history of all women. Oblique questions that relate to the character of the relationship or conflict resolution are less useful clinically. Asking about making a partner angry is not an appropriate way to screen for family violence because it does not directly address the problem.

A 31-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with human papillomavirus (HPV) infection gives a health history that includes smoking tobacco, taking oral contraceptives, and having been treated twice for vaginal candidiasis. Which topic will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Use of water-soluble lubricants b. Risk factors for cervical cancer c. Antifungal cream administration d. Possible difficulties with conception

B Because HPV infection and smoking are both associated with increased cervical cancer risk, the nurse should emphasize the importance of avoiding smoking. An HPV infection does not decrease vaginal lubrication, decrease ability to conceive, or require the use of antifungal creams.

When caring for a 58-year-old patient with persistent menorrhagia, the nurse will plan to monitor the a. estrogen level. b. complete blood count (CBC). c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GNRH) level. d. serial human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) results.

B Because anemia is a likely complication of menorrhagia, the nurse will need to check the CBC. Estrogen and GNRH levels are checked for patients with other problems, such as infertility. Serial hCG levels are monitored in patients who may be pregnant, which is not likely for this patient.

A 24-year-old female says she wants to begin using oral contraceptives. Which information from the nursing assessment is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient quit smoking 5 months previously. b. The patient's blood pressure is 154/86 mm Hg. c. The patient has not been vaccinated for rubella. d. The patient has chronic iron-deficiency anemia.

B Because hypertension increases the risk for morbidity and mortality in women taking oral contraceptives, the patient's blood pressure should be controlled before oral contraceptives are prescribed. The other information also will be reported but will not affect the choice of contraceptive.

A 25-year-old woman has an induced abortion with suction curettage at an ambulatory surgical center. Which instructions will the nurse include when discharging the patient? a. "Heavy vaginal bleeding is expected for about 2 weeks." b. "You should abstain from sexual intercourse for 2 weeks." c. "Contraceptives should be avoided until your reexamination." d. "Irregular menstrual periods are expected for the next few months."

B Because infection is a possible complication of this procedure, the patient is advised to avoid intercourse until the reexamination in 2 weeks. Patients may be started on contraceptives on the day of the procedure. The patient should call the doctor if heavy vaginal bleeding occurs. No change in the regularity of the menstrual periods is expected.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of vulvar cancer who has returned from the PACU after undergoing a wide excision of the vulva. How should this patients analgesic regimen be best managed? A) Analgesia should be withheld unless the patients pain becomes unbearable. B) Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain. C) All analgesics should be given on a PRN, rather than scheduled, basis. D) Opioid analgesics should be avoided and NSAIDs exclusively provided.

B Because of the wide excision, the patient may experience severe pain and discomfort even with minimal movement. Therefore, analgesic agents are administered preventively (i.e., around the clock at designated times) to relieve pain, increase the patients comfort level, and allow mobility. Opioids are usually required.

A middle-aged female patient has been offered testing for HIV/AIDS upon admission to the hospital for an unrelated health problem. The nurse observes that the patient is visibly surprised and embarrassed by this offer. How should the nurse best respond? A) Most women with HIV dont know they have the disease. If you have it, its important we catch it early. B) This testing is offered to every adolescent and adult regardless of their lifestyle, appearance or history. C) The rationale for this testing is so that you can begin treatment as soon as testing comes back, if its positive. D) Youre being offered this testing because you are actually in the prime demographic for HIV infection.

B Because patients may be reluctant to discuss risk-taking behavior, routine screening should be offered to all women between the ages of 13 to 64 years in all health care settings. Assuring a woman that the offer of testing is not related to a heightened risk may alleviate her anxiety. Middle-aged women are not the prime demographic for HIV infection. The nurse should avoid causing fear by immediately discussing treatment or the fact that many patients are unaware of their diagnosis.

A 58-year-old man with erectile dysfunction (ED) tells the nurse he is interested in using sildenafil (Viagra). Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assure the patient that ED is common with aging. b. Ask the patient about any prescription drugs he is taking. c. Tell the patient that Viagra does not always work for ED. d. Discuss the common adverse effects of erectogenic drugs.

B Because some medications can cause ED and patients using nitrates should not take sildenafil, the nurse should first assess for prescription drug use. The nurse may want to teach the patient about realistic expectations and adverse effects of sildenafil therapy, but this should not be the first action. Although ED does increase with aging, it may be secondary to medication use or cardiovascular disease.

The nurse will plan to teach a 34-year-old patient diagnosed with stage 0 cervical cancer about a. radiation. b. conization. c. chemotherapy. d. radical hysterectomy.

B Because the carcinoma is in situ, conization can be used for treatment. Radical hysterectomy, chemotherapy, or radiation will not be needed.

A 32-year-old who was admitted to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy. The patient begins to cry and asks the nurse to leave her alone to grieve. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Stay with the patient and encourage her to discuss her feelings. b. Explain the reason for taking vital signs every 15 to 30 minutes. c. Close the door to the patient's room and minimize disturbances. d. Provide teaching about options for termination of the pregnancy.

B Because the patient is at risk for rupture of the fallopian tube and hemorrhage, frequent monitoring of vital signs is needed. The patient has asked to be left alone, so staying with her and encouraging her to discuss her feelings are inappropriate actions. Minimizing contact with her and closing the door of the room is unsafe because of the risk for hemorrhage. Because the patient has requested time to grieve, it would be inappropriate to provide teaching about options for pregnancy termination.

A 22-year-old patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and is given a prescription for doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg bid for 7 days. The nurse explains to the patient that this combination of antibiotics is prescribed to a. prevent reinfection during treatment. b. treat any coexisting chlamydial infection. c. eradicate resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae. d. prevent the development of resistant organisms.

B Because there is a high incidence of co-infection with gonorrhea and chlamydia, patients are usually treated for both. The other explanations about the purpose of the antibiotic combination are not accurate.

A 42 year-old patient tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. She says that she is afraid that she has cancer. Which assessment finding would most strongly suggest that this patients lump is cancerous? A) Eversion of the right nipple and mobile mass B) A nonmobile mass with irregular edges C) A mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated D) Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes

B Breast cancer tumors are typically fixed, hard, and poorly delineated with irregular edges. A mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated is most commonly a fluid-filled benign cyst. Axillary lymph nodes may or may not be palpable on initial detection of a cancerous mass. Nipple retraction, not eversion, may be a sign of cancer.

A patient presents to the emergency department with paraphimosis. The physician is able to compress the glans and manually reduce the edema. Once the inflammation and edema subside, what is usually indicated? A) Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum B) Circumcision C) Abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks D) Administration of vardenafil

B Circumcision is usually indicated after the inflammation and edema subside. Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum is indicated in priapism; abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks is not indicated. Vardenafil is Levitra and would not be used for paraphimosis.

A patient with ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for surgery and the nurse is completing the patients health history. What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to assess? A) Fish-like vaginal odor B) Increased abdominal girth C) Fever and chills D) Lower abdominal pelvic pain

B Clinical manifestations of ovarian cancer include enlargement of the abdomen from an accumulation of fluid. Flatulence and feeling full after a light meal are significant symptoms. In bacterial vaginosis, a fish-like odor, which is noticeable after sexual intercourse or during menstruation, occurs as a result of a rise in the vaginal pH. Fever, chills, and abdominal pelvic pain are atypical.

A premenopausal patient is complaining of vaginal spotting and sharp, colicky lower abdominal pain. She informs the nurse that her period is 2 weeks late. The nurse should recognize a need for this patient to be investigated for what health problem? A) Trichomonas vaginalis B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Cervical cancer D) Fibromyalgia

B Clinical symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy include delay in menstruation of 1 to 2 weeks, vaginal spotting, and sharp, colicky pain. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a vaginal infection. Cervical cancer and fibromyalgia do not affect menstruation.

A physician explains to the patient that he has an inflammation of the Cowper glands. Where are the Cowper glands located? A) Within the epididymis B) Below the prostate, within the posterior aspect of the urethra C) On the inner epithelium lining the scrotum, lateral to the testes D) Medial to the vas deferens

B Cowper glands lie below the prostate, within the posterior aspect of the urethra. This gland empties its secretions into the urethra during ejaculation, providing lubrication. The Cowper glands do not lie within the epididymis, within the scrotum, or alongside the vas deferens.

6. A patient calls the clinic and tells the nurse she has thick white, curd-like discharge from her vagina. How should the nurse best interpret this preliminary data? A) The drainage is physiologic and normal. B) The patient may have a Candida species infection. C) The patient needs a Pap smear as soon as possible. D) The patient may have a Trichomonas infection.

B Drainage caused by Candida is typically curd-like and white. Trichomonas infections usually cause copious, frothy yellowish-green discharge. There is no immediate need for a Pap smear, as malignancy is an unlikely cause.

A 58-year-old patient who has been recently diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) tells the nurse that he does not want to have a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) because it might affect his ability to maintain an erection during intercourse. Which action should the nurse take? a. Provide teaching about medications for erectile dysfunction (ED). b. Discuss that TURP does not commonly affect erectile function. c. Offer reassurance that sperm production is not affected by TURP. d. Discuss alternative methods of sexual expression besides intercourse.

B ED is not a concern with TURP, although retrograde ejaculation is likely and the nurse should discuss this with the patient. Erectile function is not usually affected by a TURP, so the patient will not need information about penile implants or reassurance that other forms of sexual expression may be used. Because the patient has not asked about fertility, reassurance about sperm production does not address his concerns.

A 22-year-old patient reports her concern about not having a menstrual period for the past 7 months. Which statement by the patient indicates a possible related factor to the amenorrhea? a. "I drink at least 3 glasses of nonfat milk every day." b. "I run 7 to 8 miles every day to keep my weight down." c. "I was treated for a sexually transmitted infection 2 years ago." d. "I am not sexually active but currently I have an IUD."

B Excessive exercise can cause amenorrhea. The other statements by the patient do not suggest any urgent teaching needs.

A patient admitted with chest pain is also found to have positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FAT-Abs) tests, rashes on the palms and the soles of the feet, and moist papules in the anal and vulvar area. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Assess for arterial aneurysms. b. Wear gloves for patient contact. c. Place the patient in a private room. d. Apply antibiotic ointment to the perineum.

B Exudate from any lesions with syphilis is highly contagious. Systemic antibiotics, rather than local treatment of lesions, are used to treat syphilis. The patient does not require a private room because the disease is spread through contact with the lesions. This patient has clinical manifestations of secondary syphilis and does not need to be monitored for manifestations of tertiary syphilis.

A nurse is examining a patient who has been diagnosed with a fibroadenoma. The nurse should recognize what implication of this patients diagnosis? A) The patient will be scheduled for radiation therapy. B) The patient might be referred for a biopsy C) The patients breast mass is considered an age-related change. D) The patients diagnosis is likely related to her use of oral contraceptives

B Fibroadenomas are firm, round, movable, benign tumors. These masses are nontender and are sometimes removed for biopsy and definitive diagnosis. They are not considered to be an age-related change, even though they are benign. Radiation therapy is unnecessary and fibroadenomas do not result from oral contraceptive use.

A couple is scheduled to have a Huhner test for infertility. In preparation for the test, the nurse will instruct the couple about a. being sedated during the procedure. b. determining the estimated time of ovulation. c. experiencing shoulder pain after the procedure. d. refraining from intercourse before the appointment.

B For the Huhner test, the couple should have intercourse at the estimated time of ovulation and then arrive for the test 2 to 8 hours after intercourse. The other instructions would be used for other types of fertility testing.

A 60-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining that his breasts are tender and enlarging. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with gynecomastia. The patient should be assessed for the possibility of what causative factor? A) Age-related physiologic changes B) Medication adverse effects C) Poor nutrition D) Fluid overload

B Gynecomastia can also occur in older men and usually presents as a firm, tender mass underneath the areola. In these patients, gynecomastia may be diffuse and related to the use of certain medications. It is unrelated to fluid overload or nutrition and is not considered an age-related change

When teaching patients about the risk factors of cervical cancer, what would the nurse identify as the most important risk factor? A) Late childbearing B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Postmenopausal bleeding D) Tobacco use

B HPV is the most salient risk factor for cervical cancer, exceeding the risks posed by smoking, late childbearing, and postmenopausal bleeding.

A newly pregnant patient is being assessed in an obstetric clinic. The patient states that she has been experiencing intense abdominal pain and the nurse anticipates that the patient will be assessed for ectopic pregnancy. In addition to ultrasonography, what diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate? A) Computed tomography B) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) testing C) Estrogen and progesterone testing D) Abdominal x-ray

B If an ectopic pregnancy is suspected, the patient is assessed using ultrasound and hCG testing. CT and xrays are contraindicated during pregnancy and estrogen and progesterone levels are not diagnostic of ectopic pregnancy.

A patient is post-operative day 1 following a vaginal hysterectomy. The nurse notes an increase in the patients abdominal girth and the patient complains of bloating. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Provide the patient with an unsweetened, carbonated beverage. B) Apply warm compresses to the patients lower abdomen. C) Provide an ice pack to apply to the perineum and suprapubic region. D) Assist the patient into a prone position.

B If the patient has abdominal distention or flatus, a rectal tube and application of heat to the abdomen may be prescribed. Ice and carbonated beverages are not recommended and prone positioning would be uncomfortable.

A womans current health complaints are suggestive of a diagnosis of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). The nurse should first do which of the following? A) Assess the patients understanding of HT. B) Assess the patient for risk of suicide. C) Assure the patient that the problem is self-limiting. D) Suggest the use of St. Johns wort

B If the patient has severe symptoms of PMS or PMDD, the nurse assesses her for suicidal, uncontrollable, and violent behavior. The problem can escalate and is not necessarily self-limiting. HT is not a relevant intervention and the nurse should not recommend herbal supplements without input from the primary care provider.

7. A nurse presenting an educational event for a local community group is addressing premenstrual syndrome (PMS). What treatment guideline should the nurse teach this group? A) Avoid excessive fluid intake. B) Increase the frequency and intensity of exercise. C) Limit psychosocial stressors in order to reduce symptoms. D) Take opioid analgesics as ordered.

B In general, the patient is encouraged to increase or initiate an exercise program to help relieve symptoms of PMS. Fluid intake should be increased. Opioids are not used to treat PMS. Stress reduction has multiple benefits, but it is not noted to alleviate the symptoms of PMS.

A patient at high risk for breast cancer is scheduled for an incisional biopsy in the outpatient surgery department. When the nurse is providing preoperative education, the patient asks why an incisional biopsy is being done instead of just removing the mass. What would be the nurses best response? A) An incisional biopsy is performed because its known to be less painful and more accurate than other forms of testing. B) An incisional biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis and so that special studies can be done that will help determine the best treatment. C) An incisional biopsy is performed to assess the potential for recovery from a mastectomy. D) An incisional biopsy is performed on patients who are younger than the age of 40 and who are otherwise healthy.

B Incisional biopsy surgically removes a portion of a mass. This is performed to confirm a diagnosis and to conduct special studies that will aid in determining treatment. Incisional biopsies cannot always remove the whole mass, nor is it always beneficial to the patient to do so. The procedure is not chosen because of the potential for pain, the possibility of recovery from mastectomy, or the patients age.

A 42-year-old man has come to the clinic for an annual physical. The nurse notes in the patients history that his father was treated for breast cancer. What should the nurse provide to the patient before he leaves the clinic? A) A referral for a mammogram B) Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE) C) A referral to a surgeon D) A referral to a support group

B Instructions about BSE should be provided to men if they have a family history of breast cancer, because they may have an increased risk of male breast cancer. It is not within the scope of the practice of a nurse to refer a patient for a mammogram or to a surgeon; these actions are not necessary or recommended. In the absence of symptoms or a diagnosis, referral to a support group is unnecessary.

A 45-year-old woman comes into the health clinic for her annual check-up. She mentions to the nurse that she has noticed dimpling of the right breast that has occurred in a few months. What assessment would be most appropriate for the nurse to make? A) Evaluate the patients milk production. B) Palpate the area for a breast mass. C) Assess the patients knowledge of breast cancer. D) Assure the patient that this likely an age-related change

B It would be most important for the nurse to palpate the breast to determine the presence of a mass and to refer the patient to her primary care provider. Edema and pitting of the skin may result from a neoplasm blocking lymphatic drainage, giving the skin an orange-peel appearance (peau dorange), a classic sign of advanced breast cancer. Evaluation of milk production is required in lactating women. There is no indication of lactation in the scenario. The patients knowledge of breast cancer is relevant, but is not a time-dependent priority. This finding is not an age-related change.

The nurse is performing a comprehensive health history of a patient who is in her 50s. The nurse should identify what risk factor that may increase this patients risk for breast cancer? A) The patient breastfed each of her children. B) The patient gave birth to her first child at age 38. C) The patient experienced perimenopausal symptoms starting at age 46. D) The patient experienced menarche at age 13.

B Late age at first pregnancy is a risk factor for breast cancer. None of the other listed aspects of the patients health history is considered to be a risk factor for breast cancer.

A 48-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with gonococcal urethritis tells the nurse he had recent sexual contact with a woman but says she did not appear to have any disease. In responding to the patient, the nurse explains that a. women do not develop gonorrhea infections but can serve as carriers to spread the disease to males. b. women may not be aware they have gonorrhea because they often do not have symptoms of infection. c. women develop subclinical cases of gonorrhea that do not cause tissue damage or clinical manifestations. d. when gonorrhea infections occur in women, the disease affects only the ovaries and not the genital organs.

B Many women with gonorrhea are asymptomatic or have minor symptoms that are overlooked. The disease may affect both the genitals and the other reproductive organs and cause complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Women who can transmit the disease have active infections.

The nurse is caring for a couple trying to get pregnant and have not been able to for over a year. The couple asks what kind of problems a man can have that can cause infertility. What should be the nurses response? A) Men can have increased prolactin levels that decrease sperm viability. B) Men can have problems that increase the temperature around their testicles and decrease the quality of their semen. C) Men may inherit the gene that causes low sperm production. D) Men may produce sperm that are incompatible with the shape of the egg.

B Men may be affected by varicoceles, varicose veins around the testicle, which decrease semen quality by increasing testicular temperature. Low prolactin levels may contribute to the problem. Genetic factors are not noted to relate to male infertility. Infertility is not normally linked to sperm that are incompatible with the shape of the egg.

A 29-year-old patient who is trying to become pregnant asks the nurse how to determine when she is most likely to conceive. The nurse explains that a. ovulation is unpredictable unless there are regular menstrual periods. b. ovulation prediction kits provide accurate information about ovulation. c. she will need to bring a specimen of cervical mucus to the clinic for testing. d. she should take her body temperature daily and have intercourse when it drops.

B Ovulation prediction kits indicate when luteinizing hormone (LH) levels first rise. Ovulation occurs about 28 to 36 hours after the first rise of LH. This information can be used to determine the best time for intercourse. Body temperature rises at ovulation. Postcoital cervical smears are used in infertility testing, but they do not predict the best time for conceiving and are not obtained by the patient. Determination of the time of ovulation can be predicted by basal body temperature charts or ovulation prediction kits and is not dependent on regular menstrual periods.

A man comes to the clinic complaining that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection. When reviewing the patients history, what might the nurse note that contributes to erectile dysfunction? A) The patient has been treated for a UTI twice in the past year. B) The patient has a history of hypertension. C) The patient is 66 years old. D) The patient leads a sedentary lifestyle.

B Past history of infection and lack of exercise do not contribute to impotence. With advancing age, sexual function and libido and potency decrease somewhat, but this is not the primary reason for impotence. Vascular problems cause about half the cases of impotence in men older than 50 years; hypertension is a major cause of such problems.

A 55-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. The patient has a history of diabetes. The physician orders tadalafil (Cialis) to be taken 1 hour before sexual intercourse. The nurse reviews the patients history prior to instructing the patient on the use of this medication. What disorder will contraindicate the use of tadalafil (Cialis)? A) Cataracts B) Retinopathy C) Hypotension D) Diabetic nephropathy

B Patients with cataracts, hypotension, or nephropathy will be allowed to take tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) if needed. However, tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) are usually contraindicated with diabetic retinopathy

The nurse performing a focused examination to determine possible causes of infertility will assess for a. hydrocele. b. varicocele. c. epididymitis. d. paraphimosis.

B Persistent varicoceles are commonly associated with infertility. Hydrocele, epididymitis, and paraphimosis are not risk factors for infertility.

A 75-year-old male patient is being treated for phimosis. When planning this patients care, what health promotion activity is most directly related to the etiology of the patients health problem? A) Teaching the patient about safer sexual practices B) Teaching the patient about the importance of hygiene C) Teaching the patient about the safe use of PDE-5 inhibitors D) Teaching the patient to perform testicular self-examination

B Poor hygiene often contributes to cases of phimosis. This health problem is unrelated to sexual practices, the use of PDE-5 inhibitors, or testicular self-examination.

The nurse in a health clinic receives requests for appointments from several patients. Which patient should be seen by the health care provider first? a. A 48-year-old man who has perineal pain and a temperature of 100.4° F b. A 58-year-old man who has a painful erection that has lasted over 6 hours c. A 38-year-old man who states he had difficulty maintaining an erection last night d. A 68-year-old man who has pink urine after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 3 days ago

B Priapism can cause complications such as necrosis or hydronephrosis, and this patient should be treated immediately. The other patients do not require immediate action to prevent serious complications.

A 52-year-old woman has just been told she has breast cancer and is scheduled for a modified mastectomy the following week. The nurse caring for this patient knows that she is anxious and fearful about the upcoming procedure and the newly diagnosed malignancy. How can the nurse most likely alleviate this patients fears? A) Provide written material on the procedure that has been scheduled for the patient. B) Provide the patient with relevant information about expected recovery. C) Give the patient current information on breast cancer survival rates. D) Offer the patient alternative treatment options.

B Providing the patient with realistic expectations about the healing process and expected recovery can help alleviate fears. Offering the patient alternative treatment options is not within the nurses normal scope of practice. Addressing survival rates may or may not be beneficial for the patient. Written material is rarely sufficient to meet patients needs.

A 35-year-old father of three tells the nurse that he wants information on a vasectomy. What would the nurse tell him about ejaculate after a vasectomy? A) There will be no ejaculate after a vasectomy, though the patients potential for orgasm is unaffected. B) There is no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate even though it contains no sperm. C) There is a marked decrease in the amount of ejaculate after vasectomy, though this does not affect sexual satisfaction. D) There is no change in the quantity of ejaculate after vasectomy, but the viscosity is somewhat increased.

B Seminal fluid is manufactured predominantly in the seminal vesicles and prostate gland, which are unaffected by vasectomy, thus no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate occurs (volume decreases approximately 3%), even though it contains no spermatozoa. The viscosity of ejaculate does not change.X

A patient has been diagnosed with endometriosis. When planning this patients care, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis? A) Anxiety related to risk of transmission B) Acute pain related to misplaced endometrial tissue C) Ineffective tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage D) Excess fluid volume related to abdominal distention

B Symptoms of endometriosis vary but include dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and pelvic discomfort or pain. Dyschezia (pain with bowel movements) and radiation of pain to the back or leg may occur. Ineffective tissue perfusion is not associated with endometriosis and there is no plausible risk of fluid overload. Endometriosis is not transmittable.

A healthy 28-year-old who has been vaccinated against human papillomavirus (HPV) has a normal Pap test. Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching when calling the patient with the results of the Pap test? a. You can wait until age 30 before having another Pap test. b. Pap testing is recommended every 3 years for women your age. c. No further Pap testing is needed until you decide to become pregnant. d. Yearly Pap testing is suggested for women with multiple sexual partners.

B The current national guidelines suggest Pap testing every 3 years for patients between ages 21 to 65. Although HPV immunization does protect against cervical cancer, the recommendations are unchanged for individuals who have received the HPV vaccination.

A 24-year-old patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is being treated with oral antibiotics as an outpatient. Which instruction will be included in patient teaching? a. Abdominal pain may persist for several weeks. b. Return for a follow-up appointment in 2 to 3 days. c. Instruct a male partner to use a condom during sexual intercourse for the next week. d. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) use may prevent pelvic organ scarring

B The patient is instructed to return for follow-up in 48 to 72 hours. The patient should abstain from intercourse for 3 weeks. Abdominal pain should subside with effective antibiotic therapy. Corticosteroids may help prevent inflammation and scarring, but NSAIDs will not decrease scarring.

A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication? A) Sexual stimulation is not needed to obtain an erection. B) The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse. C) Facial flushing or headache should be reported to the physician immediately. D) The drug has the potential to cause permanent visual changes.

B The patient must have sexual stimulation to create the erection, and the drug should be taken 1 hour before intercourse. Facial flushing, mild headache, indigestion, and running nose are common side effects of Viagra and do not normally warrant reporting to the physician. Some visual disturbances may occur, but these are transient.

A 63-year-old woman undergoes an anterior and posterior (A&P) colporrhaphy for repair of a cystocele and rectocele. Which nursing action will be included in the postoperative care plan? a. Encourage a high-fiber diet. b. Perform indwelling catheter care. c. Repack the vagina with gauze daily. d. Teach the patient to insert a pessary.

B The patient will have a retention catheter for several days after surgery to keep the bladder empty and decrease strain on the suture. A pessary will not be needed after the surgery. Vaginal wound packing is not usually used after an A&P repair. A low-residue diet will be ordered after posterior colporrhaphy.

A 52-year-old man tells the nurse that he decided to seek treatment for erectile dysfunction (ED) because his wife "is losing patience with the situation." The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. situational low self-esteem related to effects of ED. b. ineffective role performance related to effects of ED. c. anxiety related to inability to have sexual intercourse. d. ineffective sexuality patterns related to infrequent intercourse.

B The patient's statement indicates that the relationship with his wife is his primary concern. Although anxiety, low self-esteem, and ineffective sexuality patterns may also be concerns, the patient information suggests that addressing the role performance problem will lead to the best outcome for this patient.

A patient has returned to the floor from the PACU after undergoing a suprapubic prostatectomy. The nurse notes significant urine leakage around the suprapubic tube. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Cleanse the skin surrounding the suprapubic tube. B) Inform the urologist of this finding. C) Remove the suprapubic tube and apply a wet-to-dry dressing. D) Administer antispasmodic drugs as ordered.

B The physician should be informed if there is significant leakage around a suprapubic catheter. Cleansing the skin is appropriate but does not resolve the problem. Removing the suprapubic tube is contraindicated because it is unsafe. Administering drugs will not stop the leakage of urine around the tube.

A 34-year-old woman who is discussing contraceptive options with the nurse says, "I want to have children, but not for a few years." Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "If you do not become pregnant within the next few years, you never will." b. "You may have more difficulty becoming pregnant after about age 35." c. "You have many years of fertility left, so there is no rush to have children." d. "You should plan to stop taking oral contraceptives several years before you want to become pregnant."

B The probability of successfully becoming pregnant decreases after age 35, although some patients may have no difficulty in becoming pregnant. Oral contraceptives do not need to be withdrawn for several years for a woman to become pregnant. Although the patient may be fertile for many years, it would be inaccurate to indicate that there is no concern about fertility as she becomes older. Although the risk for infertility increases after age 35, not all patients have difficulty in conceiving.

A 32-year-old woman who is diagnosed with Chlamydia tells the nurse that she is very angry because her husband is her only sexual partner. Which response should the nurse make first? a. "You may need professional counseling to help resolve your anger." b. "It is understandable that you are angry with your husband right now." c. "Your feelings are justified and you should share them with your husband." d. "It is important that both you and your husband be treated for the infection."

B This response expresses the nurse's acceptance of the patient's feelings and encourages further discussion and problem solving. The patient may need professional counseling, but more assessment of the patient is needed before making this judgment. The nurse should also assess further before suggesting that the patient share her feelings with the husband because problems such as abuse might be present in the relationship. Although it is important that both partners be treated, the patient's current anger suggests that this is not the appropriate time to bring this up.

A 31-year-old patient has returned to the post-surgical unit following a hysterectomy. The patients care plan addresses the risk of hemorrhage. How should the nurse best monitor the patients postoperative blood loss? A) Have the patient void and have bowel movements using a commode rather than toilet. B) Count and inspect each perineal pad that the patient uses. C) Swab the patients perineum for the presence of blood at least once per shift. D) Leave the patients perineum open to air to facilitate inspection.

B To detect bleeding, the nurse counts the perineal pads used or checks the incision site, assesses the extent of saturation with blood, and monitors vital signs. The perineum is not swabbed and there is no reason to prohibit the use of the toilet. Absorbent pads are applied to the perineum; it is not open to air.

A patient with a genital herpes exacerbation has a nursing diagnosis of acute pain related to the genital lesions. What nursing intervention best addresses this diagnosis? A) Cover the lesions with a topical antibiotic. B) Keep the lesions clean and dry. C) Apply a topical NSAID to the lesions. D) Remain on bed rest until the lesions resolve.

B To reduce pain, the lesions should be kept clean and proper hygiene practices maintained. Topical ointments are avoided and antibiotics are irrelevant due to the viral etiology. Activity should be maintained as tolerated.

Which assessment finding in a woman who recently started taking hormone therapy (HT) is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Breast tenderness b. Left calf swelling c. Weight gain of 3 lb d. Intermittent spotting

B Unilateral calf swelling may indicate deep vein thrombosis caused by the changes in coagulation associated with HT and would indicate that the HT should be discontinued. Breast tenderness, weight gain, and intermittent spotting are common side effects of HT and do not indicate a need for a change in therapy.

A 32-year-old woman is scheduled for an induced abortion using instillation of hypertonic saline solution. Which information will the nurse plan to discuss with the patient before the procedure? a. The patient will require a general anesthetic. b. The expulsion of the fetus may take 1 to 2 days. c. There is a possibility that the patient may deliver a live fetus. d. The procedure may be unsuccessful in terminating the pregnancy.

B Uterine contractions take 12 to 36 hours to begin after the hypertonic saline is instilled. Because the saline is feticidal, the nurse does not need to discuss any possibility of a live delivery or that the pregnancy termination will not be successful. General anesthesia is not needed for this procedure.

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of a tender, inflamed vulva. Testing does not reveal the presence of any known causative microorganism. What aspect of this patients current health status may account for the patients symptoms of vulvitis? A) The patient is morbidly obese. B) The patient has type 1 diabetes. C) The patient has chronic kidney disease. D) The patient has numerous allergies.

B Vulvitis, an inflammation of the vulva, may occur as a result of other disorders, such as diabetes, dermatologic problems, or poor hygiene. Obesity, kidney disease, and allergies are less likely causes than diabetes.

A 14-year-old is brought to the clinic by her mother. The mother explains to the nurse that her daughter has just started using tampons, but is not yet sexually active. The mother states I am very concerned because my daughter is having a lot of stabbing pain and burning. What might the nurse suspect is the problem with the 14-year-old? A) Vulvitis B) Vulvodynia C) Vaginitis D) Bartholins cyst

B Vulvodynia is a chronic vulvar pain syndrome. Symptoms may include burning, stinging, irritation, or stabbing pain and may follow the initial use of tampons or first sexual experience. Vulvitis is an inflammation of the vulva that is normally infectious. Bartholins cyst results from the obstruction of a duct in one of the paired vestibular glands located in the posterior third of the vulva, near the vestibule.

A 32-year-old patient has oral contraceptives prescribed for endometriosis. The nurse will teach the patient to a. expect to experience side effects such as facial hair. b. take the medication every day for the next 9 months. c. take calcium supplements to prevent developing osteoporosis during therapy. d. use a second method of contraception to ensure that she will not become pregnant.

B When oral contraceptives are prescribed to treat endometriosis, the patient should take the medications continuously for 9 months. Facial hair is a side effect of synthetic androgens. The patient does not need to use additional contraceptive methods. The hormones in oral contraceptives will protect against osteoporosis

A clinic nurse is providing preprocedure education for a man who will undergo a vasectomy. Which of the following measures will enhance healing and comfort? Select all that apply. A) Abstaining from sexual intercourse for at least 14 days postprocedure B) Wearing a scrotal support garment C) Using sitz baths D) Applying a heating pad intermittently E) Staying on bed rest for 48 to 72 hours postprocedure

B, C Applying ice bags intermittently to the scrotum for several hours after surgery can reduce swelling and relieve discomfort, and is preferable to the application of heat. The nurse advises the patient to wear snug, cotton underwear or a scrotal support for added comfort and support. Sitz baths can also enhance comfort. Extended bed rest is unnecessary, and sexual activity can usually be resumed in 1 week.

Which nursing actions can the nurse working in a women's health clinic delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) (select all that apply)? a. Call a patient with the results of an endometrial biopsy. b. Assist the health care provider with performing a Pap test. c. Draw blood for CA-125 levels for a patient with ovarian cancer. d. Screen a patient for use of medications that may cause amenorrhea. e. Teach the parent of a 10-year-old about the human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine (Gardasil).

B, C Assisting with a Pap test and drawing blood (if trained) are skills that require minimal critical thinking and judgment and can be safely delegated to UAP. Patient teaching, calling a patient who may have questions about results of diagnostic testing, and risk-factor screening all require more education and critical thinking and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

19. A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the male reproductive structures. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as accessory organs? (Select all that apply.) A) Testes B) Vas deferens C) Bulbourethral glands D) Prostate gland E) Penis

B, C, D

A patient is being discharged home from the ambulatory surgery center after an incisional biopsy of a mass in her left breast. What are the criteria for discharging this patient home? Select all that apply. A) Patient must understand when she can begin ambulating B) Patient must have someone to accompany her home C) Patient must understand activity restrictions D) Patient must understand care of the biopsy site E) Patient must understand when she can safely remove her urinary catheter

B, C, D Prior to discharge from the ambulatory surgical center or the office, the patient must be able to tolerate fluids, ambulate, and void. The patient must have somebody to accompany her home and would not be discharged with urinary catheter in place.

A client is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When reviewing the client's medical record, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) A) Oral temperature of 100.4 degrees F B) Dysmenorrhea C) Dysuria D) Lower abdominal tenderness E) Discomfort with cervical motion F) Multiparity

B, C, D, E

A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) that is disrupting her quality of life. What signs and symptoms are associated with this health problem? Select all that apply. A) Loss of appetite B) Breast tenderness C) Depression D) Fluid retention E) Headache

B, C, D, E Physiologic symptoms of PMS include headache, breast tenderness, and fluid retention as well as affective symptoms, such as depression. Loss of appetite is not noted to be among the most common symptoms.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing polycystic ovarian syndrome? (Select all that apply.. A) Decreased androgen levels B) Elevated blood insulin levels C) Anovulation D) Waist circumference of 32 inches E) Triglyceride level of 175 mg/dL F) High-density lipoprotein level of 40 mg/dL

B, C, E

Which topics will the nurse include when preparing to teach a patient with recurrent genital herpes simplex (select all that apply)? a. Infected areas should be kept moist to speed healing. b. Sitz baths may be used to relieve discomfort caused by the lesions. c. Genital herpes can be cured by consistent use of antiviral medications. d. Recurrent genital herpes episodes usually are shorter than the first episode. e. The virus can infect sexual partners even when you do not have symptoms of infection.

B, D, E Patients are taught that shedding of the virus and infection of sexual partners can occur even in asymptomatic periods, that recurrent episodes resolve more quickly, and that sitz baths can be used to relieve pain caused by the lesions. Antiviral medications decrease the number of outbreaks, but do not cure herpes simplex infections. Infected areas may be kept dry if this decreases pain and itching.

2. After teaching a group of adolescent girls about female reproductive development, the nurse determines that teaching was successful when the girls state that menarche is defined as a woman's first: A) Sexual experience B) Full hormonal cycle C) Menstrual period D) Sign of breast development

C

4. Which female reproductive tract structure would the nurse describe to a group of young women as containing rugae that enable it to dilate during labor and birth? A) Cervix B) Fallopian tube C) Vagina D) Vulva

C

A 70-year-old woman tells the nurse that she is still sexually active. How would the nurse respond? A) You are too old for that kind of behavior. B) Tell me what you enjoy the most. C) You can be sexually active as long as you want to be. D) There comes a time in life when this is no longer important.

C

A client comes to the clinic with abdominal pain. Based on her history the nurse suspects endometriosis. The nurse expects to prepare the client for which of the following to confirm this suspicion? A) Pelvic examination B) Transvaginal ultrasound C) Laparoscopy D) Hysterosalpingogram

C

A client is diagnosed with an enterocele. The nurse interprets this condition as: A) Protrusion of the posterior bladder wall downward through the anterior vaginal wall B) Sagging of the rectum with pressure exerted against the posterior vaginal wall C) Bulging of the small intestine through the posterior vaginal wall D) Descent of the uterus through the pelvic floor into the vagina

C

A client with genital herpes simplex infection asks the nurse, "Will I ever be cured of this infection?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "There is a new vaccine available that prevents the infection from returning." B) "All you need is a dose of penicillin and the infection will be gone." C) "There is no cure, but drug therapy helps to reduce symptoms and recurrences." D) "Once you have the infection, you develop an immunity to it."

C

A couple comes to the clinic for a fertility evaluation. The male partner is to undergo a semen analysis. After teaching the partner about this test, which client statement indicates that the client has understood the instructions? A) "I need to bring the specimen to the lab the day after collecting it." B) "I will place the specimen in a special plastic bag to transport it." C) "I have to abstain from sexual activity for about 1-2 days before the sample." D) "I will withdraw before I ejaculate during sex to collect the specimen."

C

A male patient tells the nurse taking a sexual history that he finds sexual pleasure with both female and male companions. What is the sexual orientation of this patient? A) homosexual B) heterosexual C) bisexual D) transsexual

C

A nurse is describing the criteria needed for the diagnosis of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Which of the following would the nurse include as a mandatory requirement for the diagnosis? A) Appetite changes B) Sleep difficulties C) Persistent anger D) Chronic fatigue

C

A nurse is providing care to a female client receiving treatment for a Bartholin's cyst. The client has had a small loop of plastic tubing secured in place to allow for drainage. The nurse instructs the client that she will have a follow-up appointment for removal of the plastic tubing at which time? A) 1 week B) 2 weeks C) 3 weeks D) 4 weeks

C

A nurse is responding to sexual harassment from a patient at work. Which of the following are recommended guidelines for dealing with this behavior? A)If confronted by management, deny any feelings about being harassed. B) Do not confront the person harassing you in person. C) Set and enforce limits to the behavior and maintain boundaries. D) Document the incident but do not report it to the supervisor unless harassment continues.

C

A nurse is teaching a student nurse how STIs affect the health of their patients. Which of the following statements accurately describes an effect of an STI? A) STIs are most common in young to middle adulthood populations. B) The incidence of STIs is decreasing due to health promotion efforts. C) Most of the time STIs cause no symptoms, especially in women. D) Health problems caused by STIs are more severe and frequent in men.

C

A woman is using Depo-Provera as a method of birth control. What common side effect should the nurse explain to the patient? A) constipation B) nausea C) irregular bleeding D) pregnancy

C

After discussing various methods of contraception with a client and her partner, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when they identify which contraceptive method as providing protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)? A) Oral contraceptives B) Tubal ligation C) Condoms D) Intrauterine system

C

After teaching a class on preventing pelvic inflammatory disease, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which of the following as an effective method? A) Advising sexually active females to use hormonal contraception B) Encouraging vaginal douching on a weekly basis. C) Emphasizing the need for infected sexual partners to receive treatment D) Promoting routine treatment for asymptomatic females as risk

C

As a result of loss of estrogen, postmenopausal women have decreased vaginal lubrication. What may occur as a result? A) frequent urination B) excess fatigue C) painful intercourse D) painful menses

C

Assessment of a female client reveals a thick, white vaginal discharge. She also reports intense itching and dyspareunia. Based on these findings, the nurse would suspect that the client has: A) Trichomoniasis B) Bacterial vaginosis C) Candidiasis D) Genital herpes simplex

C

The nurse discusses various contraceptive methods with a client and her partner. Which method would the nurse explain as being available only with a prescription? A) Condom B) Spermicide C) Diaphragm D) Basal body temperature

C

The nurse encourages a female client with human papillomavirus (HPV) to receive continued follow-up care because she is at risk for: A) Infertility B) Dyspareunia C) Cervical cancer D) Dysmenorrhea

C

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is receiving highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for treatment of HIV. The goal of this therapy is to: A) Promote the progression of disease B) Intervene in late-stage AIDS C) Improve survival rates D) Conduct additional drug research

C

The nurse is reviewing the medical records of several clients. Which client would the nurse expect to have an increased risk for developing osteoporosis? A) A woman of African American descent B) A woman who plays tennis twice a week C) A thin woman with small bones D) A woman who drinks one cup of coffee a day

C

When reviewing the medical record of a client diagnosed with endometriosis, which of the following would the nurse identify as a risk factor for this woman? A) Low fat in the diet B) Age of 14 years for menarche C) Menstrual cycles of 24 days D) Short menstrual flow

C

When teaching a woman how to perform Kegel exercises, the nurse explains that these exercises are designed to strengthen which muscles? A) Gluteus B) Lower abdominal C) Pelvic floor D) Diaphragmatic

C

Which of the following best describes sexuality? A) external appearance of one's genitalia B) internal organ structure and function C) physical, emotional, and mental gender D) pleasure experienced during sexual activity

C

Which of the following questions or statements would be most useful in eliciting information about a patient's sexual history? A)I know this is hard to talk about, but it is important. B)Why did you have unprotected sex? C)How would you describe your problem? D)I need to know sex partners' numbers.

C

While answering questions posed by a nurse during a health history, a young woman says, Before my period I get headaches, am moody, and my breasts hurt. What is the patient experiencing? A) perimenopause B) menarche C) PMS D) menses

C

When a 31-year-old male patient returns to the clinic for follow-up after treatment for gonococcal urethritis, a purulent urethral discharge is still present. When trying to determine the reason for the recurrent infection, which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient? a. "Did you take the prescribed antibiotic for a week?" b. "Did you drink at least 2 quarts of fluids every day?" c. "Were your sexual partners treated with antibiotics?" d. "Do you wash your hands after using the bathroom?"

C A common reason for recurrence of symptoms is reinfection because infected partners have not been simultaneously treated. Because gonorrhea is treated with one dose of antibiotic, antibiotic therapy for a week is not needed. An adequate fluid intake is important, but a low fluid intake is not a likely cause for failed treatment. Poor hygiene may cause complications such as ocular trachoma but will not cause a failure of treatment.

A woman aged 48 years comes to the clinic because she has discovered a lump in her breast. After diagnostic testing, the woman receives a diagnosis of breast cancer. The woman asks the nurse when her teenage daughters should begin mammography. What is the nurses best advice? A) Age 28 B) Age 35 C) Age 38 D) Age 48

C A general guideline is to begin screening 5 to 10 years earlier than the age at which the youngest family member developed breast cancer, but not before age 25 years. In families with a history of breast cancer, a downward shift in age of diagnosis of about 10 years is seen. Because their mother developed breast cancer at age 48 years, the daughters should begin mammography at age 38 to 43 years.

An adolescent is identified as having a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis of his testes. The nurse knows that this adolescent will receive what medical diagnosis? A) Cryptorchidism B) Orchitis C) Hydrocele D) Prostatism

C A hydrocele refers to a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis of the testes. Cryptorchidism is the most common congenital defect in males, characterized by failure of one or both of the testes to descend into the scrotum. Orchitis is an inflammation of the testes (testicular congestion) caused by pyogenic, viral, spirochetal, parasitic, traumatic, chemical, or unknown factors. Prostatism is an obstructive and irritative symptom complex that includes increased frequency and hesitancy in starting urination, a decrease in the volume and force of the urinary stream, acute urinary retention, and recurrent urinary tract infections.

A woman is diagnosed with primary syphilis during her eighth week of pregnancy. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the a. likelihood of a stillbirth. b. plans for cesarean section c. intramuscular injection of penicillin. d. antibiotic eye drops for the newborn.

C A single injection of penicillin is recommended to treat primary syphilis. This will treat the mother and prevent transmission of the disease to the fetus. Instillation of erythromycin into the eyes of the newborn is used to prevent gonorrheal eye infections. C-section is used to prevent the transmission of herpes to the newborn. Although stillbirth can occur if the fetus is infected with syphilis, treatment before the tenth week of gestation will eliminate in utero transmission to the fetus.

A patient has just been diagnosed with breast cancer and the nurse is performing a patient interview. In assessing this patients ability to cope with this diagnosis, what would be an appropriate question for the nurse to ask this patient? A) What is your level of education? B) Are you feeling alright these days? C) Is there someone you trust to help you make treatment choices? D) Are you concerned about receiving this diagnosis?

C A trusted ally to assist in making treatment choices is beneficial to the patients coping ability. It is condescending and inappropriate to ask if the patient is feeling alright these days or is concerned about the diagnosis. The patients education level is irrelevant.

A nurse is providing an educational event to a local mens group about prostate cancer. The nurse should cite an increased risk of prostate cancer in what ethnic group? A) Native Americans B) Caucasian Americans C) African Americans D) Asian Americans

C African American men have a high risk of prostate cancer; furthermore, they are more than twice as likely to die from prostate cancer as men of other racial or ethnic groups.

A patient has returned to the post-surgical unit after vulvar surgery. What intervention should the nurse prioritize during the initial postoperative period? A) Placing the patient in high Fowlers position B) Administering sitz baths every 4 hours C) Monitoring the integrity of the surgical site D) Avoiding analgesics unless the patients pain is unbearable

C An important intervention for the patient who has undergone vulvar surgery is to monitor closely for signs of infection in the surgical site, such as redness, purulent drainage, and fever. The patient should be placed in low Fowlers position to reduce pain by relieving tension on the incision. Sitz baths are discouraged after of wide excision of the vulva because of the risk of infection. Analgesics should be administered preventively on a scheduled basis to relieve pain and increase the patients comfort level.

The nurse is taking the sexual history of an adolescent who has come into the free clinic. What question best assesses the patients need for further information? A) Are you involved in an intimate relationship at this time? B) How many sexual partners have you had? C) What questions or concerns do you have about your sexual health? D) Have you ever been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection?

C An open-ended question related to the patients need for further information should be included while obtaining a sexual history. None of the other listed questions are open-ended.

For which of the following population groups would an annual clinical breast examination be recommended? A) Women over age 21 B) Women over age 25 C) Women over age 40 D) All post-pubescent females with a family history of breast cancer

C Annual clinical breast examination is recommended for women aged 40 years and older. Younger women may have examinations less frequently.

A 19-year-old patient calls the school clinic and tells the nurse, "My menstrual period is very heavy this time. I have to change my tampon every 4 hours." Which action should the nurse take next? a. Tell the patient that her flow is not unusually heavy. b. Schedule the patient for an appointment later that day. c. Ask the patient how heavy her usual menstrual flow is. d. Have the patient call again if the heavy flow continues.

C Because a heavy menstrual flow is usually indicated by saturating a pad or tampon in 1 to 2 hours, the nurse should first assess how heavy the patient's usual flow is. There is no need to schedule the patient for an appointment that day. The patient may need to call again, but this is not the first action that the nurse should take. Telling the patient that she does not have a heavy flow implies that the patient's concern is not important.

A nurse practitioner is preparing to perform a patients scheduled Pap smear and the patient asks the nurse to ensure that the speculum is well-lubricated. How should the nurse proceed with assessment? A) Reassure the patient that ample petroleum jelly will be used. B) Reassure that patient that a water-based lubricant will be used. C) Explain to the patient that water is the only lubricant that can be used. D) Explain to the patient why the speculum must be introduced dry.

C Because lubricants may obscure cells on a Pap smear, warm water is the only lubricant that can be used.

A clinic nurse is caring for a male patient diagnosed with gonorrhea who has been prescribed ceftriaxone and doxycycline. The patient asks why he is receiving two antibiotics. What is the nurses best response? A) There are many drug-resistant strains of gonorrhea, so more than one antibiotic may be required for successful treatment. B) The combination of these two antibiotics reduces the later risk of reinfection. C) Many people infected with gonorrhea are infected with chlamydia as well. D) This combination of medications will eradicate the infection twice as fast than a single antibiotic.

C Because patients are often coinfected with both gonorrhea and chlamydia, the CDC recommends dual therapy even if only gonorrhea has been laboratory proven. Although the number of resistant strains of gonorrhea has increased, that is not the reason for use of combination antibiotic therapy. Dual therapy is prescribed to treat both gonorrhea and chlamydia, because many patients with gonorrhea have a coexisting chlamydial infection. This combination of antibiotics does not reduce the risk of reinfection or provide a faster cure.

The nurse is providing teaching by telephone to a patient who is scheduled for a pelvic examination and Pap test next week. The nurse instructs the patient that she should a. shower, but not take a tub bath, before the examination. b. not have sexual intercourse the day before the Pap test. c. avoid douching for at least 24 hours before the examination. d. schedule to have the Pap test just after her menstrual period.

C Because the results of a Pap test may be affected by douching, the patient should not douche before the examination. The exam may be scheduled without regard to the menstrual period. The patient may shower or bathe before the examination. Sexual intercourse does not affect the results of the examination or Pap test.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient who has developed a small vesicovaginal fistula 2 weeks into the postpartum period? a. Take stool softeners to prevent fecal contamination of the vagina. b. Limit oral fluid intake to minimize the quantity of urinary drainage. c. Change the perineal pad frequently to prevent perineal skin breakdown. d. Call the health care provider immediately if urine drains from the vagina.

C Because urine will leak from the bladder, the patient should plan to use perineal pads and change them frequently. A high fluid intake is recommended to decrease the risk for urinary tract infections. Drainage of urine from the vagina is expected with vesicovaginal fistulas. Fecal contamination is not a concern with vesicovaginal fistulas.

While taking a health history on a 20-year-old female patient, the nurse ascertains that this patient is taking miconazole (Monistat). The nurse is justified in presuming that this patient has what medical condition? A) Bacterial vaginosis B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Candidiasis D) Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

C Candidiasis is a fungal or yeast infection caused by strains of Candida. Miconazole (Monistat) is an antifungal medication used in the treatment of candidiasis. This agent is inserted into the vagina with an applicator at bedtime and may be applied to the vulvar area for pruritus. HPV, bacterial vaginosis, and TSS are not treated by Monistat

A patient diagnosed with cervical cancer will soon begin a round of radiation therapy. When planning the patients subsequent care, the nurse should prioritize actions with what goal? A) Preventing hemorrhage B) Ensuring the patient knows the treatment is palliative, not curative C) Protecting the safety of the patient, family, and staff D) Ensuring that the patient adheres to dietary restrictions during treatment

C Care must be taken to protect the safety of patients, family members, and staff during radiation therapy. Hemorrhage is not a common complication of radiation therapy and the treatment can be curative. Dietary restrictions are not normally necessary during treatment.

A 25-year-old woman who is scheduled for a routine gynecologic examination tells the nurse that she has had intercourse during the last year with several men. The nurse will plan to teach about the reason for a. contraceptive use. b. antibiotic therapy. c. Chlamydia testing. d. pregnancy testing.

C Chlamydia testing is recommended annually for women with multiple sex partners. There is no indication that the patient needs teaching about contraceptives, pregnancy testing, or antibiotic therapy.

Which finding from the nurse's physical assessment of a 42-year-old male patient should be reported to the health care provider? a. One testis hangs lower than the other. b. Genital hair distribution is diamond shaped. c. Clear discharge is present at the penile meatus. d. Inguinal lymph nodes are nonpalpable bilaterally.

C Clear penile discharge may be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection (STI). The other findings are normal and do not need to be reported.

A 49-year-old woman is considering the use of combined estrogen-progesterone hormone replacement therapy (HT) during menopause. Which information will the nurse include during their discussion? a. Use of estrogen-containing vaginal creams provides most of the same benefits as oral HT. b. Increased incidence of colon cancer in women taking HT requires more frequent colonoscopy. c. HT decreases osteoporosis risk and increases the risk for cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. d. Use of HT for up to 10 years to prevent symptoms such as hot flashes is generally considered safe.

C Data from the Women's Health Initiative indicate an increased risk for cardiovascular disease and breast cancer in women taking combination HT but a decrease in hip fractures. Vaginal creams decrease symptoms related to vaginal atrophy and dryness, but they do not offer the other benefits of HT, such as decreased hot flashes. Most women who use HT are placed on short-term treatment and are not treated for up to 10 years. The incidence of colon cancer decreases in women taking HRT.

A nurse is explaining that each breast contains 12 to 20 cone-shaped lobes. The nurse should explain that each lobe consists of what elements? A) Modified tendons and ligaments B) Connective tissue and smooth muscle C) Lobules and ducts D) Endocrine glands and sebaceous glands

C Each breast contains 12 to 20 cone-shaped lobes, which are made up of glandular elements (lobules and ducts) and separated by fat and fibrous tissue that binds the lobes together. These breast lobes do not consist of tendons, ligaments, endocrine glands, or smooth muscle.

A 23-year-old woman comes to the free clinic stating I think I have a lump in my breast. Do I have cancer? The nurse instructs the patient that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by what? A) Supervised breast self-examination B) Mammography C) Fine-needle aspiration D) Chest x-ray

C Fine-needle aspiration and biopsy provide cells for histologic examination to confirm a diagnosis, although falsenegative and falsepositive findings are possibilities. A breast self-examination, if done regularly, is the most reliable method for detecting breast lumps early, but is not diagnostic of cancer. Mammography is used to detect tumors that are too small to palpate. Chest x-rays can be used to pinpoint rib metastasis. Neither test is considered diagnostic of breast cancer, however.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had a radical mastectomy and axillary node dissection. When providing patient education regarding rehabilitation, what should the nurse recommend? A) Avoid exercise of the arm for next 2 months. B) Keep cuticles clipped neatly. C) Avoid lifting objects heavier than 10 pounds. D) Use a sling until healing is complete.

C Following an axillary dissection, the patient should avoid lifting objects greater than 5 to 10 pounds, cutting the cuticles, and undergoing venipuncture on the affected side. Exercises of the hand and arm are encouraged and the use of a sling is not necessary.

A couple with a diagnosis of ovarian failure discusses their infertility options with their physician. The nurse should recognize which of the following as the treatment of choice for a patient with ovarian failure? Test Bank - Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 14e (Hinkle 2017) 1068 A) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection B) Artificial insemination C) Gamete intrafallopian transfer D) In vitro fertilization

C Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), a variation of IVF, is the treatment of choice for patients with ovarian failure. In intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI), an ovum is retrieved as described previously, and a single sperm is injected through the zona pellucida, through the egg membrane, and into the cytoplasm of the oocyte. The fertilized egg is then transferred back to the donor. ICSI is the treatment of choice in severe male factor infertility. IVF involves ovarian stimulation, egg retrieval, fertilization, and embryo transfer. Artificial insemination is the deposit of semen into the female genital tract by artificial means.

A 51-year-old woman is experiencing perimenopausal symptoms and expresses confusion around the possible use of hormone therapy (HT). She explains that her mother and aunts used HT and she is unsure why few of her peers have been prescribed this treatment. What should the nurse explain to the patient? A) Large, long-term health studies have revealed that HT is minimally effective. B) HT has been largely replaced by other nonpharmacologic interventions. C) Research has shown that significant health risks are associated with HT. D) HT has been shown to exacerbate symptoms of menopause in a minority of women.

C HT is effective, but has been associated with serious adverse effects. However, it does not exacerbate the symptoms of menopause. Nonpharmacologic interventions that address perimenopausal symptoms have not yet been identified

When reviewing the electronic health record of a female patient, the nurse reads that the patient has a history of adenomyosis. The nurse should be aware that this patient experiences symptoms resulting from what pathophysiologic process? A) Loss of muscle tone in the vaginal wall B) Excessive synthesis and release of unopposed estrogen C) Invasion of the uterine wall by endometrial tissue D) Proliferation of tumors in the uterine wall

C In adenomyosis, the tissue that lines the endometrium invades the uterine wall. This disease is not characterized by loss of muscle tone, the presence of tumors, or excessive estrogen

The nurse is planning health education for a patient who has experienced a vaginal infection. What guidelines should the nurse include in this program regarding prevention? A) Wear tight-fitting synthetic underwear. B) Use bubble bath to eradicate perineal bacteria. C) Avoid feminine hygiene products, such as sprays. D) Restrict daily bathing.

C Instead of tight-fitting synthetic, nonabsorbent, heat-retaining underwear, cotton underwear is recommended to prevent vaginal infections. Douching is generally discouraged, as is the use of feminine hygiene products. Daily bathing is not restricted.

A patient has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the patients hormone imbalance and infertility? A) Kegel exercises B) Increased fluid intake C) Weight loss D) Topical antibiotics as ordered

C Lifestyle modification is critical in the treatment of PCOS, and weight management is part of the treatment plan. As little as a weight loss of 5% of total body weight can help with hormone imbalance and infertility. Antibiotics are irrelevant, as PCOS does not have an infectious etiology. Fluid intake and Kegel exercises do not influence the course of the disease.

A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer? A) Use of oral contraceptives increases the risk of ovarian cancer. B) Most cases of ovarian cancer are attributed to tobacco use. C) Most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. D) The majority of women who get ovarian cancer have a family history of the disease.

C Most cases of ovarian cancer are random, with only 5% to 10% of ovarian cancers having a familial connection. Contraceptives and tobacco have not been identified as major risk factors.

A 27-year-old patient tells the nurse that she would like a prescription for oral contraceptives to control her premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMD-D) symptoms. Which patient information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Bilateral breast tenderness b. Frequent abdominal bloating c. History of migraine headaches d. Previous spontaneous abortion

C Oral contraceptives are contraindicated in patients with a history of migraine headaches. The other patient information would not prevent the patient from receiving oral contraceptives.

An 18-year-old requests a prescription for birth control pills to control severe abdominal cramping and headaches during her menstrual periods. Which should the nurse take first? a. Determine whether the patient is sexually active. b. Teach about the side effects of oral contraceptives. c. Take a personal and family health history from the patient. d. Suggest nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for relief.

C Oral contraceptives may be appropriate to control this patient's symptoms, but the patient's health history may indicate contraindications to oral contraceptive use. Because the patient is requesting contraceptives for management of dysmenorrhea, whether she is sexually active is irrelevant. Because the patient is asking for birth control pills, responding that she should try NSAIDs is nontherapeutic. The patient does not need teaching about oral contraceptive side effects at this time.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a 40-year-old man who has been admitted for outpatient surgery on his right knee. While taking the patients family history, he states, My father died of prostate cancer at age 48. The nurse should instruct him on which of the following health promotion activities? A) The patient will need PSA levels drawn starting at age 55. B) The patient should have testing for presence of the CDH1 and STK11 genes. C) The patient should have PSA levels drawn regularly. D) The patient should limit alcohol use due to the risk of malignancy.

C PSA screening is warranted by the patients family history and should not be delayed until age 55. The CDH1 and STK11 genes do not relate to the risk for prostate cancer. Alcohol consumption by the patient should be limited. However, this is not the most important health promotion intervention.

During a recent visit to the clinic a woman presents with erythema of the nipple and areola on the right breast. She states this started several weeks ago and she was fearful of what would be found. The nurse should promptly refer the patient to her primary care provider because the patients signs and symptoms are suggestive of what health problem? A) Peau dorange B) Nipple inversion C) Pagets disease D) Acute mastitis

C Pagets disease presents with erythema of the nipple and areola. Peau dorange, which is associated with breast cancer, is caused by interference with lymphatic drainage, but does not cause these specific signs. Nipple inversion is considered normal if long-standing; if it is associated with fibrosis and is a recent development, malignancy is suspected. Acute mastitis is associated with lactation, but it may occur at any age.

Which patient in the women's health clinic will the nurse expect to teach about an endometrial biopsy? a. The 55-year-old patient who has 3 to 4 alcoholic drinks each day b. The 35-year-old patient who has used oral contraceptives for 15 years c. The 25-year-old patient who has a family history of hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer d. The 45-year-old patient who has had 6 full-term pregnancies and 2 spontaneous abortions

C Patients with a personal or familial history of hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer are at increased risk for endometrial cancer. Alcohol addiction does not increase this risk. Multiple pregnancies and oral contraceptive use offer protection from endometrial cancer.

Which action should the nurse take when a 35-year-old patient has a result of minor cellular changes on her Pap test? a. Teach the patient about colposcopy. b. Teach the patient about punch biopsy. c. Schedule another Pap test in 4 months. d. Administer the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine.

C Patients with minor changes on the Pap test can be followed with Pap tests every 4 to 6 months because these changes may revert to normal. Punch biopsy or colposcopy may be used if the Pap test shows more prominent changes. The HPV vaccine may reduce the risk for cervical cancer, but it is recommended only for ages 9 through 26.

A nurse practitioner is assessing a 55-year-old male patient who is complaining of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, and frequency with urination. The patient states that he has pain with ejaculation. The nurse knows that the patient is exhibiting symptoms of what? A) Varicocele B) Epididymitis C) Prostatitis D) Hydrocele

C Perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, frequency with urination, and pain with ejaculation is indicative of prostatitis. A varicocele is an abnormal dilation of the pampiniform venous plexus and the internal spermatic vein in the scrotum (the network of veins from the testis and the epididymis that constitute part of the spermatic cord). Epididymitis is an infection of the epididymis that usually descends from an infected prostate or urinary tract; it also may develop as a complication of gonorrhea. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid, generally in the tunica vaginalis of the testis, although it also may collect within the spermatic cord.

An uncircumcised 78-year-old male has presented at the clinic complaining that he cannot retract his foreskin over his glans. On examination, it is noted that the foreskin is very constricted. The nurse should recognize the presence of what health problem? A) Bowens disease B) Peyronies disease C) Phimosis D) Priapism

C Phimosis is the term used to describe a condition in which the foreskin is constricted so that it cannot be retracted over the glans. Bowens disease is an in situ carcinoma of the penis. Peyronies disease is an acquired, benign condition that involves the buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum. Priapism is an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis from either neural or vascular causes, including medications, sickle cell thrombosis, leukemic cell infiltration, spinal cord tumors, and tumor invasion of the penis or its vessels.

A 45-year-old woman has just undergone a radical hysterectomy for invasive cervical cancer. Prior to the surgery the physician explained to the patient that after the surgery a source of radiation would be placed near the tumor site to aid in reducing recurrence. What is the placement of the source of radiation called? A) Internal beam radiation B) Trachelectomy C) Brachytherapy D) External radiation

C Radiation, which is often part of the treatment to reduce recurrent disease, may be delivered by an external beam or by brachytherapy (method by which the radiation source is placed near the tumor) or both.

A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what? A) A normal finding B) A sign of early prostate cancer C) Evidence of a more advanced lesion D) Metastatic disease

C Routine repeated DRE (preferably by the same examiner) is important, because early cancer may be detected as a nodule within the gland or as an extensive hardening in the posterior lobe. The more advanced lesion is stony hard and fixed. This finding is not suggestive of metastatic disease.

A student nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a wide excision of the vulva. The student should know that what action is contraindicated in the immediate postoperative period? A) Placing patient in low Fowlers position B) Application of compression stockings C) Ambulation to a chair D) Provision of a low-residue diet

C Sitting in a chair would not be recommended immediately in the postoperative period. This would place too much tension on the incision site. A low Fowlers position or, occasionally, a pillow placed under the knees, will reduce pain by relieving tension on the incision. Application of compression stocking would prevent a deep vein thrombosis from occurring. A low-residue diet would be ordered to prevent straining on defecation and wound contamination.

A 49-year-old man who has type 2 diabetes, high blood pressure, hyperlipidemia, and gastroesophageal reflux tells the nurse that he has had recent difficulty in achieving an erection. Which of the following drugs from his current medications list may cause erectile dysfunction (ED)? a. Ranitidine (Zantac) b. Atorvastatin (Lipitor) c. Propranolol (Inderal) d. Metformin (Glucophage)

C Some antihypertensives may cause erectile dysfunction, and the nurse should anticipate a change in antihypertensive therapy. The other medications will not affect erectile function.

When obtaining the pertinent health history for a man who is being evaluated for infertility, which question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. "Are you circumcised?" b. "Have you had surgery for phimosis?" c. "Do you use medications to improve muscle mass?" d. "Is there a history of prostate cancer in your family?"

C Testosterone or testosterone-like medications may adversely affect sperm count. The other information will be obtained in the health history but does not affect the patient's fertility.

A nursing student is learning how to perform sexual assessments using the PLISSIT model. According to this model, the student should begin an assessment by doing which of the following? A) Briefly teaching the patient about normal sexual physiology B) Assuring the patient that what he says will be confidential C) Asking the patient if he is willing to discuss sexual functioning D) Ensuring patient privacy

C The PLISSIT (permission, limited information, specific suggestions, intensive therapy) model of sexual assessment and intervention may be used to provide a framework for nursing interventions. By beginning with the patients permission, the nurse establishes a patient-centered focus.

The nurse is utilizing the PLISSIT model of sexual health assessment during an interaction with a new patient. According to this model, the nurse should begin with what action? A) Conducting a preliminary assessment B) Addressing the patients psychosocial status C) Asking the patients permission to discuss sexuality D) Assessing for physiologic problems

C The PLISSIT model of sexual assessment begins with permission and subsequently includes limited information, specific suggestions, and intensive therapy.

The nurse is caring for a 20-year-old patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) requiring hospitalization. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Monitor liver function tests. b. Use cold packs PRN for pelvic pain. c. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees. d. Teach the patient how to perform Kegel exercises.

C The head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees to promote drainage of the pelvic cavity and prevent abscess formation higher in the abdomen. Although a possible complication of PID is acute perihepatitis, liver function tests will remain normal. There is no indication for increased fluid intake. Application of heat is used to reduce pain. Kegel exercises are not helpful in PID.

A 47-year-old woman asks whether she is going into menopause if she has not had a menstrual period for 3 months. The best response by the nurse is which of the following? a. "Have you thought about using hormone replacement therapy?" b. "Most women feel a little depressed about entering menopause." c. "What was your menstrual pattern before your periods stopped?" d. "Since you are in your mid-40s, it is likely that you are menopausal."

C The initial response by the nurse should be to assess the patient's baseline menstrual pattern. Although many women do enter menopause in the mid-40s, more information about this patient is needed before telling her that it is likely she is menopausal. Although hormone therapy (HT) may be prescribed, further assessment of the patient is needed before discussing therapies for menopause. Because the response to menopause is very individual, the nurse should not assume that the patient is experiencing any adverse emotional reactions.

A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what? A) Urinary tract infection B) Chronic pain C) Permanent vascular damage D) Future erectile dysfunction

C The ischemic form of priapism, which is described as nonsexual, persistent erection with little or no cavernous blood flow, must be treated promptly to prevent permanent damage to the penis. Priapism has not been indicated in the development of UTIs, chronic pain, or erectile dysfunction.

A woman scheduled for a simple mastectomy in one week is having her preoperative education provided by the clinic nurse. What educational intervention will be of primary importance to prevent hemorrhage in the postoperative period? A) Limit her intake of green leafy vegetables. B) Increase her water intake to 8 glasses per day. C) Stop taking aspirin. D) Have nothing by mouth for 6 hours before surgery.

C The nurse should instruct the patient to stop taking aspirin due to its anticoagulant effect. Limiting green leafy vegetables will decrease vitamin K and marginally increase bleeding. Increasing fluid intake or being NPO before surgery will have no effect on bleeding.

When planning discharge teaching with a patient who has undergone a total mastectomy with axillary dissection, the nurse knows to instruct the patient that she should report what sign or symptom to the physician immediately? A) Fatigue B) Temperature greater than 98.5F C) Sudden cessation of output from the drainage device D) Gradual decline in output from the drain

C The patient should report sudden cessation of output from the drainage device, which could indicate an occlusion. Gradual decline in output is expected. A temperature of 100.4F or greater should also be reported to rule out postoperative infection, but a temperature of 98.5F is not problematic. Fatigue is expected during the recovery period.

A patient is being discharged home after a hysterectomy. When providing discharge education for this patient, the nurse has cautioned the patient against sitting for long periods. This advice addresses the patients risk of what surgical complication? A) Pudendal nerve damage B) Fatigue C) Venous thromboembolism D) Hemorrhage

C The patient should resume activities gradually. This does not mean sitting for long periods, because doing so may cause blood to pool in the pelvis, increasing the risk of thromboembolism. Sitting for long periods after a hysterectomy does not cause postoperative nerve damage; it does not increase the fatigue factor after surgery or the risk of hemorrhage.

A nursing diagnosis that is likely to be appropriate for a 67-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with stage III ovarian cancer is a. sexual dysfunction related to loss of vaginal sensation. b. risk for infection related to impaired immune function. c. anxiety related to cancer diagnosis and need for treatment decisions. d. situational low self-esteem related to guilt about delaying medical care.

C The patient with stage III ovarian cancer is likely to be anxious about the poor prognosis and about the need to make decisions about the multiple treatments that may be used. Decreased vaginal sensation does not occur with ovarian cancer. The patient may develop immune dysfunction when she receives chemotherapy, but she is not currently at risk. It is unlikely that the patient has delayed seeking medical care because the symptoms of ovarian cancer are vague and occur late in the course of the cancer.

The nurse has just received change-of-shift report about the following four patients. Which patient should be assessed first? a. A patient with a cervical radium implant in place who is crying in her room b. A patient who is complaining of 5/10 pain after an abdominal hysterectomy c. A patient with a possible ectopic pregnancy who is complaining of shoulder pain d. A patient in the fifteenth week of gestation who has uterine cramping and spotting

C The patient with the ectopic pregnancy has symptoms consistent with rupture and needs immediate assessment for signs of hemorrhage and possible transfer to surgery. The other patients should also be assessed as quickly as possible but do not have symptoms of life-threatening complications.

A female patient tells the nurse that she has been having nightmares and acute anxiety around men since being sexually assaulted 3 months ago. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. anxiety related to effects of being raped. b. sleep deprivation related to frightening dreams. c. rape-trauma syndrome related to rape experience. d. ineffective coping related to inability to resolve incident.

C The patient's symptoms are most consistent with the nursing diagnosis of rape-trauma syndrome. The nursing diagnoses of sleep deprivation, ineffective coping, and anxiety address some aspects of the patient's symptoms but do not address the problem as completely as the rape-trauma syndrome diagnosis.

The nurse leading an educational session is describing self-examination of the breast. The nurse tells the womens group to raise their arms and inspect their breasts in a mirror. A member of the womens group asks the nurse why raising her arms is necessary. What is the nurses best response? A) It helps to spread out the fat that makes up your breast. B) It allows you to simultaneously assess for pain. C) It will help to observe for dimpling more closely. D) This is what the American Cancer Society recommends.

C The primary reason for raising the arms is to detect any dimpling. To elicit skin dimpling or retraction that may otherwise go undetected, the examiner instructs the patient to raise both arms overhead. Citing American Cancer Society recommendations does not address the womans question. The purpose of raising the arms is not to elicit pain or to redistribute adipose tissue.

The nurse in the infertility clinic is explaining in vitro fertilization (IVF) to a couple. The woman tells the nurse that they cannot afford IVF on her husband's salary. The man replies that if his wife worked outside the home, they would have enough money. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate? a. Decisional conflict related to inadequate financial resources b. Ineffective sexuality patterns related to psychological stress c. Defensive coping related to anxiety about lack of conception d. Ineffective denial related to frustration about continued infertility

C The statements made by the couple are consistent with the diagnosis of defensive coping. No data indicate that ineffective sexuality and ineffective denial are problems. Although the couple is quarreling about finances, the data do not provide information indicating that the finances are inadequate

The school nurse is presenting a class on female reproductive health. The nurse should describe what aspect of Pap smears?A) The test may be performed at any time during the patients menstrual cycle. B) The smear should be done every 2 years. C) The test can detect early evidence of cervical cancer. D) Falsepositive Pap smear results occur mostly from not douching before the examination.

C The test should be performed when the patient is not menstruating. Douching washes away cellular material. The test detects cervical cancer, and falsenegative Pap smear results occur mostly from sampling errors or improper technique. For most women, a Pap smear should be done annually.

Which statement by a 24-year-old patient indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of primary genital herpes has been effective? a. "I will use acyclovir ointment on the area to relieve the pain." b. "I will use condoms for intercourse until the medication is all gone." c. "I will take the acyclovir (Zovirax) every 8 hours for the next week." d. "I will need to take all of the medication to be sure the infection is cured."

C The treatment regimen for primary genital herpes infections includes acyclovir 400 mg 3 times daily for 7 to 10 days. The patient is taught to abstain from intercourse until the lesions are gone. (Condoms should be used even when the patient is asymptomatic.) Acyclovir ointment is not effective in treating lesions or reducing pain. Herpes infection is chronic and recurrent.

A patient in her late fifties has expressed to the nurse her desire to explore hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Based on what aspect of the patients health history is HRT contraindicated? A) History of vaginal dryness B) History of hot flashes and night sweats C) History of vascular thrombosis D) Family history of osteoporosis

C The use of HRT is contraindicated in women with a history of vascular thrombosis, active liver disease, some cases of uterine cancer, and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. HRT is beneficial in women with a risk for osteoporosis. Vaginal dryness, hot flashes, and night sweats are symptoms of menopause that may be relieved with HRT.

After the nurse has taught a patient with a newly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection about expedited partner therapy, which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will tell my partner that it is important to be examined at the clinic." b. "I will have my partner take the antibiotics if any STI symptoms occur." c. "I will make sure that my partner takes all of the prescribed medication." d. "I will have my partner use a condom until I have finished the antibiotics."

C With expedited partner therapy, the patient is given a prescription or medications for the partner. The partner does not need to be evaluated by the health care provider, but is presumed to be infected and should be treated concurrently with the patient. Use of a condom will not treat the presumed STI in the partner.

The nurse is assessing a patient who believes that she has recently begun menopause. What principle should inform the nurses interactions with this patient? A) The nurse should express empathy for the patients difficult health situation. B) The nurse should begin by assuring the patient that her health will be much better in a few years. C) The nurse must carefully assess the patients feelings and beliefs surrounding menopause. D) The nurse should encourage the patient to celebrate this life milestone and its accompanying benefits.

C Women have widely varying views on menopause and the nurse must ascertain these. It is wrong to presume either a positive or negative view of this transition without first performing assessment.

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about vaccines used to prevent STIs. The students would expect to find information about which of the following? A) HIV B) HSV C) HPV D) HAV E) HBV

C, D, E

A nurse is preparing a class for a group of young adult women about emergency contraceptives (ECs). Which of the following would the nurse need to stress to the group. Select all that apply. A) ECs induce an abortion like reaction. B) ECs provide some protection against STIs C) ECs are birth control pills in higher, more frequent doses D) ECs are not to be used in place of regular birth control E) ECs provide little protection for future pregnancies

C, D, E

Which of the following are considered internal female genitalia? Select all that apply. A) mons pubis B) labia majora C) ovaries D) uterus E) fallopian tubes F) clitoris

C, D, E

A 48-year-old woman presenting for care is seeking information about hormone therapy (HT) for the treatment of her perimenopausal symptoms. The patients need for relief from hot flashes and other symptoms will be weighed carefully against the increased risks of what complications of HT? Select all that apply. A) Anaphylaxis B) Osteoporosis C) Breast cancer D) Cardiovascular disease E) Venous thromboembolism

C, D, E Although HT decreases hot flashes and reduces the risk of osteoporotic fractures as well as colorectal cancer, studies have shown that it increases the risk of breast cancer, heart attack, stroke, and blood clots. There is no significant risk of anaphylaxis.

10. The nurse is creating a diagram that illustrates the components of the male reproductive system. Which structure would be inappropriate for the nurse to include as an accessory gland? A) Seminal vesicles B) Prostate gland C) Cowper's glands D) Vas deferens

D

12. A woman comes to the clinic complaining that she has little sexual desire. As part of the client's evaluation, the nurse would anticipate the need to evaluate which hormone level? A) Progesterone B) Estrogen C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) Testosterone

D

5. After teaching a group of pregnant women about breast-feeding, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which hormone as important for the production of breast milk after childbirth? A) Placental estrogen B) Progesterone C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) Prolactin

D

8. The nurse is explaining the events that lead up to ovulation. Which hormone would the nurse identify as being primarily responsible for ovulation? A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Follicle-stimulating hormone D) Luteinizing hormone

D

A 15-year-old male patient is experiencing nocturnal emissions. What nursing intervention would be appropriate for this patient? A) Ask the parents to consult with a specialist. B) Tell the patient to limit physical activity in the evening. C) Ask the primary care provider to perform a physical examination. D) No intervention is necessary as this is a normal phenomenon.

D

A client who has come to the clinic is diagnosed with endometriosis. Which of the following would the nurse expect the physician to prescribe as a first-line treatment? A) Progestins B) Antiestrogens C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogues D) NSAIDs

D

A group of students are preparing a class presentation about polyps. Which of the following would the students most likely include in the presentation? A) Polyps are rarely the result of an infection. B) Endocervical polyps commonly appear after menarche. C) Cervical polyps are more common than endocervical polyps. D) Endocervical polyps are most common in women in their 50s.

D

A nurse is assessing a female client and suspects that the client may have endometrial polyps based on which of the following? A) Bleeding after intercourse B) Vaginal discharge C) Bleeding between menses D) Metrorrhagia

D

A nurse is conducting a health history for a woman at a local clinic. The woman tells the nurse, I feel like I am a man trapped in this woman's body. What term is given to this feeling? A) heterosexual B) homosexual C) bisexual D) transsexual

D

A nurse is explaining the use of an IUD to a female patient interested in obtaining contraception. Which of the following statements regarding the IUD is correct? A) The intrauterine device (IUD) is an object that is placed by the patient within the uterus to prevent implantation of a fertilized ovum. B) IUDs are small devices made of flexible plastic that provide irreversible birth control. C) IUDs do not prevent fertilization of the egg. D) IUDs seem to affect the way the sperm or egg moves.

D

A postmenopausal woman with uterine prolapse is being fitted with a pessary. The nurse would be most alert for which side effect? A) Increased vaginal discharge B) Urinary tract infection C) Vaginitis D) Vaginal ulceration

D

A school nurse is concerned about the almost skeletal appearance of one of the high school students. Although all of the following nutritional problems can occur in adolescents, which one is most often associated with a negative self-concept? A) eating fast foods B) obesity C) fad dieting D) anorexia nervosa

D

A woman gives birth to a healthy newborn. As part of the newborn's care, the nurse instills erythromycin ophthalmic ointment as a preventive measure related to which STI? A) Genital herpes B) Hepatitis B C) Syphilis D) Gonorrhea

D

A woman is admitted for repair of cystocele and rectocele. She has nine living children. In taking her health history, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? A) Sporadic vaginal bleeding accompanied by chronic pelvic pain B) Heavy leukorrhea with vulvar pruritus C) Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism on the chin D) Stress incontinence with feeling of low abdominal pressure

D

A woman is being evaluated for pelvic organ prolapse. A postvoid residual urine specimen is obtained via a catheter. Which residual volume finding would lead the nurse to suspect the need for further testing? A) 50 mL B) 75 mL C) 100 mL D) 120 mL

D

A woman tells a nurse, My husband wants to have sex when I have my period. Is that safe? What is an appropriate answer? A) No, the flow of blood could be slowed down. B) No, it will tend to make your cramps worse. C) Yes, but be sure to douche after sex. D) Yes, there is no reason not to have sex then.

D

A young woman has been diagnosed with human papilloma virus (HPV). As a result, she will be at increased risk for which of the following? A) infertility B) genital warts C) vaginal bleeding D) cervical cancer

D

After teaching a group of students about pelvic organ prolapse, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies leiomyomas as which of the following? A) Cysts B) Pelvic organ prolapse C) Fistula D) Fibroid

D

After teaching a group of students about premenstrual syndrome, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which of the following as a prominent assessment finding? A) Bloating B) Tension C) Dysphoria D) Weight loss

D

After teaching a local woman's group about incontinence, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which of the following as characteristic of stress incontinence? A) Feeling a strong need to void B) Passing a large amount of urine C) Most common in women after childbirth D) Sneezing may be an initiating stimulus

D

An adolescent male tells the nurse that he is afraid his penis will be damaged because he masturbates every day. The nurse's response is based on what knowledge? A) Masturbation is not a normal activity. B) Only adult men masturbate. C) Masturbation may delay puberty. D) Self-stimulation is a normal activity.

D

The nurse reviews the CD4 cell count of a client who is HIV-positive. A result less than which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client has AIDS? A) 1,000 cells/mm3 B) 700 cells/mm3 C) 450 cells/mm3 D) 200 cells/mm3

D

When developing a teaching plan for a couple considering contraception options, which of the following statements would the nurse include? A) "You should select one that is considered to be 100% effective." B) "The best one is the one that is the least expensive and most convenient." C) "A good contraceptive doesn't require a physician's prescription." D) "The best contraceptive is one that you will use correctly and consistently."

D

When discussing contraceptive options, which method would the nurse recommend as being the most reliable? A) Coitus interruptus B) Lactational amenorrheal method (LAM) C) Natural family planning D) Intrauterine system

D

Which instructions would the nurse include when teaching a woman with pediculosis pubis? A) "Take the antibiotic until you feel better." B) "Wash your bed linens in bleach and cold water." C) "Your partner doesn't need treatment at this time." D) "Remove the nits with a fine-toothed comb."

D

Which of the following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan for a woman to reduce the risk of osteoporosis after menopause? A) Taking vitamin supplements B) Eating high-fiber, high-calorie foods C) Restricting fluid to 1,000 mL daily D) Participating in regular daily exercise

D

Which of the following occurs in the male during the resolution phase of the sexual response cycle? A) The penis becomes erect due to increased pelvic congestion of blood. B) Involuntary spasmodic contractions occur in the penis. C) The male orgasm occurs usually with ejaculation of semen from the penis. D) The male experiences a period during which he is incapable of sexual response.

D

Which of the following would the nurse emphasize when teaching postmenopausal women about ways to reduce the risk of osteoporosis? A) Swimming daily B) Taking vitamin A C) Following a low-fat diet D) Taking calcium supplements

D

The nurse notes that a patient has a history of fibroids and is aware that this term refers to a benign tumor of the uterus. What is a more appropriate term for a fibroid? A) Bartholins cyst B) Dermoid cyst C) Hydatidiform mole D) Leiomyoma

D A leiomyoma is a usually benign tumor of the uterus, commonly referred to as a fibroid. A Bartholins cyst is a cyst in a paired vestibular band in the vulva, whereas a dermoid cyst is a benign tumor that is thought to arise from parts of the ovum and normally disappears with maturation. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational neoplasm.

A 25-year-old patient diagnosed with invasive cervical cancer expresses a desire to have children. What procedure might the physician offer as treatment? A) Radical hysterectomy B) Radical culposcopy C) Radical trabeculectomy D) Radical trachelectomy

D A procedure called a radical trachelectomy is an alternative to hysterectomy in women with invasive cervical cancer who are young and want to have children. In this procedure, the cervix is gripped with retractors and pulled down into the vagina until it is visible. The affected tissue is excised while the rest of the cervix and uterus remain intact. A drawstring suture is used to close the cervix. For a woman who wants to have children, a radical hysterectomy would not provide the option of children. A radical culposcopy and a radical trabeculectomy are simple distracters for this question.

A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection? A) Clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin) B) Metronidazole (Flagyl) C) Podophyllin (Podofin) D) Acyclovir (Zovirax)

D Acyclovir (Zovirax) is an antiviral agent that can suppress the symptoms of genital herpes and shorten the course of the infection. It is effective at reducing the duration of lesions and preventing recurrences. Clotrimazole is used in the treatment of yeast infections. Metronidazole is the most effective treatment for trichomoniasis. Posophyllin is used to treat external genital warts. Acyclovir is used in the treatment of genital herpes

A patient has returned to the floor after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The patient has a continuous bladder irrigation system in place. The patient tells you he is experiencing bladder spasms and asks what you can do to relieve his discomfort. What is the most appropriate nursing action to relieve the discomfort of the patient? A) Apply a cold compress to the pubic area. B) Notify the urologist promptly. C) Irrigate the catheter with 30 to 50 mL of normal saline as ordered. D) Administer a smooth-muscle relaxant as ordered.

D Administering a medication that relaxes smooth muscles can help relieve bladder spasms. Neither a cold compress nor catheter irrigation will alleviate bladder spasms. In most cases, this problem can be relieved without the involvement of the urologist, who will normally order medications on a PRN basis.

A 44-year-old patient in the sexually transmitted infection clinic has a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test, but no chancre is visible on assessment. The nurse will plan to send specimens for a. gram stain. b. cytologic studies. c. rapid plasma reagin (RPR) agglutination. d. fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-Abs).

D Because false positives are common with VDRL and RPR testing, FTA-Abs testing is recommended to confirm a diagnosis of syphilis. Gram staining is used for other sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as gonorrhea and Chlamydia and cytologic studies are used to detect abnormal cells (such as neoplastic cells).

A student nurse is doing clinical hours at an OB/GYN clinic. The student is helping to develop a plan of care for a patient with gonorrhea who has presented at the clinic. The student should include which of the following in the care plan for this patient? A) The patient may benefit from oral contraceptives. B) The patient must avoid use of tampons. C) The patient is susceptible to urinary incontinence. D) The patient should also be treated for chlamydia

D Because of the high incidence of coinfection with chlamydia and gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for chlamydia. Avoiding the use of tampons is part of the self-care management of a patient with possible toxic shock syndrome (TSS). The patient is not susceptible to incontinence and there is no indication for the use of oral contraceptives.

The nurse notes that a patient who has a large cystocele, admitted 10 hours ago, has not yet voided. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Insert a straight catheter per the PRN order. b. Encourage the patient to increase oral fluids. c. Notify the health care provider of the inability to void. d. Use an ultrasound scanner to check for urinary retention.

D Because urinary retention is common with a large cystocele, the nurse's first action should be to use an ultrasound bladder scanner to check for the presence of urine in the bladder. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the findings with the bladder scanner.

A patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is scheduled for brachytherapy next week. The patient and his wife are unsure of having the procedure because their daughter is 3 months pregnant. What is the most appropriate teaching the nurse should provide to this family? A) The patient should not be in contact with the baby after delivery. B) The patients treatment poses no risk to his daughter or her infant. C) The patients brachytherapy may be contraindicated for safety reasons. D) The patient should avoid close contact with his daughter for 2 months.

D Brachytherapy involves the implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia. The surgeon uses ultrasound guidance to place about 80 to 100 seeds, and the patient returns home after the procedure. Exposure of others to radiation is minimal, but the patient should avoid close contact with pregnant women and infants for up to 2 months.

A 35-year-old mother of three young children has been diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. After discussing treatment options with her physician, the woman goes home to talk to her husband, later calling the nurse for clarification of some points. The patient tells the nurse that the physician has recommended breast conservation surgery followed by radiation. The patients husband has done some online research and is asking why his wife does not have a modified radical mastectomy to be sure all the cancer is gone. What would be the nurses best response? A) Modified radical mastectomies are very hard on a patient, both physically and emotionally and they really arent necessary anymore. B) According to current guidelines, having a modified radical mastectomy is no longer seen as beneficial. C) Modified radical mastectomies have a poor survival rate because of the risk of cancer recurrence. D) According to current guidelines, breast conservation combined with radiation is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy.

D Breast conservation along with radiation therapy in stage I and stage II breast cancer results in a survival rate equal to that of modified radical mastectomy. Mastectomies are still necessary in many cases, but are not associated with particular risk of recurrence.

A community health nurse is leading a health education session addressing menopause and other aspects of womens health. What dietary supplements should the nurse recommend to prevent morbidity associated with osteoporotic fractures? A) Vitamin B12 and vitamin C B) Vitamin A and potassium C) Vitamin B6 and phosphorus D) Calcium and vitamin D

D Calcium and vitamin D supplementation may be helpful in reducing bone loss and preventing the morbidity associated with osteoporotic fractures. Phosphorus, potassium, vitamin B12, vitamin C, and vitamin B6 do not address this risk.

A 31-year-old patient has just been instructed in the treatment for a Chlamydia trachomatis vaginal infection. Which patient statement indicates that the nurse's teaching has been effective? a. "I can purchase an over-the-counter medication to treat this infection." b. "The symptoms are due to the overgrowth of normal vaginal bacteria." c. "The medication will need to be inserted once daily with an applicator." d. "Both my partner and I will need to take the medication for a full week."

D Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection that requires treatment of both partners with antibiotics for 7 days. The other statements are true for the treatment of Candida albicans infection

The nurse explains to a 37-year-old patient being prepared for colposcopy with a cervical biopsy that the procedure a. involves dilation of the cervix and biopsy of the tissue lining the uterus. b. will take place in a same-day surgery center so that local anesthesia can be used. c. requires that the patient have nothing to eat or drink for 6 hours before the procedure. d. is similar to a speculum examination of the cervix and should result in little discomfort.

D Colposcopy involves visualization of the cervix with a binocular microscope and is similar to a speculum examination. Anesthesia is not required and fasting is not necessary. A cervical biopsy may cause a minimal amount of pain.

A woman is considering breast reduction mammoplasty. When weighing the potential risks and benefits of this surgical procedure, the nurse should confirm that the patient is aware of what potential consequence? A) Chronic breast pain B) Unclear mammography results C) Increased risk of breast cancer D) Decreased nipple sensation

D During the preoperative consultation, the patient should be informed of a possibility that sensory changes of the nipple (e.g., numbness) may occur. There is no consequent increase in breast cancer risk and it does not affect future mammography results. Chronic pain is not an expected complication.

A nurse is planning the postoperative care of a patient who is scheduled for radical prostatectomy. What intraoperative position will place the patient at particular risk for the development of deep vein thrombosis postoperatively? A) Fowlers position B) Prone position C) Supine position D) Lithotomy position

D Elastic compression stockings are applied before surgery and are particularly important for prevention of deep vein thrombosis if the patient is placed in a lithotomy position during surgery. During a prostatectomy, the patient is not placed in the supine, prone, or Fowlers position.

A 51-year-old woman has come to the OB/GYN clinic for her annual physical. She tells the nurse that she has been experiencing severe hot flashes, but that she is reluctant to begin hormone therapy (HT). What potential solution should the nurse discuss with the patient? A) Sodium restriction B) Adopting a vegan diet C) Massage therapy D) Vitamin supplements

D For some women, vitamins B6 and E have proven beneficial for the treatment of hot flashes. Sodium restriction, vegan diet, and massage have not been noted to relieve this symptom of perimenopause.

A woman calls the clinic and tells the nurse she has had bloody drainage from her right nipple. The nurse makes an appointment for this patient, expecting the physician or practitioner to order what diagnostic test on this patient? A) Breast ultrasound B) Radiography C) Positron emission testing (PET) D) Galactography

D Galactography is a diagnostic procedure that involves injection of less than 1 mL of radiopaque material through a cannula inserted into the ductal opening on the areola, which is followed by mammography. It is performed to evaluate an abnormality within the duct when the patient has bloody nipple discharge on expression, spontaneous nipple discharge, or a solitary dilated duct noted on mammography. X-ray, PET, and ultrasound are not typically used for this purpose.

A nurse has assessed that a patient is not yet willing to view her mastectomy site. How should the nurse best assist the patient is developing a positive body image? A) Ask the woman to describe the current appearance of her breast. B) Help the patient to understand that many women have gone through the same unpleasant experience. C) Explain to the patient that her body image does not have to depend on her physical appearance. D) Provide the patient with encouragement in an empathic and thoughtful manner.

D Gentle encouragement can help the patient progress toward accepting the change in her appearance. The nurse should not downplay the significance of physical appearance. Explaining that others have had similar experiences may or may not benefit the patient. Asking the patient to describe the appearance of her breast is likely to exacerbate the womans reluctance to do so.

A patient has herpes simplex 2 viral infection (HSV2). The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient? A) The virus causes cold sores of the lips. B) The virus may be cured with antibiotics. C) The virus, when active, may not be contracted during intercourse. D) Treatment is aimed at relieving symptoms.

D HSV-2 causes genital herpes and is known to ascend the peripheral sensory nerves and remain inactive after infection, becoming active in times of stress. The virus is not curable, but treatment is aimed at controlling symptoms. HSV1 causes cold sores, and varicella zoster causes shingles.

A patient has presented at the clinic with symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia. What diagnostic findings would suggest that this patient has chronic urinary retention? A) Hypertension B) Peripheral edema C) Tachycardia and other dysrhythmias D) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

D Hypertension, edema, and tachycardia would not normally be associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Azotemia is an accumulation of nitrogenous waste products, and renal failure can occur with chronic urinary retention and large residual volumes

A 49-year-old woman tells the nurse that she is postmenopausal but has occasional spotting. Which initial response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "A frequent cause of spotting is endometrial cancer." b. "How long has it been since your last menstrual period?" c. "Breakthrough bleeding is not unusual in women your age." d. "Are you using prescription hormone replacement therapy?"

D In postmenopausal women, a common cause of spotting is hormone therapy (HT). Because breakthrough bleeding may be a sign of problems such as cancer or infection, the nurse would not imply that this is normal. The length of time since the last menstrual period is not relevant to the patient's symptoms. Although endometrial cancer may cause spotting, this information is not appropriate as an initial response.

A 32-year-old man who has a profuse, purulent urethral discharge with painful urination is seen at the clinic. Which information will be most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Contraceptive use b. Sexual orientation c. Immunization history d. Recent sexual contacts

D Information about sexual contacts is needed to help establish whether the patient has been exposed to a sexually transmitted infection (STI) and because sexual contacts also will need treatment. The other information also may be gathered but is not as important in determining the plan of care for the patient's current symptoms.

Which information shown in the accompanying figure and obtained by the nurse about a 72-year-old man who is complaining of erectile dysfunction is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Recent knee surgery b. Low position of left testis c. Pulse and blood pressure level d. Use of antihypertensive drugs

D Many medications used for hypertension can cause erectile dysfunction. More information is needed regarding the specific medications. The other assessment data will not impact erectile function (recent knee surgery) or are normal for a 70-year-old man (physical exam data and vital signs).

A 55-year-old woman in the sexually transmitted infection (STI) clinic tells the nurse that she is concerned she may have been exposed to gonorrhea by her partner. To determine whether the patient has gonorrhea, the nurse will plan to a. interview the patient about symptoms of gonorrhea. b. take a sample of cervical discharge for Gram staining. c. draw a blood specimen or rapid plasma reagin (RPR) testing. d. obtain secretions for a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT).

D NAAT has a high sensitivity (similar to a culture) for gonorrhea. Because women have few symptoms of gonorrhea, asking the patient about symptoms may not be helpful in making a diagnosis. Smears and Gram staining are not useful because the female genitourinary tract has many normal flora that resemble N. gonorrhoeae. RPR testing is used to detect syphilis.

A 19-year-old has been diagnosed with primary dysmenorrhea. How will the nurse suggest that the patient prevent discomfort? a. Avoid aerobic exercise during her menstrual period. b. Use cold packs on the abdomen and back for pain relief. c. Talk with her health care provider about beginning antidepressant therapy. d. Take nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) when her period starts.

D NSAIDs should be started as soon as the menstrual period begins and taken at regular intervals during the usual time frame in which pain occurs. Aerobic exercise may help reduce symptoms. Heat therapy, such as warm packs, is recommended for relief of pain. Antidepressant therapy is not a typical treatment for dysmenorrhea.

A patient confides to the nurse that he cannot engage in sexual activity. The patient is 27 years old and has no apparent history of chronic illness that would contribute to erectile dysfunction. What does the nurse know will be ordered for this patient to assess his sexual functioning? A) Sperm count B) Ejaculation capacity tests C) Engorgement tests D) Nocturnal penile tumescence tests

D Nocturnal penile tumescence tests may be conducted in a sleep laboratory to monitor changes in penile circumference during sleep using various methods to determine number, duration, rigidity, and circumference of penile erections; the results help identify whether the erectile dysfunction is caused by physiologic and/or psychological factors. A sperm count would be done if the patient was complaining of infertility. Ejaculation capacity tests and engorgement tests are not applicable for assessment in this circumstance.

The nurse is working with a couple who is being evaluated for infertility. What nursing intervention would be most appropriate for this couples likely needs? A) Educating them about parenting techniques in order to foster hope B) Educating them about the benefits of child-free living C) Choosing the most appropriate reproductive technology D) Referring them to appropriate community resources

D Nursing interventions appropriate when working with couples during infertility evaluations include referring the couple to appropriate resources when necessary. It would likely be considered offensive and insensitive to focus the couple on parenting skills or the benefits of child-free living. Choosing particular reproductive technologies is beyond the nurses scope of practice.

A 28-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome. It is most important for the nurse to teach the patient a. reasons for a total hysterectomy. b. how to decrease facial hair growth. c. ways to reduce the occurrence of acne. d. methods to maintain appropriate weight.

D Obesity exacerbates the problems associated with polycystic ovary syndrome, such as insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes. The nurse should also address the problems of acne and hirsutism, but these symptoms are lower priority because they do not have long-term health consequences. Although some patients do require total hysterectomy, this is usually performed only after other therapies have been unsuccessful.

A patient has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction; the cause has been determined to be psychogenic. The patients interdisciplinary plan of care should prioritize which of the following interventions? A) Penile implant B) PDE-5 inhibitors C) Physical therapy D) Psychotherapy

D Patients with erectile dysfunction from psychogenic causes are referred to a health care provider or therapist who specializes in sexual dysfunction. Because of the absence of an organic cause, medications and penile implants are not first-line treatments. Physical therapy is not normally effective in the treatment of ED.

After a 26-year-old patient has been treated for pelvic inflammatory disease, the nurse will plan to teach about a. use of hormone therapy (HT). b. irregularities in the menstrual cycle. c. changes in secondary sex characteristics. d. possible difficulty with becoming pregnant.

D Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause scarring of the fallopian tubes and result in difficulty in fertilization or implantation of the fertilized egg. Because ovarian function is not affected, the patient will not require HT, have irregular menstrual cycles, or experience changes in secondary sex characteristics.

A patient states that PMS that is significantly disrupting her quality of life and that conservative management has failed to produce relief. What pharmacologic treatment may benefit this patient? A) An opioid analgesic B) A calcium channel blocker C) A monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) D) A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) Ans:

D Pharmacologic remedies for PMS include selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. MAOIs are not used for this purpose. Calcium channel blockers and opioids would not lead to symptom relief.

To prevent pregnancy in a patient who has been sexually assaulted, the nurse in the emergency department will plan to teach the patient about the use of a. mifepristone (RU-486). b. dilation and evacuation. c. methotrexate with misoprostol. d. levonorgestrel (Plan-B One-Step).

D Plan B One-Step reduces the risk of pregnancy when taken within 72 hours of intercourse. The other methods are used for therapeutic abortion, but not for pregnancy prevention after unprotected intercourse.

A 27-year-old primipara presents to the ED with vaginal bleeding and suspected contractions. The woman relates that she is 14 weeks pregnant and she thinks she is losing her baby. Diagnostic testing confirms a spontaneous abortion. What nursing action would be a priority at this time? A) Leave the patient alone so she can grieve in private. B) Teach the patient that this will not affect her future chance of conception. C) Take the patient off the obstetric floor so she will not hear a baby cry. D) Provide opportunities for the patient to talk and express her emotions.

D Providing opportunities for the patient to talk and express her emotions is helpful and also provides clues for the nurse in planning more specific care. The patient may or may not want to be alone, but the nurse should first determine her wishes. It would be inappropriate to refer to future pregnancies during this acute time of loss. It would not be necessary or practical to remove the patient from the unit.

A woman is being treated for a tumor of the left breast. If the patient and her physician opt for prophylactic treatment, the nurse should prepare the woman for what intervention? A) More aggressive chemotherapy B) Left mastectomy C) Radiation therapy D) Bilateral mastectomy

D Right mastectomy would be considered a prophylactic measure to reduce the risk of cancer in the patients unaffected breast. None of the other listed interventions would be categorized as being prophylactic rather than curative.

The nurse is teaching a patient preventative measures regarding vaginal infections. The nurse should include which of the following as an important risk factor? A) High estrogen levels B) Late menarche C) Nonpregnant state D) Frequent douching

D Risk factors associated with vulvovaginal infections include pregnancy, premenarche, low estrogen levels, and frequent douching.

A nurse providing prenatal care to a pregnant woman is addressing measures to reduce her postpartum risk of cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse. What action should the nurse recommend? A) Maintenance of good perineal hygiene B) Prevention of constipation C) Increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum D) Performance of pelvic muscle exercises

D Some disorders related to relaxed pelvic muscles (cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse) may be prevented. During pregnancy, early visits to the primary provider permit early detection of problems. During the postpartum period, the woman can be taught to perform pelvic muscle exercises, commonly known as Kegel exercises, to increase muscle mass and strengthen the muscles that support the uterus and then to continue them as a preventive action. Fluid intake, prevention of constipation, and hygiene do not reduce this risk.

A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patients diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronies disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality? A) Physical therapy B) Treatment with PDE-5 inhibitors C) Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections D) Surgery

D Surgical removal of mature plaques is used to treat severe Peyronies disease. There is no potential benefit to physical therapy and hydrocortisone injections are not normally used. PDE-5 inhibitors would exacerbate the problem

The nurse is caring for a 52-year-old woman whose aunt and mother died of breast cancer. The patient states, My doctor and I talked about Tamoxifen to help prevent breast cancer. Do you think it will work? What would be the nurses best response? A) Yes, its known to have a slight protective effect. B) Yes, but studies also show an increased risk of osteoporosis. C) You wont need to worry about getting cancer as long as you take Tamoxifen. D) Tamoxifen is known to be a highly effective protective measure.

D Tamoxifen has been shown to be a highly effective chemopreventive agent. However, it cannot reduce the risk of cancer by 100%. It also acts to prevent osteoporosis.

A 17-year-old girl has come to the free clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse she uses tampons and asks how long she may safely leave her tampon in place. What is the nurses best response? A) You may leave the tampon in overnight. B) The tampon should be changed at least twice per day. C) Tampons are dangerous and, ideally, you should not be using them. D) Tampons need to be changed every 4 to 6 hours.

D Tampons should not be used for more than 4 to 6 hours, nor should super-absorbent tampons be used because of the association with toxic shock syndrome. If used appropriately, it is acceptable and safe for the patient to use tampons.

A public health nurse has been asked to provide a health promotion session for men at a wellness center. What should the nurse inform the participants about testicular cancer? A) It is most common among men over 55. B) It is one of the least curable solid tumors. C) It typically does not metastasize. D) It is highly responsive to treatment.

D Testicular cancer is most common among men 15 to 35 years of age and produces a painless enlargement of the testicle. Testicular cancers metastasize early but are one of the most curable solid tumors, being highly responsive to chemotherapy.

A patient newly diagnosed with breast cancer states that her physician suspects regional lymph node involvement and told her that there are signs of metastatic disease. The nurse learns that the patient has been diagnosed with stage IV breast cancer. What is an implication of this diagnosis? A) The patient is not a surgical candidate. B) The patients breast cancer is considered highly treatable. C) There is a 10% chance that the patients cancer will self-resolve. D) The patient has a 15% chance of 5-year survival

D The 5-year survival rate is approximately 15% for stage IV breast cancer. Surgery is still a likely treatment, but the disease would not be considered to be highly treatable. Self-resolution of the disease is not a possibility.

A woman calls the clinic because she is having an unusually heavy menstrual flow. She tells the nurse that she has saturated three tampons in the past 2 hours. The nurse estimates that the amount of blood loss over the past 2 hours is _____ mL. a. 20 to 30 b. 30 to 40 c. 40 to 60 d. 60 to 90

D The average tampon absorbs 20 to 30 mL.

A 68-year-old male patient tells the nurse that he is worried because he does not respond to sexual stimulation the same way he did when he was younger. The nurse's best response to the patient's concern is which of the following? a. "Interest in sex frequently decreases as men get older." b. "Many men need additional sexual stimulation with aging." c. "Erectile dysfunction is a common problem with older men." d. "Tell me more about how your sexual response has changed."

D The initial response by the nurse should be further assessment of the problem. The other statements by the nurse are accurate but may not respond to the patient's concerns.

The nurse is providing preoperative education for a patient diagnosed with endometriosis. A hysterectomy has been scheduled. What education topic should the nurse be sure to include for this patient? A) Menstrual periods will continue to occur for several months, some of them heavy. B) Normal activity will be permitted within 48 hours following surgery. C) After a hysterectomy, hormone levels remain largely unaffected. D) The bladder must be emptied prior to surgery and a catheter may be placed during surgery.

D The intestinal tract and the bladder need to be empty before the patient is taken to the OR to prevent contamination and injury to the bladder or intestinal tract. The patient is informed that her periods are now over, but she may have a slightly bloody discharge for a few days. The patient is instructed to avoid straining, lifting, or driving until her surgeon permits her to resume these activities. The patients hormonal balance is upset, which usually occurs in reproductive system disturbances. The patient may experience depression and heightened emotional sensitivity to people and situations.

When caring for a patient who has a radium implant for treatment of cancer of the cervix, the nurse will a. assist the patient to ambulate every 2 to 3 hours. b. use gloves and gown when changing the patient's bed. c. flush the toilet several times right after the patient voids. d. encourage the patient to discuss needs or concerns by telephone.

D The nurse should spend minimal time in the patient's room to avoid exposure to radiation. The patient and nurse can have longer conversations by telephone between the patient room and nursing station. To prevent displacement of the implant, absolute bed rest is required. Wearing of gloves and gown when changing linens, and flushing the toilet several times are not necessary because the isotope is confined to the implant.

During the nurses assessment of a female patient, the patient reveals that she experienced sexual abuse when she was a young woman. What is the nurses most appropriate response to this disclosure? A) Reassure her that this information will be kept a secret. B) Begin the process of intensive psychotherapy. C) Encourage the patient to phone 911. D) Facilitate appropriate resources and referrals.

D The nurses primary roles in light of this disclosure are to provide empathy and to arrange for appropriate resources and referrals. There is no need to phone 911 and psychotherapy is beyond the nurses scope of practice. The patients confidentiality will be respected, but this does not mean that the nurse can promise to keep it a secret.

A patient in her 30s has two young children and has just had a modified radical mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient shares with the nurse that she is somewhat worried about her future, but she appears to be adjusting well to her diagnosis and surgery. What nursing intervention is most appropriate to support this patients coping? A) Encourage the patients spouse or partner to be supportive while she recovers. B) Encourage the patient to proceed with the next phase of treatment. C) Recommend that the patient remain optimistic for the sake of her children. D) Arrange a referral to a community-based support program.

D The patient is not exhibiting clear signs of anxiety or depression. Therefore, the nurse can probably safely approach her about talking with others who have had similar experiences. The nurse may educate the patients spouse or partner to listen for concerns, but the nurse should not tell the patients spouse what to do. The patient must consult with her physician and make her own decisions about further treatment. The patient needs to express her sadness, frustration, and fear. She cannot be expected to be optimistic at all times.

A 27-year-old female patient is diagnosed with invasive cervical cancer and is told she needs to have a hysterectomy. One of the nursing diagnoses for this patient is disturbed body image related to perception of femininity. What intervention would be most appropriate for this patient? A) Reassure the patient that she will still be able to have children. B) Reassure the patient that she does not have to have sex to be feminine. C) Reassure the patient that you know how she is feeling and that you feel her anxiety and pain. D) Reassure the patient that she will still be able to have intercourse with sexual satisfaction and orgasm.

D The patient needs reassurance that she will still have a vagina and that she can experience sexual intercourse after temporary postoperative abstinence while tissues heal. Information that sexual satisfaction and orgasm arise from clitoral stimulation rather than from the uterus reassures many women. Most women note some change in sexual feelings after hysterectomy, but they vary in intensity. In some cases, the vagina is shortened by surgery, and this may affect sensitivity or comfort. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient that she will still be able to have children; there is no reason to reassure the patient about not being able to have sex. There is no way you can know how the patient is feeling and it would be inappropriate to say so.

The nurse in the women's health clinic has four patients who are waiting to be seen. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. 22-year-old with persistent red-brown vaginal drainage 3 days after having balloon thermotherapy b. 42-year-old with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago c. 35-year-old with heavy spotting after having a progestin-containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago d. 19-year-old with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness

D The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest possible toxic shock syndrome, which will require rapid intervention. The symptoms for the other patients are consistent with their diagnoses and do not indicate life-threatening complications.

A patient has presented for her annual mammogram. The patient voices concerns related to exposure to radiation. What should the nurse teach the patient about a mammogram? A) It does not use radiation. B) Radiation levels are safe as long as mammograms are performed only once per year. C) The negative effects of radiation do not accumulate until late in life. D) Radiation from a mammogram is equivalent to an hour of sunlight.

D The radiation exposure of mammogram is equivalent to about 1 hour of exposure to sunlight. Consequently, the benefits of mammography far outweigh any risks associated with the procedure. Negative consequences are insignificant, and do not accumulate later in life.

A patient is 24 hours postoperative following prostatectomy and the urologist has ordered continuous bladder irrigation. What color of output should the nurse expect to find in the drainage bag? A) Red wine colored B) Tea colored C) Amber D) Light pink

D The urine drainage following prostatectomy usually begins as a reddish pink, then clears to a light pink 24 hours after surgery.

A female patient who has cognitive and physical disabilities has come into the clinic for a routine checkup. When planning this patients assessment, what action should the nurse take? A) Ensure that a chaperone is available to be present during the assessment. B) Limit the length and scope of the health assessment. C) Avoid health promotion or disease prevention education. D) Avoid equating the patient with her disabilities.

D When working with women who have disabilities, it is important that the nurse avoid equating the woman with her disability; the nurse must make an effort to understand that the patient and the disability are not synonymous. A chaperone is not necessarily required and there may or may not be a need to abbreviate the assessment. The nurse should provide education as needed.

A clinic nurse is meeting with a 38-year-old patient who states that she would like to resume using oral contraceptives, which she used for several years during her twenties. What assessment question is most likely to reveal a potential contraindication to oral contraceptive use? A) Have you ever had surgery? B) Have you ever had a sexually transmitted infection? C) When did you last have your blood sugar levels checked? D) Do you smoke?

D Women who smoke and who are 35 years of age or older should not take oral contraceptives because of an increased risk for cardiac problems. Previous surgeries, STIs, and blood sugar instability do not necessarily contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives

A woman comes to the clinic because she has been unable to conceive. When reviewing the woman's history, which of the following would the nurse least likely identify as a possible risk factor? A) Age of 25 years B) History of smoking C) Diabetes since age 15 years D) Weight below standard for height and age

A

What do most nursing interventions pertaining to sexuality involve? A) teaching to promote sexual health B) examinations to identify sexually transmitted infections C) advocacy for those with sexual dysfunctions D) maintaining confidentiality and privacy

A

A heterosexual couple enjoys anal intercourse. What may result from this type of intercourse? A) feelings of guilt and shame B) vaginal infections C) damage to the vagina D) penile infections

B

1. When describing the menstrual cycle to a group of young women, the nurse explains that estrogen levels are highest during which phase of the endometrial cycle? A) Menstrual B) Proliferative C) Secretory D) Ischemic

B

After teaching a group of students about genital fistulas, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as a major cause? A) Radiation therapy B) Congenital anomaly C) Female genital cutting D) Bartholin's gland abscess

C

After teaching a class on sexually transmitted infections, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which statement as true? A) STIs can affect anyone if exposed to the infectious organism. B) STIs have been addressed more on a global scale. C) Clients readily view the diagnosis of STI openly. D) Most individuals with STIs are over the age of 30.

A

After teaching a group of adolescents about HIV, the nurse asks them to identify the major means by which adolescents are exposed to the virus. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which of the following? A) Sexual intercourse B) Sharing needles for IV drug use C) Perinatal transmission D) Blood transfusion

A

After teaching a group of students about ovarian cysts, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which type of cyst as being associated with hydatiform mole? A) Theca-lutein cyst B) Corpus luteum cyst C) Follicular cyst D) Polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

After the nurse teaches a client about ways to reduce the symptoms of premenstrual syndrome, which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching? A) "I will make sure to take my estrogen supplements a week before my period." B) "I've signed up for an aerobic exercise class three times a week." C) "I'll cut down on the amount of coffee and colas I drink." D) "I quit smoking about a month ago, so that should help."

A

Parents of a toddler express concern because he is touching his genitals. What should the nurse teach the parents? A) Self-manipulation of genitals is normal behavior. B) Have the child wear clothes that prohibit touching. C) If this bad behavior continues, seek counseling. D) Make him have time out every time it happens.

A

To assist the woman in regaining control of the urinary sphincter for urinary incontinence, the nurse should teach the client to do which of the following? A) Perform Kegel exercises daily. B) Void every hour while awake. C) Limit her intake of fluid. D) Take a laxative every night.

A

What term is used to describe painful intercourse? A) dyspareunia B) dysmenorrhea C) impotence D) vulvodynia

A

When preparing the discharge teaching plan for the woman who had surgery to correct pelvic organ prolapse, which of the following would the nurse include? A) Care of the indwelling catheter at home B) Emphasis on coughing to prevent complications C) Return to usual activity level in a few days D) Daily douching with dilute vinegar solution

A

Which of the following would the nurse include when teaching women about preventing pelvic support disorders? A) Performing Kegel isometric exercises B) Consuming low-fiber diets C) Using hormone replacement D) Voiding every 2 hours

A

Which patient will the nurse plan on teaching about the Gardasil vaccine? a. A 24-year-old female who has not been sexually active b. A 34-year-old woman who has multiple sexual partners c. A 19-year-old woman who is pregnant for the first time d. A 29-year-old woman who is in a monogamous relationship

A Gardasil is recommended for females ages 9 through 26, preferably those who have never been sexually active. It is not recommended for women during pregnancy or for older women.

A woman is scheduled for an anterior and posterior colporrhaphy as treatment for a cystocele. When the nurse is explaining this treatment to the client, which of the following descriptions would be most appropriate to include? A)"This procedure helps to tighten the vaginal wall in the front and back so that your bladder and urethra are in the proper position." B)"Your uterus will be removed through your vagina, helping to relieve the organ that is putting the pressure on your bladder." C) "This is a series of exercises that you will learn to do so that you can strengthen your bladder muscles." D) "These are plastic devices that your physician will insert into your vagina to provide support to the uterus and keep it in the proper position."

A

A woman using the cervical mucus ovulation method of fertility awareness reports that her cervical mucus looks like egg whites. The nurse interprets this as which of the following? A) Spinnbarkeit mucus B) Purulent mucus C) Postovulatory mucus D) Normal preovulation mucus

A

A woman who is HIV-positive is receiving HAART and is having difficulty with compliance. To promote adherence, which of the following areas would be most important to assess initially? A) The woman's beliefs and education B) The woman's financial situation and insurance C) The woman's activity level and nutrition D) The woman's family and living arrangements

A

A woman with polycystic ovary syndrome tells the nurse, "I hate this disease. Just look at me! I have no hair on the front of my head but I've got hair on my chin and upper lip. I don't feel like a woman anymore." Further assessment reveals breast atrophy and increased muscle mass. Which nursing diagnosis would most likely be a priority? A) Situational low self-esteem related to masculinization effects of the disease B) Social isolation related to feelings about appearance C) Risk for suicide related to effects of condition and fluctuating hormone levels D) Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to effects of disease on vasculature

A

20. A nurse is examining a female client and tests the client's vaginal pH. Which finding would the nurse interpret as normal? A) 4.5 B) 7 C) 8.5 D) 10

A

3. A client with a 28-day cycle reports that she ovulated on May 10. The nurse would expect the client's next menses to begin on: A) May 24 B) May 26 C) May 30 D) June 1

A

7. When describing the ovarian cycle to a group of students, which phase would the instructor include? A) Luteal phase B) Proliferative phase C) Menstrual phase D) Secretory phase

A

9. The nurse is teaching a health education class on male reproductive anatomy and asks the students to identify the site of sperm production. Which structure, if identified by the group, would indicate to the nurse that the teaching was successful? A) Testes B) Seminal vesicles C) Scrotum D) Prostate gland

A

A client is to receive an implantable contraceptive. The nurse describes this contraceptive as containing: A) Synthetic progestin B) Combined estrogen and progestin C) Concentrated spermicide D) Concentrated estrogen

A

A client states that she is to have a test to measure bone mass to help diagnose osteoporosis. The nurse would most likely plan to prepare the client for: A) DEXA scan B) Ultrasound C) MRI D) Pelvic x-ray

A

A client with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS. is receiving oral contraceptives as part of her treatment plan. The nurse understands that the rationale for this therapy is to: A) Restore menstrual regularity B) Induce ovulation C) Improve insulin uptake D) Alleviate hirsutism

A

A client with trichomoniasis is to receive metronidazole (Flagyl). The nurse instructs the client to avoid which of the following while taking this drug? A) Alcohol B) Nicotine C) Chocolate D) Caffeine

A

The nurse will plan to teach the female patient with genital warts about the a. importance of regular Pap tests. b. increased risk for endometrial cancer. c. appropriate use of oral contraceptives. d. symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

A Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and increase the risk for cervical cancer. There is no indication that the patient needs teaching about PID, oral contraceptives, or endometrial cancer.

A 50-year-old patient is diagnosed with uterine bleeding caused by a leiomyoma. Which information will the nurse include in the patient teaching plan? a. The symptoms may decrease after the patient undergoes menopause. b. The tumor size is likely to increase throughout the patient's lifetime. c. Aspirin or acetaminophen may be used to control mild to moderate pain. d. The patient will need frequent monitoring to detect any malignant changes.

A Leiomyomas appear to depend on ovarian hormones and will atrophy after menopause, leading to a decrease in symptoms. Aspirin use is discouraged because the antiplatelet effects may lead to heavier uterine bleeding. The size of the tumor will shrink after menopause. Leiomyomas are benign tumors that do not undergo malignant changes.

Which finding would the nurse expect to find in a client with endometriosis? A) Hot flashes B) Dysuria C) Fluid retention D) Fever

B

17. After teaching a group of students about female reproductive anatomy, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as the site of fertilization? A) Vagina B) Uterus C) Fallopian tubes D) Vestibule

C

The nurse is teaching breast self-examination (BSE) to a group of women. The nurse should recommend that the women perform BSE at what time? A) At the time of menses B) At any convenient time, regardless of cycles C) Weekly D) Between days 5 and 7 after menses

D BSE is best performed after menses, on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. Monthly performance is recommended.