STI's and HIV (Lewis Ch.s 14 + 52) Practice Quest.'s

17. To evaluate the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART), which laboratory test result will the nurse review? a. Viral load testing c. Rapid HIV antibody testing b. Enzyme immunoassay d. Immunofluorescence assay

ANS: A The effectiveness of ART is measured by the decrease in the amount of virus detectable in the blood. The other tests are used to detect HIV antibodies, which remain positive even with effective ART.

8. Which infection, reported in the health history of a female patient who is having difficulty conceiving, will the nurse identify as a risk factor for infertility? a. N. gonorrhoeae b. Treponema pallidum c. Condyloma acuminatum d. Herpes simplex virus type 2

ANS: A Complications of gonorrhea include scarring of the fallopian tubes, which can lead to tubal pregnancies and infertility. Syphilis, genital warts, and genital herpes do not lead to problems with conceiving, although transmission to the fetus (syphilis) or newborn (genital warts or genital herpes) is a concern.

15. Which patient will the nurse plan on teaching about the Gardasil vaccine? a. A 24-yr-old female patient who has not been sexually active b. A 34-yr-old female patient who has multiple sexual partners c. A 24-yr-old female patient who is pregnant for the first time d. A 34-yr-old female patient who is in a monogamous relationship

ANS: A Gardasil is recommended for female patients ages 9 through 26 years, preferably those who have never been sexually active. It is not recommended for women during pregnancy or for older women.

1. The nurse is advising a clinic patient who was exposed a week ago to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) through unprotected sexual intercourse. The patient's antigen and antibody test has just been reported as negative for HIV. What instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. "You will need to be retested in 2 weeks." b. "You do not need to fear infecting others." c. "Since you don't have symptoms and you have had a negative test, you do not have HIV)." d. "We won't know for years if you will develop acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)."

ANS: A HIV screening tests detect HIV-specific antibodies or antigens, but typically it takes a several week delay after initial infection before HIV can be detected on a screening test. Combination antibody and antigen tests (also known as fourth-generation tests) decrease the window period to within 3 weeks after infection. It is not known based on this information whether the patient is infected with HIV or can infect others.

12. A 29-yr-old female patient is diagnosed with Chlamydia during a routine pelvic examination. The nurse knows that teaching regarding the management of the condition has been effective when the patient says which of the following? a. "My partner will need to take antibiotics at the same time I do." b. "Go ahead and give me the antibiotic injection, so I will be cured." c. "I will use condoms during sex until I finish taking all the antibiotics." d. "I do not plan on having children, so treating the infection is not important."

ANS: A Sex partners should be treated simultaneously to prevent reinfection. Chlamydia is treated with oral antibiotics. Abstinence from sexual intercourse is recommended for 7 days after treatment, and condoms should be recommended during all sexual contacts to prevent infection. Chronic pelvic pain, as well as infertility, can result from untreated Chlamydia.

2. A 20-yr-old female patient who is being seen in the family medicine clinic for an annual physical examination reports being sexually active. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. testing for Chlamydia infection. b. immunization for herpes simplex. c. infertility associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). d. the relationship between the herpes virus and cervical cancer.

ANS: A Testing for Chlamydia is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for all sexually active women younger than age 25 years. HPV infection does not cause infertility. There is no vaccine available for herpes simplex, and herpes simplex infection does not cause cervical cancer.

19. Eight years after seroconversion, a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patient has a CD4+ cell count of 800/µL and an undetectable viral load. What is the priority nursing intervention at this time? a. Encourage adequate nutrition, exercise, and sleep. b. Teach about the side effects of antiretroviral agents. c. Explain opportunistic infections and antibiotic prophylaxis. d. Monitor symptoms of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

ANS: A The CD4+ level for this patient is in the normal range, indicating that the patient is the stage of asymptomatic chronic infection when the body is able to produce enough CD4+ cells to maintain a normal CD4+ count. Maintaining healthy lifestyle behaviors is an important goal in this stage. AIDS and increased incidence of opportunistic infections typically develop when the CD4+ count is much lower than normal. Although the initiation of ART is highly individual, it would not be likely that a patient with a normal CD4+ level would receive ART.

11. Which information about a patient population would be most useful to help the nurse plan for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing needs? a. Age c. Symptoms b. Lifestyle d. Sexual orientation

ANS: A The current Centers for Disease Control and Prevention policy is to offer routine testing for HIV to all individuals age 13 to 64 years. Although lifestyle, symptoms, and sexual orientation may suggest increased risk for HIV infection, the goal is to test all individuals in this age range.

21. An older adult with chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection who takes medications for coronary artery disease and hypertension has chosen to begin early antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Many drugs interact with antiretroviral medications. b. HIV infections progress more rapidly in older adults. c. Less frequent CD4+ level monitoring is needed in older adults. d. Hospice care is available for patients with terminal HIV infection.

ANS: A The nurse will teach the patient about potential interactions between antiretrovirals and the medications that the patient is using for chronic health problems. Treatment and monitoring of HIV infection is not affected by age. A patient beginning early ART is not a candidate for hospice. Progression of HIV is not affected by age although it may be affected by chronic disease.

10. A 19-yr-old patient has genital warts around her external genitalia and perianal area. She tells the nurse that she has not sought treatment until now because "the warts are so disgusting." Which nursing diagnosis is consistent with these data? a. Disturbed body image related to feelings about the genital warts b. Ineffective coping related to denial of increased risk for infection c. Risk for infection related to lack of knowledge about transmission d. Anxiety related to impact of condition on interpersonal relationships

ANS: A The patient's statement that her lesions are disgusting suggests that disturbed body image is the major concern. There is no evidence to indicate ineffective coping or lack of knowledge about mode of transmission. The patient may be experiencing anxiety, but there is nothing in the data indicating that the genital warts are impacting interpersonal relationships.

4. A 46-yr-old patient who has had blood drawn for an insurance screening has a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient about past treatment for syphilis. b. Explain the need for blood and spinal fluid cultures. c. Schedule fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FAT-Abs) testing. d. Assess for the presence of chancres, flulike symptoms, or a rash on the trunk.

ANS: A When antibody testing is positive for syphilis, the antibodies remain present for an indefinite period of time even after successful treatment, so the nurse should inquire about previous treatment before doing other assessments or testing. Culture, FAT-Abs testing, and assessment for symptoms may be appropriate based on whether the patient has been previously treated for syphilis.

1. The nurse is caring for a patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has just been diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection. Which prophylactic measures will the nurse include in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Pneumococcal vaccine c. Influenza virus vaccine d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole e. Varicella zoster immune globulin

ANS: A, B, C Asymptomatic chronic HIV infection is a stage between acute HIV infection and a diagnosis of symptomatic chronic HIV infection. Although called asymptomatic, symptoms (e.g., fatigue, headache, low-grade fever, night sweats) often occur. Prevention of other infections is an important intervention in patients who are HIV positive, and these vaccines are recommended as soon as the HIV infection is diagnosed. Antibiotics and immune globulin are used to prevent and treat infections that occur later in the course of the disease when the CD4+ counts have dropped or when infection has occurred.

3. The nurse in the outpatient clinic notes that the following patients have not received the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine. Which patients should the nurse plan to teach about benefits of the vaccine (select all that apply)? a. A 24-yr-old male patient who has a history of genital warts b. An 18-yr-old male patient who has had one male sexual partner c. A 38-yr-old female patient who has never been sexually active d. A 20-yr-old female patient who has a newly diagnosed Chlamydia infection e. A 30-yr-old female patient whose sexual partner has a history of genital warts

ANS: A, B, D The HPV vaccines are recommended for male and female patients between ages 9 through 26 years. There are several types of HPV. Ideally, the vaccines are administered before patients are sexually active, but they offer benefit even to those who already have HPV infection because the vaccines protect against HPV types not already acquired.

3. The nurse plans a presentation for community members about how to decrease the risk for antibiotic-resistant infections. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Antibiotics may sometimes be prescribed to prevent infection. b. Continue taking antibiotics until all of the prescription is gone. c. Unused antibiotics that are more than a year old should be discarded. d. Antibiotics are effective in treating influenza associated with high fevers. e. Hand washing is effective in preventing many viral and bacterial infections.

ANS: A, B, E All prescribed doses of antibiotics should be taken. In some situations, such as before surgery, antibiotics are prescribed to prevent infection. There should not be any leftover antibiotics because all prescribed doses should be taken. However, if there are leftover antibiotics, they should be discarded immediately because the number left will not be enough to treat a future infection. Hand washing is generally considered the single most effective action in decreasing infection transmission. Antibiotics are ineffective in treating viral infections such as influenza.

1. A 39-yr-old patient with a history of IV drug use is seen at a community clinic. The patient reports difficulty walking, stating, "I don't know where my feet are." Diagnostic screening reveals positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-Abs) test results. Based on the patient history, what will the nurse assess (select all that apply)? a. Heart sounds b. Genitalia for lesions c. Joints for swelling and inflammation d. Mental state for judgment and orientation e. Skin and mucous membranes for gummas

ANS: A, D, E The patient's clinical manifestations and laboratory tests are consistent with tertiary syphilis. Valvular insufficiency, gummas, and changes in mentation are other clinical manifestations of this stage.

22. The registered nurse (RN) caring for an HIV-positive patient admitted with tuberculosis can delegate which action to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Teach the patient how to dispose of tissues with respiratory secretions. b. Stock the patient's room with the necessary personal protective equipment. c. Interview the patient to obtain the names of family members and close contacts. d. Tell the patient's family members the reason for the use of airborne precautions.

ANS: B A patient diagnosed with tuberculosis would be placed on airborne precautions. Because all health care workers are taught about the various types of infection precautions used in the hospital, the UAP can safely stock the room with personal protective equipment. Obtaining contact information and patient teaching are higher-level skills that require RN education and scope of practice.

3. A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and is given a prescription for doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg bid for 7 days. The nurse explains to the patient that this combination is prescribed to a. prevent reinfection during treatment. b. treat any coexisting chlamydial infection. c. eradicate resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae. d. prevent the development of resistant organisms.

ANS: B Because there is a high incidence of co-infection with gonorrhea and Chlamydia, patients are usually treated for both. The other explanations about the purpose of the antibiotic combination are not accurate.

6. A patient admitted with chest pain is also found to have positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FAT-Abs) tests, rashes on the palms and the soles of the feet, and moist papules in the anal and vulvar area. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Assess for arterial aneurysms. b. Wear gloves for patient contact. c. Place the patient in a private room. d. Apply antibiotic ointment to the perineum.

ANS: B Exudate from any lesions with syphilis is highly contagious. Systemic antibiotics, rather than local treatment of lesions, are used to treat syphilis. The patient does not require a private room because the disease is spread through contact with the lesions. This patient has clinical manifestations of secondary syphilis and does not need to be monitored for manifestations of tertiary syphilis.

5. A 48-yr-old male patient who has been diagnosed with gonococcal urethritis tells the nurse he had recent sexual contact with a woman but says she did not appear to have any disease. In responding to the patient, the nurse explains that a. women do not develop gonorrhea infections but can serve as carriers to spread the disease to men. b. women may not be aware they have gonorrhea because they often do not have symptoms of infection. c. women develop subclinical cases of gonorrhea that do not cause tissue damage or clinical manifestations. d. when gonorrhea infections occur in women, the disease affects only the ovaries and not the genital organs.

ANS: B Many women with gonorrhea are asymptomatic or have minor symptoms that are overlooked. The disease may affect both the genitals and the other reproductive organs and cause complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease. Women who can transmit the disease have active infections.

5. A pregnant woman with asymptomatic chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is seen at the clinic. The patient states, "I am very nervous about making my baby sick." Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient? a. The antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV infection are teratogenic. b. Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus. c. Because it is an early stage of HIV infection, the infant will not contract HIV. d. Her newborn will be born with HIV unless she uses antiretroviral therapy (ART).

ANS: B Only 25% of infants born to HIV-positive mothers develop HIV infection, even when the mother does not use ART during pregnancy. The percentage drops to 2% when ART is used. Perinatal transmission can occur at any stage of HIV infection (although it is less likely to occur when the viral load is lower). ART can safely be used in pregnancy, although some ART drugs should be avoided.

10. The nurse palpates enlarged cervical lymph nodes on a patient diagnosed with acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which action would be appropriate for the nurse to take? a. Instruct the patient to apply ice to the neck. b. Explain to the patient that this is an expected finding. c. Request that an antibiotic be prescribed for the patient. d. Advise the patient that this indicates influenza infection.

ANS: B Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy is common in the early stages of HIV infection. No antibiotic is needed because the enlarged nodes are probably not caused by bacteria. Lymphadenopathy is common with acute HIV infection and is therefore not likely the flu. Ice will not decrease the swelling in persistent generalized lymphadenopathy

14. A 32-yr-old patient who is diagnosed with Chlamydia tells the nurse that she is very angry because her husband is her only sexual partner. Which response should the nurse make first? a. "You may need professional counseling to help resolve your anger." b. "It is understandable that you feel angry about contracting an infection." c. "Your feelings are justified and you should share them with your husband." d. "It is important that both you and your husband be treated for the infection."

ANS: B This response expresses the nurse's acceptance of the patient's feelings and encourages further discussion and problem solving. The patient may need professional counseling, but more assessment of the patient is needed before making this judgment. The nurse should also assess further before suggesting that the patient share her feelings with the husband because problems such as abuse might be present in the relationship. Although it is important that both partners be treated, the patient's anger suggests that the feelings need to be acknowledged first.

2. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which personal protective equipment will the nurse put on before assessing a patient who is on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile diarrhea (select all that apply)? a. Mask b. Gown c. Gloves d. Shoe covers e. Eye protection

ANS: B, C Because the nurse will have substantial contact with the patient and bedding when doing an assessment, gloves and gowns are needed. Eye protection and masks are needed for patients in contact precautions only when spraying or splashing is anticipated. Shoe covers are not recommended in the CDC guidelines.

2. Which topics will the nurse include when preparing to teach a patient with recurrent genital herpes simplex (select all that apply)? a. Infected areas should be kept moist to speed healing. b. Sitz baths may be used to relieve discomfort caused by the lesions. c. Genital herpes can be cured by consistent use of antiviral medications. d. Recurrent genital herpes episodes usually are shorter than the first episode. e. The virus can infect sexual partners even when you do not have symptoms.

ANS: B, D, E Patients are taught that shedding of the virus and infection of sexual partners can occur even in asymptomatic periods, that recurrent episodes resolve more quickly, and that sitz baths can be used to relieve pain caused by the lesions. Antiviral medications decrease the number of outbreaks but do not cure herpes simplex infections. Infected areas may be kept dry if this decreases pain and itching.

20. Which of these patients who have arrived at the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) clinic should the nurse assess first? a. Patient whose rapid HIV-antibody test is positive b. Patient whose latest CD4+ count has dropped to 250/µL c. Patient who has had 10 liquid stools in the last 24 hours d. Patient who has nausea from prescribed antiretroviral drugs

ANS: C The nurse should assess the patient for dehydration and hypovolemia. The other patients also will require assessment and possible interventions, but do not require immediate action to prevent complications such as hypovolemia and shock.

11. When a 31-yr-old male patient returns to the clinic for follow-up after treatment for gonococcal urethritis, a purulent urethral discharge is still present. Which question will the nurse ask to identify a possible cause of recurrent infection? a. "Did you take the prescribed antibiotic for a week?" b. "Did you drink at least 3 quarts of fluids every day?" c. "Were your sexual partners treated with antibiotics?" d. "Do you wash your hands after using the bathroom?"

ANS: C A common reason for recurrence of symptoms is reinfection because infected partners have not been simultaneously treated. Because gonorrhea is treated with one dose of antibiotic, antibiotic therapy for a week is not needed. An adequate fluid intake is important, but a low fluid intake is not a likely cause for failed treatment. Poor hygiene may cause complications such as ocular trachoma but will not cause a failure of treatment.

15. A patient treated for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection for 6 years has developed fat redistribution to the trunk with wasting of the arms, legs, and face. What recommendation will the nurse give to the patient? a. Review foods that are higher in protein. b. Teach about the benefits of daily exercise. c. Discuss a change in antiretroviral therapy. d. Talk about treatment with antifungal agents.

ANS: C A frequent first intervention for metabolic disorders is a change in antiretroviral therapy (ART). Treatment with antifungal agents would not be appropriate because there is no indication of fungal infection. Changes in diet or exercise have not proven helpful for this problem.

9. A patient is diagnosed with primary syphilis during her eighth week of pregnancy. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the a. likelihood of a stillbirth. b. plans for cesarean section c. intramuscular injection of penicillin. d. antibiotic eye drops for the newborn.

ANS: C A single injection of penicillin is recommended to treat primary syphilis. This will treat the mother and prevent transmission of the disease to the fetus. Instillation of erythromycin into the eyes of the newborn is used to prevent gonorrheal eye infections. C-section is used to prevent the transmission of herpes to the newborn. Although stillbirth can occur if the fetus is infected with syphilis, treatment before the 10th week of gestation will eliminate in utero transmission to the fetus.

3. A patient informed of a positive rapid antibody test result for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. What action by the nurse is most important at this time? a. Teach the patient how to reduce risky behaviors. b. Inform the patient about the available treatments. c. Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results. d. Ask the patient to identify individuals who had intimate contact with the patient.

ANS: C After an initial positive antibody test result, the next step is retesting to confirm the results. A patient who is anxious is not likely to be able to take in new information or be willing to disclose information about the HIV status of other individuals.

18. The nurse is caring for a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and taking antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which information is most important for the nurse to address when planning care? a. The patient complains of feeling "constantly tired." b. The patient can't explain the effects of indinavir (Crixivan). c. The patient reports missing some doses of zidovudine (AZT). d. The patient reports having no side effects from the medications.

ANS: C Because missing doses of ART can lead to drug resistance, this patient statement indicates the need for interventions such as teaching or changes in the drug scheduling. Fatigue is a common side effect of ART. The nurse should discuss medication actions and side effects with the patient, but this is not as important as addressing the skipped doses of AZT.

1. A male patient who has a profuse, purulent urethral discharge with painful urination is seen at the clinic. Which information will be most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Sexual orientation b. Immunization history c. Recent sexual contacts d. Contraceptive preference

ANS: C Information about sexual contacts is needed to help establish whether the patient has been exposed to a sexually transmitted infection and because sexual contacts also will need treatment. The other information also may be gathered but is not as important in determining the plan of care for the patient's current symptoms.

16. The nurse prepares to administer the following medications to a hospitalized patient with human immunodeficiency (HIV). Which medication is most important to administer at the scheduled time? a. Nystatin tablet b. Oral acyclovir (Zovirax) c. Oral saquinavir (Invirase) d. Aerosolized pentamidine (NebuPent)

ANS: C It is important that antiretrovirals be taken at the prescribed time every day to avoid developing drug-resistant HIV. The other medications should also be given as close as possible to the correct time, but they are not as essential to receive at the same time every day.

4. A patient who is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) tells the nurse, "I feel obsessed with morbid thoughts about dying." Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS." b. "Do you think that taking an antidepressant might be helpful?" c. "Can you tell me more about the thoughts that you are having?" d. "It is important to focus on the good things about your life now."

ANS: C More assessment of the patient's psychosocial status is needed before taking any other action. The statements, "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS" and "It is important to focus on the good things in life" or suggesting an antidepressant discourage the patient from sharing any further information with the nurse and decrease the nurse's ability to develop a trusting relationship with the patient.

12. A patient who uses injectable illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Clean drug injection equipment before each use." b. "Ask those who share equipment to be tested for HIV." c. "Consider participating in a needle-exchange program." d. "Avoid sexual intercourse when using injectable drugs."

ANS: C Participation in needle-exchange programs has been shown to decrease and control the rate of HIV infection. Cleaning drug equipment before use also reduces risk, but it might not be consistently practiced. HIV antibodies do not appear for several weeks to months after exposure, so testing drug users would not be very effective in reducing risk for HIV exposure. It is difficult to make appropriate decisions about sexual activity when under the influence of drugs.

6. Which patient exposure by the nurse is most likely to require postexposure prophylaxis when the patient's human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status is unknown? a. Needle stick injury with a suture needle during a surgery b. Splash into the eyes while emptying a bedpan containing stool c. Needle stick with a needle and syringe used for a venipuncture d. Contamination of open skin lesions with patient vaginal secretions

ANS: C Puncture wounds are the most common means for workplace transmission of blood-borne diseases, and a needle with a hollow bore that had been contaminated with the patient's blood would be a high-risk situation. The other situations described would be much less likely to result in transmission of the virus.

23. The nurse designs a program to decrease the incidence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in the adolescent and young adult populations. Which information should the nurse assign as the highest priority? a. Methods to prevent perinatal HIV transmission b. Ways to sterilize needles used by injectable drug users c. Prevention of HIV transmission between sexual partners d. Means to prevent transmission through blood transfusions

ANS: C Sexual transmission is the most common way that HIV is transmitted. The nurse should also provide teaching about perinatal transmission, needle sterilization, and blood transfusion, but the rate of HIV infection associated with these situations is lower.

7. Which statement by a 24-yr-old patient indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of primary genital herpes has been effective? a. "I will use acyclovir ointment on the area to relieve the discomfort." b. "I will use condoms for intercourse until the medication is all gone." c. "I will take the acyclovir (Zovirax) every 8 hours for the next week." d. "I will need to take all of the medication to be sure the infection is cured."

ANS: C The treatment regimen for primary genital herpes infections includes acyclovir 400 mg 3 times daily for 7 to 10 days. The patient is taught to abstain from intercourse until the lesions are gone. (Condoms should be used even when the patient is asymptomatic.) Acyclovir ointment is not effective in treating lesions or reducing pain. Herpes infection is chronic and recurrent.

16. After the nurse has taught a patient with a newly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection (STI) about expedited partner therapy, which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will tell my partner that it is important to be examined at the clinic." b. "I will have my partner take the antibiotics if any STI symptoms occur." c. "I will make sure that my partner takes all of the prescribed medication." d. "I will have my partner use a condom until I have finished the antibiotics."

ANS: C With expedited partner therapy, the patient is given a prescription or medications for the partner. The partner does not need to be evaluated by the health care provider but is presumed to be infected and should be treated concurrently with the patient. Use of a condom will not treat the presumed STI in the partner.

13. Which nursing action will be most useful in assisting a college student to adhere to a newly prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen? a. Give the patient detailed information about possible medication side effects. b. Remind the patient of the importance of taking the medications as scheduled. c. Encourage the patient to join a support group for students who are HIV positive. d. Check the patient's class schedule to help decide when the drugs should be taken

ANS: D The best approach to improve adherence is to learn about important activities in the patient's life and adjust the ART around those activities. The other actions are also useful, but they will not improve adherence as much as individualizing the ART to the patient's schedule.

9. The nurse will most likely prepare a medication teaching plan about antiretroviral therapy (ART) for which patient? a. Patient who is currently HIV negative but has unprotected sex with multiple partners b. Patient who was infected with HIV 15 years ago and now has a CD4+ count of 840/µL c. HIV-positive patient with a CD4+ count of 160/µL who drinks a fifth of whiskey daily d. Patient who tested positive for HIV 2 years ago and now has cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

ANS: D CMV retinitis is an AIDS-defining illness and indicates that the patient is appropriate for ART even though the HIV infection period is relatively short. An HIV-negative patient would not be offered ART. A patient with a CD4+ count in the normal range would not typically be started on ART. A patient who drinks alcohol heavily would be unlikely to be able to manage the complex drug regimen and would not be appropriate for ART despite the low CD4+ count.

2. A patient who has a positive test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) and a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/L. Based on diagnostic criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "The patient will develop symptomatic HIV infection within 1 year." b. "The patient meets the criteria for a diagnosis of acute HIV infection." c. "The patient will be diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection." d. "The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)."

ANS: D Development of PCP meets the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. The other responses indicate earlier stages of HIV infection than is indicated by the PCP infection.

8. A patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected has a CD4+ cell count of 400/µL. Which factor is most important for the nurse to determine before the initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for this patient? a. CD4+ cell count trajectory b. HIV genotype and phenotype c. Patient's tolerance for potential medication side effects d. Patient's ability to follow a complex medication regimen

ANS: D Drug resistance develops quickly unless the patient takes ART medications on a strict, regular schedule. In addition, drug resistance endangers both the patient and community. The other information is also important to consider, but patients who are unable to manage and follow a complex drug treatment regimen should not be considered for ART.

13. A patient in the sexually transmitted infection (STI) clinic tells the nurse that she is concerned she may have been exposed to gonorrhea. To determine whether the patient has gonorrhea, the nurse will plan to a. interview the patient about symptoms of gonorrhea. b. take a sample of cervical discharge for Gram staining. c. draw a blood specimen or rapid plasma reagin (RPR) testing. d. obtain secretions for a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT).

ANS: D NAAT has a high sensitivity (similar to a culture) for gonorrhea. Because women have few symptoms of gonorrhea, asking the patient about symptoms may not be helpful in making a diagnosis. Smears and Gram staining are not useful because the female genitourinary tract has many normal flora that resemble Neisseria gonorrhoeae. RPR testing is used to detect syphilis.

14. A patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has developed Mycobacterium avium complex infection. Which outcome would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. The patient will be free from injury. b. The patient will receive immunizations. c. The patient will have adequate oxygenation. d. The patient will maintain intact perineal skin.

ANS: D The major manifestation of M. avium infection is loose, watery stools, which would increase the risk for perineal skin breakdown. The other outcomes would be appropriate for other complications (e.g., pneumonia, dementia, influenza) associated with HIV infection.

7. A young adult female patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive has a new prescription for efavirenz (Sustiva). Which information is most important to include in the medication teaching plan? a. Take this medication on an empty stomach. b. Take this medication with a full glass of water. c. You may have vivid and bizarre dreams as a side effect. d. Continue to use contraception while taking this medication.

ANS: D To prevent harm, it is most critical to inform patients that efavirenz can cause fetal anomalies and should not be used in patients who may be or may become pregnant. The other information is also accurate, but it does not directly prevent harm. The medication should be taken on an empty stomach with water and patients should be informed that many people who use the drug have reported vivid and sometimes bizarre dreams.