SOURCE TONG HOP

. _____ include anything that does not go directly into an organization's product. a. MRO items (maintenance, repair, operations) b. Raw materials c. Production support items d. Services e. Semifinished products and components

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. _____ is the most basic and important tenet (nguyên lí) of the MBNQA criteria. a. Continuous improvement b. Six Sigma c. Statistical process control d. Process capability e. None of the above.

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. _____ means that supply chains must have perfect quality. a. DRP b. Flow c. Pull d. Push e. Striving for excellence

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. _____ seeks to expand the value or resources of outcomes available to all parties through cooperative negotiation. a. Win-win negotiation b. Distributive bargaining c. Competitive bargaining d. Lose-lose negotiation e. Open-table bargaining

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001_SCM201_E A/an ______ _____ is a series of tasks that requires the completion of specific objectives within a certain time frame; has defined start and stop dates; consumes resources, particularly time, personnel, and budget; and operates with limited resources. A. Project B. Process C. Procedure D. Purchase order

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003_SCM201 Which is not a types of Recognition and Rewards? A. Praise by words B. Non-monetary rewards C. Monetary bonuses and other one-time cash awards D. Executive recognition

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008_SCM201 ... helps identify and then eliminate non-value-added activities (waste) or delays. A. Process Mapping B. Typical Supply Chain Processes C. Value Stream Mapping D. Non-value-adding

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008_SCM201 The two general approaches to forecasting are: A. qualitative and quantitative. B. historical and associative. C. judgmental and qualitative. D. mathematical and statistical.

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A _____ details any shipping or receiving discrepancies noted by the receiving department. a. receiving discrepancy report b. bill of lading c. material packing slip d. change notice

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A _____ has a high volume of internal consumption, is readily available, is important to the business, and represents a significant proportion of spend. a. leverage commodity b. portfolio commodity c. critical commodity d. routine commodity e. bottleneck commodity

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A _____ has had its quality systems extensively audited by the buying firm and are capable of consistently meeting or exceeding the buyer's quality needs. a. certified supplier b. disqualified supplier c. single source supplier d. partnered supplier e. None of the above.

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A _____ is an analytical tool that identifies the primary external forces that are causing prices to either increase or decrease. a. market analysis b. total cost analysis c. cost analysis d. make-buy analysis e. target price analysis

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A _____ is the increase or decrease in cost resulting from a change in purchasing strategy or practice brought about by an individual or a group. a. cost change b. cost avoidance c. target cost d. target price e. purchase price variance

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A _____ is used in regularly scheduled review meetings with suppliers, so that deficiencies (thiếu sót) in performance can be noted, discussed, and acted upon. a. supplier scorecard b. make-buy analysis c. competitive bidding process d. portfolio analysis e. cost analysis

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A _____ specifies how supply management will (1) support the desired competitive business-level strategy and (2) complement other functional strategies. a. supply management strategy b. corporate strategy c. marketing strategy d. category strategy e. business unit strategy

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A/An _____ is a formal request for the suppliers to prepare bids, based on the terms and conditions set by the buyer. a. RFQ b. purchase order c. RFI d. supplier analysis e. e-RA

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A/An _____ is also known as the negotiator's bottom line or reservation point, that is, that point in the negotiation where it is most advantageous for the negotiator to walk away from the table and implement his or her next-best option. a. BATNA b. position c. interest d. need e. want

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A/An _____ system takes a period-by-period set of master production schedule requirements (anticipated or booked customer orders) and produces a time-phased set of material, component, and subassembly requirements timed to support an expected build schedule. a. kanban b. DRP c. just-in-time d. perfect order e. MRP

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According to Cialdini, _____ is a principle which states that we look to the behavior of others to determine what is desirable, appropriate, and correct. a. social proof b. liking c. consistency d. scarcity e. authority

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According to ISM, _____ is defined as the ability to meet current needs without hindering the ability to meet the needs of future generations in terms of economic, environmental, and social challenges. a. Sustainability b. Scenario analysis c. Social responsibility d. Supply chain risk management e. Standardization

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According to Ohno and Toyota, _____ is a category of waste that occurs when employees are standing about and inventory is at a standstill. a. waiting time b. defect c. overproduction d. unnecessary movement e. over-processing

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According to Ohno and Toyota, _____ is a category of waste that retains unnecessary inventory between process steps. a. excess inventory b. overproduction c. over-processing d. waiting time e. None of the above.

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According to Philip Crosby, the only true performance standard that defines total quality is _____, which he defined as conformance to requirements. a. zero defects b. Six Sigma c. process capability d. optimization e. rationalization

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All of the following action support reduced order-cycle time with suppliers except _____. a. expanded global sourcing b. expanded electronic capability c. supplier development support d. order-cycle time measurement e. focus on second- and third-tier suppliers

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All of the following are benefits of electronically generating and transmitting purchasing-related documents except _____. a. a reduction in the need to ensure higher levels of quality from suppliers b. a virtual elimination of paperwork and paperwork handling c. improved communication both within the company and with suppliers d. a reduction in errors e. a reduction in the time spent in by purchasing personnel on processing purchase orders and invoices and more time spent on strategic value-adding purchasing activities

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All of the following are categories of inventory except _____. a. lean inventory b. raw material and semifinished item inventory c. work-in-process inventory d. MRO supplies inventory e. pipeline/in-transit inventory

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All of the following are common contingency management tools that can be effectively used at the tactical level to assist the supply manager in identifying, analyzing, reducing, and monitoring supply base risk except _____. a. single sourcing b. inventory c. automated visibility and early warning systems d. use of third party intermediaries e. scenario analysis

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All of the following are common signaling methods used in a kanban system except _____. a. single-card system b. color coding of containers c. designated storage spaces d. computerized bar coding systems e. verbal notification

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All of the following are conditions under which competitive bidding is effective except _____. a. the buyer has a preferred supplier for the item b. volume is high enough to justify this method c. the marketplace is competitive d. the specifications or requirements are clear to the seller e. adequate time is available for suppliers to evaluate the RFQs

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All of the following are examples of e-transaction measures except _____. a. days/weeks/months of supply of inventory b. absolute number of suppliers c. percentage of suppliers d. percentage of advanced shipping notices e. electronic funds transfer

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All of the following are examples of entry qualifiers that suppliers must possess before they proceed to the next phase of the evaluation and selection process except _____. a. appropriate sales and marketing activities b. financial strength c. proven manufacturing or service capability d. capable and supportive management e. adequate facilities

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All of the following are examples of how supply management should monitor and anticipate activity in its supply market except _____. a. ensuring that cost accounting keeps track of historical prices paid b. forecasting long-term supply and prices for its basic commodities c. monitoring technological innovations that impact its primary materials or make substitute materials economically attractive d. evaluating not only its existing suppliers but also other potential suppliers e. providing timely visibility to new-product requirements

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All of the following are factors that influence how much attention supply management should commit to managing supplier quality except _____. a. the physical distance between the supplier and buyer facilities b. the ability of a supplier to affect a buyer's total quality c. the internal resources available to support supplier quality management and improvement d. the ability of a buying firm to practice world-class quality e. a buyer's ability to collect and analyze quality-related data

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All of the following are important barriers to lean supply except _____. a. large warehouses b. dispersed supply base c. historic buyer-supplier relationships d. number of suppliers e. supplier quality performance

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All of the following are objectives of a world-class purchasing organization except _____. a. ensure that all hard copies of purchase orders and other paper documents are filed correctly in a secure area b. develop integrated supply strategies that support business goals and objectives c. manage the sourcing process efficiently and effectively d. supplier performance management e. supply assurance

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All of the following are positive results from early supplier design involvement except _____. a. longer lead-times in order to find and fix product defects before they get to the customer b. better quality and product design c. establishing reasonable tolerances d. suppliers can anticipate and begin preproduction work e. improved product quality and manufacturability

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All of the following are roadblocks between measurement and improved performance except _____. a. up-to-date information technology b. too many metrics c. debate over the correct metrics d. constantly changing metrics e. old data

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Historically, the term _____ applies to the reduced direct-labor requirement per unit of output because of the effects of learning, while the term _____ refers to the longer-term factors of production that systematically reduce production costs. a. learning curve....experience curve b. learning curve....infinity curve c. experience curve....Boeing curve d. experience curve....learning curve e. None of the above.

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In TCO for capital equipment, _____ are all costs associated with operating the equipment during its life. a. usage costs b. end of life costs c. opportunity costs d. acquisition costs e. training costs

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In _____, a purchaser may have to use internal engineering estimates about what it costs to produce an item, rely on historical experience and judgment to estimate costs, or review public financial documents to identify key cost data about the seller. a. reverse price analysis b. TCO analysis c. penetration pricing d. using the PPI e. competition pricing

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In _____, one party achieves his or her objective on an issue, whereas the other receives something else of value as a reward for going along. a. use nonspecific compensation b. logroll c. expand the pie d. find a bridge solution e. cut the costs for compliance

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In a PERT network, a/an _____ is the latest point in time an activity can begin without delaying the entire project. a. late start b. late finish c. early start d. early finish e. on time finish

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In a _____, when inventory is depleted (cạn kiệt) to a given level, the system notifies the materials control department (or the buyer in some organizations) to issue a request to a supplier for inventory replenishment. (bổ sung) a. reorder point system b. traveling purchase requisition system c. customer service system d. forecasting system e. just-in-time system

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In negotiation, a/an _____ is a reality or truth that the parties can state and successfully verify. a. fact b. issue c. position d. interest e. BATNA

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In supplier analysis, _____ requires identifying critical performance criteria and identifying relative competitive performance. a. benchmarking b. make/buy analysis c. insourcing/outsourcing analysis d. Porter's Five Forces analysis e. cost analysis

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In supplier evaluation, different aspects of _____ include management's commitment to continuous process and quality improvement, its overall professional ability and experience, its ability to maintain positive relationships with its workforce, and its willingness to develop a closer working relationship with the buyer. a. management capability b. process and design capabilities c. financial condition and cost structure d. planning and control systems e. environmental regulation compliance

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In the _____ of the process of supplier segmentation, the supplier views the buyer as an unimportant customer, and to make the situation worse, the volume the buyer has with this supplier is insignificant to the supplier. a. NUISANCE segment b. CORE segment c. EXPLOIT segment d. DEVELOP segment e. None of the above.

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In the _____, prices are set to achieve a high profit on each unit by selling to supply managers who are willing to pay a higher price because of a lack of supply management sophistication or who are willing to pay for products or services of perceived higher value. a. market skimming model b. revenue pricing model c. promotional pricing model d. price volume model e. competition pricing model

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In the _____, the supplier analyzes the market to find the combination of price per unit and quantity of sales that maximizes its profit on the assumption that (1) lowering the price per unit will result in more units being sold, and (2) greater volume will spread the indirect cost over more units. a. price volume model b. sole sourcing model c. market-share model d. market skimming model e. promotional pricing model

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Instead of adversarial relationships which characterize _____, _____ features a long-term, win-win relationship between a buying company and specially selected suppliers. a. traditional purchasing....supply management b. traditional purchasing....logistics management c. supply management....traditional purchasing d. strategic sourcing....supply management e. supply chain management....strategic sourcing

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One of the most important objectives of the purchasing function is the selection, development, and maintenance of suppliers, a process that is sometimes described as _____. a. supplier performance management b. category management c. customer service d. procure-to-pay e. maverick buying

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QN=001 What is Supplier Quality? a. Ability to meet or exceed current and future customer expectations or requirements within critical performance areas on a consistent basis. b. A statistical measurement of a process's ability to produce parts within specified limits on a consistent basis. c. The process of shrinking the supply base by reducing the number of active suppliers. d. An institutional procurement process that continuously improves and re-evaluates the purchasing activities of a company.

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QN=001 What is the formula of Purchase price variance? a. Actual price − Planned price b. Actual price/Planned price c. Actual price + Planned price d. (Actual price − Planned price) × Purchase quantity

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QN=001-SCM Supply management is planning and acquiring the current and future needs of an organization via..... a. Strategic Orientation, Cross-functional Groups, Process-driven Approach and Supply base Management. b. Strategic sourcing, Cross-functional Groups, Process-driven Approach and Supply Base management. c. Strategic Orientation, Cross-national Groups,Process-driven Approach and Supply Base Management. d. Strategic Orientation, Cross-functional Groups, Process-driven Approach and Supplier Management

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QN=0010_SCM201_E Strategic negotiation issues involve the broader questions regarding_______ and how to negotiate. a. Who, what, where, when b. Who, what, where, why c. Who, what, where, which d. What, where, why, which

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QN=001_SCM201_M The _____ is a solicitation document that is used by organizations to obtain general information about services, products, or suppliers and is used generally before a specific requisition of an item is issued. a. RFI b. PO c. RFP d. RFQ

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QN=002_SCM201_E A/An _____ is a formal request for the suppliers to prepare bids, based on the terms and conditions set by the buyer. a. RFQ b. e-RA c. purchase order d. supplier analysis

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QN=003 Which is the true order of The Benchmarking process? a. Planning, Analysis, Integration, Action, Maturity b. Analysis, Planning, Integration, Action, Maturity c. Integration, Action, Analysis, Planning, Maturity d. Planning, Integration, Analysis, Action, Maturity

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QN=003_SCM201_H A _____ has unique requirements or niche suppliers, yet are significant to the business. a. bottleneck commodity b. matrix commodity c. leverage commodity d. critical commodity

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QN=003_SCM201_H Which country firms are dependable and loyal suppliers, they will treat their customers like valuable family members? a. Japan b. Vietnam c. Russia d. France

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QN=004 What should we do in the Planning phase of the Benchmarking process? a. Determine which products, processes, or functions to benchmark b. Determine how and why benchmark target is better c. Communicate benchmark findings to key personnel d. Include personnel responsible for carrying out plans during formulation of action plans

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QN=004_SCM201_E What is negotiation? a. A process of formal communication, either face-to-face or via electronic means, where two or more people, groups, or organizations come together to seek mutual agreement about an issue or issues b. The most advantageous for the negotiator to walk away from the table and implement his or her next best option c. The approach used to reach a mutually beneficial agreement than others d. A process involves management of time, information, and power between individuals and organizations who are independent

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QN=004_SCM201_H A ________ is an annual review of a firm's entire set of purchases. a. spend analysis b. SWOT analysis c. value analysis d. Pareto analysis

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QN=005_SCM201_E That point where it is advantageous to walk away from the negotiation is ____________ a. BATNA b. Position c. Interest d. Concession

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QN=005_SCM201_H In supplier evaluation, a _____ includes those systems that release, schedule, and control the flow of work in an organization. a. planning and control system b. traffic management system c. Logistic system d. None of the above.

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QN=006_SCM201_M _____ is the process of identifying cost considerations beyond unit price, transport, and tooling a. The total cost of ownership b. Price analysis c. Make-buy analysis d. Portfolio analysis

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QN=007 _____ is the process of determining the right mix and number of suppliers to maintain for a given purchase category or commodity. a. Supply base rationalization or optimization b. Cost of Quality c. Striving for Zero Defects d. Supplier Quality

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QN=007-SCM201 Supplier management involves... a. The continuous measurement, evaluation, and analysis of supplier performance b. The continuous measurement, qualification , and analysis of supplier performance c. The continuous development, evaluation, and analysis of supplier performance d. The continuous measurement, evaluation , and analysis of customer feedback.

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QN=007_SCM201_E Which of the following is the first phase in the negotiation process? a. Identify or anticipate sourcing requirement b. Determine if negotiation or bidding is required c. Plan for the negotiation d. Conduct the negotiation

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QN=007_SCM201_M To develop Supply Base Management, Purchasing have to do the following, except: a. Select suppliers that can meet your short-term needs b. Identify new suppliers that have the potential for excellent performance and develops closer relationships with these suppliers c. Improve existing suppliers d. Develop new suppliers that are not competitive with current suppliers

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QN=008_SCM201_E Researchers have identified six general types of power exercised by individuals or organizations: informational,_____, coercive, legitimate, expert, and referent .Which one is missing? a. reward b. award c. bounty d. honor

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QN=008_SCM201_M To develop aligned Goals with Internal Functional Stakeholders, Purchasing must do the following, except: a. Consider internal customers as Stokeholders b. Establish strong cross-boundary communication c. Develop cross-functional coordination and collaboration d. Develop positive, problem-solving relationships

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QN=009_SCM201_E A/An _____ has demonstrated its performance capabilities through previous purchase contracts and, therefore, receives preference during the supplier selection process a. Preferred supplier. b. Commodity supplier c. Sole source supplier d. Marginal supplier

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QN=009_SCM201_E _____ is the ability to influence another person or organization a. power b. coercive c. legitimate d. expert

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QN=009_SCM201_M To develop Integrated Strategies that Support Goals and Objectives, Purchasing have to do the following, except: a. Segregate completely functional supply goals with organizational goals b. Become mutually-supportive, not counter-productive c. Leverage supply management's substantial impact on the firm's bottom line d. Utilize supply management as a strategic core competency

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QN=010 Which of the following statements is true about cost avoidance? a. A difference between the price paid and a potentially higher price which might have occurred without specific effort or action b. Almost always require automatic calculation c. Can be subject to minimization d. A cost avoidance is the increase or decrease in cost resulting from a change in purchasing strategy or practice

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QN=010_SCM201_M Which of the following is not one of Porter's five forces? a. Switching costs b. Market internal competition c. Supplier bargaining power d. Threat of new entrants

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QN=013_SCM201_M An awareness of cost fundamentals, cost analysis techniques, and innovative approaches to product costing is simply another area for ... a. the purchasing and supply chain professional to master b. the importance of establishing the impact on customer needs c. best-in-class companies recognize d. the supplier benefits from longer-term contracts

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QN=014-SCM201 The disadvantages of Weighted-point are a. Tends to focus on unit price and Requires some computer support b. Cost accounting system required and Computer resources required c. Least reliable and Usually manual d. Easy to implement and Requires minimal data

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QN=015-SCM201 The first step of a process map for supplier development is... a. Identify Critical Commodities for Development b. Form Cross-Functional Development Team c. Meet with Supplier's Top Management Team d. Define Key Metrics and Cost-Sharing Mechanism

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QN=015_SCM201_M Typically these costs can be broken into four broad categories: a. Purchase price, Acquisition costs, Usage costs, End-of-life costs b. Purchase price, Acquisition costs, Usage costs, TCO categories c. Purchase price, Acquisition costs, Usage costs, Total cost analysis d. Purchase price, Acquisition costs, Usage costs, Cost analysis

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QN=016-SCM201 What are the three classifications of Barriers to supplier development? a. Buyer-specific barriers, buyer-supplier interface barriers and supplier-specific barriers b. Direct-involvement activities, incentives and rewards, warning and penalties c. Buyer-specific barriers, buyer-supplier interface barriers ,warning and penalties d. Direct-involvement activities, buyer-supplier interface barriers, warning and penalties

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QN=017_SCM201_M Value=(quality + technology + service + cycle time) / Price a. The value equation b. Total cost analysis c. Profit d. Cost-Based Pricing Models

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QN=018_SCM201_M Price Analysis is... a. Process of comparing supplier prices to external price benchmarks, focuses on seller price with no consideration of the cost of production b. Analyzing everything that goes into making the product (labor hours, material, rates) that add up to the final price c. Analyzing shipping costs, tariffs, quality, etc. d. all the above

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QN=019-SCM201 Pursuing supplier development activities directly with suppliers is neither quick nor easy, it requires... a. Vision, commitment, open communication and equitable sharing of costs and benefits b. Vision, commitment, open communication and maintaining supplier relationship c. Support, commitment, open communication and equitable sharing of costs and benefits d. Vision, quality, open communication and equitable sharing of costs and benefits

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QN=02 The final step of the evaluation and selection process is a. To select the supplier(s) and reach a contract agreement b. Evaluating supplier provided information, conducting supplier visits, and using preferred supplier lists. c. To evaluate the remaining suppliers, which may appear to be equally qualified d. To search for information or the effort put forth toward the search is a function of several variables

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QN=020-SCM201 Over the last 10 years, the package delivery has become.... a. Highly competitive b. Relatively competitive c. No longer competitive d. Highly saturated

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QN=020_SCM201_M "Supplier takes an estimate of costs and adds a markup percentage" is? a. Cost Markup Pricing Model b. Rate of Return Pricing Model c. Cost-Based Pricing Models d. Market Driven Pricing Models

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QN=07 Which following definition is true about Countertrade? a. A broad term that refers to all trade where buyer and seller have at least a partial exchange of goods for goods b. A relative size advantage c. is generally more complex than domestic buying. d. is attempting to increase their business with traditionally disadvantaged suppliers, including suppliers with female, minority, or handicapped owners

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QN=12 Physical inventory plays an important role in all supply chains. Which of following section is not considered the proper reasons for carrying inventory ? a. Extended order-cycle times from global sourcing b. Avoid disruptions in operational performance c. Hedge against marketplace uncertainty d. Support operational requirements

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QN=14 Forecasting systems should have a goal of ..............the difference between a forecasted requirement and an actual requirement to avoid having to carry higher inventory levels as protection. a. minimizing b. maxing c. comparing d. realizing

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The _____ (in time) through a PERT network is the _____. a. longest path....critical path b. shortest path....critical path c. longest path....slack d. shortest path....slack e. None of the above.

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The _____ helps protect the carrier against wrongful allegations (cáo buộc sai) that the carrier somehow damaged, lost, or otherwise tampered with a shipment. a. bill of lading b. material packing slip c. invoice d. material purchase release e. blanket purchase order

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The _____ provides all suppliers, regardless of their performance history, a chance to remain in the supply base. a. "improve or else" approach b. triage approach c. competency staircase approach d. twenty/eighty rule e. Six Sigma approach

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The _____, which the supplier provides, details the contents of a shipment and contains the description and quantity of the items in a shipment. a. material packing slip b. purchase requisition c. bill of lading d. electronic funds transfer e. request for quotation

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The concept of _____ consists of rework and disposal efforts that increase cost and decrease productivity. a. the hidden factory b. Six Sigma c. continuous improvement d. zero defects e. kaizen

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The downside of poor forecasting includes all of the following except _____. a. higher inventory volumes b. poor customer service as inventory is misallocated across locations and products c. higher inventory carrying charges d. excessive safety stock levels e. decreased customer service costs

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The key to good market intelligence is to _____ data, which means to explore, compare, and contrast data from multiple sources before it can be validated. a. triangulate b. minimize c. gather d. collect e. assemble

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The supplier performance index (SPI) equals (_____ plus _____) divided by _____. a. Total Purchases....Nonperformance Costs....Total Purchases b. Nonperformance Costs....Total Purchases....Nonperformance Costs c. Total Purchases....Appraisal Costs....External Failure Costs d. External Failure Costs....Internal Failure Costs....Total Purchases e. TransportationCosts....Appraisal Costs....Prevention Costs

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When _____ is present, the total group effort is _____ the expected sum of the individual parts. a. process loss....less than b. groupthink....more than c. process loss....more than d. collaboration....less than e. synergy....the same as

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When a situation arises when an internal customer has a need that comes up suddenly, which is not planned for and for which there is no pre-existing supplier identified to provide the product or service required, purchasing should use a/an _____ approach. a. spot buy b. long term agreement c. P2P d. e-procurement e. None of the above.

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When firms produce goods in response to a customer order, they are operating in a/an _____ environment. a. make-to-order b. make-to-stock c. make-to-forecast d. WIP e. None of the above.

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Which of the following are not considered relationship management skills? a. Ability to conduct detailed price and cost analyses b. Ability to act ethically. c. Ability to listen effectively. d. Ability to communicate. e. Ability to use creative problem-solving.

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Which of the following are not examples of technology roadmaps? a. Incorporation of new AICPA accounting standards into existing accounting systems. b. Projected performance specifications for a class of products or processes. c. An intention to integrate a new material or component. d. Development of a product to meet customer requirements that is currently unavailable in the market. e. Integration of multiple complementary technologies that results in a radically new product.

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Which of the following elements is false regarding Phase 3, Limited Integration, of supply management strategy development? a. Supplier quality focus. b. Global sourcing. c. Ad hoc supplier alliances. d. Volume leveraging. e. Long-term contracts.

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Which of the following is a disadvantage of a weighted-point supplier evaluation system? a. Tends to focus on unit price. b. Most complex, so implementation costs are high. c. Most subjective. d. Least reliable. e. Cost accounting system required.

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Which of the following is an example of WIP inventory? a. Waiting to be moved to another process. b. Currently being worked on at a work center. c. Lining up at a processing center due to a capacity bottleneck or machine breakdown. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

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Which of the following is an example of a purchased direct item for a manufacturing firm? a. Parts and components. b. Travel. c. Office and janitorial supplies. d. Advertising and media. e. Personal computers.

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Which of the following is not a common obstacle to closer buyer-seller relationships? a. Long-term contracts. b. Confidentiality. c. Limited interest by suppliers. d. Legal barriers. e. Resistance to change.

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Which of the following is not a risk of selecting a supplier in poor financial condition? a. The supplier is unwilling to share its technical expertise with the purchaser. b. The supplier will go out of business. c. The supplier may not have the resources to invest in plant, equipment, or research that is necessary for longer-term technological or other performance improvements. d. The supplier may become too financially dependent on the purchaser. e. Financial weakness is usually an indication of other underlying problems.

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Which of the following is not a supplier-specific barrier to supplier development? a. No immediate benefit to supplier development is evident in the buying organization. b. Lack of commitment on the part of supplier's management. c. Supplier's management agrees to improvements but fails to implement the proposals. d. Supplier lacks engineering resources to implement solutions. e. Supplier lacks employee skill base to implement solutions.

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Which of the following is not an example of a prevention cost? a. Incoming material inspections. b. Quality planning. c. Equipment calibration. d. Development of a quality manual. e. Maintenance of a quality management system.

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Which of the following is not one of the common assumptions typically used in break-even analysis? a. Fixed costs are never considered. b. Fixed costs remain constant over the period and volumes considered. c. Variable costs fluctuate in a linear fashion. d. Revenues vary directly with volume. e. Break-even analysis considers total costs rather than average costs.

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Which of the following is not one of the common problems in measuring performance? a. Too much detail. b. Too much and wrong data. c. Measures that are short-term focused. d. Drive the wrong performance. e. Measures of behavior versus accomplishments.

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Which of the following is not one of the factors driving an emphasis on supply chain management? a. An increasing emphasis on domestic sourcing due to the longer lead times and higher levels of pipeline inventories associated with global sourcing. b. The cost and availability of information resources among entities in the supply chain that allow easy linkages that eliminate time delays in the network. c. The level of competition in both domestic and international markets requires organizations to be fast, agile, and flexible. d. Customer expectations and requirements that are becoming much more demanding. e. The ability of an organization's supply chain to identify and mitigate risk minimizes disruptions in both supply and downstream product or services to mitigate the impact on lost sales.

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Which of the following is not one of the four enablers of purchasing and supply chain management? a. Sufficient cash flow and large on-hand cash deposits. b. Capable human resources. c. Proper organizational design. d. Real-time collaborative technology capabilities. e. Right measures and measurement systems.

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Which of the following is not one of the important factors to consider when building a TCO model? a. Focus on the small and easily measurable costs first. b. Building a TCO can be a costly and time-intensive activity. c. Work in a team. d. Make sure to obtain senior management buy-in before embarking on a full-fledged TCO. e. When considering global sourcing, consider all of the relevant labor, quality, logistics, and import costs associated with the total supply chain.

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Which of the following is not one of the key principles of the lean concept? a. Maximize the use of people. b. Simplify first, and only then apply new technology. c. Focus on gradual, but continuous, improvement. d. Minimize waste (including poor quality). e. All of the above.

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Which of the following is not one of the network rules for PERT/CPM? a. Networks start and finish at multiple events. b. Identify each unique activity within a project by a capital letter that corresponds only to that activity. c. Branch direction indicates the general progression in time from left to right. d. When a number of activities end at one event, no activity starting at that event may begin before all activities ending at that event are complete. e. Two or more activities cannot share graphically the same beginning and ending events.

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Which of the following is not one of the policies used to improve design simplification and reduce complexity? a. Increase the number of suppliers. b. Establish premium pricing for customization. c. Establish geographic-specific options and standards. d. Do not eliminate frequently requested options. e. Utilize business modeling and TCO tools to support complexity reduction decisions.

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Which of the following is not one of the six phases of a project? a. Precompletion. b. Project definition. c. Preliminary studies. d. Performance. e. Post-completion.

A

Which of the following is one of the dimensions used in developing a clear understanding of the buyer's expectations and requirements? a. The ability of the buyer to succinctly identify, define, quantify, or specify its technical and sourcing requirements. b. The seller's ability to effectively communicate its requirements. c. How compatible the buyer's and supplier's respective corporate cultures are. d. The ability of the selling company to succinctly identify, clearly define, quantify, or specify its technical and sourcing requirements. e. None of the above.

A

_____ are more responsive to the buying firm's changing needs and can economically make frequent smaller deliveries. a. Local suppliers b. International suppliers c. Global suppliers d. National suppliers e. There is no relationship with the location of the supplier and customer responsiveness.

A

_____ are those items provided by suppliers and used directly during production or service delivery. a. Direct materials b. Indirect materials c. Indirect services d. Internal materials e. Vendor managed inventories

A

_____ focuses on the continued ability of the supplier's human, intellectual, and physical capital to meet the buying firm's requirements with respect to quality and delivery. a. Operational risk management b. Global sourcing c. Logistics risk management d. Total quality management e. Financial risk management

A

_____ helps ensure that customers receive material when and where they require it and represents the key link between the producer and the external customer. a. Order processing b. Inbound transportation c. Customer service d. Scheduling e. Inventory control

A

_____ inventory includes the items purchased from suppliers or produced internally to directly support production requirements. a. Work-in-process b. Finished-goods c. MRO suppliers d. Pipeline/in-transit e. Raw material and semifinished items

A

_____ inventory is in transit to a customer or is located throughout distribution channels. a. Pipeline/in-transi b. MRO c. WIP d. Raw materials and semifinished items e. Just-in-time

A

_____ involves a detailed analysis of the supply base to ensure that only the most capable and highest performing suppliers are kept in the supply base after it is rationalized. a. Supply base optimization b. Outsourcing c. Strategic sourcing d. Supply base reduction e. Supply base management

A

_____ involves unbundling the price paid and understanding the total cost of ownership over the life cycle of a product or service to deliver a target cost and a unit rate to determine if it is priced competitively in the marketplace. a. Cost management b. Procure-to-pay c. Supplier relationship management d. Category management e. Spend management

A

_____ is a negotiation tactic that involves one party, often the seller, offering an unusually low price to receive a buyer's business. a. Low ball b. High ball c. Boulwarism d. Caucus e. Trial balloon

A

_____ is a tool that reduces processes to their component parts or activities and helps identify and then eliminate non-value-added activities (waste) or delays within a process. a. Process mapping b. TCO c. PERT/CPM d. QDA e. Productivity analysis

A

_____ is ready access to relevant and useful information and relies on trying to influence the other party through the cogent presentation of facts, data, information, and persuasive arguments. a. Information power b. Reward power c. Coercive power d. Legitimate power e. Referent power

A

_____ is the continuous measuring of products, services, processes, activities, and practices against a firm's best competitors or those companies recognized as industry or functional leaders. a. Benchmarking b. TCO c. TQM d. Effectiveness e. Efficiency

A

_____ is the process of identifying cost considerations beyond unit price, transport, and tooling. a. Total cost of ownership b. Price analysis c. Make-buy analysis d. Portfolio analysis e. Low-cost country sourcing

A

_____ means that customer orders start the work process, which ripples down through the supply chain. a. Make-to-stock b. Push c. MRP d. DRP e. Pull

A

_____ occur before the product or service is provided to the customer. a. Internal failure costs b. Appraisal costs c. External failure costs d. Prevention costs e. Total costs

A

_____ of inventory refers to the amount of inventory that a firm owns at any given time. a. Volume b. Velocity c. Value d. Vigor e. None of the above.

A

_____ results in waste because a valuable equipment or labor resource is not producing output. a. Idle time b. Inventory c. Wasted operator motion d. Delivery e. Overproduction

A

. In the _____, pricing is based on the assumption that long-run profitability depends on the market share obtained by the supplier. a. price volume model b. market-share model c. open market model d. target pricing model e. market skimming model

B

. Which of the following is not a question that value analysis teams should ask to determine if opportunities exist for item, product, or service improvement? a. Are there additional uses for this product? b. Can we use a different color of paint? c. Is there a better production method to produce the item or product? d. If we are making an item now, can we buy it for less (or vice versa)? e. Are packaging cost reductions possible?

B

. _____ actions and resources are those actions in a process that must be done to make the product but create no value for the customer. a. Non-value-adding b. Necessary non-value-adding c. Value-adding d. Inventory surplus e. None of the above.

B

. _____ is defined as the present value of all costs associated with a product, service, or capital equipment that are incurred (phat sinh) over its expected life. a. Cash flow analysis b. Total cost of ownership c. Make-buy analysis d. Revenue pricing e. Competition pricing

B

. _____ is defined as the process by which two or more parties adopt a high level of purposeful cooperation to maintain a trading relationship over time to achieve specific goals. a. Supply base management b. Collaboration c. KPI d. Supply integration e. SRM

B

003_SCM201_M Which of the following is correct about Gantt chart? A. Responsible for developing a sourcing strategy, which will involve selecting a supplier follow-on systems development B. Visually displays tasks and times associated with a project C. Establish the rate of improvement due to learning as producers real- ize direct-labor cost improvements as production volumes increase D. Involves examining all elements of a component, assembly, end product, or service to make sure it fulfills its intended function at the lowest total cost

B

005_SCM201 In a PERT network, the difference between the _____ and the _____ is slack. A. Early start; late finish B. Late start; early start C. Early start; early finish D. Late start; early finish

B

009_SCM201 Which one is not included in Statistical Tools Used in VSM? A. Scatter plots B. Finance tables C. Pareto charts D. Cause-and-effect diagrams

B

A _____ has unique requirements or niche suppliers, yet is significant to the business. a. critical commodity b. bottleneck commodity c. matrix commodity d. routine commodity e. leverage commodity

B

A _____ involves the physical checking of inventory to verify that system records match actual on-hand inventory levels. a. reorder point system b. stock check c. just-in-time system d. forecasting system e. p-card system

B

A _____ is a movement away from a negotiating position that offers something of value to the other party in order to ultimately gain something else of value. a. reward b. concession c. coercive maneuver d. tactic e. strategy

B

A _____ is a supplier who no longer meets the buying organization's standards and will not be considered for future business until its problems are corrected. a. preferred supplier b. disqualified supplier c. certified supplier d. single source supplier e. sole source supplier

B

A _____ is designed to provide information about the performance of the process under stable operating conditions, i.e., when no special causes of variation are present. a. make-buy analysis b. process capability study c. price analysis d. cost analysis e. Six Sigma project

B

A _____ is one in which the set of steps or activities that make up the activity occur one after the other. a. continuous process b. sequential process c. concurrent process d. standardized process e. None of the above.

B

A _____ program is the formal process of verifying, usually through an intensive cross-functional on-site audit, that a supplier's processes and methods actually produce consistent and conforming quality. a. supplier selection and evaluation program b. supplier certification c. Six Sigma d. process capability e. zero defects

B

A _____ visually displays the tasks and times associated with a project and consists of a horizontal bar chart with activities listed vertically and times or dates displayed horizontally. a. PERT tool b. Gantt chart c. CPM tool d. TCO chart e. networking tool

B

A/An _____ has demonstrated its performance capabilities through previous purchase contracts and, therefore, receives preference during the supplier selection process. a. commodity supplier b. preferred supplier c. sole source supplier d. new supplier responding to a RFQ e. marginal supplier

B

A/An _____ involves sending a preliminary survey to suppliers. a. request for quotation b. request for information c. purchase order d. order release e. All of the above.

B

A/An _____ is a discrepancy, nonconformance, or missing requirement (yêu cầu sai lệch, ko phù hợp, hoặc thiếu) that will have a significant negative impact on an important area of concern in an audit statement. a. deficiency b. performance problem c. entry qualifier d. unacceptable outcome e. challenge

B

A/An _____ is an aspiration or vision to work toward in the future. a. need b. objective c. plan d. BATNA e. position

B

A/An _____ is an item or topic to be resolved during the negotiation. a. BATNA b. issue c. interest d. position e. fact

B

A/An _____ is considered to be a negotiated outcome that the negotiator must have in order to reach a successful outcome to the negotiation. a. want b. need c. BATNA d. position e. interest

B

A/An _____ is the amount of time (in weeks or months) from concept to first shipment or provision of a product or service to the external customer. a. on-time delivery measure b. time-to-market target c. responsiveness measure d. first insight measure e. cost avoidance measure

B

A/An _____ would typically link to a contractual agreement whereby, for new technologies, the buying firm may get insight, some period of time before new technology developments are shared with other organizations. a. TQM measure b. first insight measure c. cycle time reduction d. responsiveness measure e. None of the above.

B

According to Cialdini, _____ is a principle which states that we work well and are more agreeable with people we like or who are like us. a. leverage b. liking c. authority d. reciprocation e. consistency

B

According to Ohno and Toyota, _____ is a category of waste that produces items for which there are no orders. a. excess inventory b. overproduction c. unnecessary movement d. waiting time e. defect

B

All of the following are considered to be the right reasons for investing in inventory except _____. a. avoid disruptions in operational performance b. Unreliable supplier delivery c. support customer service requirements d. hedge against marketplace uncertainty e. take advantage of order quantity discounts

B

All of the following are examples of Porter's power of buyers except _____. a. buyer concentration b. exit barriers c. price sensitivity d. brand identity e. buyer volume

B

All of the following are examples of commonly used environmental performance criteria except _____. a. disclosure of any environmental infractions b. attainment of ISO 9000 certification c. formal hazardous and toxic waste reduction programs exist d. programs to control or eliminate ozone-depleting substances e. attainment of ISO 14000 certification

B

All of the following are examples of demand planning activities except _____. a. forecasts of anticipated demand b. accounts payable c. inventory adjustments d. orders taken but not filled e. spare parts and aftermarket requirements

B

All of the following are examples of factors in Porter's market internal competition force except _____. a. speed of industry growth b. buyer propensity (xu hướng) to substitute c. exit barriers d. switching costs e. capacity utilization

B

All of the following are examples of the different methods that supply management will apply to achieve integration except _____. a. Cross-functional or cross-organizational committees and teams b. Hiring English majors into supply management to correct document language c. Information systems such as videoconferencing and webmail d. Process-focused organizations that are dedicated to certain processes e. Colocation of suppliers and customers

B

All of the following questions are important in considering new or existing suppliers for integration except _____. a. Is the supplier capable of hitting affordable targets regarding cost, quality, conductivity, weight, and other performance criteria? b. Does the supplier have sufficient marketing funds for promoting its new products? c. Will the supplier be able to meet product introduction deadlines? d. Will the supplier be able to increase capacity and production fast enough to meet our market share requirements? e. Do the supplier's personnel have the required training to start up required processes and debug them?

B

Although _____ provides optimum leverage and power over the supplier, _____ provides improved assurance of supply. a. multiple sourcing....single sourcing b. single sourcing....multiple sourcing c. sole sourcing....single sourcing d. multiple sourcing....sole sourcing e. There is no difference in the number of suppliers for these benefits.

B

Effective supply market intelligence involves all of the following except _____. a. updating supply markets and trends and translating their impacts on key business outcomes b. ensuring that purchasing does not exceed its annual operating budget c. identifying emerging materials and service technologies to support company strategies in key performance areas d. developing supply options and contingency plans to reduce risk e. supporting the organization's requirements for a diverse and globally competitive supply base

B

If a/an _____ currency is utilized, the _____ bears the currency risk and is likely to build in additional contingency costs to cover its unknown risk. a. supplier's...supplier b. buyer's...supplier c. buyer's...buyer d. supplier's...buyer e. Regardless of the currency chosen, both parties share the currency risk equally.

B

In ISO 9000:2008, (the) _____ consists of a quality manual, related procedures, and work instructions. a. third-party registration b. quality management system c. environmental management system d. supplier certification e. All of the above.

B

In TCO for a service, _____ include all costs associated with the performance of the service that are not included in the purchase price. a. invoice costs b. usage costs c. acquisition costs d. end of life costsend of life costs e. interest costs

B

In _____, a buyer selects or develops suppliers with multiple or redundant capabilities. a. single sourcing b. cross-sourcing c. global sourcing d. strategic sourcing e. sole sourcing

B

In _____, demand for an item is not directly dependent upon the demand for any other item that is produced. a. dependent demand b. independent demand c. codependent demand d. Six Sigma e. just-in-time

B

In a PERT network, a/an _____ is the latest time an activity can finish without delaying the entire project. a. late start b. late finish c. on time finish d. early start e. late start

B

In a _____, the supplier is reimbursed (hoàn trả) all of their actual costs plus some agreed on operational margin and overhead amount. a. RFP b. cost-based contract c. material purchase release d. fixed-price contract e. reverse auction

B

In overcoming the barriers to supplier development, which of the following is not one of the approaches typically used? a. Direct-involvement activities. b. Single sourcing. c. Incentives and rewards. d. Warnings and penalties. e. All of the above are typical approaches.

B

In should-cost modeling, _____ are any components not under the direct control of the buying or supplying company but those that have a significant influence on the outcome being modeled. a. direct costs b. assumption variables c. overhead costs d. transportation modes e. decision variables

B

In should-cost modeling, the _____ provides a high level view of the supply chain, and then the supplier's primary cost elements are broken down into material, labor, overhead, transportation freight, inventory cost, maintenance costs, and others. a. PPI b. value stream map c. target price d. product specification e. None of the above.

B

In the _____, the supplier establishes a price that will provide a profit margin that is a predetermined percentage of the quoted (niem yet) price, i.e., not a percentage of cost. a. rate-of-return pricing model b. margin pricing model c. market-share model d. competition pricing model e. target costing model

B

In the _____, the supplier simply takes its estimate of costs and adds a markup percentage to obtain the desired profit. a. margin pricing model b. cost markup pricing model c. total cost analysis model d. penetration pricing model e. revenue pricing model

B

In value stream mapping, the flow diagram that depicts process improvements to optimize the value and minimize the non-value-added streams is called a/an _____. a. current state map b. future/ideal state map c. variation map d. anticipated state map e. None of the above.

B

QN=001_SCM201_M Which of the following is NOT the element of the Purchasing Process a. Identify user requirements b. Evaluate supplier needs effectively and efficiently c. Identify suppliers to meet user needs d. Develop agreements with suppliers

B

QN=002 _____ is defined as the total composite of product and service characteristics of marketing, engineering, manufacturing, and maintenance through which the product or service in use will meet or exceed the expectations of the customer. a. Process capability b. Quality c. Supply base optimization d. Productivity

B

QN=003-SCM201 What was purchasing's central focus during World War I? a. Obtaining as much goods as possible b. Procurement of raw material versus buying finished/ semi-finished goods c. Purchasing weapons and military equipment. d. Adjusting demand and supply trends

B

QN=005 The DMAIC Model includes: a. Define, Meaning, Analyze, Issue, Control b. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control c. Define, Measure, Analyze, Issue, Control d. Definition, Meaning, Analyze, Issue, Control

B

QN=005 What should we do in the Analysis phase of the Benchmarking process? a. Determine which products, processes, or functions to benchmark b. Determine how and why benchmark target is better c. Communicate benchmark findings to key personnel d. Include personnel responsible for carrying out plans during formulation of action plans

B

QN=006 Which of the following is NOT Deming's 14 points? a. Creating a Vision and Demonstrate b. Supplier Quality c. Drive Out Fear d. Encourage Education and Self-Improvement

B

QN=006-SCM201 What is the primary objective of supplier development and improvement at Honda? a. To serve customers with complex needs by providing special treatment b. To create and maintain a dedicated supply base that support Honda's U.S. requirement c. To maintain and qualifying the supply base d. To provide the highest quality products to their customers

B

QN=007_SCM201_M ____ is the process of determining the appropriate number and mix of suppliers to maintain. a. Make-buy analysis b. Supply base optimization c. Competitive bidding d. Price analysis

B

QN=009 Who argued that the only performance standard that defines total quality is zero defects? a. Joseph Juran b. Philip Crosby c. Adam Smith d. Abraham Maslow

B

QN=010_SCM201_M Effective supply market intelligence involves the following, except: a. Monitoring supply markets and trends and interpreting the impact of these trends on company strategies b. Identifying the critical materials and services required to support company strategies in sub performance areas, during the process of improving old products c. Developing supply options and contingency plans that support company plans d. Supporting the organization's need for a diverse and globally competitive supply base

B

QN=011_SCM201_M Purchasing and supply chain specialists must understand the principles of... a. purchase price paid b. price and cost analysis. c. total cost analysis d. cost analysis

B

QN=012_SCM201_M The ability to practice ... techniques, such as those outlined in this chapter, can make the difference between creating value and creating waste. a. purchase price paid b. price and cost analysis c. total cost analysis d. cost analysis

B

QN=04 The Supplier Evaluation and Selection Survey Development includes a. 5 steps b. 7 steps c. 8 steps d. 3 steps

B

QN=06 What is the last step in the Supplier Evaluation and Selection Survey Development? a. Identify and weigh subcategories. b. Review and improve supplier performance continuously. c. Evaluate supplier directly. d. Identify supplier evaluation categories.

B

QN=08 How many critical issues belong to supplier selection a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 4

B

QN=10 In Electronic Tools to improve the evaluation and selection process, ...is a tool to use during first-time visits with suppliers to make a quick "yes or no" decision about the possibility of using the supplier. The tool requires the user to rank various criteria among suppliers. a. Special Edition b. E-Learning Scorecard c. RFP Version 2.0 d. SPEX evaluation kits

B

QN=18 ... systems attempt to make the most effective use of finished-goods inventories. These systems, which are concerned with inventory that has left the work-in-process status and is working its way through a channel of distribution toward the customer. a. Supply Chain Inventory Planners b. Distribution resource planning (DRP) c. Automated Inventory Tracking Systems d. Material Requirements Planning System

B

QN=19 Which is not one of the five primary categories of inventory? a. FInished goods inventory b. Unfinished item inventory c. Maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) supplies inventory d. Pipeline/in-transit inventory

B

Step 2 of Triangle Talk is _____. a. apply strategy to win the negotiation b. know exactly what they want c. know exactly what you want d. propose action in a way they can accept e. use power to get exactly what you want

B

Suppliers are more often being paid through _____, which is the automatic transfer of payment from the buyer's bank account to the supplier's bank account. a. RFQ b. EFT (electronic funds transfer) c. MRO d. PO e. None of the above.

B

The _____ requires suppliers to successfully navigate a successive series of performance milestones or hurdles in order to remain in the supply base. a. triage approach b. competency staircase approach c. M*A*S*H approach d. "improve or else" approach e. twenty/eighty rule

B

Using _____, the supplier's engineers work cooperatively with the buying company's engineers to jointly design the product. a. shadow box design b. gray box design c. red box design d. white box design e. black box design

B

Which of the following elements is true regarding Phase 4, Fully Integrated Supply Chains, of supply management strategy development? a. Cross-functional sourcing teams. b. Cross-enterprise decision making. c. Quality/cost teams. d. International sourcing. e. Total cost of ownership.

B

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a categorical supplier evaluation system? a. Least reliable. b. Cost accounting system required. c. Less frequent generation of evaluations. d. Most subjective. e. Usually manual.

B

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a cost-based supplier evaluation system? a. Least reliable. b. Most complex so implementation costs are high. c. Less frequent generation of evaluations. d. Most subjective. e. Tends to focus on unit price.

B

Which of the following is false concerning Deming's philosophy on fear in the workplace? a. Employees may be fearful of making a mistake and being reprimanded for it. b. Fear-free organizations are very common as only takes a short time to develop and maintain an organizational culture that promotes risk taking and change. c. Most people have a fear of failure, so they don't want to try anything new or different. d. People are creatures of habit and do not like to make changes in their routines. e. Middle managers may be fearful of letting go of their traditional power based on command and control.

B

Which of the following is not a potential drawback of using a cross-functional sourcing team? a. Team process loss. b. Reduced innovation. c. Negative effects on individual members. d. Poor team decisions. e. Groupthink.

B

Which of the following is not a reason for negotiating with suppliers? a. The total contract value or volume is large. b. The purchase is for widely available, commodity-like goods. c. The purchase involves utilization of capital-intensive plant and equipment. d. The purchase involves a special or collaborative relationship. e. The supplier will perform important or significant value-added activities.

B

Which of the following is not an advantage of online ordering systems? a. Immediate visibility to back-ordered items. b. Longer order cycle time from input to delivery. c. Faster order input time. d. Reduced ordering errors. e. Ability to batch multiple items from multiple users on a single order.

B

Which of the following is not an example of an appropriate use of a cross-functional team? a. New product development. b. Preparing a RFQ for a routine commodity product. (Request for Quotation) c. Locating a new production facility. d. Developing a commodity or purchase family strategy. e. Establishing a new business unit.

B

Which of the following is not an example of an internal failure cost? a. Process troubleshooting. b. Equipment calibration.(hiệu chuẩn) c. Re-inspection following detection of a defect. d. Production downtime caused by defects. e. Scrap and process waste.

B

Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points? a. Create a vision and demonstrate commitment. b. Utilize fear to motive workers. c. Improve constantly and forever. d. Optimize the efforts of teams. e. Remove barriers to pride in workmanship.

B

Which of the following is not one of Porter's five forces? a. Buyer bargaining power. b. Switching costs. c. Threat of new entrants. d. Market internal competition. e. Supplier bargaining power.

B

Which of the following is not one of the benefits of benchmarking? a. Helps identify the best business or functional practices to include in a firm's business plans. b. Determines internal customer needs and wants. c. Breaks down a reluctance to change. d. Serves as a source of market intelligence. e. Uncovers a previously unrecognized technological breakthrough.

B

Which of the following is not one of the benefits of simplified designs? a. Fewer suppliers. b. Increased number of manual transactions. c. Reduced transactions to support the inventory. d. Fewer part numbers. e. Lower inventory management costs.

B

Which of the following is not one of the benefits to the buyer of a supplier achieving ISO 9001:2008 registration? a. Few buying firms have sufficient size or resources to independently develop and implement their own comprehensive supplier certification audits. b. The supplier may develop interest from other buyers wanting to do business with it. (LO #5) c. Third party registration may provide insight into a supplier's quality system conformance that a buyer may otherwise lack. d. The buying firm receives the benefit of a supplier quality certification without actually having to conduct its own quality certification audits. e. The supplier assumes responsibility for meeting the ISO standards and paying its own registration fees.

B

Which of the following is not one of the categories of products in the strategic cost management matrix? a. Commodities. b. One-time buys. c. Critical products. d. Unique products. e. Generics.

B

Which of the following is not one of the common ways that internal customers should communicate their needs to purchasing? a. Purchase requisitions from internal users. b. Chance meeting in the company cafeteria. c. Forecasts and customer orders. d. Material requirements identified during new-product development. e. Routine reordering systems.

B

Which of the following is not one of the eight key principles of total quality management? a. Define quality in terms of customers and their requirements. b. Inspect for quality at the end of the production line. c. Stress objective rather than subjective analysis. d. Strive for zero defects. e. Make quality everyone's responsibility.

B

Which of the following is not one of the features of the new model of progressive purchasing? a. Developing closer relationships with important suppliers. b. Performing due diligence on suppliers before awarding longer-term contracts. c. Focusing primarily on price analysis and short term contracts. d. Conducting worldwide Internet searches for the best sources of supply. e. Inviting key suppliers to participate in product and process development.

B

Which of the following key financial ratios is calculated as Sales/Total assets? a. Fixed asset turnover. b. Total asset turnover. c. Current ratio. d. Return on assets. e. Interest coverage.

B

While similar in concept, blanket purchase orders are typically used more often for _____ purchases. a. unique b. lower-value c. complex d. spot buy e. There are no differences in the types of products or amounts purchased in either method.

B

With _____, a product's allowable cost is strictly a function of what a market segment is willing to pay less the profit goals for the product. a. penetration pricing b. target pricing c. market-share pricing d. should-cost modeling e. revenue pricing

B

[A] _____ establishes the rate of improvement because of learning as producers realize direct-labor cost improvements as production volumes increase. a. leverage b. learning curve c. knowledge curve d. product life cycle e. short-term contract

B

[A] _____ is a tool to structure and segment the supply base and is used as a means of classifying suppliers into one of four types. a. Supplier scorecard b. Portfolio analysis c. Make-buy analysis d. Price analysis e. Value chain analysis

B

_____ can cover such characteristics as the materials used, the manufacturing or service steps required, and even the physical dimensions of the product. a. Description by market grade b. Description by specification c. Description by brand d. Description by industry standard e. Description by performance characteristics

B

_____ focus on achieving standardization of components, systems, and services and application of currently used purchased items or the use of industry-standard versus unique items. a. First insight measures b. Standardization measures c. Responsiveness measures d. Cycle time reduction measures e. Flexibility measures.

B

_____ include(s) the materials required to pack and ship final products, such as pallets, boxes, master shipping containers, tape, bags, wrapping, inserts, and other packaging material. a. Raw materials b. Production support items c. Semifinished products d. Components e. Work-in-process inventory

B

_____ includes the ability to punish the other party - financially, physically, emotionally, or mentally. a. Reward power b. Coercive power c. Legitimate power d. Expert power e. Referent power

B

_____ inventory includes completed items or products that are available for shipment or future customer orders. a. WIP b. Finished-goods c. MRO d. Pipeline/in-transit e. Raw materials and semifinished items

B

_____ involves a comparison of one firm's market strategies against those of another. a. Functional benchmarking b. Strategic benchmarking c. Operational benchmarking d. Support-activity benchmarking e. None of the above.

B

_____ involves frequent deliveries of smaller quantities directly to the point of use at the purchaser. a. Lean supply b. Lean transportation c. Lean warehousing d. Lean ordering e. None of the above.

B

_____ involves generating the materials release, contacting a supplier directly concerning changes, and monitoring the status of inbound shipments. a. Order processing b. Material control c. Warehousing d. Customer service e. Quality control

B

_____ involves inventing new options that satisfy each party's needs. a. Expand the pie b. Find a bridge solution c. Logroll d. Cut the costs for compliance e. Use non-specific compensation

B

_____ is a competition and implies that a winning organization excels not only in quality management but also in quality achievement. a. ISO 9001:2008 b. MBNQA (Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award) c. ISO 14001:2004 d. Six Sigma e. Zero defects

B

_____ is a functional group (i.e., a formal entity on the organizational chart as well as a functional activity (i.e., buying goods and services). a. Engineering b. Purchasing c. Quality assurance d. Logistics e. Treasury operations

B

_____ is a negotiation tactic that involves not immediately responding when the other party makes an offer in the hope that an awkward silence will encourage further offers or concessions from the other party. a. Trial balloon b. Silence c. High ball d. Questions e. Planned concessions

B

_____ is a negotiation tactic that involves taking an abnormally high initial position on an issue. a. Low ball b. High ball c. Best and final offer d. Curve ball e. Knuckleball

B

_____ is a process associated with defining the contract, defining roles and responsibilities of both parties, and advising when to modify and ensure appropriate escalation. a. Spend analysis b. Contract management c. Cost management d. Supplier selection e. Category management

B

_____ is a program that distributors market to manage their customers' inventory for them. a. Just-in-time b. Supplier managed inventory c. Self-managed inventory d. Countertrade e. Preferred supplier inventory

B

_____ is a simultaneous engineering approach that occurs between buyer and seller and seeks to maximize the benefits received by taking advantage of the supplier's design capabilities. a. Supplier development b. Early supplier design involvement c. Total cost of ownership d. Supplier relationship management e. Supply base optimization

B

_____ is the process of analyzing each individual cost element (i.e., material, labor hours and rates, overhead, general and administrative costs, and profit) that together add up to the final price. a. Price analysis b. Cost analysis d. Total cost analysis e. Make-buy analysis

B

_____ is the process of determining what the external customer is willing to pay for a product or service and then assigning specific cost targets to the components, assemblies, and systems that make up the product or service. a. Specific costing b. Target pricing c. Total cost analysis d. Cost avoidance e. None of the above.

B

_____ is the process of identifying how many and which suppliers a buyer will maintain. a. Supply base optimization b. Supply base rationalization c. Six Sigma d. Zero defects e. Strategic sourcing

B

_____ is the process of using unit and rate consumption levels to forecast and estimate future consumption in an internal functional customer and providing guidance and input on how to optimize usage and educating the user on the trade-offs. a. Specification management b. Demand management c. Category management d. Supply market intelligence e. Cost management

B

_____ means that two or more parties are competing over a fixed sum value with the winner taking all or the larger share. a. Lose-lose negotiation b. Win-lose negotiation c. Winner-take-all negotiation d. Integrative bargaining e. None of the above.

B

_____ of inventory refers to how quickly raw material and work-in-process inventory transform into finished goods that the customer accepts. a. Volume b. Velocity c. Value d. Vigor e. None of the above.

B

_____ represents the ability to meet or exceed current and future customer (i.e., buyer and eventually end customer) expectations or requirements within critical performance areas on a consistent basis. a. Kaizen b. Supplier quality c. Strategic sourcing d. Process capability e. Supply base rationalization

B

. In _____, one party (usually the buyer) gets a lower price as the parties work jointly to reduce the seller's costs or the joint transaction costs of doing business together. a. logroll b. expand the pie c. cut the costs for compliance d. find a bridge solution e. use non-specific compensation

C

. In the _____ of the process of supplier segmentation, the attractiveness of the buyer as a customer is significant and important to the supplier, but perhaps the historical volume of business with the buyer has been relatively low. a. EXPLOIT segment b. CORE segment c. DEVELOP segment d. PRICE segment e. NUISANCE segment

C

. Which of the following is not a typical supplier development activity? a. Providing incentives to suppliers for improved performance. b. Promoting competition among suppliers. c. Raising prices paid for purchased goods and services. d. Directly involving buyer personnel with suppliers. e. Conducting training and process improvement initiatives.

C

. _____ involves the identification of the steps, activities, time, and costs involved within a process. a. Data warehousing b. Co-location c. Process mapping d. Supply base optimization e. TQM

C

. _____ is a negotiation tactic that involves taking a time out. a. Silence b. Venue c. Caucus d. Take-it-or-leave-it e. Low ball

C

. _____ of inventory pertains to the unit cost of the inventory. a. Volume b. Velocity c. Value d. Virtue e. None of the above.

C

004_SCM201_E A _____ establishes the rate of improvement because of learning as producers realize direct-labor cost improvements as production volumes increase. A. Leverage B. Knowledge curve C. Learning curve D. Product life cycle

C

005_SCM201 Which is not an assessment criteria for Supplier Suggestion Programs? A. Go/No-go decision B. Feasibility C. Cost savings D. Resources required

C

006_SCM201 What forecasting systems combine the intelligence of multiple supply chain partners? A. FORE B. SUPPLY C. CPFR (Collaborative Planning, Forecasting and Replenishment ) D. MULTISUP

C

007_SCM201 The value analysis process includes A. Gather information -> Analyze -> Summarize and follow up B. Analyze -> Speculate -> Recommend and execute -> Summarize and follow up C. Gather information -> Speculate -> Analyze -> Recommend and execute -> Summarized and follow up D. Gather information -> Analyze -> Speculate -> Recommend and execute -> Summarized and follow up

C

009_SCM201 _____ involves professionally managing suppliers and developing close working relationships with different internal groups. A. Program management B. Credible commitment C. Supply integration D. Relationship management

C

010_SCM201 Typical Supply Chain Processes does not include A. Outbound logistics and physical distribution B. Inventory control and management C. Generates buy-in from affected groups D. New-product design and development

C

010_SCM201 _____ is defined as the process by which two or more parties adopt a high level of purposeful cooperation to maintain a trading relationship over time to achieve specific goals. A. Collaboration B. SRM C. KPI D. Supply integration CÂU NÀY GIẪU BIẾT LÀ SAI ĐÁP ÁN CƠ MÀ ĐÀNH CHỊU THÔI (ACCORDING TO ME=> D)

C

A _____ details the components or subassemblies and the quantity required to produce a final part number or end item. a. kanban b. perfect order c. bill of material file d. DRP system e. RFID system

C

A _____ is concerned with (1) the scope or boundaries of each business and the links with corporate strategy and (2) the basis on which the business unit will achieve and maintain a competitive advantage within an industry. a. commodity strategy b. category strategy c. business unit strategy d. functional strategy e. supply management strategy

C

A _____ refers to a specific family of products or services that is used in delivering value to the end customer. a. spend analysis b. decentralized structure c. category d. centralized structure e. hybrid structure

C

A/An _____ demonstrates the impact of purchasing and supply strategies and actions on revenues of the firm. a. income measure b. target cost c. revenue measure d. target price e. cost avoidance measure

C

A/An _____ is an open order, usually effective for one year, covering repeated purchases of an item or family of items. a. outstanding order b. pending order c. blanket purchase order d. completed order e. order acceptance

C

According to Michael Porter, a firm's _____ is composed of primary and secondary support activities that can lead to competitive advantage when configured properly. a. supply chain b. process c. value chain d. marketing channel e. core competency

C

According to Ohno and Toyota, _____ is a category of waste that makes the wrong product. a. overproduction b. waiting time c. defect d. unnecessary movement e. over-processing

C

According to the APICS Dictionary, _____ is defined as the process of a supplier placing goods at a customer location without receiving payment until after the buyer uses the goods. a. Kanban b. Just-in-time c. Consignment d. MRO e. None of the above.

C

All of the following are elements of market risk in a supply base except _____. a. the number of buyers competing for the same goods or source of supply b. increasingly shorter product life cycles c. regional political risk d. threat of emerging, often disruptive, technologies e. protecting and maintaining trade secrets and intellectual properties from misuse or misappropriation by suppliers, particularly those located overseas

C

All of the following are examples of appraisal costs except _____. a. laboratory testing of prototypes and samples b. production inspection (kiểm tra) activities c. development and maintenance of a quality management system e. incoming materials inspections

C

All of the following are examples of broad total cost of ownership categories except _____. a. purchase price b. acquisition costs c. sales, general, and administrative overhead costs d. usage costs e. end-of-life costs

C

All of the following are examples of questions that should be asked when evaluating a supplier for longer-term relationship potential except _____. a. Has the supplier indicated a willingness or commitment to a longer-term relationship? b. Will the supplier engage in joint problem solving and improvement efforts? c. What is the supplier's on-time delivery performance? d. Is the supplier willing to come to us first with innovations? e. Is the corporate culture similar between the two parties?

C

Face-to-face negotiation is best when all of the following conditions apply except when _____. a. the item is new or technically complex, with only vague specifications b. the purchase requires agreement about a wide range of performance factors c. the firm does not have a preferred supplier d. the buyer requires the supplier to participate in the development effort e. the supplier cannot determine risks and costs without additional input from the buyer

C

Failing to respond to the needs of internal customers will diminish the confidence these users have in purchasing, and they may try to negotiate contracts themselves (a practice known as _____). a. strategic sourcing b. spend management c. maverick buying d. outsourcing e. internal sourcing

C

In TCO, _____ includes all costs associated with bringing the product, service, or capital equipment to the customer's location. a. purchase price b. opportunity costs c. acquisition costs d. usage costs e. end of life costs

C

In a PERT network, which of the following is not one of the times shown on the chart? a. Early start. b. Late start. c. On time start. d. Early finish. e. Late finish.

C

Negotiation _____ refers to the overall approach used to reach a mutually beneficial agreement with a supplier that holds different points of view from the buyer. a. tactics b. positioning c. strategy d. conflict e. None of the above

C

QN=002_SCM201_H What of the following requires the parties to require more than one issue in conflict and then agree to trade-off among these issues so one party achieves a highly preferred outcome on the first issue and the other person achieves a highly preferred outcome on the second issue? a. Find a bridge solution b. Use nonspecific compensation c. Logroll d. Cut the costs for compliance

C

QN=003_SCM201_M Which of the following is NOT the objective of Purchasing Organisation: a. Supply assurance b. Manage sourcing process efficiently and effectively c. Develop disconnected supply strategies that support business goals and objectives d. Develop aligned goals with internal stakeholders

C

QN=004 _____ means continuous improvement and must be built into every single process in the organization. a. Development b. Involvement c. Kaizen d. Optimization

C

QN=004-SCM201 In Capable Human Resources,..... has become an integral part of purchasing and supply chain management a. Human factors b. Supplier quality management c. Cost-management d. Financial capability

C

QN=004_SCM201_M To supporting the uninterrupted flow of high-quality goods and services that internal customers require, Purchasing have to do the following, except: a. Buy products and services at the right price b. Buy products and services from the right source c. Buy products and services at the right specification that meets suppliers' needs d. Buy products and services in the right quantity

C

QN=008 ____ is the avoidance of nonconformance in products and services by not following errors or defects to occur in the first place. a. Optimization b. Quality c. Prevention d. Measure

C

QN=009 Which is not the problem with purchasing and supply chain measurement and evaluation? a. Lack of detail b. Too much data c. Measures that are long-term focused d. Drive the wrong performance

C

QN=01 Which is the first step in Supplier Evaluation and Selection Process? a. Identify key sourcing requirements. b. Identify potential supply sources. c. Recognize the need for supplier selection d. Determine method of supplier evaluation and selection

C

QN=012-SCM201 In Qualitative Service Factors, the description of Problem resolution ability factor is... a. Supplier's willingness to help find ways to reduce purchase cost b. Supplier's manufacturing ability compared with other industry suppliers c. Supplier's attentiveness to problem resolution d. Subjective rating concerning how well a buying firm and a supplier work together

C

QN=013-SCM201 The advantages of Categorical include all of the following except a. Easy to implement b. Requires minimal data c. Most subjective d. Low-cost system

C

QN=016_SCM201_M The impact of cost reduction on profits is much larger than the impact of increased a. Innovation b. Production c. Sales d. Information

C

QN=03 What are the primary criteria most evaluations rate suppliers? a. Cost or price, quality, and sales b. Cost or price, quantity, and delivery history. c. Cost or price, quality, and delivery d. Cost or price, quantity, and delivery

C

QN=13 Poor quality affects material yields when a portion of the shipment is a .......... grade or quality than what was specified, therefore providing ........ output than expected. a. Lower; more b. Higher; more c. Lower; less d. Higher; less

C

QN=16 Which following is true about kanban system? a. is the first major element of a lean supply chain b. is a never-ending effort to eliminate waste, which is defined as "any activity that does not add value to the good or service in the eyes of the consumer c. is a production control approach that uses containers, cards, or visual cues to control the production and movement of goods through the supply chain d. is a philosophy of manufacturing based on planned elimination of all waste and on continuous improvement of productivity

C

Step 1 of Triangle Talk is _____. a. know exactly what they want b. propose action in a way they can accept c. know exactly what you want d. apply tactics to win the negotiation e. None of the above.

C

The _____ is a change index, and generally a rating over 50 indicates that the economy is expanding. a. Consumer Price Index b. Producer Price Index c. ISM Report on Business d. rate of inflation e. None of the above.

C

The _____ is a normalization factor for the supplier performance index (SPI) that eliminates high-dollar lot bias. a. Cp b. MRO c. Q adjustment factor d. Cpk e. Rfx

C

The _____ supplier evaluation system seeks to identify and quantify the total cost of doing business with a given supplier, as the lowest purchase price may not always result in the lowest total cost for an item or service. a. Six Sigma b. zero defects c. cost-based d. categorical e. weighted-point

C

The average North American manufacturing firm spends _____ percent of its cost of goods sold on purchased goods and services. a. < 10 b. 25 c. 55 d. 75 e. > 90

C

The basis of _____ is the official job position or title that an individual holds, rather than the characteristics of the individual him/herself. a. informational power b. referent power c. legitimate power d. coercive power e. expert power

C

The emphasis of the _____ is on obtaining sufficient current revenue to pay for operating cost rather than on profit. a. price volume model b. promotional pricing model c. revenue pricing model d. market skimming model e. competition pricing model

C

The goal of _____ is to be able to understand, identify, and exploit cost savings opportunities that may have been overlooked by business unit managers or even by suppliers in bringing the products and services to the appropriate location. a. Marketing research b. Make-buy analysis c. Value chain analysis d. Price analysis e. Cost analysis

C

The negotiator's _____ is the unspoken motivation or reason that underlies any given negotiation position. a. want b. need c. interest d. BATNA e. bargaining zone

C

When firms produce goods in anticipation of future customer orders, they are operating in a/an _____ environment. a. assemble-to-order b. make-to-order c. make-to-stock d. just-in-time e. None of the above.

C

Which of the following is not a commonly accepted source of information regarding potential supply sources? a. Current suppliers. b. Sales representatives. c. Television advertising. d. Organizational knowledge. e. Second-party or indirect information.

C

Which of the following is not a feature that separates capital equipment purchases from other purchases? a. Capital equipment purchases do not occur with regular frequency. b. Capital equipment investment requires large sums of money. c. For accounting purposes, most capital equipment is not depreciable over the life of the item. d. Buyers can rarely switch suppliers in the middle of a large-scale project or dispose of capital equipment after delivery because of dissatisfaction. e. Capital equipment is highly sensitive to general economic conditions.

C

Which of the following is not a requirement of being an effective team member? a. Understands the team's task - the member has task-relevant knowledge. b. Has the time to commit to the team. c. Has the right corporate political connections. d. Has the ability to work with others in a group. e. Can assume an organizational rather than strict functional perspective.

C

Which of the following is not a typical qualitative service factor in a supplier performance measurement system? a. Problem resolution ability. b. Technical ability. c. Process capability. d. Ongoing progress reporting. e. Wavelength.

C

Which of the following is not an example of questions that should be asked when evaluating a supplier's management capability? a. Has management committed the supplier to TQM and continuous improvement? b. Is management customer focused? c. What is the willingness of employees to contribute to improved operations? d. Does management put a priority on supply chain management? e. What is the history of labor/management relations?

C

Which of the following is not one of the conditions under which negotiation is effective? a. When the purchase requires agreement about a wide range of performance factors, such as price, quality, delivery, risk sharing, and product support. b. When the buyer requires early supplier involvement. c. When the specifications or requirements are clear to the seller. d. When the supplier cannot determine risks and costs. e. When the supplier requires a long period of time to develop and produce the items purchased.

C

Which of the following is not one of the examples of Porter's threat of new entrants? a. Capital markets. b. Economies of scale. c. Supplier concentration. d. Product life cycles. e. Brand equity and customer loyalty.

C

Which of the following is not one of the five elements in the Six Sigma performance improvement model? a. D(efine). b. M(easure). c. A(ccess). d. I(mprove). e. C(ontrol).

C

Which of the following is not one of the formal approaches to supply base rationalization? a. Twenty/eighty rule. b. "Improve or else" approach. c. Global sourcing. d. Triage approach. e. Competency staircase approach.

C

Which of the following is not one of the goals for sourcing a routine commodity? a. Reduce the number of items through substitution. b. Elimination of small volume spend. c. Conduct of a detailed negotiation to improve supplier capability. d. Elimination of duplicate SKUs. e. Simplification of the procurement process using electronic tools.

C

Which of the following is not one of the questions that should be asked when analyzing a seller's pricing strategy? a. Does the seller have a long-term pricing strategy, or is it short-term in nature? b. Is the seller a price leader or a price follower? c. How many employees does the seller's plant employ? d. Is the seller attempting to establish entry barriers to other competitors by establishing a low price initially, then preparing to raise prices later in the future? e. Is the seller using a cost-based pricing approach or a market-based pricing approach?

C

Which of the following is not one of the steps in the strategic sourcing process? a. Build the team and the project charter. b. Conduct market intelligence research on suppliers. c. Increasing revenues. d. Strategy development. e. Supplier relationship management.

C

Which of the following is not one of the wrong reasons for investing in inventory? a. Poor quality and material yield. b. Extended order-cycle times from global sourcing. c. Hedge against marketplace uncertainty. d. Specifying custom items for standard applications. e. Inefficient manufacturing processes.

C

Which of the following key financial ratios is calculated as Current assets/Current liabilities? a. Inventory turnover. b. Debt to equity. c. Current ratio. d. Total asset turnover. e. Quick ratio.

C

Within the downstream portion of a supply chain, _____ are responsible for the actual movement of materials between locations. a. buyers b. trucking firms c. logistics managers d. accountants e. purchasing managers

C

[A/An] _____ consists of personnel from different functions and increasingly from suppliers who are brought together to achieve supply management or supply chain-related tasks. a. Big R b. External RM c. cross-functional sourcing team d. Little r e. Internal RM

C

_____ = (Quality + Technology + Service + Cycle Time) ÷ Price. a. Cost b. Efficiency c. Value d. Total cost e. Target cost

C

_____ are calculated as Average Inventory in Units x Unit Price x Carrying Cost per Year. a. Quality costs b. Ordering costs c. Inventory carrying costs d. MRO costs e. Cycle counting costs

C

_____ include the direct, out-of-pocket costs of measuring quality, specifically checking for possible defects. a. Six Sigma costs b. Internal failure costs c. Appraisal costs d. External failure costs e. Prevention costs

C

_____ includes both cost and revenue data for an item to identify the point where revenue equals cost, and the expected profit or loss at different production volumes. a. Make-buy analysis b. TCO c. Break-even analysis d. Market-share pricing e. None of the above.

C

_____ is a negotiation tactic in which the negotiator insists on negotiating in a location that is more favorable to him/her. a. Consistency b. Caucus c. Venue d. Low ball e. High ball

C

_____ is a process of visually presenting the flow of materials and information to identify wasted time and actions in a manufacturing or service process. a. Make-buy analysis b. QDA c. Value stream mapping d. TCO e. None of the above.

C

_____ is a situation that occurs when sellers seek to "go around" purchasing and instead directly contact and attempt to sell directly to end users (stakeholders). a. Insourcing b. Bidding c. Maverick buying and selling d. Negotiating e. Outsourcing

C

_____ is defined as the continual monitoring of the strength of suppliers' financial condition to ensure their ability to meet the purchaser's performance requirements for products or services. a. Operational risk management b. Sole sourcing c. Financial risk management d. Multiple sourcing e. None of the above.

C

_____ is the avoidance of nonconformance in products and services by not allowing errors or defects to occur in the first place. a. Detection b. Inspection c. Prevention d. The hidden factory e. Optimization

C

_____ is the process of determining the appropriate number and mix of suppliers to maintain. a. Make-buy analysis b. Competitive bidding c. Supply base optimization d. Portfolio analysis e. Price analysis

C

_____ techniques are primarily applied to existing products and services, while _____ is the application of value principles during product or service design. a. Value analysis....total cost of ownership b. Value engineering....price analysis c. Value analysis....value engineering d. Price analysis....cost analysis e. Value engineering....value analysis

C

. In TCO, _____ is the amount paid to the supplier for the product, service, or capital equipment. a. acquisition cost b. usage cost c. end-of-life cost d. purchase price e. opportunity cost

D

. _____ is a negotiation tactic that is a test of acceptability. a. Take-it-or-leave-it b. Best and final offer c. Price increase d. Trial balloon e. Honesty and openness

D

. _____ means continuous improvement and must be built into every single process in the organization. a. Banzai b. Optimization c. Gung ho d. Kaizen e. Bonsai

D

001_SCM201 In relationship inputs, information is about A. Markets B. Plans and requirements C. Market share D. A & B

D

002_SCM201 What is the benefit of CFTs? A. Reduced time to complete tasks B. Joint ownership of decisions C. Enhanced communication among functions or organizations D. All of this

D

002_SCM201_M What are six phases of a Project? A. Concept; Definition; Planning; Preliminary studies; Performance; Post completion B. Concept; Project definition; Establishing; Preliminary studies; Performance; Post completion C. Concept; Definition; Establishing; Preliminary studies; Performance; Post completion D. Concept; Project definition; Planning; Preliminary studies; Performance; Post completion

D

004_SCM201 What is the benefit of supplier involvement on CFTs? A. Are rated more effective B. Higher quality of information exchange C. Put forth the greater effort D. All of this

D

006_SCM201 What is the formula of Value Analysis? A. Value = Function * Cost B. Value = Cost/Function C. Value = Function - Cost D. Value = Function/Cost

D

007_SCM201 Which of the following is NOT a step in the forecasting process? A. Determine the use of the forecast. B. Select the forecasting model. C. Determine the time horizon of the forecast. D. Eliminate any assumptions.

D

A _____ is concerned with (1) the definition of businesses in which the corporation wishes to participate and (2) the acquisition and allocation of resources to these business units. a. business unit strategy b. supply management strategy c. human resource management strategy d. corporate strategy e. functional strategy

D

A _____ is one that consistently satisfies the performance and service standards defined by the buyer and responds to unexpected changes. a. certified supplier b. sole source supplier c. partnered supplier d. preferred supplier e. disqualified supplier.

D

A _____ is one that requires members to use a variety of higher-level skills, supports giving members regular feedback about performance, results in an outcome with a significant effect on the organization and others outside the team, and provides members autonomy for deciding how they will do the work. a. gray box design b. statement of work c. technology roadmap d. meaningful task e. traditional buyer-supplier relationship

D

A _____ specifies how a group tasked with developing the strategy for the specific category being purchased will achieve goals that in turn will support higher level strategies. a. functional strategy b. corporate strategy c. business unit strategy d. category strategy e. None of the above.

D

A _____ system is a production control approach that uses containers, cards, or visual cues to control the production and movement of goods through the supply chain. a. MRP b. DRP c. lean supply d. JIT kanban e. lean transportation

D

A negotiator's _____ can be defined as his or her opening offer, which represents the optimistic (or ideal) value of the issue being negotiated. a. interest b. need c. BATNA d. position e. want

D

A repeatable lean transportation schedule, also called a _____, moves goods from supplier to purchaser and then from purchaser back to supplier with return material. a. MRO system b. pull system c. push system d. closed-loop system e. None of the above.

D

A/An _____ consists of activities or steps that can be performed at the same time during the main flow of work. a. intermittent process b. continuous process c. standardized process d. concurrent process e. None of the above.

D

A/An _____ is a basic component that suppliers must possess before they proceed to the next phase of the evaluation and selection process. a. core competency b. technology roadmap c. Internet website d. entry qualifier e. triple bottom line

D

A/An _____ is a method or scheme devised for making or doing something to achieve a desired end. a. want b. objective c. BATNA d. plan e. position

D

A/An _____ is a series of tasks that requires the completion of specific objectives within a certain time frame; has defined start and stop dates; consumes resources, particularly time, personnel, and budget; and operates with limited resources. a. process b. work order c. purchase order d. project e. team charter

D

A/An _____ is one that personnel cannot inappropriately influence the results of. a. efficient measure b. qualitative measure c. quantitative measure d. non-manipulable measure e. None of the above.

D

According to Armand Fiegenbaum, _____ is defined as the total composite of product and service characteristics of marketing, engineering, manufacturing, and maintenance through which the product or service in use will meet or exceed the expectations of the customer. a. productivity b. process capability c. zero defects d. quality e. supply base optimization

D

According to Cialdini, _____ is a principle which states that people feel an obligation to give something back of equal or greater value to someone else after we have received something of perceived value from them. a. social proof b. authority c. consistency d. reciprocation e. scarcity

D

According to ISM, _____ is a framework of measurable corporate policies and procedures and resulting behavior designed to benefit the workplace and, by extension, the individual, the organization, and the community. a. supply chain risk management b. sustainability c. ISO 9000:2008 d. social responsibility e. supplier development

D

According to Kaplan and Norton, a balanced scorecard includes all of the following key performance measurement areas except the _____. a. customer satisfaction perspective b. operational excellence perspective c. innovation perspective d. human resource perspective e. financial perspective

D

According to Ohno and Toyota, _____ is a category of waste that moves material unnecessarily or long distances. a. unnecessary movement b. over-processing c. defect d. unnecessary transport e. overproduction

D

According to the Institute for Supply Management, _____ is the identification, acquisition, access, positioning, and management of resources and related capabilities an organization needs or potentially needs in the attainment of its strategic objectives. a. supply chain management b. procurement c. logistics d. supply management e. distribution

D

All of the following are advantages of a weighted-point supplier evaluation system except _____. a. flexible system b. supplier ranking allowed c. moderate implementation costs d. total cost approach e. quantitative and qualitative factors combined into a single system

D

All of the following are characteristics of an effective supplier survey except _____. a. the survey should include the performance categories considered important to the evaluation and selection process b. the survey process should be as objective as possible c. it is mathematically straightforward d. the buyer should attempt to measure every possible variable every time it is used e. the format of the evaluation should provide some flexibility across different types of purchase requirements

D

All of the following are effective e-negotiating practices except _____. a. use a blended negotiation, starting with an initial face-to-face meeting or a telephone call to build essential rapport with the other party b. establish common ground and interests to build mutual trust c. use "emoticons" to counter the lack of nonverbal awareness d. forward e-mail negotiations to the other party's immediate superior for verification e. proofread the entire message, including addressees, before sending the e-mail out

D

All of the following are examples of external failure costs except _____. a. warranty costs b. replacement of defective products to customers c. liability lawsuits d. quality planning e. loss of customer goodwill

D

All of the following are opportunities for supplier cost reductions except _____. a. process capability b. plant utilization c. learning-curve effect d. ability to vote out the supplier's labor union e. management capability

D

All of the following are possible risks of maintaining fewer suppliers except _____. a. supplier dependency b. supply disruption c. overaggressive supply reduction d. maintaining an all-foreign supply base e. absence of competition

D

Competitive bidding is most effective when all of the following conditions apply except when _____. a. the buying firm can provide qualified suppliers with clear descriptions of the items or services to be purchased b. volume is high enough to justify the cost and effort c. the firm does not have a preferred supplier d. the item is new or technically complex, with only vague specifications e. None of the above conditions apply to competitive bidding.

D

In _____, the parties work closely together to identify new and creative ways to expand available resources or generate new value obtained through a negotiated agreement. a. logroll b. use non-specific compensation c. cut the costs for compliance d. expand the pie e. find a bridge solution

D

In _____, there is an intense focus on identifying and eliminating common causes of waste that add cost, time, and effort to the product or service while not adding value to the customer. a. supplier evaluation and selection process b. the MBNQA c. SIO 14000:2004 d. the Honda BP process e. None of the above.

D

In a PERT network, a/an _____ is the earliest point in time an activity can begin. a. late start b. on time start c. early finish d. early start e. late finish

D

In a PERT network, the difference between the _____ and the _____ is slack (chùng lại). a. early start....late finish b. late start....early finish c. early start....early finish d. late start....early start e. None of the above.

D

In a/an _____ market structure, there exist identical products with minimal barriers for new suppliers to enter the market, and price is solely a function of the forces of supply and demand. a. monopolistic b. oligopolistic c. communistic d. perfect competition e. Price is never solely a function of supply and demand, regardless of market structure.

D

In should-cost modeling, _____ include those components the company has direct control or influence over. a. direct costs b. assumption variables c. variable costs d. decision variables e. commodity prices

D

In supplier evaluation, a _____ includes those systems that release, schedule, and control the flow of work in an organization. a. logistics system b. cost accounting system c. traffic management system d. planning and control system e. warehouse management system

D

In the _____ of the process of supplier segmentation, suppliers have a significant portion of the buyer's spend but do not view the buyer as an important customer. a. NUISANCE segment b. COMMODITY segment c. DEVELOP segment d. EXPLOIT segment e. CORE segment

D

In the _____, the desired profit is added to the estimated costs. a. penetration pricing model b. revenue pricing model c. margin pricing model d. rate-of-return pricing model e. TCO model

D

In value stream mapping, the flow diagram that depicts the process and shows the times and resources used at each step and the time delay between each step is called a/an _____. a. anticipated state map b. future state map c. ideal state map d. current state map e. None of the above.

D

Once a purchaser and a supplier reach agreement on a longer-term purchase contract, material releasing responsibility should shift to _____. a. marketing b. purchasing c. the supplier d. user groups e. accounts payable

D

QN=001_SCM201_M Which of the following is a type of negotiation in which two or more parties are expanding the value or resources available to all parties through cooperative negotiation? a. Win-lose negotiation b. Zero-sum negotiation c. Fixed-sum game d. Integrative bargaining

D

QN=002 What is the formula of Total purchase price variance? a. Actual price − Planned price b. Actual price/Planned price c. Actual price + Planned price d. (Actual price − Planned price) × Purchase quantity

D

QN=002-SCM201 These are one Four Enablers of Purchasing and Supply Chain Management,except... a. Human Resources b. Information Technology c. Measurement d. Strategic Approach

D

QN=002_SCM201_M Which of the following is NOT the element of the Purchasing Process a. Develop ordering mechanism b. Ensure payment occurs promptly c. Ascertain user needs were effectively met d. Keep the quality stable, no need to improve more

D

QN=003 Which of the following is not one of the eight key principles of total quality management? a. Define quality in terms of customers and their requirements. b. Stress objective rather than subjective analysis. c. Strive for zero defects. d. Inspect for quality at the end of the production line.

D

QN=005-SCM201 Demand planning identifies all the claims on output except... a. Forecasts of anticipated demand b. Inventory adjustments c. Orders taken but not filled d. Logistics network capable of satisfying demand requirements

D

QN=005_SCM201_M To supporting the uninterrupted flow of high-quality goods and services that internal customers require, Purchasing have to do the following, except: a. Arrange for delivery at the right time b. Buy products and services from the right source c. Buy products and services at the right specification that meets users' needs d. Require delivery to the right external customer

D

QN=006 What should we do in the Action phase of the Benchmarking process? a. Determine which products, processes, or functions to benchmark b. Determine how and why benchmark target is better c. Communicate benchmark findings to key personnel d. Include personnel responsible for carrying out plans during formulation of action plans

D

QN=006_SCM201_M Purchasing must manage its internal operations efficiently and effectively, by performing the following, except: a. Determining staffing levels b. Developing and adhering to administrative budgets c. Providing professional training and growth opportunities for employees d. Introducing systems that just keep spending visibility, efficient invoicing and payment, and user satisfaction in a stable

D

QN=006_SCM201_M Which of the following is not correct about interest in negotiation? a. Unspoken motivation or reason that underlies any given position b. Unlikely to be expressly stated or acknowledged c. May not be directly germane to the stated position d. Always focus on the other party's underlying interests, its stated positions

D

QN=007 All of the following revenue measures demonstrate the impact of strategies on the firm's revenues, except a. Number of patents that have led to royalties b. Number of invention disclosure forms filed c. Number of patents granted d. Number of discounted samples from suppliers

D

QN=008 Most purchasing and supply chain measures fall into one of the following categories, except a. Price performance b. Quality c. Physical environment and safety d. Demography

D

QN=008_SCM201_E Companies that are successful in deploying supply chain strategies do so because the strategy development process is___ a. Clastic b. Decentralizing c. Disintegrative d. Integrative.

D

QN=009-SCM201 Most of the objective, quantitative variables lie within the following three categories,except: a. Delivery performance b. Quality performance c. Cost reduction d. Supplier performance

D

QN=014_SCM201_M How many ways are there to build a Total Cost of Ownership Model? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

D

QN=017-SCM201 The most popular practice of better companies employed with their suppliers by the study of ManTech team is... a. Supplier rating, certification, and awards b. Supplier symposia and suggestion programs c. Supplier continuous improvement programs d. Supplier training

D

QN=019_SCM201_M Six steps in strategic cost management? a. Value Engineering,On Site Supplier Development, Cross Enterprise Cost Improvement, Joint Brainstorming, Supplier Suggestion Programs, Design and Development b. Value Engineering,On Site Supplier Development, Cross Enterprise Cost Improvement, Ongoing Production, Supplier Suggestion Programs, Design and Development c. Value Engineering,Supply Chain Compression, Cross Enterprise Cost Improvement, Ongoing Production, Supplier Suggestion Programs, Design and Development d. Value Engineering,On Site Supplier Development, Cross Enterprise Cost Improvement, Joint Brainstorming, Supplier Suggestion Programs, Supply Chain Compression

D

QN=03 The most common environmental performance criteria used when evaluating a supplier's performance include the following excepts: a. ISO 14000 certification b. Control of ozone-depleting substances c. Disclosure of environmental infractions d. Labor productivity index

D

QN=05 What is the first step in the Supplier Evaluation and Selection Survey Development? a. Identify and weigh subcategories. b. Review and improve supplier performance continuously. c. Evaluate supplier directly. d. Identify supplier evaluation categories.

D

QN=09 Supply managers have many tools and approaches available to help them shorten the selection cycle time. Although dozens of activities can help shorten selection time, the following does not present a set of powerful ways to reduce selection time. a. Map the Current Supplier Evaluation and Selection Process b. Integrate with Internal Customers c. Third-Party Support d. Countertrade Requirements

D

QN=15 Which following step doesn't belong to JIT Purchasing Barriers? a. Dispersed supply base b. Historic buyer-seller relationships c. Supplier quality performance d. Reduce the number of carriers

D

QN=17 In Lean supply chain management, actions support reduced order-cycle time with suppliers a. Expanded electronic capability b. Supplier development support c. Order-cycle time measurement d. Delivering the Perfect Customer Order

D

QN=20 How many percent of work-in-process (WIP) inventory is in line waiting for further work or processing in most facilities a. 24% b. 4% c. 15% d. 36%

D

Recent research indicates that all of the following are top knowledge areas for purchasers except _____. a. supplier relationship management b. total cost analysis c. supplier analysis d. consumer behavior e. competitive market analysis

D

Record integrity is the result of various activities and procedures designed to ensure that the amount of _____ is equal to the computerized record of _____. a. MRP....kanban b. DRP....MRP c. ROH....POH d. POH (physical material on hand)....ROH (computerized record of material on hand ) e. None of the above.

D

Step 3 of Triangle Talk is _____. a. apply tactics to win the negotiation b. know exactly what you want c. use power to get what you want d. propose action in a way they can accept e. know exactly what they want

D

The _____ in the strategic sourcing process is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the sourcing project, which is officially announced shortly after the team's first few meetings. a. triangulation phase b. optimization process c. spend analysis d. project charter e. price analysis

D

The _____ is a solicitation (chào) document that is used by organizations to obtain general information about services, products, or suppliers and is used generally before a specific requisition (lời yêu cầu) of an item is issued. a. e-RA b. PO c. RFP d. RFI e. RFQ

D

The _____ is one that is delivered on time, accurately, and in perfect condition. a. kanban order b. MRO order c. consignment order d. perfect order e. MRP order

D

The _____ presents pricing for individual products and services that is set to enhance the sales of the overall product line rather than to ensure the profitability of each product. a. price volume model b. competition pricing model c. market skimming model d. promotional pricing model e. revenue pricing model

D

The _____ process capability index quantifies the relationship between the process's natural tolerance limits (giới hạn dung sai tự nhiên) and the product's specifications using a two-sided approach, regardless of process centering. a. Cpk b. x-bar c. MRP d. Cp e. Six Sigma

D

The _____ purchase category includes such items are petroleum, coal, lumber, and metals such as copper and zinc. a. semifinished products and components b. finished products c. MRO items d. raw materials e. capital equipment

D

The _____ requires the systematic evaluation of the performance of individual suppliers and ultimate placement into one of three categories. a. twenty/eighty rule b. competency staircase approach c. "improve or else" approach d. triage approach e. zero defects approach

D

The _____ states that success is a function of effectively managing a linked group of firms past first-level suppliers or customers. a. supply chain orientation b. value chain concept c. traditional purchasing perspective d. extended enterprise concept e. process orientation

D

The _____ the proportion of the final product that suppliers provide, the _____ the impact they will have on overall product cost and quality. a. smaller....greater b. larger....lesser c. smaller....more significant d. larger....greater e. There is no definitive relationship between proportion of final product provided by suppliers and impact on overall product cost and quality.

D

The purchasing cycle begins with the _____. a. selection of an appropriate supplier b. issuance of a purchase order c. receipt of a supplier's acknowledgement d. identification of a need (a requirement) e. determination of who can authorize the purchase

D

The source of _____ comes from interpersonal appeal based on socially acceptable individual qualities and attributes, such as one's personality or attractiveness. a. informational power b. expert power c. coercive power d. referent power e. physical power

D

The term _____ refers to the set of performance criteria and products and processes an organization intends to develop or manufacture. a. concurrent engineering b. early supplier involvement c. process loss d. technology roadmap e. R&D plan

D

To remain current registration, ISO 9001:2008 registration must be accomplished every _____. a. 10 years b. 5 years c. 2 years d. 3 years e. There is no expiration date for ISO 9001:2008 registration.

D

Transportation carriers use a/an _____ to record the quantity of goods delivered to a facility. a. electronic transfer of funds b. material packing slip c. receiving discrepancy report d. bill of lading e. purchase order

D

Users apply _____ to projects where there is a single known time for each activity with no variance, while _____ applies to projects where time estimates are variable or uncertain. a. Make-buy analysis....CPM b. PERT....CPM c. Post-completion analysis....PERT d. CPM (Critical Path Method)...PERT (Programme Evaluation Review Technique) e. PERT....TCO

D

Using _____, the supplier is given blueprints and told to make the product from them. a. black box design b. gray box design c. red box design d. white box design e. shadow box design

D

When marketing wants to purchase an advertising media campaign, the _____ should specify the work that is to be completed, when it is needed, and what type of service provider is required. a. reorder point b. acknowledgement c. traveling purchase requisition d. statement of work e. sales forecast

D

When referring to learning improvement, the _____ represents a reduction in the cumulative average number of labor hours as production doubles from a previous level. a. critical path b. slack path c. expected activity time d. learning rate e. early finish

D

When using negotiating a/an _____, it is necessary to include a/an _____ that allows a buyer to terminate the contract in the event of persistently poor quality, delivery problems, and so on. a. spot buy contract....evergreen clause b. RFP....RFQ c. purchase order....purchase agreement d. blanket purchase order....escape clause e. online catalog....RFP

D

Which of the following elements is false regarding Phase 2, Moderate Development, of supply management strategy development? a. e-RAs. b. Ad hoc supplier alliances. c. International sourcing. d. Global supply chains with external customer focus. e. Supply-base optimization.

D

Which of the following information is not generally maintained in a supplier informational database? a. Current products. b. Supplier's future technology roadmap. c. Process capability ratios. d. Advertising campaign information. e. Past performance.

D

Which of the following is a component of carrying cost? a. Cost of capital. b. Cost of storage. c. Cost of obsolescence, deterioration, and loss. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

D

Which of the following is false concerning Deming's philosophy on numerical quotas and measurement by objective? a. Workers may game the system to make their individual production and output goals. b. Many numerical based goals and objectives are often developed arbitrarily. c. Goals are often short term in their focus. d. Output standards fully support TQM improvements and other quality initiatives. e. Many numerically-based goals and objectives are beyond the control of the worker.

D

Which of the following is false regarding when to use the learning curve? a. Learning-curve analysis is appropriate when a supplier uses a new production process. b. Learning-curve analysis is appropriate when a supplier produces any item for the first time. c. The learning curve is appropriate when a supplier produces a technically complex item for the first time. d. All processes and items can benefit from or exhibit improvement from learning. e. The human factors present at the beginning of production must remain fairly constant over time to apply the learning curve.

D

Which of the following is not a method used to further evaluate and select suppliers once the initial evaluation has taken place? a. Evaluation of supplier-provided information. b. Supplier visits. c. Use of preferred, certified, and partnered suppliers. d. Trade journals. e. External or third party information.

D

Which of the following is not one of the criteria used to determine whether to buy direct vs. using a distributor? a. Size of the purchase. b. Manufacturer's policies regarding direct sales. c. Storage space available at the purchaser's facility. d. Distance between the manufacturer and the distributor. e. Extent of services required.

D

Which of the following is not one of the examples of Porter's power of suppliers? a. Prices of major inputs. b. Ability to pass along price increases. c. Supplier concentration. d. Availability of skilled workers. e. Threat of forward or backward integration.

D

Which of the following is not one of the four categories found in a portfolio analysis matrix? a. Critical. b. Routine. c. Leverage. d. Commodity. e. Bottleneck.

D

Which of the following is not one of the functions of a distribution resource planning system? a. Forecasting finished-goods inventory requirements. b. Establishing correct inventory levels at each stocking location. c. Determining the timing and replenishment of finished-goods inventories. d. Producing a time-phased set of material, component, and subassembly requirements timed to support an expected build schedule. e. Transportation planning and vehicle load scheduling.

D

Which of the following is not one of the management uses for the data derived from a comprehensive cost-base supplier evaluation system? a. Such a system provides the necessary information that allows a buyer to justify buying from a preferred supplier despite a higher unit price. b. The system allows a buyer to communicate the cost of specific nonperformance events to the originating supplier, which then helps identify improvement opportunities. c. Quantifying nonconformance costs can result in a chargeback to the offending supplier for unplanned costs. d. The system allows customized assignment of cost accounting codes depending on how much money is left in the annual budget. e. A buyer can use this data to identify longer-term sources of supply based on a supplier's total cost performance history.

D

Which of the following is not one of the popular definitions of negotiation as presented in the text? a. A negotiation is an interactive communication process that may take place whenever we want something from someone else or another person wants something from us. b. Negotiation is the process of communicating back and forth for the purpose of reaching a joint agreement about differing needs or ideas. c. Negotiating is the end game of the sales process. d. Negotiation is to be used only to get the absolutely lowest price from a supplier. e. Negotiation is a process of formal communication, either face-to-face or via electronic means, where two or more people, groups, or organizations come together to seek mutual agreement about an issue or issues.

D

Which of the following is not one of the questions to be addressed when conducting a spend analysis? a. What did the business spend its money on over the past year? b. Did the business receive the right amount of products and services given what it paid for them? c. What suppliers received the majority of the business, and did they charge an accurate price across all the divisions in comparison to the requirements in the POs, contracts, and statements of work? d. What was the on-time delivery performance for each supplier? e. Which divisions of the business spent their money on products and services that were correctly budgeted for?

D

Which of the following is not one of the typical uses of supplier measurement data? a. Supporting supply base rationalization and optimization. b. Identifying those highly capable suppliers that may qualify for consideration of longer-term partnerships or designation as preferred suppliers. c. Identifying those suppliers that are not performing at expected levels so that appropriate remedial or development actions can be taken. d. Deciding where to locate supplier facilities. e. Determining a supplier's future purchase volume based on its past performance.

D

Which of the following is not one of the unique features of Deming's philosophy? a. Variation is the primary source of quality nonconformance. b. Although quality is everyone's responsibility, senior management has the ultimate responsibility for quality improvement. c. Intrinsic motivation is more powerful than extrinsic motivation. d. Interacting parts of a system must be treated individually, not as a whole. e. Predictions must be grounded in theory that helps to understand cause-and-effect relationships.

D

Which of the following is not true regarding establishing sourcing team goals? a. Teams with established goals often use those goals as a basis for evaluating how well the team is performing. b. Teams will establish, on average, challenging rather than easy goals. c. External pressure on a team to set goals usually results in the setting of more challenging goals. d. Teams establish goals only because they have to. e. Teams with goals perform better, on average, than teams that are asked simply to perform their best without explicit end goals.

D

Which of the following statements regarding cost-savings sharing is false? a. Cost-sharing approaches require joint identification of the full cost to produce an item. b. Profit is a function of the productive investment committed to the purchased item and a supplier's asset return requirements. c. The cost-based approach provides a supplier with incentives to pursue continuous performance improvement to realize shared cost savings and invest in productive assets. d. Profit is a direct function of cost. e. In the traditional market-based pricing approach, one party (usually the purchaser) seeks to capture all cost savings resulting from a supplier's improvement effort.

D

[A/An] _____ involves a communications standard that supports inter-organizational electronic exchange of common business documents and information. a. electronic catalog b. cloud-based ordering system c. Procure-to-pay d. Electronic data interchange e. blanket purchase order

D

_____ actions and resources are those that create value for the customer. a. Extras b. Non-value-adding c. Necessary non-value-adding d. Value-adding e. None of the above.

D

_____ allows a buying organization to react more quickly when supply chain risk events occur by already having previously prepared plans and proposed responses in place in advance of the actual risk event. a. Hedging b. Use of third party intermediaries c. Multiple sourcing d. Scenario analysis e. None of the above.

D

_____ can be defined as how supply chain members communicate and collaborate regarding sources of risk, utilizing risk management tools to mitigate and minimize risk and uncertainty across the supply chain. a. PERT/CPM b. Scenario analysis c. Hedging d. SCRM e. None of the above.

D

_____ focuses attention on the outcomes the customer wants, not on the precise configuration of the product or service. a. Description by industry standard b. Description by brand c. Description by specification d. Description by performance characteristics e. Description by market grade

D

_____ in a supply base consists of such factors as: country stability, regional stability, political and governmental stability, levels of official corruption, dissimilarities regarding contract law and intellectual property rights, elections, military actions, civil disturbances, terrorism, trade balance issues, and customs duties and tariffs. a. Financial risk b. Market risk c. Supplier company risk d. Political risk e. Sourcing risk

D

_____ include(s) all costs incurred when a product, service, or capital equipment reaches the end of its useful life, net of amounts received from the sale of remaining product or the equipment (salvage value). a. Net present value costs b. Usage costs c. Purchase price d. End-of-life costs e. Opportunity costs

D

_____ inventory includes the items used to support production and operations and are not physically part of a finished product. a. Raw materials b. WIP c. Semifinished items d. MRO e. Pipeline/in-transit

D

_____ involves professionally managing suppliers and developing close working relationships with different internal groups. a. Purposeful cooperation b. Program management c. Credible commitment d. Supply integration e. Relationship management

D

_____ is a process that the purchasing function follows when it performs benchmarking comparisons. a. Strategic benchmarking b. Support-activity benchmarking c. Process capability d. Operational benchmarking e. Outsourcing

D

_____ is any activity undertaken by a buyer to improve a supplier's performance or capabilities to meet the buyer's short- and long-term supply needs. a. Supply base rationalization b. The twenty/eighty rule c. Supply base optimization d. Supplier development e. Six Sigma

D

_____ is the process of developing insights into stakeholder requirements, comparing these to external industry intelligence, supply base capabilities and operational risks, and developing a strategy to align internal requirements with external supply market conditions. a. Spend analysis b. Cost management c. Contract management d. Category management e. Procure-to-pay

D

_____ is/are the ability to influence another person or organization to do something. a. Positions b. Planning c. Strategy d. Power e. None of the above.

D

_____ means that inventory moves through the supply chain continuously with minimal queueing or non-value-adding activity being performed. a. Pull b. WIP c. MRO d. Flow e. Push

D

_____ occurs when a team does not complete its task in the best or most efficient manner or members are not motivated to employ their resources to create a successful outcome. a. Groupthink b. KPI c. Collaboration d. Process loss e. Synergy

D

_____ refers to the extent to which, by choosing a certain course of action, management can meet a previously established goal or standard. a. Operational benchmarking b. Efficiency c. Support-activity benchmarking d. Effectiveness e. None of the above.

D

_____ refers to the process of comparing supplier prices against external price benchmarks, without direct knowledge of the supplier's costs. a. Cost analysis b. Make-buy analysis c. Target costing d. Price analysis e. Total cost analysis

D

_____ refers to the relationship between planned and actual sacrifices made to realize a previously agreed-upon goal. a. Strategic benchmarking b. Effectiveness c. Efficiency d. Operational benchmarking e. None of the above.

D

_____ represents the difference between a price paid and a potentially higher price (which might have occurred if purchasing had not obtained the lower price through a specific effort or action). a. Target cost b. Cost reduction c. Target price d. Cost avoidance e. None of the above.

D

_____ represents the funds committed to operating a business, including the purchase and holding of inventory. a. Pipeline inventory b. WIP c. MRP d. Working capital e. None of the above.

D

. In TCO for a product, _____ include(s) all costs associated with converting the purchased part/material into the finished product and supporting it through its usable life. a. purchase price b. acquisition costs c. end of life costs d. opportunity costs e. usage costs

E

. In should-cost modeling, _____ refers to the integrity and transparency of the cost model created. a. direct cost b. value stream maps c. make-or-buy analysis d. fixed cost e. auditability

E

. In supplier measurement, the basic logic of the _____ is built around the calculation of a/an _____. a. categorical system...supplier performance index b. cost-based system...process capability index c. weighted-point system...Q adjustment factor d. weighted-point system...cost accounting system e. cost-based system...supplier performance index (SPI)

E

. _____ is a function of the professional's ability to translate supply market data into compelling insights that solve business problems and to enable organizational connections and networking that accelerate business success. a. SRM b. Groupthink c. Reciprocity d. Process gain e. Relationship capital

E

. _____ is a negotiation tactic that often signals the end of a negotiation on a given issue. a. Venue b. Silence c. Planned concessions d. Trial balloon e. Best and final offer

E

. _____ is the tendency of a rational group or team to arrive at a bad decision when other information is available. a. Serendipity b. Collusion c. Process loss d. Maverick spend e. Groupthink

E

A _____ is a set of three or more organizations linked directly by one or more of the upstream or downstream flows of products, services, finances, and information from a source to a customer. a. process b. manufacturing system c. value chain d. social media chain e. supply chain

E

A _____ is an annual review of a firm's entire set of purchases. a. cost analysis b. price analysis c. make-buy analysis d. technology roadmap e. spend analysis

E

A _____ is limited to a select group of suppliers who provide critical high value items to the firm. a. disqualified supplier b. sole source supplier c. preferred supplier d. single source supplier e. partnered supplier

E

A _____ is responsible for understanding in depth entire families or groups of purchased goods and services. a. third party b. general buyer c. preferred supplier d. long-term buyer-supplier relationship e. commodity team

E

A key characteristic of a/an _____ is a lack of processing by the supplier into a newly formed product. a. component b. semifinished product c. finished good d. MRO item e. raw material

E

A negotiator with _____ is recognized as having accumulated and mastered a high level of knowledge about a particular subject, often coupled with verifiable credentials and stature to document that mastery. a. referent power b. legitimate power c. coercive power d. reward power e. expert power

E

A/An _____ has demonstrated its performance capabilities through previous purchase contracts and therefore receives preference during the supplier selection process. a. internal supplier b. new supplier c. capable supplier d. final supplier e. preferred supplier

E

A/An _____ is a minor departure from an intended level of performance, or a nonconformance that is easily resolved and does not materially affect the required output. a. discrepancy b. problem c. defect d. unacceptable outcome e. deficiency

E

A/An _____ is defined as the cost of the next best alternative. a. operating cost b. purchase price c. net present value d. usage cost e. opportunity cost

E

A/An _____ may be used as a decision support tool in which the sourcing team assigns a weight to the different categories and develops a numerical score for each supplier in each category, thereby developing a final performance score. a. make-buy analysis b. portfolio analysis matrix c. reverse auction d. e-catalog e. supplier selection scorecard

E

A/An _____ refers to those negotiated outcomes that a negotiator would like to have as opposed to those outcomes that must be achieved. a. need b. BATNA c. position d. interest e. want

E

According to Cialdini, _____ is a principle that says we prefer to be consistent in our beliefs and actions. a. scarcity b. liking c. social proof d. reciprocation e. consistency

E

According to Cialdini, _____ is a principle which states that we are more likely to accept the positions, arguments, and direction from recognized authority figures. a. liking b. consistency c. scarcity d. social proof e. authority

E

According to Ohno and Toyota, _____ is a category of waste that includes any wasted motion by man or machine. a. overproduction b. unnecessary transport c. unnecessary movement d. defect e. None of the above.

E

According to Ohno and Toyota, _____ is a category of waste that uses more steps to produce a product than necessary. a. excess inventory b. defect c. unnecessary movement d. unnecessary transport e. over-processing

E

All of the following are advantages of a categorical supplier evaluation system except _____. a. easy to implement b. requires minimal data c. different personnel can contribute d. low-cost system e. greatest potential for long-range improvement

E

All of the following are advantages of a cost-based supplier evaluation system except _____. a. total cost approach b. specific areas of supplier nonperformance identified c. objective supplier ranking d. greatest potential for long-range improvement e. good for firms with limited resources

E

All of the following are characteristics of the post-completion phase of a project except _____. a. confirm that the final project meets the expectations of management or customers b. reassign project personnel to other positions or other projects c. restore any used equipment and facilities to their original status d. conduct a post-implementation meeting to discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the project e. identify broad budget, personnel, and resource requirements for future projects

E

All of the following are characteristics that define a collaborative buyer-supplier relationship except _____. a. one or a limited number of suppliers for each purchased item or family of items b. a win-win approach to reward sharing c. open exchange of information d. a credible commitment to work together during difficult times e. the buyer unilaterally resolving disputes

E

All of the following are elements of successful supplier suggestion programs except _____. a. the savings from the suggestion are often shared 50/50, not kept solely by the buying company b. the program focuses on cost improvement, not simply cutting the supplier's margins c. successful buying companies provide prompt feedback to the supplier on its suggestion and also implement good suggestions promptly d. it is critical to acknowledge the supplier's suggestion, through an awards program, newsletter, or announcement at a supplier conference e. the supplier should be allowed to keep 100% of the savings since it came up with the idea

E

All of the following are examples of customer order measures except _____. a. percentage of on-time delivery b. total time from customer order to customer delivery c. returned orders d. warranty claims e. inventory turns

E

All of the following are general categories of supply base risk except _____. a. political risk b. market risk c. sourcing risk d. financial risk e. employee hiring risk

E

All of the following are goals for a strategic category except _____. a. develop a competitive advantage b. support and leverage the supplier's core competencies c. develop best-in-class suppliers d. support the company's overall strategy e. simplification of the procurement process using electronic tools

E

All of the following are phases in the benchmarking process except _____. a. planning b. analysis c. integration d. maturity e. total cost analysis

E

All of the following are required elements in a purchase requisition except _____. a. quantity and date required b. estimated unit cost c. operating account to be charged d. authorized signature e. identification and approval of a supplier by the end user

E

All of the following are typical processes involved in supply chain management except _____. a. new-product development b. customer-order fulfillment c. supplier evaluation and selection d. demand and supply planning e. cash flow management

E

All the following are expected growth areas in e-commerce except _____. a. transmitting purchase orders to suppliers b. submitting requests for quotes to suppliers c. placing orders with suppliers d. making electronic funds transfer payments e. submitting written check requests to accounts payable

E

An effective supplier quality manual will contain all of the following except _____. a. documentation control b. testing and acceptance procedures c. metrics and measurement protocols d. basic responsibilities of both the buyer and the supplier e. approved accounting expenses

E

Buying firms use competitive bidding when _____ is a dominant criterion and the required items or services have ______ specifications. a. price....unique b. delivery....unique c. product performance....straightforward d. design....unique e. price....straightforward

E

Good reasons for allowing other departments to view purchase orders and incoming receipts does not include which of the following? a. The accounting department gains visibility to future accounts payable obligations. b. The requestor can refer to the purchase order number when inquiring into the status of an order. c. Receiving has a record of the order to match against the receipt of the material. d. Traffic becomes aware of inbound delivery requirements and can make arrangements with carriers or use the company's own vehicles to schedule material delivery. e. There is never a good reason for purchasing to allow other departments access to purchase orders and incoming receipts due to the confidential nature of the price and delivery terms.

E

In _____, the parties identify more than one issue where disagreement exists and then agree to trade off these issues so that each party has one of its top-priority issues satisfied. a. use non-specific compensation b. cut the costs for compliance c. expand the pie d. find a bridge solution e. logroll

E

In a PERT network, a/an _____ is the earliest time a project can finish given the expected activity time. a. late finish b. on time start c. on time finish d. early start e. early finish

E

In a _____, the price stated in the agreement does not change, regardless of fluctuations in general overall economic conditions, industry competition, levels of supply, market prices, or other environmental changes. a. blanket purchase order b. RFQ c. cost-based contract d. material purchase release e. fixed-price contract

E

In the _____ of the process of supplier segmentation, the supplier views the buyer as a core customer, as the size of the account is significant to the supplier, and the account is also important from a strategic perspective. a. COMMODITY segment b. DEVELOP segment c. EXPLOIT segment d. NUISANCE segment e. CORE segment

E

In the _____, the seller is willing to take a lower price because of the potential mass market appeal of the product, resulting in substantially higher sales volumes. a. revenue pricing model b. promotional pricing model c. revenue pricing model d. cash discount model e. market-share model

E

In the framework for strategic cost management, _____ are high-value products or services and can be sourced through traditional bidding approaches that require price analysis using market forces to do the work and identify what is a competitive price. a. critical products b. unique products c. custom-made products d. generics e. commodities

E

Management can exert subtle control over a team's tasks through all of the following except _____. a. authorizing the creation of the sourcing team b. selecting the team's task c. selecting the team leader and members d. conducting performance reviews and holding teams accountable for performance outcomes e. sitting in on all team meetings

E

The _____ activity involves physically getting a product ready for distribution to the customer. a. customer service b. material control c. materials handling d. quality control e. shipping

E

The _____ buys from the OEM and resells, therefore incurring a transaction cost, and it must make a profit. a. vendo b. customer c. preferred supplier d. single source supplier e. distributor

E

The _____ identifies those 20 percent of suppliers receiving the bulk of purchase spend or that minority of suppliers that cause the most quality problems. a. "improve or else" approach b. triage approach c. strategic sourcing approach d. competency staircase approach e. twenty/eighty rule

E

The _____ is an approach to estimating the different components that make up the supplier's per unit price per unit of product or service, i.e., what the product or service should cost in a theoretical world. a. market skimming model b. make-buy analysis c. competition pricing model d. rate-of-return model e. Should-cost model

E

The _____ is used to identify user requirements, evaluate the user needs effectively and efficiently, identify suppliers who can meet that need, develop agreements with those suppliers, develop the ordering mechanism, ensure payment occurs promptly, ascertain that the need was effectively met, and drive continuous improvement. a. demand management process b. backdoor buying process c. materials budgeting process d. forecasting process e. purchasing process

E

The _____ measure expresses a maximum number (in absolute or percentage terms) of level of defects allowable for any particular product, assembly, or service. a. Effectiveness b. Efficiency c. TQM d. Cost avoidance e. PPM (parts per million)

E

The _____ process capability index does not adequately account for situations where the process is not closely centered on the nominal specification target value. a. Cxy b. optimization c. Six Sigma d. Cpk e. Cp

E

The _____ series of standards, originally established in 1993, is designed to promote environmental awareness and protection as well as pollution prevention. a. MBNQA b. ISO 9001:2008 c. Zero defects d. Six Sigma e. ISO 14001:2004

E

The _____ strategy is based on determining the highest price that can be offered to the supply manager that will still be lower than the price offered by competitors. a. penetration pricing model b. market-share model c. cash discount d. revenue pricing model e. competition pricing model

E

The area of overlapping positions among issues, when there is one, between the negotiators is termed the _____. a. concurrent zone b. agreement possibility c. positive position d. objective e. bargaining zone

E

The whole point of collecting _____ is to understand the prevailing market conditions and the ability of current or potential new suppliers to deliver the product or service effectively. a. customer data b. secondary data c. internal data d. spend analysis data e. market research

E

Using _____, suppliers are provided with functional specifications and are asked to complete all technical specifications, including materials to be used, blueprints, and so on. a. shadow box design b. white box design c. gray box design d. red box design e. black box design

E

Which of the following elements is false regarding Phase 1, Basic Beginnings, of supply management strategy development? a. Quality/cost teams. b. Longer-term contracts. c. Volume leveraging. d. Supply-base consolidation. e. Early sourcing.

E

Which of the following is false regarding concealed (che đậy) damage? a. A user may discover concealed damages after opening a shipping container. b. Responsibility for concealed damage is often difficult to establish. c. The carrier may blame the supplier or maintain that the damage occurred after delivery of the material. d. The supplier may maintain total innocence and implicate the carrier. e. The bill of lading protects the carrier against charges of concealed damage.

E

Which of the following is not a benefit of using a cross-functional sourcing team? a. Reduced time to complete a task. b. Increased innovation. c. Joint ownership of decisions. d. Enhanced communication among functions or organizations. e. Groupthink.

E

Which of the following is not a buyer-specific barrier to supplier development? a. The buying company's purchase volume from the supplier does not justify development investment. b. No immediate benefit to supplier development is evident to the buying organization. c. Lack of executive support within the buying organization for supplier development. d. Importance of purchased item does not justify development efforts. e. Supplier's management agrees to improvement but fails to implement the proposals.

E

Which of the following is not an appropriate performance criterion to be used when evaluating suppliers? a. Ability to develop process and product technology. b. Commitment to quality. c. Management capability and commitment. d. Cost performance. e. Commitment to effective marketing and promotion.

E

Which of the following is not an example of a question that should be asked when evaluating a supplier's production scheduling and control systems? a. Does the supplier use a requirements planning system as part of an ERP system to ensure the availability of required components or meet service requests on a timely basis? b. What lead time does the supplier's production scheduling and control system require? c. What is the supplier's on-time delivery performance history? d. Does the supplier's scheduling system support a purchaser's delivery requirements? e. What safeguards are in place to protect the confidentiality of electronic transfers?

E

Which of the following is not an example of a typical resource shared between a buyer and supplier? a. Dedicated capacity. b. Specific information. c. Technological capabilities. d. Direct financial support. e. Advertising and media.

E

Which of the following is not an example of points that should be considered when evaluating a supplier's employee capabilities? a. The degree to which employees are committed to quality and continuous improvement. b. The overall skills and abilities of the workforce. c. Employee morale. d. Workforce turnover. e. Disclosure of environmental infractions.

E

Which of the following is not an item or product that is an appropriate candidate for a cost-based pricing approach? a. An item in which the seller contributes high added value through direct or indirect labor and specialized expertise. b. A complex item customized to specific requirements. c. A product requiring a conversion from raw material through value-added designs. d. A product requiring supplier-provided design and engineering support. e. Commodity-like items.

E

Which of the following is not one of the advantages of a rationalized and optimized supply base? a. Buying from world-class suppliers. b. Use of full-service suppliers. c. Lower supply base administrative costs. d. Reduction of supply base risk. e. Absence of competition./Longer lead-times

E

Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of a mature, well-developed supply strategy? a. A repeatable and well-defined process for building strategy and governance around defining, planning, managing, and receiving products and services for a business. b. Clear alignment with executive vision and internal user-specific business goals. c. Established goals and metrics for short-term project plans, as well as a definite five-year plan that provides year over year performance improvements. d. Established communication plan to inform senior management and all lines of business updated and reviewed quarterly against defined goals and objectives. e. Required use of an online catalog.

E

Which of the following is not one of the critical steps to process mapping? a. Search for better ways and methods to perform the tasks comprising a process. b. Replace sequential activities with concurrent activities whenever possible. c. Identify those activities that contribute to waste or add minimal value to the process and target those for elimination. d. Identify the time associated with each part of a process and identify how much of that time is waste. e. Utilize all sequential activities whenever possible as concurrent activities are wasteful.

E

Which of the following is not one of the elements of financial risk in a supply base? a. Inventory carrying costs. b. Currency exchange rates. c. INCOTERMS d. Hard vs. soft currencies. e. Legal systems.

E

Which of the following is not one of the examples of Porter's threat of substitute products and services? a. Relative performance of substitutes. b. Relative price of substitutes. c. Switching costs. d. Buyer propensity to substitute. e. Economies of scale.

E

Which of the following is not one of the expectations that suppliers have in a typical supply chain relationship? a. Minimizing product design changes once production begins. b. Providing visibility to future purchase volume requirements. c. Sharing early access and visibility to new-product requirements. d. Valuing accurate and timely payment of invoices. e. Having the buyer co-locate its buying, engineering, and quality staffs into a supplier's facility.

E

Which of the following is not one of the objectives in supplier performance management? a. Selecting suppliers that are competitive. b. Identifying new suppliers that have the potential for excellent performance and developing closer relationships with these suppliers. c. Improving existing suppliers. d. Developing new suppliers that are not competitive with current suppliers. e. Ensuring timely and accurate payment of supplier invoices.

E

Which of the following is not one of the primary ways that companies create shareholder value? a. Increase volume. b. Reduce cost of employees (downsize). c. Reduce cost of process and waste. d. Reduce cost of goods and services. e. Lower prices.

E

Which of the following is not one of the reasons that negotiators frequently fall short of their goals or reach an impasse? a. They neglect the other party's problems. b. They focus too much on price. c. They focus too much on common ground. d. They neglect their BATNAs. e. They focus on interests rather than on positions.

E

Which of the following is not one of the seven wastes identified by the Honda BP process? a. Overproduction. b. Delivery. c. Waste in the work itself. d. Inventory. e. Product advertising and promotion.

E

Which of the following is not true in regards to low-cost country sourcing? a. Low-cost country sourcing can be used to access new markets or to gain access to the same suppliers that are helping global companies become more competitive. b. Although there has been a strong push to source from emerging BRIC countries in search of lower costs, there has also been a strong push toward sourcing in these countries because of local content requirements established by governments in these areas. c. Global sourcing is an opportunity to gain exposure to product and process technology, increase the number of available sources, satisfy countertrade requirements, and establish a presence in foreign markets. d. Some buyers source globally to introduce competition to domestic suppliers. e. Firms are highly experienced with global business processes and practices, and there are many personnel qualified to develop and negotiate with global suppliers or manage material pipelines.

E

Which of the following is one of the reasons for measuring performance? a. Support better decision making. b. Support better communication. c. Provide performance feedback. d. Motivate and direct behavior. e. All of the above.

E

Which of the following key financial ratios is calculated as Profit after taxes/Sales? a. Current debt to equity. b. Fixed asset turnover. c. Return on assets. d. Says sales outstanding. e. Net profit margin.

E

[A] _____ is required to identify the specific capabilities and financial health of key suppliers that are in the supply base or that may not currently be in the supply base. a. Make-buy analysis b. supplier evaluation scorecard c. Price analysis d. Portfolio analysis e. Supplier research

E

_____ actions and resources are everything done in the process, which contribute no value to the customer, but which they are forced to pay for when they buy the product or service. a. Value-adding b. Excess inventory c. Necessary non-value-adding d. Waiting time e. Non-value-adding

E

_____ applies the price/cost equation across multiple processes that span two or more organizations across a supply chain. a. Make-buy analysis b. Price analysis c. Cost analysis d. Target costing e. Total cost analysis

E

_____ are incurred following production or after the customer takes possession. a. Inspection costs b. Appraisal costs c. Internal failure costs d. Prevention costs e. External failure costs

E

_____ are the action plans designed to help achieve a desired result. a. Arguments b. Questions c. Strategies d. Objectives e. Tactics

E

_____ indicates whether a seller can lower its cost as a result of the repetitive production of an item. a. Process capability analysis b. Market analysis c. Price analysis d. Break-even analysis e. Learning-curve analysis

E

_____ is a negotiation tactic that signals that it is now the other party's turn to reciprocate and make a concession on an important issue. a. Venue b. Low ball c. Honesty and openness d. Best and final offer e. Planned concessions

E

_____ is a technique used to examine the incremental changes in cost between quantities within a supplier's price quotation. a. TCO b. Price analysis c. Market-share pricing d. Competition pricing e. Quantity discount analysis

E

_____ is a way to achieve continuous performance improvement in an item, product, or service, but it is not a technique for cheapening a product or service by lowering quality or other performance attributes below what customers expect. a. Make-buy analysis b. Total cost analysis c. Price analysis d. Cost analysis e. Value analysis

E

_____ is the ability of a process to generate outputs that meet engineering specifications and/or customer requirements and refers to the normal behavior of a process when operating in a state of statistical control. a. Process optimization b. Six Sigma c. Supplier certification d. Quality at the source e. Process capability

E

_____ is the end-to-end process of managing a supplier through the entire sourcing life cycle, which includes first identifying the abilities of a particular company with regard to performing a service for the internal customer, completing a sourcing event, negotiating a contract, executing an order, and determining payment. a. P2P b. CRM c. Outsourcing d. Competitive bidding e. SRM

E

_____ is the organized and systematic study of every element of cost in a part, material, process, or service to ensure that it fulfills its design and operational functions at the lowest possible total cost. a. Six Sigma b. Process capability c. New product development d. CAD/CAM e. VA/VE (Value analysis/value engineering)

E

_____ is the process of collecting historical data by commodity, relative to demand from the lines of business, with the exception of personnel expenses, occupancy (chiếm dụng), and corporate spend. a. Demand management b. Supply analysis c. Category management d. Contract management e. Spend analysis

E

_____ is the process of identifying potential negative events, assessing the likelihood of their occurrence, heading off these events before they occur or reducing the probability that they will occur, and making contingency plans to mitigate the consequences if they do occur. a. Supplier selection b. Supplier evaluation c. Supplier categorization d. Global sourcing e. Risk management

E

_____ is the process of incorporating or bringing together different groups, functions, or organizations, either formally or informally, physically or by information technology, to work jointly and often concurrently on a common business-related assignment or purpose. a. Cooptation b. Program management c. Collaboration d. Collusion e. Integration

E

_____ is used when a product or service is proprietary (độc quyền) or when there is a perceived advantage to using a particular supplier's products or services. a. Description by market grade b. Description by industry standard c. Description by specification d. Description by performance characteristics e. Description by brand

E

_____ means that one party is able to offer something of perceived value to the other party. a. Referent power b. Informational power c. Expert power d. Coercive power e. Reward power

E

_____ measures include tracking actual transportation costs against some preestablished objective, demurrage and detention costs, and premium transportation. a. Transportation cost avoidance b. PPM c. Field failure rate d. Target prices achieved e. Transportation cost reduction

E

_____ occurs as a result of negotiators being immersed in a place in which their established norms have been confronted and may no longer be applicable. a. Win-win negotiation b. Competitive bargaining c. Reciprocation d. Consistency e. Culture shock

E

_____ occurs whenever value is added to a product or service as it moves through transformation processes in the supply chain. a. Six Sigma b. Process capability c. Kaizen d. Supply base rationalization e. Quality at the source

E

_____ schedules the firm's output; while _____ is the process of taking demand data and developing a supply, production, and logistics network capable of satisfying demand requirements. a. Inventory control....quality control b. Quality control....supply planning c. Order processing....material control d. Demand planning....customer service e. Demand planning....supply planning

E

_____ seeks to improve forecast accuracy, optimize production scheduling, reduce working capital costs, shorten cycle times, cut transportation costs, and improve customer service; while _____ helps obtain materials and manage physical flows from suppliers through downstream distribution to ensure that customers receive the right products at the right location, time, and cost. a. RFID....GPS b. Execution software....planning software c. Customer service....inbound transportation d. The process approach....cost management e. Planning software....execution software

E

. _____ is might be the best choice for standard items, where the requirements are well understood and there is common agreement between supply chain partners about what certain terms mean. a. Description by market grade b. Description by brand c. Description by performance characteristics d. Use of prototypes e. Description by specification

a

All of the following are points that should be considered before initiating a project except _____. a. make sure the objectives and outcomes are championed by senior executive management b. measure subjectively c. place the program under the leadership of people with skill, credentials, and credibility d. establish an effective governance process with a cross-functional team e. break down the project into phased deliverables

b