Spyder Guide - Qs Only

Réussis tes devoirs et examens dès maintenant avec Quizwiz!

1. Minimum Climbout Speed (VMCO) - obtained after transition to climb attitude when rotation is initiated at VROT (1.17 VSTALL) (A3.5.9)

13. FYI Discussion: Common sense techniques/ideas - how to fix bad energy management.

13. FYI: Be prepared to "talk through" each tactical departure/approach to include speeds, configurations, slow down points, go down points, etc...

1. Takeoff Ground Run - distance which the airplane must be accelerated on all four engines to reach the takeoff point (A3.6.6)

---

1. For fuel tank pressurization, secondary regulators maintain a pressure of: (1.19.4.2) (by regulating flow of nitrogen from the other dewar into fuel tanks)

0.0 to 0.3 psi

1. For fuel tank pressurization, primary regulators maintain a pressure of: (1.19.4.2) (by regulating flow of nitrogen from dewars into fuel tanks)

0.3 to 0.5 psi

1. Any time the fuel tank pressure is greater than _____ PSI relative to ambient pressure, the primary climb valve opens to vent overboard. Any time the fuel tank pressure drops below _____ PSI, the primary dive valve opens to admit air into the tanks. (1.19.1.2)

0.7; -0.15

74. If hydraulic system ____ is lost, alternate caster procedures should be avoided or kept to a minimum. The MLG may not remain centered after releasing the MLG Bogie Emergency Positioning Switches. (2.14.1)

1. Ground spoilers get their hydraulic power from systems _____. (1.18)

1 and 4

Deploying the RAT de-energizes which PTU? (1.9.1.8)

1-2 PTU

1. Describe fuel tank arrangement: (1.19.1)

1. 12 tanks, 6 per wing; 4 main, 4 auxiliary and 4 extended range tanks

1. The CMF is required to support Global Air Traffic Management (GATM) operations. Included in this capability is the ____________ subsystem and the _________ subsystem. (1.27.14)

1. Airline Operational Control (AOC); Air Traffic Services (ATS)

1. The ______________ comm system provides two-way datalink comm and position information between the flight crew and government facilities including the TACC, command posts, other DOD facilities, and ATS facilities. (1.27.14)

1. Communications Management Function (CMF)

1. Where do you find guidance for flight augmentation problems after engine start but prior to takeoff? (2.59)

1. Dash 1, Section 2, AFSC Normal Procedures

1. How do you steer if #1 and #4 hydraulic systems are gone? (1.12.1.2)

1. NLG will caster (be cautious), use differential braking and asymmetric thrust

1. During MLG emergency extension, the EMERG SW ON light comes on when the switch is placed to extend and: (1.11.5.3)

1. The affected MLG is down and locked and the positioning collar is engaged

1. To support RNAV approach operations, the FMS automatically commands the GPS to perform RAIM availability checks at the _________ and _________. (1.28.2.4, pg 1-861)

1. final approach fix (FAF); missed approach point (MAP)

1. Where can you service the hydraulics in-flight? (1.9.1.1)

1. § #3 service center through a selector valve, fluid receptacle and hand pump (right side cargo compartment) § A ground fill connection in the right MLG fairing (external servicing)

1. What electrical power sources are used for Emergency Extension of the gear? (1.11.4.3)

1. § Emergency Extend Switches - Main DC #2 § NLG Emergency Extension Motor & Door Motor - Fwd Main AC #2 § MLG Emergency Extension Motors - Aft Main AC #1, 2, 3, 4

1. What is 1-1 landing distance based on? (1-1, A8.2.1)

1. Firm contact of landing gear at touchdown 2. Spoiler initiation 1.3 second after touchdown 3. Max anti-skid brakes applied 1.6 seconds after touchdown 4. Thrust reverser initiation 2.6 secs after touchdown (max thrust 4.1 secs later)

1. Describe NLG extension: (1.11.3.3)

1.§ UP - Gear is up and locked (locks locked & door closed, targets met) § INTRANSIT - When first NLG door unlocks § RED WHEELS - Both NLG doors are fully open (strut begins to extend) § GREEN WHEELS - NLG drag brace (downlock) is locked, NLG down

1. Limit taxi speed in congested areas to ____ knots or less. (2.14)

AERP Brackets:

For gusts increase VROT, VMCO, VAPP by full gust not to exceed __________ kts (A3.2.2.2)

O2 Rechargers:

1. WARNING: Pitch angles should be limited to a maximum of _______ when the airplane is below 200 feet. (3.45)

10 degrees

1. What is minimum oil pressure? (pg 5-2, Figure 5-1, Sheet 1 of 4)

10 psi

1. Extended taxi is defined as a taxi segment exceeding ______ feet. (1-1, A8.2.5)

10,000

1. Extended taxi operations may produce brake temps greater than ____ °C. (1-1, A8.2.5)

100

1. Normal taxi with random light braking will produce a brake temperature increase of ____ °C. This temperature increase assumes a typical gross weight and moderate taxi distance; heat is generated by light braking and ground maneuvering. (1-1, A8.2.5)

100

1. What is the minimum speed on downwind during a no flap? (pg 2-193, Figure 2-19)

100% VAPP + 60

1. A normal flare and touchdown with maximum antiskid braking immediately after nose gear touchdown could increase actual ground roll distance by approximately _______ feet. (1-1, A8.2.1)

1000

96. During Emergency NLG Extension, if the position indicator does not move to the intermediate position (INTRANSIT) within _____ seconds, immediately return the switch to the ______ position to prevent motor(s) burnout. (3.55.4, 3-153)

10; NORMAL

1. PACS Pitch breakout force is approximately _____ pounds with PACS on. (1.16.3.2)

Emergency Exit Lights:

67. Increase descent resolution advisories are inhibited when radar altitude is below ________. (1.28.10.5, p 1-903)

1450 feet AGL

1. Anti-skid will prevent locked wheel above ________ kts. (1.14.3)

1. Three-engine range will be reduced by approx. _____% if a thrust reverser is left deployed on an inoperative engine. (3.21, p3-63)

74. During alternate caster procedure taxi turns, the aft MLG Bogie emergency Positioning switches can be used to position the aft gear in the opposite direction to the turn, not to exceed _____ degrees. (2.14.1)

If the TR is not stowed within ________seconds the EEC cancels the stow command and generates an ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) TR FAIL STOW CWA. (1.2.4)

1. WARNING: Bank angles should be limited to _______ when the airplane is below 200 feet, and should not exceed _______ when at or below 50 feet. (3.45)

15 degrees; 5 degrees

1. Max crosswind and gross weight for a no flap approach (training only) is? (AFI11-2C-5V3, 7.7)

15 knots; 525,000 pounds

1. When airspeed reaches approximately _____ KCAS, the VIAs provide a signal through the RIUs to the actuator causing it to schedule rudder limiter position with airspeed (1.15.3.2)

150

1. The downwind and base legs should be extended to _______ of a normal flaps-down traffic pattern. (3.45)

150 percent

Fire Extinguishers:

96. During Emergency MLG Extension (Normal Hydraulic Pressure NOT Available), using accumulator pressure only, the MLG MAY not rotate above ____ KCAS. (3.55.3, 3-151)

170

67. When the airplane is within _____ feet of the altitude selected on the AFCS Panel, the altitude is captured by the AFCS, the CHECK ALTITUDE special alert is armed, and the command altitude marker is solid. (1.37)

175

1. If both CARAs are failed/off, the landing gear warning horn will sound when the airspeed is below ____ KCAS for 5 seconds, regardless of the altitude, if all other conditions when horn can be silenced are met. (1.11.5.7)

180

1. How much fuel is required for hydraulic cooling? (-1 & 11-2C5V3)

18000 lbs (heat exchangers are only in tanks #2 and #3 and each tank must have at least 4500 lbs of fuel in it; to ensure balanced fuel tanks the #1 & #4 tanks must also have 4500 lbs thereby totaling 18000 lbs

74. During Emergency MLG Extension (Normal Hydraulic Pressure Available), the MLG may not rotate above ____ KCAS. (3.55.1, 3-147)

185

94. The MLG may fail to rotate to the down and locked green wheels position if emergency extension is accomplished at speeds in excess of ____ KCAS with hydraulic pressure available. The MLG may not rotate at speeds in excess of _____ KCAS using accumulator pressure only. (3.55.3, 3-151)

185; 170

1. A static engineering analysis estimates that the Min Radius Turn (MRT) maneuver at 45° NLG angle will allow for a 180-degree turn on a runway between _____ and ______ wide depending on the effectiveness of the aft MLG caster and the rate at which 20 degrees caster can be achieved. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

198 ft and 218 ft

1. The yaw augmentation system receives hydraulic pressure from systems _____, ____ and _____. (1.16.1.2)

1; 2; 3

1. The lateral augmentation system receives hydraulic pressure from hydraulic systems _____, ____ and _____. (1.16.1.3)

1; 2; 4

1. The hydraulic motor generator (HMG) is powered by hyd system # ____. (1.20.3)

How many nitrogen dewars are on the C-5M? (1.19.4.1)

2 (located in the wing roots aft of the rear wing beam)

1. How many electrically driven fuel boost pumps per tank? Which is primary? (1.19.1.3)

2 per tank; outboard

1. How many engine driven Hydraulic pumps are installed on each engine? (1.9.1.3)

2, one top, one bottom pump per engine (61 GPM, variable displacement)

1. What is the maximum course capture distance for LNAV to engage? (1.26.1.2, p 1-532)

2.5NM

1. Both aft MLG caster up to ___ degrees of center. (1.12.2.1)

1. On the ground, the engine start system can only be energized below ______% N2. (1.2.2.6)

1. To silence the landing gear warning horn with the throttle, the triggering throttle(s) must be increased above ____ degrees lever angle (approximately 70% N1 at pattern altitude). (1.11.5.7)

1. When taxiing above ____ knots, the anti-skid should be turned on to prevent locking of the braked wheels in the event excessive brake pressure is applied. (2.14)

1. Asymmetric thrust and braking may be used to assist in turning the aircraft at all gross weights. For the purposes of landing gear load analysis, the definition of asymmetric thrust is _______ lb per engine on one wing with idle power set on the engines on the other wing. This equates to approximately ____% N1. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

20,000; 70

67. Operating a cabin pressure above ___ feet could cause damage to radar components. (2.81)

20000

74. Extension may be accomplished at recommended airspeed ____KCAS, however the MLG may not rotate at airspeeds in excess of ____ KCAS. (3.55.3, 3-151)

200; 185

1. A minimum radius turn maneuver is defined as a turn using a defined nose gear steering angle based on gross weight, aft MLG castered to ____ degrees, asymmetric power on the engines on the outside of the turn (up to ____% N1), and asymmetric braking using the brakes on the inside of the turn to control speed at ________ knots. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

20; 70; 4 to 5

1. When the radar altitude is less than 1,000 feet and airspeed is less than 200 KCAS for 5 seconds, the airspeed must be increased to greater than ____ KCAS or radar altitude increased to greater than or equal to _____ feet to reset the landing gear warning horn. (1.11.5.7)

210; 1000

1. What is max deflection of the flight spoilers when flaps are UP? (1.15.1.6)

22.5°

1. For 180 degree turns without caster at GW of 732,500 lb and below using 60° of NLG deflection, the turn performance has been demonstrated and allows a 180 degree to be completed on a runway ______ feet wide. This is achieved using symmetric thrust and brakes with a speed of 4-5 knots. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

228

1. Two ____________ augment the DC power system. (1.20)

24-volt batteries

1. Full elevator authority is? (1.15.2)

25 degrees up and 15 degrees down

1. What is the maximum time for the landing lights if they are not fully extended? (1.21.1.1)

25 minutes

1. What is the landing gear retraction/extension time? (1.11.1)

25 seconds

1. Delayed application of maximum antiskid braking could further increase ground roll distance by approximately _____ feet per second of delay. (1-1, A8.2.1)

250

1. What is the minimum nitrogen allowed for use for firefighting capability? (11-2C5V3, 3.12)

250 lbs

96. What is the minimum pressure for the CED accumulator to extend the NLG during Emergency NLG Extension? (3.55.5, 3-154)

2500 psi

1. What is the extension/retraction time for flaps with both #1 and #4 hydraulic systems operational? Only 1 system? (1.17.1)

29 seconds / 58 seconds

1. Any number of 5-minute start cycles are allowed. A ______minute minimum cooling period is required after the first two 5-minute cycles and a ____minute cooling period for each subsequent 5-minute cycle. (1.2.2.6)

2; 10

1. The pitch augmentation system receives hydraulic pressure from hydraulic systems _____ and _____. (1.16.1.4)

2; 3

1. The RAIM availability check is executed when the aircraft is _____NM outside the FAF and the pilot is notified through an SP message if either check fails. (1.28.2.4, pg 1-861)

2NM

1. In EMERGENCY, a fully charged brake accumulator may provide up to ______ full brake applications. (1.14.1)

1. Should the engine temperature limits for engine shutdown be exceeded, operate at or near idle for ____ minutes to thermally stabilize the engine hot section. Taxi power is considered idle for this purpose. (2.40, p2-222)

Crash Axes

67. At power on, the SAI requires ____ min to initialize. (1.23.5.1)

3 MINUTES

67. Radar warm-up time is: (2.81)

3 minutes

74. During Emergency MLG Extension, total extension time is _____. (3.55.1, 3-148)

3 minutes

What is the transition time between wheel and rudder steering? (1.12.1.1)

3 seconds

1. For in-flight starting, the engine start system can be energized below ____% N2 to supplement a windmilling engine if required. (1.2.2.6)

1. The LNAV terminal area mode is active when the airplane is within ____ NM of the departure or arrival airport, or when the active waypoint is part of a departure or arrival procedure. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-531)

1. The battery is capable of supplying DC power to the Isolated DC, Avionics Isolated DC, Emergency DC, & Battery busses for a min of _____ minutes. (1.20.2.1)

74. With the loss of hydraulic systems No. 1 and No. 4, ensure that the MLG Emergency Extension accumulators are charged to _______ PSI prior to emergency extension of the gear. (3.55.3)

3000

96. With loss of hyd systems 1 AND 4, ensure that the MLG Emergency accumulator is charged to _____ psi. Use the hand pump until the MLG indicates the zero-degree position. (3.55.3, 3-152)

3000

1. What is the required normal hydraulic pressure from the engine-driven pumps? (1.9.1.3)

3000 psi

1. What is the normal hydraulic pressure? (pg 5-3, Figure 5-1, Sheet 2)

3000 ± 150 psi (2850 - 3150)

1. Airspeed is restricted to ____ KCAS or ____ Mach if the yaw augmentation system remains faulted or inoperative. (3.62.2.8)

300; 0.825

1. The annular combustor has ____ fuel nozzles and ____ igniters. (1.2.1.2)

30; 2`

1. With YAW AUGMENTATION INOP, conditions permitting, reduce altitude to approximately _______ or lower and establish a cruise airspeed range of _____ to _____ Mach. (3.62.2.8)

31,000 feet; 0.70; 0.75

1. The visor is capable of being operated during a constant ____knots and can withstand gusts up to _____knots when open. (5.21)

35; 70

1. When the flaps are extended past approximately 80%, the ratio shifter automatically extends all flight spoilers to? (1.15.1.6)

3°

1. An inflight alignment can be performed when the GPS is in the NAV mode and has a Figure of Merit (FOM) of ____ or less. (1.28.2.3)

1. For a min-radius 180-degree turn, taxi the airplane until ____ feet from the edge of the runway. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

1. If any MLG is more than _____ degrees from another, do not taxi the airplane (2.14)

25-Man Life Rafts:

1. PACS Roll reduces breakout force by approximately ____%. (1.16.3.1)

67. The TCAS processor receives an input from flap position to inhibit the climb maneuver whenever the flaps are extended to _______ or greater. (1.28.10.5, p 1-903)

40%

1. What is the minimum altitude to engage VNAV? (1.26.1.2, p 1-534)

400' AGL

1. When attempting a turn with the aircraft stationary and the aft MLG initially centered, avoid nose gear steering angles greater than _____ degrees at the start of the turn, otherwise the nose tires may scrub or skid. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

1. At gross weights above 732,500 lb, NLG deflection during the Min Radius Turn (MRT) 180-degree turn maneuver is limited to ________ to avoid exceeding structural loads. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

45 degrees

1. What is the elapsed discharge time from the Engineer's FSS panel? Nosewheel FSS panel? (1.40.4.2, p1-1060)

45 seconds; continuous

1. Where an obstacle exists in the climbout flight path, the takeoff gross weight shall not exceed that which would allow the obstacle to be cleared with three engines operating and the obstacle to be cleared by 48 feet per NM with four engines operating. (A3.4.5)

Usable fuel capacity is? (1.19.1)

48,897 gallons or ~ 49,000 gallons

Default RNP values are as follows: Enroute is ____, Terminal area is ____, Approach is ____. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-532)

4; 1; 0.3

1. As dynamic pressure is increased, the rudder limiter actuator further reduces rudder quadrant rotation limiting rudder authority to a maximum of _____degrees. The rudder is also limited to ____ degrees at greater than Mach 0.77. (1.15.3.2)

4; 4

1. Asymmetric braking is defined as brake application to the one side of the aircraft while the braked wheels are still rolling at speeds up to 5 kts. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

1. The LNAV approach mode is active when inbound to the destination airport and the active waypoint is part of an instrument approach procedure, or when within ____ NM of the final approach fix. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-531)

13. During a tactical MTO takeoff and departure, you can remain in MTO for a maximum of ______minutes. (5.4)

Escape Slides

Quick-Don w/goggles:

1. How many gear doors are part of the NLG system? (1.11.3.1)

5 (two inboard, two outboard and one kneeling door on aft part of fairing but is not used in-flight)

1. Approximately how long does it take for normal MLG wheel spin down after takeoff (uses 7-port valve)? (1.11.2.2)

5 Seconds

1. Exceeding reverse thrust idle below ____ KCAS at any time will require an engine and TR systems inspection and a 781A entry will be made. (2.36.1)

67. The tactical Mode 6B alert is "ALTITUDE, ALTITUDE" when the airplane descends _____ feet below the RA selected with the AFCS MINS/REF SET knob. (1.36.2.6)

1. How much can the N2 leak and the system still be considered "good"? (112C5V3, 3.12)

50 pounds per DEWAR in 12 hours; allow 1 hour after servicing for stabilization

1. What is the minimum altitude to engage LNAV (1.26.1.2, pg 1-531)

50' AGL

1. The HDG HLD, HDG SEL, LNAV, VERT NAV, VERT SPD, FLCH and ALT HLD modes are disabled below _____ ft AGL when the dual approach mode is engaged. (1.16.4.3)

500

1. The ignition exciter box continues to deliver energy until the engine reaches a self sustaining RPM of approximately _______%. (1.2.2.5)

1. With VOR or TACAN selected on the CNP as the CDI source, each green dot on the CDI scale indicates ____ degrees of deviation from course; with ILS/ MLS, each dot indicates ____ degrees of deviation. (1.23.4.3 pg 1-400)

5; 1.25

1. A rolling takeoff shall be made when tailwind component exceeds _____ knots, crosswinds exceed _____ knots, or if the airplane begins to creep while at higher takeoff power settings. (-1:2.17)

5; 25

1. While in flight, if one engine fails or is shut down after one (or more) of the timers has started counting down from ____ minutes, the remaining time on the operating engine timers will increment by ____ minutes up to a total time of _____ minutes at takeoff power. (1.2.3.3, p1-38)

5; 5; 10

During Emergency MLG Extension, if the position indicator does not move to the intermediate position (INTRANSIT) within _____ seconds, immediately return the switch to the ______ position to prevent motor(s) burnout. (3.55.1, 3-148)

5; NORMAL

1. How many degrees from center must the NLG be in order to retract? (1.11.3.2)

5°

1. On wet surfaces, the turn radius for a 180-degree turn may increase by as much as ____ feet. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

How many brakes per bogie? (1.14.1)

1. Maximum reverse thrust that is equal to approximately _____ % of total forward thrust. (1.2.4)

1. Engine shutdown may be accomplished 1 minute after completion of the landing roll, provided that the final approach was normal with an EGT less than _____C. (2.40, p2-222)

650

1. What is the no flap expected AOA? (2.36.9)

7.2

1. The aft cargo doors will withstand a ___knot wind from any direction in the fully opened position during ground ops. (5.22)

1. Apply asymmetrical thrust not to exceed ____% N1 on the engines on the outside of the turn and asymmetric brakes on the inside of the turn as required to maintain _____ knots of ground speed. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

70; 4 to 5

1. When operating at gross weights of ___________ lb and below, 60° of NLG deflection is used during the MRT maneuver and will allow for a 180-degree turn on a 150 foot wide runway. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

732,500

1. Engine shutdown may be accomplished 1 minute after completion of the landing roll, provided that reverse thrust operation was normal with an EGT less than _____C, or reverse thrust was not selected. (2.40, p2-222)

750

1. Each dewar has a capacity of? (1.40.4)

750 lbs

1. PACS Roll breakout force is approximately _____ pounds with PACS on. (1.16.3.1)

Escape Ropes:

PBEs

Smoke Detectors:

1. The CAB PRESS DIFF HIGH warning is displayed if the differential pressure exceeds safety valve limits of ____ PSID. (1.7.4.5)

8.7

74. On airplanes with inoperative rudder pedal steering, the pilot's left hand will remain on the nose gear steering wheel until the rudder is effective for directional control (approximately _____KCAS). (2.17.2)

74. When the flaps are at less than ___%, the landing gear warning horn protection associated with that flap setting will not be available. (3.55.1, 3-149)

67. What is the detection envelope of the TCAS system? (1.28.10.5, pg 1-902)

80 NM forward, 15 NM either side of the airplane, and 12 NM aft (depending on traffic density)

1. WARNING: When the flaps are at less than _______ and the nose gear is not down and locked or any of the MLG positioning collars are not engaged, the associated landing gear warning horn protection will not be available. (3.54)

80 percent

1. The fan section supplies ______ of the total engine thrust? (1.2.1.2)

80%

EPOS:

1. The engine bleed air system regulates engine bleed pressures and temperatures produced by the _____ stage and _____ stage of the engine compressor to supply airplane pneumatic system requirements. (1.5.1)

8th; 14th

1. The LNAV TRACK OFFSET provides a capability to fly a track parallel to the active waypoint and offset from 1 to ____NM left or right of course. However, the offset distance must be ____ the distance to the active waypoint. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-531)

99 less than

1. Due to interconnecting rods and elevator cable system, both pilot and copilot have control of the inboard and outboard elevators. Should an elevator jam occur, in one elevator surface or a pair of elevator surfaces, how do the pilots regain control of the elevators? (1.15.2.1)

A 180 lb force on the control wheel will shear both interconnect rod pins, permitting use of the operating elevators.

1. _____ uses automatically generated reports to provide improved flight following and monitoring. Reports are generated at specific time intervals or in response to specific events (waypoint change or deviations from flight plan), or on demand. (1.27.12.3)

ADS (Automatic Dependent Surveillance)

1. The landing gear warning horn will not sound when the Cargo Doors Aft Arming switch is in the __________ position unless the flaps are greater than or equal to ____ % and any of the landing gear are not down and locked. (1.11.5.7)

ADS READY; 80

1. The _____ is used to establish a connection to an ATC facility, to handle a switchover between two ATC units, and to terminate service with an ATC unit. (1.27.12.1)

AFN

1. What are the only four approved calls by the PM when the thrust reversers are deployed upon landing? (2.36.1)

ALL FOUR, INBOARDS ONLY, OUTBOARDS only, NO REVERSE

1. If airplane vertical speed is 250 fpm or less, ______ mode is engaged. If vertical speed is greater than 250 fpm, vertical speed at the time of engagement is maintained and _____mode is engaged. (1.16.4.3)

ALT HLD; VERT SPD

1. _____ allows manual override of altitude constraints programmed into the FMS or altitude restrictions set in the AFCS ALTITUDE window. (1.16.4.3, pg 1-212)

ALTITUDE INTERVENE

1. Two ________ control the Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS). (1.5.1.1, p 1-83)

AMSCs (Air Management System Controllers)

1. ________ provides for uplink/downlink of flight planning data, position report data, and associated utility data messages with the TACC, command posts, and other DOD facilities. (1.27.14.1)

AOC

1. The _____________ ensures that an adequate supply of bleed air pressure is available to the operating ATMs when the output pressure of the APUs is marginal. (1.5.2.1, p1-90)

ATM Priority Valve

1. ________ provides for request and receipt of predeparture clearances and ATIS and TWIP information. (1.27.14.2)

ATS

1. If uncommanded flight control inputs are experienced, immediately disengage the _____ and _____ switches on the AFCS panel. (3.62.1.6)

AUG PWR; AFCS PWR

74. If one or more landing gear cannot be retracted and mission requirements dictate, continue flight. The remaining gear may be retracted using what procedures? (2.55.2):

Alternate MLG Retraction Procedures - Non-Standard Configuration

74. What alternate retraction procedures would you follow to retract only ONE MLG from a green wheels indication? (2.55.1)

Alternate MLG Retraction Procedures - Standard Configuration

1. The basic FD pitch mode is: (1.16.4.3)

Altitude hold (ALT HLD) or Vertical Speed (VERT SPD); same as autopilot

1. Basic AP pitch axis modes are the ____ mode and ____ mode. (1.16.4.3)

Altitude hold (ALT HLD); Vertical Speed (VERT SPD)

67. If the EGPWS detects an increasing performance wind shear (increasing headwind, decreasing tailwind, or updraft), an _______ "WIND SHEAR" message is displayed in the PFD special alerts window and a "____________" aural alert sounds. (1.36.2.7)

Amber; CAUTION WIND SHEAR

1. What is an ATM? (1.10)

An auxiliary hydraulic power source (systems 1 & 4) for use during ground operation and for emergency in-flight operation. The ATM pumps are 40-GPM pumps and are controlled by switches on the flight engineer console

1. Thrust reverser operation during taxi will require _________ of the engine and thrust reverser system for structural integrity, FOD, and lubrication requirements, prior to the next flight. (2.14)

An inspection

74. Retraction malfunctions: What would you do if all 4 MLG gear remained GREEN WHEELS? (2.18, pg 2-142, After Takeoff Climb Checklist - Pilot column)

Anti-rotation failure; allow 2 minutes for spindown

96. What if brake pressure is indicated on BOTH Normal and Alternate brake pressure gauge? (no reference)

Antiskid Control CB is popped; brakes still work and will use system with highest pressure

1. When in BIP, the engines will default to _____ idle and will enter ALT mode. (1.2.2.1)

Approach

1. _________ IDLE is a higher idle setting, commanded by the VIA, that is used to accelerate the engine to take off thrust in 8 seconds to satisfy go-around thrust requirements. (1.2.2.1)

Approach

96. How many brake applications do you have with a fully charged accumulator? (3.56.2, 3-168)

Approximately 3

The _________ is comprised of a digital control unit and a series of temperature sensors that monitor the bleed air ducting system for leaks. (1.5.3)

BAOWS (Bleed Air Overheat and Warning System)

1. The ____ acts as a backup bus controller to the two VIA/AIUs and takes control of the buses in the event of power or comm. failure of both VIA/AIUs. (1.23.3.1)

Backup Integrating Processor (BIP)

74. If at any time, the MLG position indicator does not indicate down and locked (green wheels) and the MLG position indicator indicates zero degrees, check the _______ across the MLG rotation collar, locking collar and positioning collar are aligned vertically to form one line. (3.55.2.j.)

Black stripes

1. What must be functioning in order to maintain full pressurization? (1.7)

Both Air Conditioning systems or one AC system and floor heat

1. What do the BRAKES and NO BRAKES light mean? (1.14.3.1)

Brakes: All brakes receiving pressure (12 pressure lines) No Brakes: No brakes are receiving pressure (12 pressure lines)

67. Penetration of the EGPWS obstacle CAUTION alert boundary results in a "________________," aural alert and the obstacle is displayed solid yellow. (1.36.3.3, p1-1009)

CAUTION OBSTACLE, CAUTION OBSTACLE

96. With loss of hyd systems 1 AND 4, the _____ is the only source of hydraulic pressure for initiating NLG extension. (3.55.5, 3-154)

CED accumulator

1. With the loss of #1 and #4 hydraulic systems, how do you get the NLG down? (3.77.8.4)

CED accumulator (min pressure of 2500 psi is required); CED is powered by hyd system #4, hand pump is not accessible during flight - under the CED

67. Stabilizer position is used to adjust the AOA for the stall warning to compensate for different _______. (1.35.1.3)

CGs

1. The _____ partition processes and routes all datalink communications and is used to initiate contact with ATS facilities for reception of Terminal Weather Information For Pilots (TWIP) and Air Traffic Information Service (ATIS) data, and predeparture clearances. (1.27.11)

CMF

1. The two separate partitions in the VIA computers are used to accomplish datalink applications are? (1.27.11)

CMF partition and FMS partition

1. UHF No. 3 mode selections can be accomplished from either the _____ or _______ or from the control panel located in ____________. (1.27.3)

CNPs; MCDUs; equipment bay No. 3

1. V/UHF No. 2 may fail when switching from external to APU power. Operation can be recovered by cycling power on the _____ page. (1.27.3.1)

CNS POWER

1. _______ is used for direct exchange of messages between the crew and the ATC controller. (1.27.12.2)

CPDLC

1. Which zone button located on the nosewheel well FSS panel in not operable? (1.40.4.2, p1-1060)

Cargo/Center Wing Avionics

1. During flight, the FE will _______________________to limit the maximum bleed air load on any one engine to one air conditioning system and the floor heat. With this reduced load, cooling demands on the precooler will remain within capabilities. (1.5.1.1, 1-87)

Close one wing isolation valve

74. What do you do if MLG free lights fail to come on when the Caster switch is placed to CASTER or if they remain on after the switch is placed to CENTER and the gear are centered? (2.14)

Comply with the CASTER/POWERBACK BITE Procedures in Section 2 (2.54). The Caster/Pwr Back Shutoff Valve Control CB (FE #5 panel) must be pulled and gear centered prior to flight.

1. Where is the O2 warning horn silence button? (1.33.1.4)

Copilots overhead panel

1. Where do you find guidance for flight augmentation problems after takeoff? (3.62.2.8)

Dash 1, Section 3

1. Where does N2 discharge? What is the N2 capacity & storage arrangements? (1.40.4)

Discharges in unmanned areas only; capacity of 750 lbs per dewar; 2 dewars per airplane

1. Are there any CAUTIONS with hydraulic system overpressure? What are they? (3.77.5)

Do NOT depress the pump or pull the fire handle; you may damage the pump

67. TCAS installation gives ______ higher priority than TCAS. (1.28.10.5, p 1-903)

EGPWS

96. If hydraulic fluid in system #1 is lost, the NLG Steering shall be placed to ____. (3.55.3, 3-152)

EMER

1. What are the jettison rates for aux tanks only, ext range tanks only, aux & ext range tanks (all pumps on)? (1.19.1.5)

ER = 5560 ppm; Aux = 5360 ppm; Both = 9000 ppm

1. The _______ Caution CWA is generated to alert the crew that the airplane is off course and approaching the RNP containment limit. (1.26.2.1, p1-545)

EXCEED RNP (the sum of "nav system error" plus "cross track error" exceeds current RNP) ATC approval is required and RNAV operations may still be possible.

74. After putting the gear down, if a gear position indicator is displaying RED WHEELS, proceed to the ______ Procedure. (3.55.1, 3-147)

Emergency Bogie Rotation

1. Anytime you use the emergency extend switches, which hydraulic systems are you using for each respective set of gear? (1.11.2.4 & 1.11.3.4)

Emergency hydraulic pressure supplied by: § NLG - #4 § FWD MLG - #1 § AFT MLG - #4

1. During a left, right, or center duct overheat condition what overrides all valve closing signals generated by the overheat condition? (1.5.3.1)

Engine start sequence

3 Sources of bleed air: (1.5)

Engines, APUs & External air

1. On the Electrical Fire checklist, what should you do before telling the engineer to turn the generators off? (3.33, pg 3-92)

Establish level flight to ensure suction fuel feed into engines (will lose fuel tank boost pumps)

1. When can you slow down to no flap approach speed? (no ref)

Established on final (no turns)

If the EMERG SW ON light is on (NLG up and Emergency Extend switches in normal) and the NLG sequence panel indicates only ONE door open light on, you should _____. (3.55.11)

Extend the NLG by placing the gear handle down or using the NLG Emergency Extend switch

1. The landing gear can be extended without normal electrics AND without normal hydraulics? (1.11.2, 1.11.3)

FALSE Need normal hydraulics OR normal electrics to get gear down

1. Which doors are pressure doors? (1.39.2)

FAVAC Fwd ramp, Aft Ramp. Visor, Aft pressure door, Crew entrance door

1. The ________ system provides two-way datalink comm between the airplane and the military command and control network. Position reports and route reports may be transmitted manually or in response to a request from TACC. (1.27.13)

FMC COMM

1. The _____ partition datalink functions include the ATC communications application and the FMC communications application. The ATC application is used for direct communications with ATC centers, and the FMC application for interfacing with military command and control networks. (1.27.11)

FMS

1. What indications do you have when a fire has been detected? (1.40.4.2, p1-1058)

FSS FIRE Warning displayed on the MFDU, a MASTER CAUTION annunciation, and an audible alert

1. __________ is used to measure thrust (1.2.1.1)

Fan rotor speed (N1)

1. The EEC uses _______as the thrust-setting parameter. (1.2.2.1)

Fan speed (N1)

1. The Engine Buildup Unit (EBU) includes the engine sections and all propulsion system components that remain attached to the engine following removal from the airplane pylon engine mounts. The EBU consists of what FIVE sections? (1.2.1.2)

Fan, core, high pressure turbine (HPT), low pressure turbine (LPT), accessory drive

96. If the NLG position indicator does not indicate down and locked (green wheels) and one down lock light is on, check the _____ for proper alignment. (3.55.4, 3-154)

Fiber optic scope target image

1. How much thrust does the CF6 engine produce? (1.2.1.1)

Flat-rated engine provides 51,250 lbs up to 35°C, above 35°C thrust decreases with temperature

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # Life Vests

Flight deck

1. If you are flying at VAPP around the final turn and then increase bank beyond 30 degrees, what would be a good idea/consideration for speeds? (technique)

Fly VAPP+10 min until less than 30 degrees of bank

1. When and why are the electric suction boost pumps used for during engine start? (1.9.1.4)

For engines 1 and 4 only, used for engine start, ground ops and takeoff & landing to pressurize the suction lines to engine driven pumps and ATMs. They are also used any time a hydraulically driven boost pump fails.

1. How many Pitot Tubes are installed on the aircraft and how are they protected from icing? (1.8.2.3)

Four (pilot - upper left, lower right; co-pilot - upper right, lower left), electrically heated

1. AC power is provided by _________, one on each engine, by the ________________, or from _____________. (1.20)

Four IDGs; APU generator; external power

1. Where does the hydraulic suction boost pump get its operating pressure? (1.9.1.4)

From the engine-driven pumps (top/bottom) which it supplies and will operate as long as there is hydraulic pressure supplied to the system

1. The APU is controlled by a ___________ which maintains steady state speed at 100 percent RPM under all load conditions. (1.4.2.1)

Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC)

1. The ______ component of the EGI is a space-based radio navigation system that processes satellite RF signals to globally and continuously compute position and velocity. (1.28.2.2)

GPS

67. The presentation of radar data is only accurate when the NAV display is in the "_________" mode. (1.28.11.2)

HDG

1. The ________ is a valve that regulates airflow from the 14th stage of the engine compressor into the 8th stage connection duct upstream of the PRSOV. (1.5.1.1, p1-85)

HPSOV (High Pressure Shut Off Valve)

1. The basic FD roll axis mode is: (1.16.4.3)

Heading Hold

1. The basic AP roll axis modes are the ____ mode and ____ mode. (1.16.4.3)

Heading hold; Roll attitude

1. Which two buses are "hot-wired" to the battery and subsequently also powered during 7 and 3 bus ops? (1.20.2.3)

Hot battery bus connected directly to battery & Avionics battery bus-connected to hot battery bus thru a circuit breaker

1. With a loss of DC power (no AC loss), the battery will be supplying power to what 5 things? (3.78.4)

Hot battery bus, Battery bus, Emergency DC bus, Iso DC bus and Avionics Iso DC bus

1. What hydraulic system powers the Secondary Climb and Dive valves? (1.19.4.2)

Hydraulic system #1

1. The ______ component of the EGI provides accurate attitude and position at any location and in any weather. (1.28.2.1)

INU

1. The EEC calculates five reference fan speeds for the appropriate engine rating and based upon ambient conditions, these five speeds include: (1.2.2.1)

Idle; maximum takeoff (MTO), maximum climb (MCL); maximum continuous thrust (MCT); maximum reverse

1. What takeoff performance scenario states that a MTO static "should" be used? (A3.5.6)

If VGO is less than VROT (split markers) the takeoff planning priorities up to and including an MTO static takeoff should be used to minimize the condition where VGO comes before VROT

1. When centering the aft MLG, what asymmetry protection is built into the system? (1.12.2.2)

If asymmetry reaches 8°, the gear nearest to center stops until the other gear gets within 5° of the other, then both continue

When does the WING PRESSURE WARNING (CWA) & FUEL TANK PRESSURE WARNING (FE FSS Panel) light come on? (1.19.4.3, 3.80)

If tank pressure greater than 2.0 psi or less than - 0.7 psi

1. When does the CABIN PRESS LOW CWA illuminate? (1.7.4.5)

If the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet

1. When does the RAT DEPLOY (red) light come on? (1.9.3.7)

Illuminates when a RAT extend signal is sent from VIAs through RIU No. 3.

1. If the ATM PUMP PRESS light comes on with the ATM switch in OFF, you must ____________ (3.77.3) Why??

Immediately depress its respective hydraulic system; the ATM pump is spinning backwards without lubrication; refer to Loss of Individual Hydraulic System Quantity

1. The purpose of the Variable Bleed Valve (VBV) within the Low Pressure Compressor (LPC) system is to? (1.2.1.2)

Improve compressor performance and prevent compressor stalls

13. What if you get a GPWS warning during a tactical approach? (no ref)

In IMC you must adhere to all warnings. If VFR, if you correct and acknowledge the GPWS warning (situationally dependent of course), you can continue the approach. Use best judgment, situational awareness and CRM to decide.

13. What causes the Advisory Callout (GPWS Mode 6B) alert to sound "ALTITUDE, ALTITUDE"? (1.36.2.6)

In TACTICAL mode when the airplane descends 50 feet below the RA selected with the AFCS MINS/REF SET knob

1. Why do we place the RAT switch to RETRACT on engine shutdown considering that the strut pressure switch on the ground prevents the RAT from deploying when the engines are shutdown? (1.9.2.3)

In case the aircraft is knelt, whereby overriding the WOW switch and causing the RAT to deploy on the ground when knelt.

1. The RAT's AUTO position is energized through a combination of four pressure switches (one per bogie) and is operable only when the airplane is __________ (1.9.2.3)

In flight

1. The primary climb valve opens automatically to vent fuel tanks at 0.7 to 1.0 psi due to: (1.19.4.2)

Increasing N2 pressure, atmospheric drop or climb to higher altitude

1. What if the secondary climb or dive valve fails to open? (1.19.4.2)

It can be manually controlled to open using the climb and dive "poppets" (Vent Valve push buttons)

1. How does anti-skid work in EMER BRAKES? (1.14.3.1)

It doesn't

1. NLG has a two-speed gearbox, describe its operation: (1.11.3)

It has a high speed/low torque mode for extension and retraction; a low speed/high torque mode for kneeling

1. How does the ATM provide hydraulic pressure? (1.10)

It uses bleed air from an APU, an external source, or the main engines to drive the pump which provides the hydraulic pressure.

96. With the loss of hydraulic systems 1 AND 4, emergency brakes shall be selected ______. (3.55.3, 3-152)

Just prior to landing

1. Which autopilot switch is used to alternately turn off and turn on the roll axis of the AP? (1.16.4.4)

LAT DISABLE switch

1. What is the problem if only the LE SLAT BRAKE light is on (no asymmetry light)? (3.63.7):

LE SLAT overspeed, slat decouple or a brake system malfunction

1. The primary dive valve opens automatically at -0.15 to -0.25 psi to relieve tank pressure due to: (1.19.4.2)

Lack of N2 or rapid descent

1. How long does the CVR record and store communication? (1.29.2)

Last 30 minutes

1. During normal operation, the ______ air-conditioning system provides air to the flight station, relief crew compartment, and the troop compartment, with a minimal flow of air going to the cargo compartment. (1.6.1.1, p1-99)

Left

1. What areas are protected by the pushbuttons on the nosewheel well FSS panel? (1.40.4.2, p1-1060)

Left wing, right wing, underfloor forward, underfloor aft

67. The stall _______ function activates audible and visual indications that the airplane is penetrating the stall envelope. (1.35.1.2)

Limiting

1. If both engine driven hyd pumps fail (top and bottom) on engine #1, what checklist do you call for? (3.77.6)

Loss of hydraulic system No. 1 pressure checklist

The MAP 2 radar mode provides: (1.28.11.1)

Low level terrain definition and short range, air-to-air formation capability

Where are cockpit voice recorder & digital flight data recorder (DFDR) located? (1.29.2/3)

Lower section of vertical stab & right aft side of cargo compartment

94. With the loss of #1 and #4 hydraulic systems, how do you get the MLG down? (3.55.3, 3-152)

MLG Emergency Extension accumulators (can be recharged in flight-hand pump)

1. The gear handle is locked down until: (1.11.4.1)

MLG struts are fully extended after takeoff

1. Each refrigeration unit of the air conditioner has a primary and secondary heat exchanger. Cooling air for the heat exchangers is provided by ram air during flight at airspeeds above __________ when the slats are retracted, and by a cooling fan for all other airspeeds, ground ops, and when the slats are extended. (1.6.1.1, p1-98)

Mach 0.3

67. The programmed AOA for the stall warning is adjusted for _______ and when the slats are fully extended, the onset point is shifted and further adjusted for _________. (1.35.1.3)

Mach number; stabilizer position

1. The landing gear lever is electrically powered by: (Figure 1-79, Sheet 10)

Main DC #1

1. What does pushing the LEFT WING or RIGHT WING (VENT VALVE) pushbuttons do? (1.19.4.2)

Manually opens secondary climb/dive valves and fuel tanks for affected wing are vented to atmospheric pressure) (should get VENT OPEN indication) & closes both liquid nitrogen isolation valves (NOTE: pushing the button again will reset the climb and dive valves and open both nitrogen isolation valves.)

1. Brake limits will be checked during all landings at heavy gross weight, flap settings less than 40% or when __________________. (1-1, A8.2.5)

Max anti-skid braking is used.

1. When the actual N1 exceeds the _________ value with one engine on the ground or with all engines in flight, the engine status timer is shown. (1.2.3.3)

Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT)

1. How is the flap handle connected to the flap/slat actuator? (1.17.3.1)

Mechanically to the flap/slat drive gearbox

1. Minimum radius turn performance is only guaranteed if the maneuver is initiated while ___________. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

Moving

1. The NARF (Navigation Alignment Refining Feature) mode is available when the EGI has completed a GC alignment and the EGI is operating in the ____ mode. (1.28.2.3)

NAV

1. What are the normal hydraulic systems for each of the gear? (1.11.2)

NLG - #1 FWD MLG - #4 AFT MLG - #1

96. Illumination of the EMERG SW ON light while in flight with all of the Emergency Extend switches in the Normal position, indicates a failure of: (3.55.4, 3-153)

NLG door (open) switch card(s) or sensor circuitry.

1. When flying a no flap approach should you ever put the Spoiler Ratio Shifter switches in AUTO? (it is part of the LATEXFG list for partial flap items). (3.45)

NO. Forcing the ratio shifter to provide a full 60 degrees of flight spoiler deflection may result in over-controlling.

1. Will the RAT deploy in AUTO if you shut off all 4 engines in the chocks? (1.9.2.3)

NO; The AUTO position is operable only when the airplane is in flight; 1 switch per bogie

67. The ____________ advisory message is annunciated at GS capture if the localizer receiver has failed to switch from the tail to the nose antenna. (1.28.4.2, pg 1-883)

NOSE LOC ANT OFF

1. Are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? (1.9.1.5)

1. Is nitrogen required to be onboard for all flights? (AFI 11-2C5V3, 3.12)

96. Will NLG Steering be available if the NLG emergency Extend switch is left in the EXTEND Position? (3.55.4, 3-153)

Can you slip the C5 if behind on a descent schedule?

1. Turning to final, what is the minimum speed? (pg 2-193, Figure 2-19)

No flap approach speed + 20

1. What is the minimum speed on base during a no flap? (pg 2-193, Figure 2-19)

No flap approach speed + 20

1. If you go around on a no flap what speed do you maintain? Do you go to flaps 40%? (no ref)

No flap approach speed; NO

1. Does the Slat Drive Disconnect switch decouple the slats? (1.17.3.2)

No it simply disconnects the slats from the flap drive system

1. Is the PACS pitch system working with the autopilot engaged normally? (1.16.3)

No, PACS functionality is only available in CWS, or when the autopilot LAT or PITCH axis is selected to OFF. In all other modes, the applicable autopilot axis is disengaged.

1. Inflight the #3 hydraulic system indicates 3300 psi. Would you shut the engine down for hydraulic overpressure? (3.77.5)

No, but monitor in case it goes over 3400 psi; check direct reading gauge

1. Does the C-5M have a controllable fuel heater system? (1.2.2.3 & 1.20.1.1)

No, the fuel is automatically heated in a main fuel/oil heat exchanger prior to the fuel filter and a IDG fuel-oil heat exchanger downstream.

1. Does the battery need to be on to discharge N2 from the nosewheel well FSS panel? Why? (1.40.4.2, p1-1060)

No; It is hot-wired to the hot battery bus when the FSS arming switch in the nosewheel well is in the POWER/ARM position

1. When castering the aft MLG, what asymmetry protection is built into the system? (1.12.2.1)

None, no asymmetrical restraints (split bogie is possible)

1. What hydraulic systems power the NLG steering, normal and emergency? (1.12.1.1)

Normal - #1 | Emergency - #4

74. What happens if the Landing Gear Emergency Extend switches are left in "extend" for the MLG? (3.55.1, pg 3-148)

Normal and alternate brakes and caster may not be available if the Emergency Extend switches are left in the EXTEND position.

67. The aural alert with penetration of the EGPWS obstacle WARNING alert boundary is "________," and the obstacle is displayed solid red. (1.36.3.3, p1-1010)

OBSTACLE, OBSTACLE, PULL UP

1. What do you do for a slat drive decouple? (3.63.7)

Observe speed limits; visually inspect to confirm decouple; do not attempt to reset; place SLAT DRIVE DISC switch to DISC

1. What is MAIN SUMP LOW Caution CWA? What are the restrictions? (1.19.3.5, 3.79.2)

On when fuel quantity in 1807 lb capacity sump of each outboard main tank (1 or 4) drops below 1600 lbs (warns of possible adverse wing loading); 280kts/0.825 M

1. What is BOOST PRESS LOW light? (1.9.3.4)

On when respective hydraulic suction boost pump (4 total) pressure falls below a set value

1. How do the MLG spin down after takeoff? (Figure 1-53, Sheet 3, Notes 11, 12, 17)

Once airborne, the anti-rotation valve opens and supplies approximately 100 - 110 psi hydraulic pressure to the brakes (takes 5 seconds to spin down); the 7-port valve prevents full hydraulic pressure to the brakes after weight is off the wheels

1. Why would you not want to takeoff with anti-skid switch in TEST ARM? (1.14.3.1)

Only partial anti-skid modulation; may suddenly release then reapply brake pressure and damage the gear

1. What is MAIN TANK LOW Caution CWA? What are the restrictions? (1.19.3.2, 3.79.5)

Outboard main fuel tank is less than 75% full; 280 kts or 0.825 mach (if fuel mismanagement...aka fuel remains in aux or ext range tanks)

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # Quick don masks w/ Smoke goggles

P, CP, Observer, FE, Nav

1. A single fault in the augmentation system is indicated by a _____ or _____advisory message, or _____caution message. (3.62.2.8)

PITCH AUG FAULT; LATERAL AUG FAULT; YAW AUG FAULT

1. Complete failure of a subsystem or a dual fault in the aug system is indicated by a _____ or _____advisory message, or _____caution message. (3.62.2.8)

PITCH AUG INOP; LATERAL AUG INOP; YAW AUG INOP

1. Which autopilot switch is used to alternately turn off and turn on the pitch axis of the AP? (1.16.4.4)

PITCH DISABLE switch

1. The _______ is a solenoid-controlled, spring-loaded-open, pneumatically actuated valve that provides the capability to isolate the engine from the pylon and cross-ship manifold. (1.5.1.1, p1-86)

PSOV (Pylon Shut Off Valve)

1. The _____ provides the primary power for the EEC during engine operations above 10% N2. (1.2.2.2)

Permanent magnet alternator (PMA)

1. During 7 bus ops, what are the only reliable displays? (3.33, pg 3-92)

Pilot Left & Center MFDUs & CPs Left MFDU

1. During 3 bus ops, what are the only reliable displays? (no ref)

Pilot Left & Center MFDUs are only reliable displays

1. What if you accidentally hit a wrong, higher priority FSS button? (1.40.4.2, p1-1060)

Place arming switch to PANEL SAFE then to ARM, then press correct button

1. Each engine is equipped with a ______________ actuated Thrust Reverser (TR) system installed in the fan duct that reverses fan exhaust only. (1.2.4)

Pneumatically

1. For what threat would you fly a zoom departure? (3-3: 7.15.3)

Possibly SAMs where you would fly out of their WEZ at a rapid unpredictable rate and/or close in threat

1. How is pressurization maintained using bleed air from the engines? (1.7, 1.7.1)

Pressure is maintained by providing an inflow through the A/C flow control valves and modulating the outflow through the outflow valve (composed of two mechanically-linked units: the thrust-recovery valve and butterfly valve)

1. What is the purpose of the hydraulic suction boost pump? (1.9.1.4)

Prevents cavitation of the engine driven pumps by providing pressurized fluid from the unpressurized reservoir to engine-driven pumps

1. What is the problem when you get a FUEL TANK PRESSURE WARNING? What should you do? (1.19.4.3, 3.80)

Primary and secondary climb/dive valves have failed to equalize the pressure between the ambient air and fuel tanks. If the corresponding VENT OPEN light does not come on and the fuel tank pressure warning does not go off, discontinue a climb or descent. Jettison as a last result (no ref).

96. If the EMERG SW ON light is on (NLG up and Emergency Extend switches in normal) and the NLG sequence panel indicates BOTH door open lights on, you should _____. (3.55.11)

Proceed with the Section 3 detailed procedures. (3.55.11)

1. What does the GCU do? (1.20.1.2)

Protect from: over/underexcitation, over/under voltage, over/under frequency unbalanced current, neutral current faults, differential faults perform voltage regulation, contactor control, and protection functions for each generating channel in conjunction with the controls located at the flight engineer electrical panel.

1. What is the purpose of the sump box in the main fuel tanks? (1.19.1.1)

Provide uninterrupted flow of fuel to the engine during abnormal operating conditions (uncoordinated flight, gusts, sideslips, neg Gs, nose up/down attitudes) and for the outboard main tanks, to provide favorable wing loading at high speeds; contains inboard and outboard fuel tank pumps

1. What is the COLD START switch used for with regards to windshield heat? (1.8.2.5)

Provides manual heat control to the three forward windshields when the temp is below -40C to reduce thermal stress. The switch should be manually cycled 5 seconds on, 10 seconds off until the windshield reached -40C

What are the positions of the RAT switch? (1.9.2.3)

RETRACT, AUTO & DEPLOY

1. On the ground, a recommended takeoff time is computed and displayed which permit an on time arrival at the first flight plan _____. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-537)

RTA (Required Time of Arrival)

1. Using FMS Time Navigation, ____ targets can be entered to automatically control the arrival time at an associated cruise waypoint. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-537)

RTA (Required Time of Arrival)

1. The automatic nitrogen discharge function is activated when any one of the four Engine Start switches is in _____ or _____ and the CPU receives signals from the engine nitrogen FSS automatic discharge relays. (1.40.4.1, p1-1058)

RUN; START

1. When the HMG (emergency generator) is in use and the GCU detects a fault (such as a lack of #2 hydraulic system pressure and/or voltage/frequency out of parameters) the GCU shuts down. What do you have to do to restart the HMG? (no ref)

Recycle the INST POWER switch to OFF and then to NORM or EMERG, as required.

67. If a decreasing performance wind shear (increasing tailwind, decreasing headwind, or downdraft) is detected, a _____ "WIND SHEAR" message is displayed in the PFD special alerts window and a "__________" aural alert sounds. (1.36.2.7)

Red; WIND SHEAR, WIND SHEAR, WIND SHEAR

1. DC power is normally supplied by _____ operating in parallel. (1.20.2)

Regulated Transformer Rectifier Units (RTRUs)

1. The inboard TRs may be deployed in-flight but are limited to _________ thrust only. (1.2.4, p1-44)

Reverse idle

1. During normal operation, the ______ air-conditioning system provides air to the cargo compartment. (1.6.1.1, p1-99)

Right

67. If AOA exceeds shaker onset and penetrates the stall envelope, an audible warning sounds and the _____ annunciation is displayed. (1.35.3.3)

STall

1. What are the indications of an ATM fire? (1.4.2.5)

Same as an APU fire. Fire light in the associated APU fire handle and if on the ground, an audible warning horn

1. Where do you find the hydraulic power distribution chart? (Figure 3-26)

Section 3

74. Retraction malfunctions: What would you do if 1 MLG gear remained INTRANSIT? (2.18, pg 2-142, After Takeoff Climb - Engineer column)

See Section 2 engineer procedure mechanical vs no mechanical failures; specific detailed procedures must be followed. Section 2 (pg 2-142)

1. How many detection/protection zones compose the Bleed Air Overheat Warning System? 1.5.3.1

Seven. These zones are the left and right wings; engine pylons No. 1, No. 2, No. 3, and No. 4; and the cargo area. Each zone contains two independent sensor loops, with each loop containing a series of independent sensors.

67. The programmed stall AOA value is always greater than _____ AOA, and the associated warnings are prevented from preceding this. (1.35.1.2)

Shaker onset

67. The MAP 1 radar mode is used for: (1.28.11.1)

Short range terrain mapping.

1. When the gear are UP, what does the BOGIE PITCH CWA mean? (1.11.5.2)

Shows erroneous side brace signal and could cause damage if gear handle is placed to down position

1. For what threat would you fly a spiral up departure? (3-3: 7.15.3.5)

Small arms threat, if the field is secure and/or terrain close in.

1. During 7 bus ops, which indicators may be unreliable in icing due to loss of pitot heat? (3.33, pg 3-92)

Standby Attitude Indicator (SAI) & Nav altimeter/airspeed indicator

96. How do apply Emergency Brakes? (3.56.2, 3-168)

Steady brake pedal pressure (do not pump brakes)

1. If the flaps stop the slats will ____. If the slats stop, the flaps will ____. (1.17.2.1)

Stop; continue to commanded position

67. Which takes precedence, a TCAS RA or an ATC clearance? (-1: 2.79.5)

TCAS RA

67. How many aircraft can the TCAS system track? (1.28.10.5, pg 1-902)

TCAS is capable of tracking a total of 50 TCAS equipped intruders, although only 19 can be displayed on the TCAS overlay at one time.

67. To avoid unwanted alerts when operating within 15 NM of an airport that is not in the airport database, the TAD/TCF functions should be manually inhibited by selecting _____________ to ON from the EGPWS page. (1.36.3.3, p1-1010)

TERRAIN INHIB

1. NARF mode is auto-selected by the EGI when airplane motion is detected that is interpreted as ______ operations. (1.28.2.3)

Taxxing

What do you review during a route selection AND study?

Terrain, threats, LOCs, populated areas, etc.

67. The radar INOP lights (ANT or RT) are valid only if what mode is selected? (1.28.11, pg1-906)

Test

1. What are you testing during the in-flight brake check? (Figure 1-53, Sheets 2 & 3, Note 15)

Testing brake pressure switches only; 12 total, 3 per bogie, 1 for each pair of brakes

1. Which spoilers are flight spoilers and which are ground only? (1.15.1.5)

The 5 outboard spoilers are flight spoilers and the inboard 4 spoilers are for ground use only

1. What is the ALDCS and what does it do for us? (1.16.2)

The Active Lift Distribution Control Subsystem (ALDCS) is installed to increase fatigue life of the airplane wing by reducing maneuver and gust wing loads.

67. How is a GPWS different from an EGPWS? (1.36.2)

The E stands for Enhanced and the EGPWS incorporates the six alerting modes (Mode 1 through Mode 6) of the basic Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS), plus wind shear alerting (Mode 7) and a Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS).

67. How does the ground proximity warning system work? (1.36.2)

The EGPWS uses the navigation position in conjunction with the terrain and obstacle database to provide the TAWS function. The accuracy of the position and the quality (resolution) of the database are used by the EGPWS to determine if the TAWS function is operating at a high level of confidence.

1. The EMER HYD light will come on if: (1.14.2.4)

The accumulator has a min pressure of 1300 psi & brake switch is in EMER

96. The gear are currently UP, what would happen if you placed the gear handle down after observing a Bogie Pitch light on one of the MLG? (3.55.6)

The affected MLG would immediately start to rotate as soon as the gear handle was placed down, resulting in structural damage

1. What does the SLAT FLAP NOT SYNC Caution CWA mean? (1.17.3.7)

The flaps reached 40% before the slats fully extended or; 10 seconds after the flaps are fully retracted, the slats are not fully retracted

67. Does a malfunction of the Co-Pilot's Stallimeter system affect the Pilot's Stallimeter system? (1.35.1)

§ No, each stallimiter system side is separately controlled, self-monitored, and contains independent BIT software. Each has dual monitored independent sensors, independent processing, and independently provides signals to actuate the associated control column shaker and stall special alert. Consequently, a malfunction in one side will not affect the performance of the other side. If either side fails, the control column shaker action is provided from the other side through a control column interconnect rod, and the stall special alert is provided by the other side.

67. Is the stallimeter system accurate for No Slat with Flap approaches? (1.35.2)

§ No, for abnormal flap/slat configurations (as sensed by the stallimeter system), the stick shaker/stall warning may not activate properly and the stall/maneuvering indications on the airspeed tape may be inaccurate.

1. What hydraulic system powers the brakes: normal, alternate & emergency? (1.14.1)

§ Normal - #4 Normal brake pressure is supplied from the fwd gear hydraulic manifold (Hyd sys 4 thru fwd gear down rotate line for each side) § Alternate - #1 Alternate brake pressure is supplied from the aft gear hydraulic manifold (Hyd sys 1 thru aft gear down rotate line for each side) § Emergency - Emergency brake accumulator (system 4)

1. What type of motors are used for normal and emergency extension? (1.11.2)

§ Normal = 2 hydraulic motors (extension and retraction) Emergency = 2 Electric motors (extension)

1. The BCEM (Battery Control Electronics Module) is programmed to perform the what three functions? (1.20.2.2)

§ Normal control of airplane battery charging § Normal and emergency control of battery relay No. 1 § Emergency control of battery fill-in power to the emergency DC bus

67. If the airplane approaches a stall and the incoming AOA signals exceed the programmed value, the following two actions occur: (1.35.1.1)

§ Normal/alternate noseup trim signals to horizontal stab are interrupted § The control column shakers are activated

1. How are the NLG doors powered during normal and emergency operations? (1.11.3.1)

§ Normal: powered by #1 hydraulics (hydraulic motor) § Emergency: powered by electric motor

1. Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE): (1.41.12)

§ PBE is a 15 minute, self-contained breathing unit; max op altitude 41K § Check litmus paper color; blue = OK, PINK = bad § Airflow noise indicates normal operation

1. What is the indication and corrective action for a tank boost pump failure? (3.79.1)

§ PRESS LOW light on FE Fuel Panel § If the outboard boost pump (primary pump) in any tank fails, turn on the inboard boost pump and place the outboard boost pump switch in the OFF position. § If both pumps fail in Main tanks, then the engine will suction feed

1. Where are the PTUs located? (Figure 1-44)

§ PTU 1-2: located between hyd 1 & 2 service centers, left forward gear pod § PTU 2-3: located on wing rear beam, fwd of troop compartment § PTU: 3-4: located between hyd 3 & 4 service centers, right fwd gear pod

67. What are the radar hazard areas? (Figure 2-7, Sheet 1)

§ People & electro-explosives - 34 feet § Fueling operations - 46 feet

74. What do pilots/copilots look for when castering/centering? (2.14)

§ Pilots: MLG free lights, NW steering angle § Copilots: MLG free lights, aft main gear position indicators; advise if improper indications

1. What is a PTU and how does it work? (1.9.1.6)

§ Power Transfer Unit § It takes hydraulic pressure from one system and provides pressure to the adjacent system without mixing hydraulic fluid between systems. It is basically two constant displacement motors connected through an internal shaft.

1. What is an IDG? (1.20.1.1)

§ The Integrated Drive Generator is a CSD and an AC generator mounted side by side in a common housing mounted on the accessory pad of each engine, and cannot be disconnected from the engine. § The IDG converts a variable input speed, mechanical power, to constant frequency 400 Hz AC electrical power. § Each IDG contains a PMG which supplies, through its associated Generator Control Unit (GCU), an independent source of power for control and excitation.

1. Critical Engine Failure Speed (VCEF) - speed to which the airplane can accelerate, lose an engine, then continue the takeoff or stop within the CFL (A3.5.4)

§ Used in takeoff planning only when VGO = VB(MAX)

1. When does the FMS transition into Terminal mode and what does this mean? (1.26.1.2)

§ When the aircraft position is within 30NM from the selected destination or when the active waypoint is part of a departure or arrival § RNP changes to < 1

1. When does the FMS transition into Approach mode and what does this mean? (1.26.1.2)

§ When the aircraft position is within 5nm of the final approach fix or the active waypoint is part of an instrument approach procedure § RNP changes to 0.3

1. What does the DET FAIL light indicate? Ground or in-flight? (1.14.3.4)

§ With anti-skid ON, a skid control malfunction on one or more pairs of brakes which causes one or more pairs of wheels to free wheel for more than 3 seconds; § DET FAIL will NOT come on inflight.

1. Describe the priority system of the zone alarm pushbuttons? (1.40.4.2, p1-1059)

§ Zones 1 - 4 are not part of the priority system when a fire is sensed in any of these zones an auto-discharge occurs § Zones 5 - 12 right and down has higher priority, but 5-12 have no priority effect on zones 1 - 4 § Simultaneous discharge can occur in zones 1 thru 4 as well as 1 thru 4 and one zone in the 5 - 12 range § In zones 5 thru 12, N2 must be manually discharged and will only occur in a single zone in the 5 - 12 range

1. How much additional rudder trim does the Yaw Aug Manual Trim system (emergency rudder control) provide? (1.16.1.2)

± 20° (1° per second)

67. If the airplane deviates more than _____ feet from the selected altitude, the "CHECK ALTITUDE" audio message sounds and a simultaneous CHECK ALTITUDE special alert text message is displayed. (1.37)

±200

1. What is the range of nosewheel steering with the wheel (tiller)? The rudders? (1.12.1.1)

±60°; 5° (+2, -1)

1. How does the ice detector work? (1.8.2.1)

The ice detection system has an electrically oscillated probe that protrudes through the fuselage skin into the airstream. When icing conditions are detected, airplane power is applied to the ice detector probe for deicing, the ICE caution is displayed, and the nacelle anti-ice system is commanded ON if the Nacelle Anti-Ice switches are in the AUTO position. The ice detector probe is electrically deiced for 5 seconds, and the timer is automatically rearmed.

1. How is Nacelle Anti-Ice system controlled? (1.8.2.2)

The nacelle anti-ice valve is controlled by the EEC in response to a VIA/AIU provided input signal. The EEC defaults to nacelle anti-icing on when communication between the VIA and EEC fails, or when the airplane is operating in backup mode (BIP).

1. How are the nacelles heated for anti-icing? 1.8.2.2

The nacelle anti-icing system provides hot air (11th stage compressor) to the nacelle inlet to prevent accumulation of ice on the inlet lip. The system activates when the Nacelle Anti-Ice switch on the nacelle anti-ice panel is ON, or when the Nacelle Anti-Ice switch is selected to AUTO and icing conditions are detected by the ice detector system.

1. What is the PRESS LOW light? (1.9.3.3)

The output of the respective engine-driven hydraulic pump, top or bottom, (8 total) falls below a set value

1. In zones 1-4, what will happen if a second auto discharge starts while the first one is still discharging? (1.40.4.1., p1-1058)

The second automatic zone will discharge N2 for the remaining time of the first zones 45 second time period. At the conclusion of that cycle, the second zone will then start up it's own auto 45 second cycle.

1. Describe what happens if the primary climb or dive valves fail to open: (1.19.4.2)

The secondary climb valve will automatically open to vent at 1.0 to 1.5 psi; the secondary dive valve will auto open at -0.25 to -0.35 to admit air

13. When in TACTICAL mode, the RA legend on the PFD is changed to TAC. The altitude set is the desired minimum RA terrain clearance. The audio alert sounds each time the airplane descends below? (1.36.2.6)

The set RA altitude by more than 50 feet

1. If more than one zone detects a fire, what is the priority system of zones 5-12? (1.40.4.2, p 1-1059)

There is a priority system for zone 5-12 alarm pushbuttons. Depressing any of these pushbuttons to the right or below a pushbutton that was previously depressed will cancel out the previous signal

13. Is the 1000 or 500 foot calls based on RA? NO. (11-202V3_AMCSUP: 18.8.2.1)

They are based on 1000 ft HAT or 500 ft HAT respectively. So the calls must be made using the baro altimeter as the primary info (do the math ahead of time). The RA can be used as a secondary backup reference. The RA may not be accurate due to sloping (up or down) terrain prior to the runway.

1. A commanded fan speed is derived by interpolation from the ___________ input and the five reference fan speeds. (1.2.2.1)

Throttle Resolver Angle (TRA)

1. What is the purpose of the RAT deployment override pushbutton? (1.9.2.4)

To deploy the RAT in the event AUTO or DEPLOY positions of the RAT switch do not deploy the RAT

1. What is purpose of PTU override buttons & where are they located? (1.9.2.7)

To manually open the hydraulic shutoff valves on either side of a PTU. They are located in the hydraulic service centers and on the wing rear beam

1. On the Electrical Fire checklist, why do you turn off the autopilot BEFORE turning the emergency generator on? (3.33, pg 3-89)

To prevent abrupt pitch oscillations when power is removed from avionics DC busses #1 & #2

1. Where is the ELT transmitter located? (1.29.1)

Top of vertical stab below the an externally mounted ELT UHF/VHF antenna

1. What may a TE FLAP BRAKE ON Caution CWA indicate? (1.17.3.5)

Torque tube overspeed OR flap asymmetry

1. What may a LE SLAT BRAKE ON Caution CWA indicate? (1.17.3.5)

Torque tube overspeed; slat asymmetry; slat torque tube decoupled from the gearbox

1. How many total FSS zones are there? (1.40.4.2, p1-1060)

Twelve

1. The 28 VDC power is normally provided by ___________________________ that convert AC power from the AC system to DC power. (1.20)

Two Regulated Transformer-Rectifier Units (RTRUs)

1. What system is in place to prevent over pressurization? (1.7.1.2)

Two cabin safety valves open when the pressure gets too high. The valves open at 8.4 PSID and limit cabin pressure differential to 8.7 PSID (in case of malfunction or manual controller errors).

1. What system is in place to prevent negative pressurization? (1.7.1.3)

Two mechanical negative pressure relief valves in the aft troop. If ambient pressure is equal to or greater than cabin pressure, the negative pressure relief valves open allowing ambient pressure to enter the cabin.

How many hydraulic systems power each spoiler? (1.15.1.5)

Two: Each flight spoiler panel is powered by a tandem hydraulic actuator which utilizes hydraulic pressure from two separate hydraulic systems.

1. How many ATMs are installed on the C-5 and what hydraulic systems to they supply pressure to? (1.9.1.7)

Two: Right ATM pressurizes system 4, Left pressurizes system 1

1. The fire extinguishing system incorporates ____ spherical nitrogen pressurized extinguisher bottles in each engine pylon, connected to a common discharge manifold allowing ____ discharges per engine. (1.3.2)

Two; two

1. ______ and _____ are the only communication radios available in BIP backup mode. (1.27.3)

UHF No. 3 and HF No. 2

1. The FMS can only be commanded to operate in a dedicated sensor mode when the __________ Caution CWA is displayed and the NAV mode is set to MAN. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-533)

UNABLE RNP

1. When flying RNAV approaches as an RNP airplane, the RAIM check failed SP messages are advisory only and can be disregarded provided the __________CWA is not displayed. (1.28.2.4, pg 1-861)

UNABLE RNP

1. Which CWA is displayed when the C-5 is NOT qualified for RNP operations without ATC approval? RNAV may still be possible by operating in a dedicated sensor mode. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-533)

UNABLE RNP

1. Simultaneous operation of both V/UHF radios on certain discrete freqs may result in interference in one or both receivers. If such interference is encountered, manual MCDU selection of _______ antenna for one radio and ______ antenna for the other radio will remove the interference. (1.27.4)

UPPER; LOWER

Which comm. Radios can be tuned using the CNPs? (1.27.3)

V/UHF No. 1, V/UHF No. 2, UHF No. 3, and HF No. 1

1. Altitude and speed intervene functions are only operative when ____ is engaged. (1.16.4.3, pg 1-212)

VNAV

1. The ALTITUDE INV (altitude intervene) is enabled only when the ____ mode is engaged. (1.16.4.3, pg 1-212)

VNAV

1. _______mode represents the highest level of FMS vertical navigation automation for the aircraft. It can only be engaged when the AFCS is already operating laterally in LNAV. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-534)

VNAV

1. Which VNAV mode engages when the airplane reaches an altitude set in the altitude select window or programmed by the FMS? (1.16.4.3, pg 1-212)

VNAV ALC

1. The four VNAV operating sub-modes are: (1.16.4.3, pg 1-210)

VNAV FLCH; VNAV PTH; VNAV ALC; VNAV ALT

1. Which VNAV mode is engaged for defined path descents to FMS programmed altitudes? (1.16.4.3, pg 1-211)

VNAV PATH

Which VNAV mode is used for all climbs and for speed on pitch descents? (1.16.4.3, pg 1-211)

VNAVFLCH

1. The _______ mode can be thought of as an automatic FLCH mode since this mode provides the same climb, cruise, and descent functionality as the FLCH mode with the added feature that it will follow the programmed VNAV CLB, CRZ, and DES speed schedule options displayed on the MCDU VNAV pages. (1.26.1.2, pg 1-534)

VPRO

1. List the three speeds that will be corrected due to a reported wind gust. What is the max correction? (A3.2.2.2)

VROT, VMCO, VAPP; 10 knots

1. What is a VENT FILL light (on FE fuel panel)? (1.19.3.6, 3.79.8)

Vent box is about 1/3 full (float switch in vent box closes) Each vent system is terminated at a vent sump in outboard main tanks. A VENT FILL indication will be caused by a faulty main tank fill valve or a faulty auxiliary or extended range refuel valve OR could be a broken heat exchanger or liquid nitrogen pressurization line in the outboard main fuel tank.

67. To avoid confusion with EGPWS generated terrain data, ______ information cannot be displayed simultaneously with terrain information. (1.28.11.2)

1. What if the EMERG SW ON light comes on when the NLG is up and locked? (1.11.5.3)

Warns of an erroneous NLG door open signal & structural damage could occur if NLG is extended

1. What is the WEZ?

Weapon Engagement Zone. Proper use of the aircraft's flight capability is the single most important factor in reaching the objective area. Lower altitudes may reduce slant range on small arms and AAA systems and may place vegetation or terrain between the threat and the aircraft. As the threat allows, climb to higher altitudes to enhance SA.

1. If 10 feet is selected, the 100/10 switch on the AFCS panel reverts to the 100-foot mode when: (1.16.4.4, pg 1-219)

Weight on wheels (touch-n-go) or TOGA selected (go around)

When are the PTUs energized? (1.9.1.6)

When demands are greatest; emergency ops, ground maintenance and takeoff/landing

1. What does the Emergency Depressurization Switch on the Engineer's Panel do? (1.7.1.4)

When placed to EMERG DEPRESS, it causes the outflow valves to open, closes the left and right air conditioning flow control and shutoff valves, and closes both floor heat temperature control valves. This will depressurize the aircraft from approximately 4,000' to 30,000' in 60 seconds.

1. When does the RAT UNLOCKED Caution CWA come on? (1.9.3.7)

When the RAT locking actuator is unlocked

1. When does the EMERG GEN EMERG PWR light come on? (1.20.1.8)

When the emergency generator is operating and supplying power to the associated buses

1. When do you get the TE FLAP BRAKE ON Caution CWA? (1.17.3.5)

Whenever a flap torque tube brake is applied

1. When do you get the LE SLAT BRAKE ON Caution CWA? (1.17.3.5)

Whenever a slat torque tube brake is applied

1. When do you get the TE FLAP ASYMMETRY Caution CWA? (1.17.3.7)

Whenever the flap asymmetry system has generated an asymmetry signal

1. When do you get the LE SLAT ASYMMETRY Caution CWA? (1.17.3.7)

Whenever the slat asymmetry system has generated an asymmetry signal

1. When the EEC is in the start mode, a ______ box is centered on the respective engine instrument suite. (1.2.3.3, p 1-37)

White

Where are the MLG spin-up detectors located? (Figure 1-53, Sheet 1)

XÄ ÄX XXXX XXXX (FWD) (1A2 & 2A1) ÄX XÄ XXX XXXX (AFT) (3A1 & 4A2)

1. With a loss of ALL AC power, will the Emergency Generator automatically come on? (1.20.3)

YES

1. Can you manually discharge nitrogen into zone 5 while it is being automatically discharged into zone 4? (1.40.4.1, p1-1058)

Yes

1. If a zone discharge in zones 5 - 12 has been started manually and subsequently a zone alarm light goes on in one of the zones 1 through 4, how long will it discharge? (1.40.4.2, p1-1060)

Zones 1 - 4 will auto-discharge and continue for remainder of initial timer started by zones 5-12; it must subsequently be discharged manually for further operation

65. The Micro IRS (MIRS) is an inertial reference unit, which uses a sensor assembly similar to that of the EGI. The MIRS serves as a third source of _______, _______, ________, and _______, providing a fail-operative capability for systems using these outputs. (1.28.3)

attitude; rate; acceleration; heading

1. The _____________ is opened with the thrust recovery valve during ground operations, unpressurized flight and during emergency depressurization. (1.7.1.1)

butterfly valve

65. In the __________ navigation mode, the FMS produces a navigation solution by combining heading data from the MIRS, airspeed data, and wind data to extrapolate present position from a selected starting position. (1.28.3.2)

dead reckoning

1. The EGIs are self-contained all-attitude navigation systems consisting of a ______________ and an _______________. (1.28.2)

global positioning system (GPS); inertial navigation unit (INU)

1. With a loss of ALL DC power (no loss of AC power), will the Emergency Generator automatically come on? (1.20.3)

1. At gross weights above 732,500 lb the radius for a 180 degree turn without caster has __________________. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

not been assessed

67. The shaker onset AOA is lowered when the thrust reversers are ______. (1.35.1.3)

not locked

1. The INU requires an external command defining the ___________ before the transition to another mode can be accomplished. (1.28.2.3)

present position

1. When selecting an alternate from the Alternate pages, the default on the ground is selection of an alternate at the _______ and in flight, the alternate with the _______. (1.26.3.8, pg 1-595)

shortest distance; earliest ETA

1. The symbol for an RA is a _____________. (1.28.1.3, pg 1-848)

solid red square with a data tag

1. The symbol for proximate traffic is a ___________. (1.28.1.3, pg 1-848)

solid white diamond with a data tag

1. The symbol for a TA is a ______________. (1.28.1.3, pg 1-848)

solid yellow circle with a data tag

The ______________ valve controls the overboard flow of cabin air during all normal flight conditions while the butterfly valve is closed.

thrust-recovery

1. The symbol for non-threat traffic is a _____________. (1.28.1.3, pg 1-848)

white diamond outline with a data tag

1. What is indicated when the landing gear warning horn sounds? (1.11.5.7)

§ (Can be silenced) When airspeed is less than 200 KCAS for 5 seconds, the radar altimeter is below 1000 feet AND all of the following exist: o Any throttle is below 14 degrees lever angle (approx.. 60% N1 at pattern altitudes) for 5 seconds o ADS switch in safe o NLG not down and locked or any MLG positioning collar not locked § (Can NOT be silenced) Flaps extended beyond 80% and NLG not locked or any MLG positioning collar not locked

1. What are the O2 pressure limits for the quick don masks? (2.7.1)

§ 275 - 450 static § 275 - 400 flow

1. What is hydraulic overpressure? What should you do for hydraulic overpressure? (3.77.5)

§ 3400 psi § If mission permits, shutdown the engine using the PESC § If the mission does not permit engine shutdown, reduce power to a min on the affected engine, place the adjacent PTU switch on, depress one or both adjacent hydraulic pumps (as required) and monitor all systems for fluid loss. Lastly, check hydraulic reservoir temperature and if an overtemp of 225F or above is experienced, system contamination may develop (reconsider PESC)

What are maximum flap/slats speeds for the following? (5.15 Figure 5-13)

§ 40% flaps, slats retracted - 215 KCAS / .45M § 40% flaps, slats extended - 215 KCAS / .45M § 62.5% flaps, slats retracted - 185 KCAS / .45M § 62.5% flaps, slats extended - 195 KCAS / .45M § 100% flaps, slats retracted - 175 KCAS / .45M § 100% flaps, slats extended - 180 KCAS / .45M

1. Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) (1.41.13 & Figure 3-7)

§ 5-60 minutes self-contained breathing unit § Max operating altitude is 41K § Airflow noise within hood is normal; remove hood when it collapses

What valves close with L or R DUCT OVHT CWA? (Figure 1-35 & 1-36)

§ 7 valves PER side § ENG 1 & 2 or ENG 3 & 4 High Pressure Shut Off Valve (HPSOV) § ENG 1 & 2 or ENG 3 & 4 Pressure Regulator Shut Off Valve (PRSOV) § ENG 1 & 2 or ENG 3 & 4 Pylon Shut Off Valve (PSOV) § Left or Right Wing Isolation Valve

1. Minimal flowWhat valves close with a center bleed air overheat condition? (Figure 1-35 & 1-36)

§ 8 valves total § APU Bleed Air Shutoff Valves (2) § APU Isolation Valves (2) § Floor heat Valves (2) § Wing Isolation Valves (2)

1. How is aircraft's oxygen supply stored? (1.33.1.2)

§ A 25 & 75 liter converter § The converters are installed in an enclosed compartment in the left main landing gear pod fairing between the two main bogies

1. What is the Seven-Port Valve? (Figure 1-53, Sheet 2)

§ A mechanically driven scissor valve located on the aft portion of each MLG bogie. The Seven-Port Valve is a mechanical valve whose position changes with the compression and extension of the MLG strut. When the strut is compressed (i.e. weight on wheels) down rotate pressure is able to provide pressure to the individual brake pad actuators for braking. When the strut is extended (i.e. weight is off wheels) the Seven-Port Valve mechanically shifts allowing reduced in-flight brake line pressure to port to the brakes for MLG wheel spin-down.

1. How is the RAT deployed? (1.9.2.3 & 1.9.2.4)

§ AUTO: In AUTO position the RAT will automatically deploy inflight if both inboard and either outboard engine is shut down or falls below IDLE N2. § MANUAL: RAT switch is placed to DEPLOY on Pilot Instrument Panel § OVERRIDE: A guarded emergency RAT deployment Override Pushbutton, located in the No. 2 hydraulic service center is used to deploy the RAT in the event the AUTO or DEPLOY positions of the Ram Air Turbine switch do not deploy the RAT.

1. The ATC communications application, contained within the FMS, provides what three functionalities? (1.27.12)

§ Air Traffic Services Facilities Notification (AFN) § Controller/Pilot Datalink Communications (CPDLC) § Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS)

1. Prior to engine start, how will you start the engines if the #1 hydraulic boost pump is inoperative? Why? (2.10)

§ Alternate start sequence 4, 3, 2, 1 § In order to provide hydraulic pressure to the suction boost pump, either the electric boost pump must be operative or you must have hydraulic pressure from another source. Since #1 and #4 are the only engines with electric suction boost pumps, #4 must be started first if the #1 electric pump is inoperative.

1. What reasons the ANTI-SKID OFF LIGHT would illuminate? (1.14.3.3)

§ Anti-skid switch OFF § Brake switch in EMER § Anti-skid in TEST ARM, TEST 1 is depressed & alt power supply is inop § Anti-skid in TEST ARM TEST 2 is depressed & normal power supply is inop § Anti-skid switch in TEST ARM & Test 3 depressed § Anti-skid switch ON and overvoltage occurs § Loss of two electrical power sources to the anti-skid control box

96. How do you do the Inflight Brake Check? (3.56.1)

§ Antiskid - OFF § Press brake pedals - BRAKES light § Release brake pedals - NO BRAKES light § Select Alternate Brakes § Press brake pedals - BRAKES light § Release brake pedals - NO BRAKES light § Select Normal brakes § Anti-Skid - ON

1. Air Minimum Control Speed (VMCA2) (A3.8.1)

§ Assumes 2 engines out on same side, full rudder & required bank (within limits) § VMCA2 cannot be < 125 KCAS

1. Air Minimum Control Speed (VMCA1) - MINIMUM speed at which directional control can be maintained utilizing full rudder deflection and not more than 5° of bank away from the inoperative engine with one engine inoperative (A3.8.1)

§ At weights > 408,000 (40% flaps) & 443,000 (100% flaps), shaker onset speeds are higher than VMCA (1) § As a result, shaker onset speed is used above+ these weights

67. What must be deselected when flying an RNAV approach and how do you do this? (2.33, p2-187)

§ INU/RAD Solutions § Press the LSK adjacent to the solution you want to deselect on the POS page

1. Go Speed (VGO) - will be the lowest of VROT, VR or VB(MAX) (A3.5.6)

§ If GO = VR, then VR ³ VMCG § If GO = VB(MAX), then VB(MAX) ³ VMCG AND VCEF § If GO = VROT, an increase in VROT due to gusts will increase GO speed an equal amount not to exceed VR or VB(MAX) § NOTE: if GO < VROT (split markers) you may plan up to MTO static to minimize this condition

1. Both systems #1 and #2 lose quantity. What checklists will you call for?

§ Loss of Hydraulic System #1 Quantity (3.77.7.1) § Loss of Hydraulic System #2 Quantity (3.77.7.2) § Loss of Hydraulic Systems #1 AND #2 Quantity (3.77.8.1) § Dual Hydraulic Systems Inoperative Effects on Flight Controls (3.77.9) § Review Three Hydraulic Systems Inoperative Effects on Flight Controls (3.77.10)

1. Name 5 of the possible 7 reasons a MTO takeoff must be accomplished: (A2.3)

§ MCL does not satisfy takeoff or climbout performance requirements § RSC is present § RCR is less than 12 § Takeoff flaps less than 40% § Windshear or gust front from thunderstorm anticipated § Command guidance directs use due to enemy threat § Max allowable takeoff weight must be determined

96. What are the landing gear limiting airspeeds? (Figure 5.15 and Note #5)

§ MLG - 200 recommended § NLG & MLG - 250 Max § NLG may not retract above 225

1. How many gear door locks are on the MLG? (1.11.2.1) NLG? (Figure 1-47, Sheet 1 & 2)

§ MLG = 4 locks each § NLG = 8 locks

1. What 5 conditions will require you to compute the predicted brake temperature for landing? (A8.2.5)

§ Max anti-skid braking § Any flight shorter than 1 hour § Any landing above 600,000 pounds regardless of flap setting § Any time rwy length is shorter than twice calculated min run landing dist. § Flap settings less than 40%

1. What are the operational RAT speeds? (-1: Figure 5-13 & 3.23)

§ Max deploy - 350 KCAS / 0.825m § Max retract - 180 KCAS / 0.45m § Min for RAT to provide hyd pressure to drive Emer Gen AND Flight Controls (above 15,000 ft) - 190 KCAS § Min for RAT to provide hyd pressure to drive Emer Gen AND Flight Controls (below 15,000 ft) - 175 KCAS § Min for flight instruments connected to Emer AC, Iso AC & Avionics AC buses - 155 KCAS (all driven by Emer Gen)

1. How many inoperative engine-driven hydraulic pumps are allowed? Any restrictions on this? (112C5V3, Ch 3, pg 24)

§ Max of 2 (only 1 pump on 2 non-adjacent engines may be inop - B Base) § All pumps shall have positive depress capability § Adjacent PTUs must be operative

13. FYI: Selection of the TACTICAL flight mode on the EGPWS Control Page affects the basic GPWS modes as follows: (1.36.3.5)

§ Mode 2 is set to the flaps down and gear down conditions and the aural alert is "TERRAIN TERRAIN" only § Mode 4 warnings are restricted to a "TOO LOW GEAR" or "TOO LOW FLAPS" message when below 150 feet and below 150 knots § Mode 6: the ''MINIMUMS, MINIMUMS'' alert is replaced with an ''ALTITUDE, ALTITUDE'' alert is triggered when the aircraft descends 50 feet below the radar altitude set by the AFCS panel BARO/MINs function. § The TAD (Terrain/Obstacle Alerting and Display) and TCF (Terrain Clearance Floor) functions are inhibited for terrain and obstacles

1. What main systems are lost with loss of hyd sys #1 AND #4? (3.77.9, Figures 3-25 & 3-26)

§ Must land NO FLAP § MLG must be extended using Emergency Extension accumulator § NLG must be extended using CED accumulator § Normal & Alternate brakes are inop Emergency brakes only § No anti-skid § Rudder pedal & nosewheel steering inop § No alternate pitch (Autopilot) trim § Secondary climb & dive valves are inop (wing overpressure relief) § All ground spoilers inoperative

1. Portable O2 Bottles: (Figure 1-243)

§ NORM: Select all cabin altitudes up to 30K; pressure on demand § 30M: Used from 30 - 42K cabin alt; delivers slight positive pressure § 42M: Used from 42 - 45K cabin alt; delivers positive pressure § EMER: Further pressure increase for use over 45K

1. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure for the aft main gear bogie emergency positioning switches? (1.12.2.2)

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # Escape slides

#5, 3R, 3L, #4, #6

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # PBEs (15 min to 41K)

(1) Nav station (1) Across from aft flight deck closet (4) cargo comp. (2) troop comp. (pink paper = bad)

1. The core section provides _____ of the engine thrust and drives the accessories mounted on the Accessory Gearbox (AGB). (1.2.1.2)

20%

1. Which VNAV mode is engaged for for VNAV level off at altitudes set in the Altitude select window or as programmed by the FMS, whichever occurs first? (1.16.4.3, pg 1-211).

VNAV ALT

1. If an EGPWS terrain ______ or ______ occurs, the NAV display format with HDG UP and the active EGPWS overlay is automatically displayed on at least one of the pilot or copilot MFDUs (if not already selected). (1.28.1.3, pg 1-846)

caution; warning

1. Flap Retraction Speed (VMFR) - min speed for retracting flaps to the UP position (1.16 VSTALL) (when > 10° bank add 15 kts) (A3.5.10)

1. Good Technique: When flying a no flap approach, consider programming in the no flap approach speed into the Landing Data so that the G/A pointer on the PFD depicts no flap approach speed. (no ref)

67. Mode 7 of the EGPWS, Wind Shear, is only functional below what radar altitude? (1.36.2.7)

1500AGL

O2 (MA-1) Bottles:

74. Normal taxi speeds should be limited to ___ knots or less. (2.14)

1. What is max deflection of the flight spoilers, using control wheel inputs when flaps are extended past 80%? (1.15.1.6)

60°

1. Heavyweight is defined as gross weights above ____ pounds. (5.6.1)

635,850

1. You are departing on a mission from Dover AFB, how much N2 should you have? (112C5V3, 3.12)

650 lbs / DEWAR minimum

1. In BIP the airspeed trigger for the gear warning horn remains at 200 KCAS for 5 seconds regardless of radar altimeter status. The reset speed is _____ KCAS. (1.11.5.7)

210

1. The ________ regulates airflow from the engine compressor bleed ports. (1.5.1.1, p1-86)

PRSOV (Pressure Regulating Shut Off Valve)

1. How many DC Buses compose the DC Electrical System? What are they? (1.20.2.3)

There are 15 buses in the DC system (16 buses IRCM installed): § 2 main DC buses § 5 avionics DC buses (avionics DC buses 1, 1A, 2, 2A, and 2B) § 2 isolated DC buses (avionics isolated DC bus and isolated DC bus) § 1 emergency DC bus § 2 battery buses (airplane and APU) § 1 hot airplane battery bus § 1 avionics battery bus § 1 APU control bus § 1 IRCM DC bus (IRCM installed)

1. How many AC Busses compose the AC Electrical System? What are they? (1.20.1.6)

There are 17 AC buses that are used to distribute power to airplane equipment: § 8 main buses (forward and aft for each generator) § 2 monitor buses (one each for generators No. 2 and No. 3) § 4 avionics buses (avionics AC buses 1, 1A, 2, and 2A) § 2 isolated buses (isolated AC bus and avionics isolated AC bus) § 1 emergency AC bus

1. Fire detection is provided by what type of sensors are in the N2 protected areas? (1.40.1)

Thermal

1. What do you base your departure on?

Threats, climb performance, aircraft weight, weather and terrain/obstacles.

1. At CGs aft of ________, the reduced down force on the nose gear may result in scrubbing or skipping of the nose tires at larger deflection angles, also resulting in increased turn radius. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

32%

1. What is the maximum fuel load of the C-5? (5.6.2, Figure 5-5)

332,500 lbs

1. PACS Pitch reduces breakout force by approximately ____%. (1.16.3.2)

1. The aft cargo doors can be actuated in _____knot winds maximum. (5.22)

1. If the airspeed exceeds ____ KCAS or 0.825 mach with the ALDCS engaged, the ALDCS positions the ailerons to a fixed 6 degrees wing down (UPRIG) and the 6 DEGREE UPRIG advisory message appears on the CWA display. (1.16.2.3)

350

1. What is full rudder authority? (1.15.3)

35°

1. Targeting ______ knots during castered turn maneuvers ensures the main landing gear loads and turn performance are acceptable. (2.14.2; 1S-25)

4 to 5

1. In flight, the manual pitch trim levers can move the horizontal stab to a max of ___ down or ___up (mechanical limits)? (1.15.2.2)

4.11°; 12.11°

1. Maximum continuous thrust is __________ (1.2.1.1)

44,830 pounds.

96. How many brake applications do you have with 1000 psi on the brake accumulator? (3.56.2, 3-168)

One

1. How many RIUs are on the airplane and what do they do?? (1.25.4)

Six; provide analog and airplane component signals to core processing.

1. Can you simultaneously discharge in zones 1 through 4? What about zones 1 through 4 AND one zone within 5 through 12? (1.40.4.1, p1-1058)

Yes; Yes

96. How do you taxi with emergency brakes? (3.56.2, 3-168)

You don't

1. With the loss of #1 and #4 hydraulic systems, how do you get the flaps down? (3.77.9, Figure 3-25)

You don't; you must fly a no flap approach and landing

1. The AMSC controls which THREE valves to regulate bleed air from an engine? (1.5.1.1, p1-83)

§ High Pressure Shut Off Valve (HPSOV) § Pressure Regulator Shut Off Valve (PRSOV) § Fan Air Modulating Valve (FAMV)

1. What type of engines does the C-5 have? (1.2.1)

GE CF6 (CF6-80C2-L1F)

Descent Reels

Life Vests:

Flt Deck 20 // Troop 75

1. Name the 3 buses powered during 3 bus ops: (3.78.9)

§ Emergency AC § Emergency DC § Battery Bus

13. When TACTICAL is selected on the EGPWS Control page, all Mode 4 warnings are restricted to? (1.36.3.5)

"TOO LOW GEAR" and "TOO LOW FLAPS" when flying below 150 feet AGL and 150 KIAS

1. How is alternate pitch trim powered? Controlled? (1.15.2.2)

#1 hydraulic system powers screw drive motor (slow); controlled by alternate pitch trim switches (center console) or autopilot

1. What hydraulic systems power rudder pedal steering? (1.12.1.2)

#1 hydraulics only

1. A mechanical spoiler interlock moves which throttle(s) to the idle position when either spoiler handle is moved to the open position? (1.18.1.1)

#1 throttle

1. Where are the Emergency RAT retraction and deployment override buttons? (1.9.2.4)

#2 hydraulic service center (near station 1133)

1. How is normal pitch trim powered? Controlled? (1.15.2.2)

#2 hydraulic system powers nut drive motor (faster); controlled by trim switches on yoke or manual pitch trim levers through a cable system

1. The crew entrance door and flight station ladder operates with hydraulic pressure from hydraulic system_____. (1.31.1.1)

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # Crash axes

(1) aft FE station (1) #5 service door (1) coat closet in troop

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # O2 rechargers

(1) fwd of FE table (CP) (1) fwd of Nav table (P) (1) across flt station ladder (1) across #5 svc door (1) crew lavatory (3) cargo (LF, RC, LA) (2) troop lavatories

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # 25 man life rafts

(1) fwd, (3) aft

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # Descent reels

(1)P, (1)CP, (7) #1 hatch, (15) #2 hatch

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # First aid kits

(2) aft FE station (2) #5 service door (1) courier compartment (15) troop (2) cargo (CED, Rt troop)

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # Fire extinguishers

(4) Flight deck (8) Cargo (5) Troop

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # Escape ropes

(5) troop - 3R, 3L, #4, #6, ladder (3) cargo - 7L, 7R, CED

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # MA-1 Portable O2 bottles & Masks

(6) flight deck (4) troop (6) cargo

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # AERP units (brackets)

(7) Flight deck (3) Troop

C5 LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT - Location / # EPOS units (5-60 minutes to 41K)

(73) troop (15) courier

1. TAXI and Brake Temp Information: (A3.6.2, A8.2.5)

1. Normal taxi with random light braking will produce a brake temperature increase of 100 °C. 2. This temperature increase assumes a typical gross weight and moderate taxi distance; heat is generated by light braking and ground maneuvering 3. Lighter airplanes require increased braking; therefore, the lighter the airplane, the greater the temperature increases 4. Extended taxi is defined as a taxi segment exceeding 10,000 feet and may produce brake temperatures greater than 100 °C 5. Calculate the brake temperature increase using Figure A3-32, A8-17 6. If the brake temp increase on extended taxi is greater than 150C VBMAX shall be calculated 7. If taxi temps exceed 200C the brakes should be cooled below 200C prior to takeoff. Do NOT retract the landing gear until the brakes cool to 200C unless a greater emergency exists. 8. Temperature increases are cumulative 9. For example: After taxi to takeoff position, brake temperature is 100 °C plus ambient air temperature. If the takeoff is rejected, this 100 °C is applied to the brake temperature after refusal by use of the 100 °C initial brake temperature line (Figure A8-18 - Sheet 1). 10. Use actual brake application speed when known, otherwise use GO speed for rejected takeoff or subtract 6 KCAS from approach speed

1. When gear are DOWN, what does BOGIE PITCH CWA mean? (1.11.5.2)

1. On when bogie is greater than 15° nose down or greater than 11° nose up

1. The autothrottles will not command a speed lower than _____ or an airspeed/Mach greater than the upper limit of the recommended flight envelope. (1.16.5.2, pg 1-225)

1.2 VSTALL

1. In flight, do not trim the horizontal stab more than ___ nose down (except for AR) or it may result in an uncontrollable pitch down. (1.15.2.2)

1.5°

1. What is ALTERNATE pitch trim authority, condition and rate using NORMAL pitch trim switches? (1.15.2.2)

1.5° nose DOWN, 6.0° nose UP; flaps UP or AR door closed; 0.15°/sec 3.8° nose DOWN, 12.0° nose UP; flaps not UP or AR door open; 0.15°/sec

1. What is NORMAL pitch trim authority, condition and rate using NORMAL pitch trim switches? (1.15.2.2)

1.5° nose DOWN, 6.0° nose UP; flaps UP or AR door closed; 0.3°/sec 3.8° nose DOWN, 12.0° nose UP; flaps not UP or AR door open; 0.5°/sec

DISCUSSION: MLG EMERGENCY EXTENSION (takes about 3 minutes)

a) Place EMERG EXT switch to EXTEND b) Return switch to NORMAL if INTRANSIT indication is not obtained within 5 seconds c) Simultaneously, the emergency extension electric motors are electrically energized and the emergency isolation valve isolates the normal hydraulic system from the normal extension/retraction manifold and pressurizes the emergency gear extension manifold with alternate hydraulic system pressure (electrically controlled) d) MLG door locks unlock (alternate hydraulics) and clutches disengage the normal extension hydraulic motors and engage the electric motors to the extension/retraction gearboxes using the alternate hydraulic system § Get INTRANSIT indication when door closed sensor is unmade (door lock unlocks) e) Electric motors (Main AC) extend the MLG f) Alternate hydraulic pressure locks the MLG sidebrace lock § Get a RED WHEELS indication when the sidebrace locks g) Using alternate hydraulic pressure, the emergency bogie rotation cylinder rotates the bogies to the zero-degree position h) Alternate hydraulic pressure locks the positioning collar lock § Get GREEN WHEELS when the positioning collar locks § Also get EMERG SW ON light on (indicates forward rolling green wheels)

1. What major items do you lose with 3 bus operations? (3.78.9)

a. Airstart capability b. Flap asymmetry detection and protection c. Yaw aug manual trim d. Master caution warning system e. Flight augmentation f. Gear position indicators or warning systems g. Floor heat h. Anti-skid brakes i. Slats will overextend and decouple or retract and decouple depending on when failure occurs

What do you have with 3 bus operations? (3.78.9, Figure 3-28)

a. ENGINE INSTRUMENTS - None initially (can be put on Pilot left MFDU) b. FIRE PROTECTION: 1) Engines & APU = protection only, no detection 2) FSS = Protection (detection only when FSS armed using NW panel) c. LIGHTS: 1) Pilot's flood lights 2) Approach plate holder 3) Mag compass light d. MISC: 1) Manual Pitch trim 2) Left AC pack only (no temp control) 3) Pitot heat 4) RAT control - AUTO & MANUAL 5) Manual gear extension; indicators dont work (must button gear down) 6) Slats will decouple on first extension/retraction

1. What major items do you lose with 7 bus operations? (no ref)

a. Engine anti-ice b. Windshield heat c. AFCS d. Engine fire detection e. Thrust reversers f. Taxi/leading edge/landing lights g. ADFs & TACANs h. Stallimiter i. Normal/emergency gear extension j. Flap asymmetry protection k. Slats will decouple on first extension/retraction

1. Spoiler ratio shifter failure is indicated when RATIO SHIFT CWA comes on and the shifter is not in the right position with respect to the flaps. What do you have to do to correct the situation? (3.64)

a. Failure in FLAPS DOWN configuration (Flaps are UP but ratio shifter thinks they are DOWN) 1) 60° spoiler capability & 3° uprig with flaps UP 2) Slight roll into failed shifter 3) Place BOTH Spoiler Ratio shifter switches to FLAPS UP position 4) If spoilers don't move to flaps UP position (lights go out), place both switches to DOWN and limit roll control 5) After extending flaps for landing, place both Spoiler Ratio Shift switches to FLAPS DOWN position 6) Spoiler deflection of 60° at high speed could cause structural damage b. Failure in FLAPS UP configuration (Flaps are DOWN but ratio shifter thinks they are UP) 1) 22.5° spoiler capability & 0° uprig with flaps UP 2) Slight roll away from failed shifter 3) Place BOTH Spoiler Ratio shifter switches to FLAPS DOWN position 4) If spoilers don't move to flaps DOWN position (lights go out), place both switches to UP and expect reduced roll capability during landing

1. FYIWhat do you have with 7 bus operations? (3.78.9)

a. INSTRUMENTATION: 1) Pilot Center and Left MFDUs 2) Copilot Left MFDU (can show ENG display using CCD x-side) 3) Copilot MCDU b. NAVIGATION: 1) EGI No. 1 2) IFF 3) Micro IRS 4) MMR No. 1 c. COMMUNICATIONS: 1) V/UHF No. 1 2) UHF No. 3 3) Pilot/FE Interphone 4) Flight Station Interphone 5) Forward Cargo/Troop Compartment Interphone d. PILOT/COPILOT LIGHTING: 1) Pilot Instrument Flood Light 2) Annunciator Control 3) Master Caution Control e. LANDING GEAR: 1) Antiskid 2) Gear handle & emer.ext. switches - inop (must button down gear) f. FLAPS AND SLATS: 1) Landing conditions permitting, consider 40% flap approach. 2) Flap Asymmetry Protection - inoperative 3) Slats will overrun and decouple on first movement g. FIRE PROTECTION: 1) APU Fire Detection and Protection 2) Engine Fire Protection 3) Engine Fire Detection - inoperative 4) FSS h. MISCELLANEOUS: 1) VIA 1 2) VIA 2 - Alternate Power 3) SCADC 1 4) Pilot CCD 5) Pilot CNP 6) TCAS 7) Backup Integrated Processor (BIP) 8) Master Caution System 9) Interphone & Bailout alarm 10) Engine Instrumentation (if selected) 11) RAT Control 12) Manual Pitch Trim only

DISCUSSION: NLG EMERGENCY EXTENSION (takes about 3 minutes)

a. Place EMERG EXT switch to EXTEND b. Return switch to NORMAL if intransit indication is not obtained within 10 seconds c. Simultaneously, the NLG door electric motor is energized and its brakes are released electrically and the emergency isolation valve isolates the normal hydraulic system from the normal extension/retraction manifold and pressurizes the emergency gear extension manifold with alternate hydraulic system pressure d. Simultaneously, alternate hydraulic pressure unlocks the NLG door locks and alternate hyd pressure shifts the NLG door emergency actuator to the emergency mode § Get INTRANSIT indication when first NLG door lock unlocks e. Electric drive motor and torque tubes open the NLG doors § Get RED WHEELS when NLG doors fully open f. Alternate hyd system unlocks the NLG uplock g. Emergency NLG extension electric motor extends the NLG h. Alternate hydraulic pressure locks the NLG drag brace (downlock) § Get GREEN WHEELS when NLG drag brace locks i. EMERG SW ON light will illuminate when: § First NLG door reaches fully open position (if starting from an UP indication) otherwise... § If RH Fwd door normal lock actuator is in the unlocked position when this procedures is initiated, the light comes on when NLG is down and locked

1. VGO is the less of VROT, VR and VBMAX. If VR or VBMAX becomes "Go Speed" for whatever reason (or w/in 10 knots of VROT) what other speed MUST be checked to ensure safety of flight? Explain briefly the case for VR then VBMAX (A3.5.7)

a. VMCG b. VR: If VGO = VR, then VR must be equal to or greater than VMCG. Because if VR is less than VMCG and an engine failure occurs, the plane does not have min ground control speed during the reject. c. VBMAX: If VGO = VBMAX, then VBMAX must be equal to or greater than VMCG and VCEF. Because if VBMAX is less than VMCG and an engine failure occurs the plane does not have minimum ground control speed during the reject. And if VBMAX is less than VCEF you may not be able to rotate in the remaining runway.

1. No Flap FYI: (3.45)

§ Attempt to fly a normal glide path § Timely and positive power adjustments will be necessary to maintain desired airspeed § Approaching the threshold, power should be reduced earlier than normal, because, due to the low drag configuration, deceleration will be much slower § Do not perform a flare which results in a hold-off type landing, but allow the airplane to fly onto the runway § Ground effect will reduce the sink rate and cause the nose to pitch down § Any increase in nose up attitude will cause the airplane to float and may result in aft fuselage contact with the runway § Also, higher decelerations are possible on the ground than in the air; therefore, the shortest landing distance will result from flying the airplane onto the runway as soon as possible after threshold passage § When the main landing gear contacts the runway, begin to lower the nose wheel to the runway immediately.

1. Maximum Braking Speed (VB(MAX)) - highest speed from which the plane may be stopped without exceeding max design energy absorption capability of the brakes (A3.5.5)

§ Based on 33.1 million-ft-lbs energy per brake; temps to 1000°C

1. Ground Minimum Control Speed (VMCG) - the MINIMUM airspeed during takeoff at which, after loss of an outboard engine (all remaining engines at takeoff power), the pilot can regain directional control without deviating more than 30 from the runway centerline (A3.5.7)

§ Based on max rudder deflection, use of rudder pedal nose wheel steering, stab trimmed for takeoff and the worst-case aft CG.

1. Emergency Exit Lights - 12 exit lights: (1.41.3)

§ Batteries require 16 hours to charge; provide only 45 minutes of power § Batteries charging anytime power is on airplane and EMERG EXIT switch is in ARM or DISARM position. § With switch in ARM position, aircraft electrical power failure or sudden deceleration causes lights to come on § Lights can be illuminated for portable use by pulling out red release handle; light is turned off by stowing the handle

1. What are the minimum speeds required for the RAT to drive the emergency generator and to operate the flight controls? (3.23)

§ Below 15,000 ft - 175 kts § Above 15,000 ft - 190 kts § 155 kts minimum is required to power flight instrumentation (connected to the emer AC, iso AC, avionics iso AC busses)

1. In the NAV mode, what three navigation solutions can be selected either manually or automatically for use by the FMS: (1.28.2.3, p1-860)

§ Blended INU/GPS solution § INU only solution § GPS only solution

1. What are the three types of mechanical failures in the flaps? (3.63, 3.63.2):

§ Broken flap cable: no physical connection to desired flap position § Flap cable tension detector switch: shuts off hyd pressure to flaps § Torque limiter lockout

1. How does the O2 warning system work? (1.7.4.5 & 1.33.1.4)

§ CABIN PRESS LOW LIGHT comes on at 10,000 ft cabin pressure § If cabin pressure goes to 12,500 to 14,000, you get: o OXYGEN ON light on the continuous flow regulator panel comes on o All relief crew, courier, troop and cargo white dome lights on bright o All NO SMOKING lights come on o The warning horns sound in the plane o Masks drop automatically: mask storage container doors open automatically in the relief crew, courier and troop compartments, and in the troop compartment lavatories o O2 continues to flow until cabin altitude resets below 11,500 feet

1. If Emergency hyd press from alternate (emergency) source is also not available (both systems #1 and #4 are lost): (1.11.2.4 & 1.11.3.4)

§ CED Accumulator § L MLG Emergency Accumulator R MLG Emergency Accumulator

1. Critcal Field Length (CFL) - runway length required to accelerate on all engines to VCEF , experience an engine failure, then either continue the takeoff or stop in the same distance. (A3.3.7)

§ CFL is used for OIS/climb gradient and obstacle clearance because it represents the worst case liftoff point § CFL shall not exceed the RA (rwy available)

1. 7 uses of Bleed Air: (1.5)

§ Cabin pressurization § Air-conditioning § Cargo floor heat § Engine starting § Engine anti-icing § Thrust Reversers § ATM operation

67. What is the difference between a Wind Shear Caution and a Wind Shear Warning? (1.36.2.7)

§ Caution Increasing performance wind shear Amber WIND SHEAR message on the PFD "CAUTION WIND SHEAR" aural alert § Warning Decreasing performance wind shear Red WIND SHEAR message on the PFD "WIND SHEAR WIND SHEAR WIND SHEAR" aural alert

1. Selection of the DIVERT NOW option does what four things? (1.26.3.6, pg 1-596)

§ Changes destination airport to alternate § Puts route mod into active flight plan § Deletes part of original route not on the diversion route § Deletes all descent constraints

74. Retraction malfunctions: What would you do if 1 AFT MLG gear remained GREEN WHEELS? (2.18, pg 2-142, After Takeoff Climb Checklist - Pilot column)

§ Check CBs § Landing gear lever - Down § Caster switch - Caster, Center § Landing Gear Lever - Up § If gear doesn't retract, use MADAR prior to using Alt MLG Retraction Procedure (Standard Configuration in Section 2)

1. Which hydraulics power the flight controls? (pg 1-23, Figure 1-12)

§ ELEVATORS: Inboard 2 & 3 | Outboard 1 & 3 § AILERONS: Left 1 & 2 | Right 2 & 4 § RUDDER: Upper 1 & 3 | Lower 2 & 3

1. How are the ailerons powered? (1.15.1.1)

§ Each aileron is powered by two hydraulic actuators (utilizing two separate hydraulic systems) served by a dual hydraulic servo control assembly. § The left aileron is powered by hydraulic systems 1 & 2, the right aileron is powered by systems 2 & 4.

How is the hydraulic fluid cooled? (1.9.1.2)

§ Each hydraulic system is equipped with a heat exchanger for fluid cooling. Temp is kept between 130 and 150F. § The heat exchangers for hydraulic systems No. 1 and No. 2 are installed in the No. 2 main fuel tank. § The heat exchangers for hydraulic systems No. 3 and No. 4 are installed in the No. 3 main fuel tank.

1. What is the maximum flight control travel authority through the flight aug system? (1.16.1)

§ Elevator ± 10° § Ailerons ± 15° § Rudder ± 20°

96. When do you do an inflight brake check? (2.55.2 & 3.56.1)

§ Emergency extension procedure § MLG CB pulled § Extension after Alternate MLG Retraction procedure

13. How can you set up a "pie-in-sky" tactical display on NAV displays? (Dash 1)

§ INIT REF FIX § Enter desired bearing § Enter desired distance of ring

1. Explain takeoff procedure with a loss of an engine after VGO. (3.12, 3.12.1, 3.12.2)

§ Ensure throttles are at the planned takeoff thrust setting as a minimum, but they may be advanced to MTO if a MCL takeoff was planned § When not operating in TOGA, the autothrottles are limited to MCL unless using VNAV; as a result, the autothrottles may need to be disengaged to achieve power levels above MCL. § Climbout and acceleration with one or more engines inoperative should be accomplished at MTO until expiration of the N1 Engine Status Timer and then at MCT until final level-off altitude is attained. § Follow TOGA commands. If engine fails at a higher speed, climb at that speed. § Minimum control speed is based on a bank angle of 5 degrees away from the failed engine § Do not retract the landing gear before the airplane is definitely airborne and a positive rate of climb is shown § Bank angles of up to 30 degrees are allowed but climb rate is reduced by approximately 200 fpm. § WARNING: IF gear is not fully retracted 28 seconds after initial liftoff, the actual climb profile of the airplane will be lower than the computed profile.

1. What powers the RAT to extend and what does it then do? (1.9.2.3 & 1.9.1.8)

§ Extends with #2 hydraulic power (if available) or a from a system pressurized accumulator (if system 2 is de-energized) § Extends into the airstream and pressurizes the hydraulic suction boost pump (system #2) to prevent cavitation (powers emergency flight controls and emergency generator)

67. Thunderstorm avoidance criteria are: (11-202V3_AMCSUP: p32, 6.4.1.2.1)

§ FL 230 and above 20NM § Below FL230 10NM § 2000 ft above tops § 5NM for tactical and low-level ops (below FL230, if OAT > 0C)

1. Landing Ground Roll is based on: (A8.2.1)

§ Firm contact at touchdown § Spoiler deployment 1.3 sec after TD § Max anti-skid braking 1.6 sec after TD § Thrust Rev initiated 2.6 sec after TD § Max reverse thrust 4.1 sec after TD

1. What are the indications of a flap asymmetry? (1.17.1.1)

§ Flaps stop before reaching the commanded position § TE FLAP BRAKE ON Caution § TE FLAP ASYMMETRY Caution

1. What happens if an ASYMMETRIC FLAP condition occurs? (3.63.4):

§ Flaps stop moving before reaching selected position § TE FLAP BRAKE ON light ON § TE FLAP ASYMMETRY light ON § SLATS will also stop if FLAPS stop

1. How do the flaps and slats work? (1.17.1 & 1.17.2)

§ Flaps: A flap and slat drive gearbox, located on the aft center wing beam is powered by two separate hydraulic motors, and is used to drive a single flap torque tube system in each wing. Each flap segment (6 total / wing) is extended and retracted by two torque limited ballscrew actuators which are connected through gearboxes to the torque tube system. The torque limiting function will engage and stall the flap/slat drive gearbox during excessive load conditions. The torque limiters should reset upon reversing flap movement. § Slats: Each slat section is attached to two curved tracks which move on rollers in the wing structure. Each slat section (7 total / wing) is extended and retracted by two telescoping ballscrew actuators which are torque limited during excessive load conditions. They are connected to a single slat torque tube system in the wing. Power for operation of the slats is provided by the flap and slat drive gearbox. Power output from the gearbox is transmitted by torque tubes through a decoupler unit and then to a clutch and brake assembly. From there, the power output is transmitted by torque tubes to the slat drive actuators in the wings. The slat decoupler unit is designed to disengage the flap and slat drive gearbox from the slat system in the event an excessive load occurs in the slat drive system.

1. Which doors are unpressurized doors? (1.39.2)

§ Flight deck service door § Troop compartment service door § Left troop door § Right troop door § Side cargo door (LH) § Side cargo door (RH) § Center cargo door § Horizontal stabilizer access door § Fwd underfloor compartment door § Aft winch access hatch § Aft bilge access hatch § Fwd bilge access hatch

1. During NLG emergency extension, the EMERG SW ON light comes on when the switch is placed to EXTEND: (1.11.5.3)

§ From an up and locked condition when the first NLG door reaches the fully open position. § If the Fwd RH Lock is already unlocked when the EMER EXT switch is placed to Extend, the EMERG SW ON light comes on when the NLG is down and locked

1. Describe MLG retraction: (1.12.2.2)

§ GREEN WHEELS - MLG is down and locked, positioning collar is locked § RED WHEELS - Caster powerback positioning collar unlocks, bogie rotates 90° inboard § INTRANSIT - Downlock unlocks the sidebrace § UP - All MLG doors close and lock (MLG doors don't have uplocks - have only 4 door locks on outboard doors)

1. Describe NLG retraction: (1.11.3.2)

§ GREEN WHEELS - NLG drag brace (downlock) is locked, NLG down § RED WHEELS - Drag brace unlocks (NLG retracts, uplocks lock) § INTRANSIT - Doors intransit - start to close § UP - All "8" gear door locks are closed; locks and door closed targets met

1. The normal, 4-engine climbout consists of 4 segments: (A3.4.4.4)

§ Gear down with the flaps at 40 percent § Gear retracted with the flaps at 40 percent § Level off at HMFR (4 ENG), acceleration to the minimum flap retraction speed (VMFR), flap retraction and acceleration to 250 knots § Climb to altitude at the correct climb speed schedule.

1. What does the red light in the gear handle indicate? (1.11.5.4)

§ Gear lever UP: any NLG or MLG gear door locks are not in locked position § Gear lever DOWN: NLG is not down & locked or any MLG caster powerback positioning collars are not engaged

MTO Takeoff: (A2.3)

§ Highest power setting available for takeoff and is not normally calculated unless performance requirements dictate its use § If MCL does not satisfy the takeoff or climbout performance requirements, MTO must be calculated. § Additionally, if any of the following conditions exist, MTO shall be assumed as the initial takeoff thrust setting: Q Runway Surface Condition (RSC) is present Q Runway Condition Reading (RCR< 12) Q Flaps < standard 40% takeoff setting Q Wind shear of gust front from thunderstorm is anticipated Q Command guidance directs max perf. takeoff due to enemy threat Q The maximum allowable takeoff weight must be determined Q Recommended priorities for takeoff: MCL Rolling MCL Static MTO Rolling MTO Static (A3-6)

1. Principal components of the emergency power system include what 5 components? (1.20.3)

§ Hydraulic Motor Generator (HMG) § Generator Control Unit (GCU) § Battery (54 amp-hr) § BCEM § Emergency RTRU (100 amp)

1. Which hydraulic systems power the rudder? (1.15.3.1)

§ Upper rudder - Systems 1 & 3 § Lower rudder - Systems 2 & 3

1. Flap Retraction Height (HMFR) - the min height above field elevation that, during 4-engine ops, the flaps can be retracted while ensuring the climbout flight path does not penetrate required OIS/climb gradient requirement. (A3.4.4.4)

§ If HMFR (4 ENG) is too low, the OIS/climb gradient requirement will be penetrated before climb is initiated after flap retraction § If HMFR (4 ENG) is too high, the degradation in climb performance will again cause penetration the OIS/climb gradient requirement before climb is initiated after flap retraction § The 4-engine climb gradient capability is not normally calculated; instead, it is indirectly assured by selecting the appropriate minimum HMFR (4 ENG) based on the difference or, "delta" between the 3-engine climb gradient capability and the 4-engine climb gradient requirement § A positive delta occurs when the 3-engine capability exceeds the 4-engine requirement which results in a lower HMFR (4 ENG) If command guidance allows for operation where the 3-engine capability is less than the 4-engine requirement, the delta will be negative (and the resultant HMFR (4 ENG) higher to ensure the 4-engine requirement is achieved)

1. After a failed engine start, what conditions require the engine to be motored? For how long? (2.10, p2-105)

§ If an engine start is discontinued for any reason after placing the Start Switch to START, motoring must be accomplished if fuel flow was observed and the engine did not reach N2 idle. § Once the N2 RPM has dropped below 20 percent, rotate the Start switch to the MOTOR position and hold for 30 seconds.

32. TAKEOFF DATA VERIFICATION (1CL-1, P1-2)

§ If any of the following is a factor, tabulated data will not be used: a. Runway length < 6,000 feet. b. Pressure altitude > 4,000 feet. c. Nonstandard configuration takeoff (including flaps other than 40%) d. Slope > 1 percent. e. RCR< 12. f. RSC > 0.1 inch. g. Rotation speed is increased to: (1) Obtain a lower 3-engine Climbout Factor (COF). (2) Improve crosswind capability.

1. REJECTS: (know shalls vs shoulds) (-1: 3.10.1, 2.17.6.2, 7.6.8, 1-1: A3.6.1)

§ If at the end of accel check time, the speed is less than the min acceptable, the takeoff should be rejected (3-knot tolerance-not operationally used) § If windshear is encountered the takeoff should be aborted § If a system emergency is experienced in the low speed regime (below 80 knots), the takeoff should be rejected § If any fire, engine failure, or emergency that renders the aircraft unsafe or unable to fly is experienced in the high speed regime (> 80 knots), but prior to reaching go speed the takeoff shall be rejected § If skidding occurs on a static takeoff prior to establishing the initial power setting, the takeoff shall be aborted § NOTE: a decision to reject should not be based on the perceived ability that the airplane can be stopped. The decision to reject should be made only if the failure involved would impair the ability of the airplane to be safely flown.

1. Escape Slide Deployment: (Figure 3-8)

§ If slide case does not split and deploy normally, grasp both cables attached to the girt bar and pull sharply § If slide fails to inflate, grasp red T-bar marked "Pull" and pull until inflation commences § If slide still fails to inflate, pull slide red half-tie release handle to allow end of slide to fall to ground § Winds in excess of 13 Knots or running engines can cause slide to position itself at unsafe angles to the fuselage (Figure 3-8, Sheet 2)

1. What does the spoiler ratio shifter switch do? (1.15.1.6)

§ In AUTO, when flaps are up, spoiler deflection is limited to 22.5 degrees. When flaps are extended beyond 80%, spoiler deflection is 60 degrees. § The ratio shifter allows you to select full (FLAPS DOWN) or partial (FLAPS UP) spoiler deflection regardless of flap setting. § It is used if the automatic feature of the ratio shifter actuator fails or for partial flap crosswind landings. § It has three positions: · Auto (spoilers deflect 22.5 degrees with flaps <80%, 60 degrees with flaps =>80%) · Flaps Up (max spoiler deflection is 22.5 degrees) · Flaps Down (max spoiler deflection is 60 degrees)

1. What does the rudder limiter switch do? (1.15.3.2)

§ In the AUTO position, the rudder limiter actuator automatically moves in response to VIA signals to control rudder authority § MIN Q position is used to override the VIA signals and cause the actuator to move to the low-speed stop permitting full rudder control (35-degrees) at any airspeed

1. Refusal Speed (VR) - maximum speed which the airplane can accelerate at takeoff power, experience a malfunction and stop in the runway available (A3.5.3)

§ Includes 3.6 seconds from malfunction recognition to fully deployed brakes and spoilers § Includes 8.2 seconds from refusal point to max reverse thrust

1. What is the problem if only the TE FLAP BRAKE light is on (no asymmetry light)? (3.63.4):

§ Indicates flap overspeed or brake system malfunction

1. Name the 7 buses powered during 7 bus ops: (3.78.9)

§ Isolated AC § Avionics Isolated AC § Emergency AC § Isolated DC § Avionics Isolated DC § Emergency DC § Battery Bus

1. What does pulling an engine fire handle do? (1.3.2.1)

§ Isolates IDG § Signals VIA, sends firehandle status to EEC (does not shut down engine) § Compressor bleed air shut off by electrically closing the pylon bleed valve § Hydraulic fluid shut off to engine pumps, closes valve on forward wing beam and depressurizes pumps § Exposes fire extinguisher button § Mechanically close fuel supply into nacelle by closing valve on forward wing beam § Electrically closing Hydro Mechanical Unit HPSOV (fuel) and turning off ignition (This DOES shut down the engine)

1. What are the suction feed limits? (5.4.9.1)

§ JP8: Climb Outboard - 32,000 ft Inboard - 40,000 ft § JP4: Climb Outboard - 16,000 ft Inboard - 20,000 ft § Cruise: no suction feed limits for non-maneuvering cruise

1. Which zones have automatic nitrogen discharge capability? (1.40.4.1, p1-1058)

§ Left Outboard Wing (Zone 1) § Left Inboard Wing (Zone 2) § Right Inboard Wing (Zone 3) § Right Outboard Wing (Zone 4)

1. ROLLING Takeoff (runway correction) (A3.3.2)

§ Line up distance = 1000 ft (250 normal + 750 for rolling) § Rolling takeoff reduces chance of engine compressor stalls at high power settings caused by tailwinds or crosswinds § A rolling takeoff SHALL be made when the tailwind component exceeds 10 kts or the crosswind component exceeds 25 kts below 6,000 ft (10 knots above 6,000 ft) § Planned if previous takeoff attempt on a wet or icy rwy was aborted due to skidding prior to initial power being set

1. STATIC Takeoff (runway correction) (A3.3.3)

§ Line up distance = 250 ft § Required when a RSC is present, or when a rolling takeoff provides insufficient runway available for CFL, screen height, OIS/climb gradient or obstacle clearance

What does the Rudder Limiter do? (1.15.3.2)

§ Prevent excessive vertical stabilizer loads resulting from excessive rudder deflection at high airspeeds § Limits deflection as a function of airspeed and Mach and is continuously variable § Below approx. 150 KCAS, the actuator is at one extreme position and the quadrant may rotate the full amount in either direction to provide full rudder deflection of 35 degrees either side of center § When airspeed reaches approx. 150 KCAS, the VIAs provide a signal through the RIUs to the actuator causing it to schedule rudder limiter position with airspeed § As dynamic pressure is increased, the actuator further reduces rudder quadrant rotation limiting rudder authority to a maximum of 4 degrees § The rudder is also limited to 4 degrees at greater than Mach 0.77 § As airspeed decreases, the reverse actions occur.

1. Life Raft - to automatically deploy the raft: (Figure 3-19)

§ Pull the escape ladder down and remove #2 escape hatch § Pull the automatic ejection handle (case rises to hatch opening) § Pull out the life raft case hold-down pin and push the container outboard § Should the case fail to split or inflate, pull the D-ring located on the top of the case stowage platform

1. What is the RAT and what is it used for? (1.9.1.8)

§ Ram Air Turbine § A Ram Air Turbine (RAT) pump is provided to supply pressure to hydraulic system No. 2. The RAT provides capability for airplane control using limited flight controls for the time required to restart the engines or ATM pumps. It is deployed on the left side of the aircraft aft of the crew entrance door and forward of the main gear wheel well. The airstream drives the turbine and turns the hydraulic pump.

67. What do the high-density yellow and red dots indicate on the GPWS terrain display of the MFDU? (1.36.3.3)

§ Red indicates terrain greater than 2,000' above your current altitude § Yellow indicates terrain from 1,000 to 2,000' above your current altitude

MCL Takeoff: (A2.2)

§ Reduced power setting used for takeoff when max airplane performance is not required in order to reduce engine wear § During takeoff planning, MCL is assumed as the initial takeoff power setting unless conditions dictate use of MTO power

1. What is fuel scrubbing and how does it work? (1.19.5)

§ Reduces O2 in fuel; it is done in each tank during ground and air refueling; an aspirator draws N2 from the ullage and mixes it with fuel; fuel entering tanks is about 5% O2; ullage stays < 9% O2 § The decrease of atmospheric pressure during climb causes the fuel to release a flammable gas which then mixes with the vapors already in the ullage. § The scrubbing subsystem of the Fire Suppression System (FSS) scrubs or reduces the oxygen dissolved in the fuel. § This prevents the release of non-inert (flammable) gas from the fuel thus destroying the inert atmosphere in the fuel tanks. § Fuel scrubbing is accomplished in each tank during ground and air refueling by an aspiscrubbing function. § The aspiscrubbing function scrubs the fuel to such a low level of oxygen concentration that no additional scrubbing is required during climb.

1. What is RNP? (1.26.1.2)

§ Required Navigation Performance § Must be able to achieve navigational accuracy to the RNP value 95% of the time. (Position accuracy)

1. Rotation Speed (VROT) - minimum speed at which rotation from a three-point attitude to takeoff attitude is initiated (A3.5.2)

§ Rotation time is 4.8 secs at all gross weights § VROT may be less than VMCG (only when VGO = VROT) § VROT ensures liftoff speed always ≥ VMCA § Early rotation will increase the possibility of aft fuselage contacting the runway

1. What are the 3 conditions where you will have to re-sync flaps and slats? (3.63.9)

§ Slats fail to indicate extend (slats appear fully extended) § Slats fail to indicate extend (slats appear not fully extended) § Slats fail to indicate retracted (on retraction cycle)

1. What are the pilot indications of loss of normal DC power? (no ref)

§ Slats indicate INTRANSIT § Flap points off scale (11 o'clock -A; 9 o'clock - B) § Airspeed indicator on PFD goes RED § P right MFDU & MCDU inop; jump seat MCDU inop § CP center & right MFDU, CCD & CNP inop

1. What happens if an ASYMMETRIC SLAT condition occurs? (3.63.6, 1.17.2):

§ Slats stop before reaching commanded position § LE SLAT BRAKE light ON § LE SLAT ASYMMETRY light ON § SLAT FLAP SYNC light On · Slats did not fully extend before flaps reach 40% · Flaps retracted fully with slats not fully retracted within 10 seconds § Resynch flaps & slats if required

1. What are the indications of a slat asymmetry? (1.17.2.1)

§ Slats stop before reaching the commanded position § LE SLAT BRAKE ON Caution § LE SLAT ASYMMETRY Caution

1. To obtain a spin-up signal and/or touchdown signal for ground spoiler deployment, any one the following signals must be present: (1.18)

§ Spin up signal from L FWD and R AFT wheels § Spin up signal from R FWD and L AFT wheels § Touchdown signal from both FWD gears § Touchdown signal from both AFT gears

1. Stopping Distance is based on: (A3.1)

§ Spoilers § Max anti-skid braking on dry concrete/asphalt § One engine inoperative § Additional corrections available for runway corrections & use of reverse thrust

1. Which hydraulic systems power the elevators? (1.15.2.1)

§ Systems 2 & 3 power the inboard elevators § Systems 1 & 3 power the outboard elevators

1. What makes the emergency generator come on (3 times)? (3.78.9)

§ The Emergency Bus Power Relay is de-energized § Lose all 4 generators § Place the Instrument Power Switch to ON

1. What does a GEN OUT light mean? (1.20.1.8)

§ The IDG channel has been requested to come on line, but a fault is preventing the GR from closing, indicating that IDG or GCU is not operating within its specified limits. § The IDG uses dual protection against mechanical failure. The input drive shaft is designed to shear if the IDG bearings fail completely. The IDG drive mechanism is automatically disconnected if the oil temperature rises above a preset limit. In either case, the GEN OUT light on the AC Electrical System panel illuminates upon disconnect.

1. Tire Limit Speed - Tire placard speed converted to tire limit speed the max KCAS that a tire can with stand during takeoff or landing, corrected for conditions other than std day (A3.6.4)

§ Use 100% wind component when computing tire limit speed

1. REJECT PROCEDURES: (-1: 3.11)

§ The PF shall simultaneously retard all throttles to IDLE and state "SPOILERS" if necessary .... Apply reverse thrust and brakes as required until a safe speed is attained. § NOTE: Rejected takeoff performance predictions are based on the deployment of ground spoilers, application of max anti-skid braking and max reverse thrust on 2 symmetric engines ASAP then held until the airplane is brought to a stop § The PM shall deploy ground spoilers when directed by the PF, observe TR deployment & announce which TRs are deployed/usable § After rollout, determine reason for reject and take appropriate action to address the engine failure or system emergency § CAUTION: Refer to brake limit chart 1-1 to calculate brake temps and determine limitations § NOTE: If an exterior system and/or brake scan is required, accomplish the QUICK STOP checklist unless a greater emergency exists.

1. What is the PACS system? (1.16.3)

§ The Pilot Assist Cable Servo (PACS) provides assistance in overcoming the control wheel breakout force in roll and pitch. § Consists of two electromechanical torque motors, one attached to the pilot rear aileron quadrant (roll) and the other attached to the pilot rear elevator quadrant (pitch). § Electrical sensors in each control wheel detect the initial pilot effort in either roll or pitch and send a signal to the respective roll or pitch PACS. § PACS control for both roll and pitch is provided by the same VIA/AIU selected for AFCS control; VIA/AIU No. 1 with PLT CNTL (pilot control) selected and VIA/AIU No. 2 with COPLT CNTL (copilot control) selected.

1. How does the Fuel Tank Pressurization system work? (1.19.4.2)

§ The fuel tanks are pressurized automatically whenever the dewars contain liquid nitrogen at the correct saturation pressure and the isolation valves are open. § Pressure in the fuel tanks is controlled by pressure regulators which maintain a positive pressure and by vent valves which prevent overpressure or underpressure within the preset limits of − 0.35 to 1.5 PSI. § The vent valve assembly consists of a primary and a secondary climb and dive valve. § The primary climb valve opens automatically to vent the fuel tanks at 0.7 to 1.0 PSI because of increased nitrogen pressure, atmospheric pressure drop, or airplane climb to a higher altitude. § The primary dive valve opens at - 0.15 to - 0.25 PSI to admit air to relieve fuel tank pressure decrease due to lack of nitrogen, or rapid descent of the airplane. § If the primary climb or dive valve fails to open, the secondary climb valve will open automatically to vent the fuel tanks at 1.0 to 1.5 PSI, or the secondary dive valve will open automatically at - 0.25 to - 0.35 PSI to admit air. § Additionally, in the event the secondary climb and dive valve fails to open, it can be manually controlled to open both the climb and dive poppets to relieve any overpressure or underpressure when indicated by the fuel tank pressure warning lights on the flight engineer panel.

1. The approach idle parameters are met when the airplane is in air mode and pressure altitude is less than 25,000 feet and either of the following conditions are true: (1.2.2.1)

§ The left or right flaps indicate greater than 25 degrees § The nose gear down and locked § The AFCS ILS approach mode is selected to ON

1. If the pilot control wheel jams and he cannot roll the aircraft, what must be done? 1.15.1.1

§ The shear pin between the two control wheels must be sheared allowing use of the right aileron. Should a jam occur in either system, an excessive control wheel force will shear both interconnect rod pins and permit use of the operating aileron

67. What do the yellow and red tapes on the PFD indicate? (1.35.1.4)

§ The top of the yellow band is variable and depends on gross weight, configuration, bank angle, maneuvering load factor and pressure altitude and is based on 1.2 VSTALL. § The top of the red band is variable and is based on 1.05 VSTALL.

32. LANDING DATA VERIFICATION. (1CL-1, P3-2)

§ These TAB data procedures will be used to validate landing data not already validated by a flight engineer.

1. Life Raft - to manually deploy the raft: (Figure 3-19)

§ Try automatic deployment FIRST § Then try manual thru hatch #2; if not working then service door #5. § Pull the automatic ejection handle to ensure downlock pin is disengaged and hoisting mechanism is unlocked § Pull then relax tension on manual ejection handle until raft case is hoisted into position § Pull the raft case hold-down pin out and push case outboard § Should the case fail to split or inflate, pull the D-ring located on the top of the case stowage platform

1. What are the Flap / Slat Failure General Procedures? (3.63.1)

§ Turn off autopilot § Uncommanded rolling moment? Place flap handle to previous position § NO uncommanded rolling moment? Place flap handle to corresponding flap position § Scan affected system

1. What does the hydraulic system consist of? (1.9.1, 1.9.2.2)

§ Two engine driven hydraulic pumps § A hydraulically driven suction boost pump § A hydraulic reservoir § Power transfer units § Two ATM pumps (supplies hydraulics for flight and ground ops) § RAT pump (supplies #2 hydraulic pressure in event of total power failure) § Electric suction boost pumps

1. How does the ALDCS system work? (1.16.2)

§ Two independent AFCS partitions are provided to control ALDCS operation: AFCS partition No. 1 in VIA/AIU No. 1 (the pilot partition) and AFCS partition No. 2 in VIA/AIU No. 2 (the copilot partition) § The ALDCS utilizes control inputs to the ailerons and inboard elevators, through the pitch and lateral flight augmentation system, as a function of pitch rate, vertical acceleration at one fuselage location and four wing locations, and a pitch control column input. § It uses the flight aug system to control the inboard elevators and ailerons to move the flight controls to reduce stress on the wing during flight. § If airspeed is above 350 KCAS or 0.83M, it will move the ailerons 6 degrees wing down (6 degree uprig) and turn on the 6 DEGREE UPRIG Advisory panel. § When the airspeed is reduced below 350 KCAS or Mach 0.825, the 6-degree uprig command is removed, the 6 DEGREE UPRIG advisory message is removed, and the automatic positioning feature is reactivated.

1. Once approach idle is set, the discrete will reset when the ground/flight status indicates ground and either: (1.2.2.1)

§ Two reversers are commanded to deploy § The left hand or right hand ground spoiler limit switch indicates extend § The airplane ground speed is less than 60 knots

1. Describe MLG extension: (1.11.2.3)

§ UP - Gear is up and locked § INTRANSIT - when first MLG door lock unlocks § RED WHEELS - MLG downlock locks sidebrace; bogie rotates 90° outboard § GREEN WHEELS - Caster powerback positioning collar is locked, forward rolling gear

What are the required "copilot" calls during a tactical approach (PIQ emphasis)?

Ø 1000 foot STABLE call Ø 500 foot STABLE call Ø In addition to required calls, MAY consider: o All conditions § Any crewmember will immediately notify the PF when deviation of heading (+/- 10 degrees), airspeed (+/-10 kts), or altitude (+/- 100 feet) is observed and no attempt is being made to correct the deviation. § Any crewmember seeing a potential terrain or obstruction problem will immediately notify the PF. o Departures: § Flap retraction speed § Configuration speed limits o Arrivals: § For high arrivals, passing every 1000 ft & sink § Configuration speed limits § Below 1000 ft, call every 100 ft deviations in airspeed & sink rate § For Low Abeam & Teardrop approaches, call halfway around turn & altitude deviations o Low Arrivals: § Call deviations in bank angle & altitude § PF à Acknowledge deviations from planned profile § Clear observers to reposition

1. What are approach criteria at 1000 feet AGL? (11-202V3_AMCSUP: 18.8.1)

Ø Aircraft is in approach configuration Ø Airspeed is appropriate for configuration and conditions Ø Sink rate no greater than 1000 fpm (Note: Under some conditions some approaches may require greater than a 1000 fpm descent rate) Ø All briefings and checklists are complete (unless contrary to T.O. guidance) Ø Aircraft is on correct track Ø Aircraft is in the correct bank angle to maintain proper approach track Ø Power is set to maintain the descent profile at approach speed Ø If these criteria are not met by 1000 feet AGL, PM will announce the deviation and PF will take immediate corrective action. Ø PM states "1000, condition (example: "1000, fast" or "1000, ½ dot low") Ø If criteria are met, PM simply states "1000, stable"

1. On departure, obstacle clearance requirements are based on what for day ops? Night ops? (3-3.C-5, 2.8.7.3)

Ø Day: A min of 500 ft above highest obstacle or 400 ft plus one contour interval (within 3nm) Ø Night: A min of 500 ft above highest obstacle or 400 ft plus one contour interval (within 5nm)

What are the bank angle limits? (3-3.C-5, 7.9.1)

Ø Limit bank angles to 30 degrees below 1,000 ft AGL at night and 400 ft AGL during day Ø EXCEPTION: Level flight turns during night tactical approaches may use bank angles up to 45 degrees no lower than 500 ft AGL (1000 ft AGL min still applies to final turn) Ø 15 degrees bank below 200 ft Ø 5 degrees bank below 50 ft

1. When does the flight engineer have to compute predicted brake temps for landing? (1-1, A8.2.5)

Ø Max anti-skid braking is used Ø Any flight shorter than 1 hour Ø Landing above 600,000 lbs (regardless of flap setting) Ø Any time runway length is shorter than twice calculated min run landing data Ø Flap setting less than 40%

1. What are the "stable" criteria? (11-202V3_AMCSUP: 18.8.1)

Ø Momentary minor deviations/corrections are acceptable and are defined as: Ø Airspeed à +10 or -5 KTS from target Ø Bank Angle à ± 15 degrees from target Ø Rate of Descent à ± 300 FPM from target

Spyder Guide - Qs Only

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