T-6 Aerospace Physiology

LL02: Without reference, write the boldface/immediate action for ejection.

1. EJECTION HANDLE — PULL (BOTH)

AP102: What is the normal breathing rate of an average adult?

12 - 16 breaths per minute

AP112: Air Force policy does not allow crewmembers to fly within __________ hours after consuming alcoholic beverages. Furthermore, you must not act as a crewmember of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol or its __________.

12; aftereffects/mission plan (brief)

AP101: What is the approximate percentage of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases at 18,000 feet MSL?

21 percent oxygen, 78 percent nitrogen, and 1 percent other gases

AP103: The USAF forbids flight within __________ hours of a compressed air exposure for all normal flying operations.

24

AP101: What is the temperature lapse rate up to approximately 35,000 feet?

About 2 °C per 1,000 feet

AP103: Match each type of hypoxia with the appropriate cause Histotoxic hypoxic

Alcohol Cyanide

AP110: Select the statements describing vibration. (Select all that apply)

Approximate range hazardous to humans is 1 to 100 Hz. Occurs throughout the frequency spectrum.

AP112: Bagels, pretzels, granola bars, fresh fruits, vegetables, etc. are recommended snacks containing complex carbohydrates. What is the advantage of these foods over a coke and a candy bar?

Avoids hypoglycemia

LL02: The dash-1/NATOPS requires the ISS switch be in the __________ position when there are two crewmembers on board the T-6 aircraft.

BOTH

AP102: What is the main function of red blood cells?

Carry oxygen

AP103: Match each type of hypoxia with the appropriate cause Stagnant hypoxia

Cold temperatures Shock Hyperventilation "G" forces

AP110: What is the most practical method of noise protection for you?

Combination of protective devices

AP103: Match each symptom with the appropriate DCS type. Bends

Deep, dull boring pain in a joint Pain may involve the muscles Usually occurs in shoulders, knees, elbows, and ankles

AP103: Match each symptom with the appropriate DCS type. Chokes

Deep, sharp pain centrally located under the sternum Difficulty with inspiration

AP112: Match each OTC drug with the appropriate undesirable side effects. Vasoconstrictors

Dizziness, blurred vision, tremors, headaches

AP103: What is the best method of preventing problems with the ears and sinuses in-flight?

Do not fly with a cold.

AP113: List five "Do's" and "Don'ts" for proper care of the oxygen mask and helmet.

Do's - Have the life support section inspect the mask at least every 30 days. - Inspect and test the mask for operation before leaving the life support section - Clean the mask at the end of each flying day. Use cleaning solution and gauze pad to wipe interior of the mask faceform to remove perspiration, facial oils, and foreign matter (required by AETCI11-301). - Check the helmet prior to each flight for overall condition. Check security of chin and nape straps, visor lens for cracks and scratches, cleanliness and operation of lens, attachment of communication of connectors, and operation of communication connectors. - Check the mask and helmet daily for wear and tear. Have items replaced as necessary. - Check the bayonet connectors and ensure that the locking pins operate freely. - Whenever possible, transport the helmet assembly in a helmet bag. When unable to carry the assembly in a helmet bag, carry the helmet and mask by the chinstrap like a bucket. - Have the life support section inspect your helmet any time it is dropped or cracked. Don'ts - Don't paint the helmet. Mark only as directed by applicable technical orders. - Don't carry the helmet by the intercom cord or mask. - Don't allow the helmet to strike objects that would damage the protective surface. - Don't disassemble the mask. This requires special tools and should be done only by qualified life support personnel. - Don't modify or alter the mask. - Don't store the helmet/mask in direct sunlight or hot environments for lengthy periods of time, or in the aircraft when off station. - Don't allow sharp objects to come in contact with the mask because any puncture could damage the mask - Don't use pencils, pens, or sharp objects to loosen troublesome or sticking valves. - Don't loan equipment. It was fitted and intended for personal use only.

AP112: Match each OTC drug with the appropriate undesirable side effects. Antihistamines

Drowsiness, diminished alertness, increased reaction times

AP103: Match each type of hypoxia with the appropriate cause Hypemic hypoxia

Drugs Carbon monoxide Blood donation

AP103: _________ is a state of oxygen deficiency in the blood, cells or tissues sufficient to cause an impairment of function.

Hypoxia

AP103: _________ __________ is usually caused by exposure to low barometric pressure.

Hypoxic hypoxia

AP101: What are the common units used to measure atmospheric pressure?

Inches of mercury (inHg), Millimeters of mercury (mmHg), and Pounds per square inch (psi) - All the above are correct.

AP112: What is the immediate danger of carbon monoxide from cigarette smoke?

It inhibits the blood's oxygen carrying capacity.

AP107: Match each SA component with its appropriate definition. Tactical

Knowledge and identification of tactical status, type, capabilities, targeting, threat prioritization, location and flight dynamics of other aircraft, aircraft detections, launch capabilities, imminence and assignments, current and projected threats intentions, firing and maneuvering, mission timing and status.

AP107: Match each SA component with its appropriate definition. Geographical

Knowledge of the location of one's own aircraft, other aircraft, terrain features, airports, cities, waypoints, navigation, fixes and position relative to designated features, runway and taxi assignments, and climb and descent points. It is critical to understand that a loss of Geographical SA can precipitate a loss of Spatial/Temporal SA and in many cases may even lead to spatial disorientation (SD).

AP103: Match each type of hypoxia with the appropriate cause Hypoxic hypoxia

Loss of cabin pressurization Oxygen equipment malfunctions Improper use of oxygen equipment

LL06: Describe the day/night ends of the MK-13 and MK-124 flares. a. MK-13 — b. MK-124 —

MK-13 a. Day, Markings and Orange Cap, Lanyard on Ring b. Night, Red Cap w/ 3 Raised Bumps, Ridges, Washer on Lanyard MK-124 a. Day, Red Slide Lever b. Night, Raised Rings on Night Side, Clear Slide Lever

LL06: Describe the operating procedures for the MK-13 and MK-124 flares. a. MK-13 — b. MK-124 —

MK-13 a. Select Proper End b. Remove Cap and Fracture Seal All Around c. Grasp Flare and Pull Ignition Ring d. Hold at 45 Degree Angle Toward Ground MK-124 a. Select Proper End b. Remove Cap c. Fully Extend Slide Lever and Press Downward d. Hold at 45 Degree Angle Toward Ground

AP108: Identify whether the following statements refer to (B) physiological factors influencing susceptibility to spatial disorientation.

Mental and physical fatigue Alcohol and self-medication You have some control over

AP103: Match each symptom with the appropriate DCS type. Skin manifestations

Mottled and diffuse rash Itching sensation

AP111: An aircrew is having problems figuring out the attitude of their aircraft. As the pilot makes a control input, the crew experiences congestion in their heads and lightweight feeling. What type of G force causes these symptoms?

Negative

AP112: Match each OTC drug with the appropriate undesirable side effects. Diet pills

Nervousness, tremors, increased blood pressure and heart rate, dehydration due to increased sweating, sleep disturbances

AP113: Place an "X" in the box of each statement below that describes the purpose, duration, and/or operation of a high pressure gaseous emergency oxygen system

Normally provides a 10 minute supply of oxygen. The oxygen flow cannot be stopped once it has been activated. It delivers 100% oxygen continuously. It is activated automatically on ejection. It may be activated in the event of oxygen system failure.

AP108: Somatogravic illusions result from the stimulation of which organs?

Otolith organs

AP108: Match each category of spatial disorientation with the appropriate characteristic. Recognized SD (Type II)

The least dangerous

AP108: Match each category of spatial disorientation with the appropriate characteristic. Unrecognized SD (Type I)

The most dangerous

AP112: List five signs and symptoms of dehydration.

Thirst Sleepiness Nausea Mental impairment Fatigue

AP103: __________ of __________ is the period of time from the interruption of the oxygen supply or exposure to an oxygen poor environment, to the time when useful function is lost.

Time; useful consciousness

AP105: What is the primary function of peripheral vision?

To orient oneself relative to the environment

AP108: List four techniques you can use to overcome spatial disorientation.

Transition to instruments Believe the instruments Back up the pilot flying on instruments Minimize head movements Fly straight and level Be prepared to transfer/assume control Egress

AP103: The most frequent cause of hypocapnia in flying training is stress.

True

AP105: Maximum scanning effectiveness is achieved by a series of short (long enough for the eye to focus), regularly spaced eye fixations..

True

AP105: Perception/reaction time is affected by physiological and perceptual limitations.

True

AP105: The retina is the innermost layer of tissue of the eye.

True

AP105: The rods and cones are light sensitive cells distributed over the retina.

True

AP107: Chair flying, mission pre-briefings, self-assessment, and rehearsal of probable events are all effective tools for improving attention management.

True

AP107: Temporal (event) preparation reduces the potential time points of stimulus presentation and thus improves reaction time.

True

AP107: Type of Stimulus is a factor that affects both perception and reaction time.

True

AP108: Like all other vestibular illusions, the pitch-up illusion is increased when external visual cues are limited or absent.

True

AP111: A properly performed AGSM can increase your +Gz tolerance by as much as 4 Gs. a. True b. False

True

AP111: You can decrease your overall G tolerance by not eating properly and/or getting insufficient rest.

True

AP107: Briefly define the USAF Aerospace and Operational Physiology definition of situational awareness.

USAF Aerospace and Operational Physiology definition as the starting point in the understanding of SA: "The accurate perception of the elements in the environment within a volume of time and space, the comprehension of their meaning and the projection of their status in the near future."

AP108: List three methods you can use to prevent or minimize the threat of spatial disorientation

Understand limitations Remedy correctable factors Use capabilities properly Recognize high-risk situations Stay alert

AP113: Determine if the following characteristics refer to (C) on board oxygen generating systems (OBOGS).

Unlimited oxygen duration Oxygen source is engine bleed air

AP113: . Study the MBU-20/P oxygen mask in Figure 13-10. Place the correct number beside the following components: a. _____ Hardshell Assembly b. _____ Delivery Tube (mask hose) c. _____ 3-Pin Connector d. _____ Faceform e. _____ Microphone Assembly f. _____ Communication Cord Assembly g. _____ Oxygen Mask Retention Bayonets h. _____ Inhalation Valve i. _____ Exhalation Valve

a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 9 e. 9 f. 6 g. 2 f. 4 h. 7

AP113: Study the Oxygen pressure regulator in Figure 13-9. Place the correct number beside the following components: a. _____ Maximum concentration light b. _____ Supply lever c. _____ Concentration lever d. _____ Flow indicator e. _____ Pressure lever

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1 e. 5

AP105: Determine if the following are characteristics of (A) the rod cells or (B) the cone cells: a. Most dense at the periphery of the retina b. Require high light levels to function c. Allow you to see gray tones under conditions of dim light d. Densest in the center of the retina e. Provide for peripheral vision f. Allow you to see detail under bright light conditions g. More sensitive to light

a. A b. B c. A d. B e. A f. B g. A

AP103: Place a checkmark beside the signs/symptoms normally associated with hypoxia.

a. Bluing (cyanosis) b. Impaired vision d. Hot or cold flashes e. Dizziness f. Light headedness g. Loss of muscle coordination h. Apprehension i. Feeling of well being k. Tingling l. Impaired judgment/confusion

LL06: What factors of the regional environment should be of concern when assessing possible local survival hazards?

a. Climate b. Terrain c. Wildlife

AP103: During ascent (as ambient pressure decreases), gases trapped within body cavities will __________.

expand

AP110: The number of times (each second) compression and rarification of air occurs is __________.

frequency

AP111: A positive Gz force is defined as the force being applied from the __________ toward the __________.

head; feet

AP110: The primary characteristics of noise concerning crewmembers are __________, __________, and __________.

intensity; frequency; duration

AP111: An F-15E crew is on takeoff roll. They accelerate to 165 KIAS in 10 seconds. They experience __________ acceleration and __________ G forces.

linear; transverse

AP112: Caffeinated beverages can increase your dehydration rate. As a result, your __________ and __________ fatigue increases and your __________ decreases as you become dehydrated.

mental; physical; performance

AP105: In mid-air collisions, the primary peripheral visual cue of __________ is not available. Therefore, you must acquire the target aircraft with your __________ vision, using the scanning technique.

motion; central

AP103: DCS is caused by __________ coming out of solution in the tissues and blood.

nitrogen

AP108: The interconnection of the vestibular system with the visual system causes __________: a reflexive response of the eyes to stimulation of the semicircular or otolith organs.

nystagmus

AP108: The __________ detect linear accelerations and are responsible for __________ illusions.

otolith organs; somatogravic

AP108: The primary means the visual system uses to collect orientation cues is __________.

peripheral vision

AP104: The primary purpose for aircraft pressurization is to

reduce/prevent decompression sickness and hypoxia.

AP108: The __________ detect angular accelerations and are responsible for __________ illusions.

semicircular canal; somatogyral

AP108: The vestibular system's two subsystems are the __________ and the __________.

semicircular canals; otolith organs

AP108: The __________ system is useless as an orientation system in the absence of accurate visual cues.

somatosensory

AP110: Noise is __________.

unwanted sound

AP108: The system primarily used for orientation is the __________ system. In the absence of __________ cues, the __________ system becomes dominant.

visual; visual; vestibular

LL06: List the procedure(s) for activating the SAR network post ejection.

ELT Transmits Signal Upon Ejection

AP103: The four areas of the body influenced by the mechanical effects of trapped gases are:

Ears Sinuses G.I. tract Teeth

AP101: Dalton's Law

Explains how exposure to a high altitude can reduce the available oxygen

AP101: Law of Gaseous Diffusion

Explains how oxygen moves out of the lungs into the bloodstream.

AP101: Boyle's Law

Explains why a balloon expands as it ascends and also why a volume of air expands when trapped in a body cavity when the pressure is reduced around it.

AP101: Henry's Law

Explains why a soda pop bubbles after it is opened.

AP101: Ideal Gas Law

Explains why the temperature increases in a cylinder that is being pressurized.

AP108: Identify whether the following statements refer to (A) environmental influencing susceptibility to spatial disorientation.

Factors you have little or no control over Flight weather Type and duration of mission

AP101: PO2 increases and the percentage of oxygen decreases as the altitude increases.

False

AP103: The time of onset of hypoxia and the severity of symptoms are identical with all crewmembers from one day to the next.

False

AP105: An object requires less motion to be seen in a clear blue sky than an object in a partly cloudy sky.

False

AP108: Motion sickness increases if good outside visual references exist.

False

AP112: Chronic fatigue is caused by the normal daily activities of a crewmember and is remedied with a good night's sleep and rest.

False

AP111: Define negative Gz force.

Force acting from feet to head

AP113: Determine if the following characteristics refer to (A) high pressure gas

Full pressure - 1,800 - 2,000 psi Green cylinders Empty pressure - 200 psi

AP113: Determine if the following characteristics refer to (B) low pressure gaseous oxygen storage systems

Full pressure - 400 - 450 psi Yellow cylinders Empty pressure - 100 psi

AP111: Differentiate between blackout and G-LOC.

G-LOC results in unconsciousness whereas blackout results in vision loss only.

AP111: Why would it be unadvisable to give aircraft control back to a crewmember immediately after recovering consciousness after a G-LOC incident?

G-LOC victims may be disoriented for some time after regaining consciousness.

AP108: The __________ occurs when the aircraft is in a turn and you are head-up looking towards the inside of the turn or head-down looking towards the outside of the turn.

G-excess effect

AP110: Crewmembers on the flightline are being exposed to 97 dB of noise. Their time of maximum unprotected exposure to this noise before they must leave is __________ minutes.

30

AP102: What is/are the site(s) of gas exchange in the lung between the atmosphere and the blood?

Alveoli

AP110: Select the effects of severe vibration on crewmember performance. (Select all that apply)

Vibration can cause blurred vision and degrade visual acuity. Vibration is a major contributor to fatigue.

AP111: Determine if the following effects of acceleration are caused by (A) +Gz

Visual loss (grayout) Blood pooling in lower extremities Feeling of increased weight with resultant loss of mobility Blackout and possible unconsciousness

AP107: Match each SA component with its appropriate definition. Environmental

Knowledge of weather formations, temperature, icing, ceilings, clouds, fog, sun, availability, visibility, turbulence, winds, microbursts, IFR vs. VFR conditions, areas and altitudes to avoid, projects weather conditions.

AP105: What is the acronym used for reporting laser exposures?

LASER

AP102: What is the most important factor in the control of ventilation under normal conditions?

PCO2

AP101: Which of the following represents the notation for the partial pressure of gases?

PO2 partial pressure of oxygen, PCO2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide, PN2 partial pressure of nitrogen.

AP103: List, in order, the corrective actions for any suspected or observed DCS. a. __________ oxygen. b. __________ the affected area. c. __________ as soon as practical. d. Obtain __________ (flight surgeon). e. __________ therapy (if required

a. 100% or maximum b. Immobilize c. Land d. medical assistance e. hyperbaric

AP103: Adequate protection against DCS can be established by __________ and or __________.

cabin pressure; denitrogenation

AP103: The most dangerous characteristic of hypoxia is its __________ __________.

insidious onset

AP102: The purpose of respiration is to get __________ into the body and remove excess __________.

oxygen; carbon dioxide

AP103: A __________ can reduce your TUC by as much as __________ percent.

rapid decompression; 50%

AP103: Hyperventilation is a condition in which the __________ and or __________ of breathing is abnormally increased.

rate; depth

LL02: With the ISS selector set to __________, both seats will eject, even if one ejection handle safety pin is installed.

BOTH

AP111: Determine if the following effects of acceleration are caused by (B) -Gz.

Headache Mental confusion Extreme feeling of congestion in the head

AP101: The human body is adapted to which physiological division of the atmosphere?

Physiological zone

AP112: Identify four methods of combating stress in the flying environment.

Place demands into perspective Maintain a healthy diversity in your life Eliminate self-imposed stress Exercise

AP107: Match each SA component with its appropriate definition. System

Knowledge of system status, functioning and settings, settings of radio, altimeter and transponder equipment, flight modes and automation settings, impact of malfunctions and system degradation, fuel, time, and distance available of fuel.

AP107: Match each SA component with its appropriate definition. Spatial/Temporal

Knowledge of the aircraft's altitude, attitude, heading, velocity, vertical velocity, G-loading, flight path, aircraft capabilities, projected flight path, and project landing time.

AP104: The primary, and most critical, disadvantage of aircraft pressurization is the potential for a __________.

decompression

LL06: Describe the operating procedures for the PRC-90-2 survival radio and URT-33/D locator beacon. a. PRC-90-2 Survival Radio— b. URT-33/D Locator Beacon—

PRC/90-2 Radio a. Fully Extend Antenna b. Adjust Volume Control c. Depress Channel Selector, Select Alternate 282.8 d. Select Primary 243.0 e. Select Beacon 243.0 f. Press PTT to Transmit, Release to Receive g. Hold Microphone Near Mouth and Speaker near ear h. Talk Across Microphone for Best Reception i. Protect From Temperature Fluctuations AN/URT-33D Beacon a. Remove Flexible Antenna b. Turn Beacon Off c. Fully Extend Telescoping Antenna d. Turn Switch On e. Observe LED

AP103: Match each symptom with the appropriate DCS type. CNS (neurological manifestations)

Partial paralysis, loss of speech or hearing Severe, persistent headache Vertigo, loss of orientation Tingling of one arm, leg, or side of the body

AP107: SA theorist Micah Endsley (1995) supposes there are three levels of awareness; Level 1: __________, Level 2: __________, and Level 3: __________.

Perception; Comprehension; Prediction

AP112: What is the best way to avoid the effects alcohol has on your performance as a crewmember?

Practice abstinence.

AP111: During a dual T-6A sortie, a student pulls 5 Gs in less than a second and experiences a G-LOC. When questioned by an Aerospace Physiology member about symptoms, the student said grayout or blackout did not occur prior to the G-LOC. Why would the student not experience any visual cues prior to G-LOC?

Rapid G-onset rate gives little or no visual warning prior to G-LOC

AP108: Match each category of spatial disorientation with the appropriate characteristic. Incapacitating SD (Type III)

Rarely experienced, but dangerous

AP105: What is the primary function of focal vision?

Recognize and identify objects

AP108: Match each somatogyral illusion with the correct definition. Somatogyral Illusion Definition - The Graveyard Spin/Spiral

Results when you correct for a spin or spiral and sense you have entered a spin in the opposite direction or are turning in the opposite direction.

AP108: Match each somatogyral illusion with the correct definition. Somatogyral Illusion Definition - The Coriolis Illusion

Results when you move your head out of a plane of motion and perceive a tumbling sensation.

AP108: Match each somatogyral illusion with the correct definition. Somatogyral Illusion Definition - The Leans

Set up by a roll rate below the threshold of 0.14°/sec2 to 0.5°/sec2 and then correcting with a roll in the opposite direction at a roll rate greater than the threshold.

AP112: Match each OTC drug with the appropriate undesirable side effects. Decongestants

Shakiness, increased heart rate, blurred vision, increased dehydration, dizziness, nausea, headaches

AP103: List five signs and five symptoms of hypocapnia.

Signs - muscle tightness/spasms, increased rate/depth of breathing, paleness, cold, clammy skin, unconsciousness Symptoms - dizziness, faintness, slight nausea, numbness, tingling, coolness, muscle tremors

AP112: Match each OTC drug with the appropriate undesirable side effects. Pain killers

Stomach irritation, dizziness, skin rashes, heartburn, blurred vision

AP101: Which of the following is the best description of atmospheric pressure and its cause?

The combined weight of all the atmospheric gases which is caused by gravity pulling the gas molecules earthward and thermal and solar radiation expanding the gases outward toward space.

AP113: Place the appropriate letter of the RICE check next to its corresponding correct statement. a. _____ Check the emergency oxygen assembly for pressure. b. _____ Check for neoprene O-ring (rubber washer). c. _____ Concentration lever to "MAX" and check flow indicator. d. _____ Check supply lever — "ON." e. _____ Check proper connection of the mask hose to the CRU-60/P. f. _____ Check regulator hose for wear, tear, and deterioration. g. _____ If the flow indicator is white while holding your breath with the emergency lever in the "EMERGENCY" position, either the mask or the aircraft oxygen system is leaking.

a. E b. C c. I d. R e. C f. C g. R

AP103: Which of the following factors decrease TUC?

a. Increased physical activity b. Stress d Hypoxia (histotoxic, hypemic, stagnant) e. Rapid decompression f. Anxiety g. Increased altitude

LL02: Complete the following statements concerning the ideal envelope (controlled) for safe recovery from the T-6 ejection system. a. Aircraft Attitude __________. b. Altitude __________ feet above ground level (AGL) c. Airspeed __________ KIAS

a. Maneuver to a wings-level, nose above the horizon b. Above 2,000 c. 125 — 180

LL06: List three items to add to a personal survival kit?

a. Matches b. Candles c. Soap

AP103: Complete the crewmember's emergency procedures for the treatment of hypocapnia and or hypoxia. a. __________ oxygen under __________ b. Connections — c. Breathe at a __________ and depth slightly less than normal until symptoms __________. d. Descend below __________ feet MSL and land as soon as __________.

a. Maximum; pressure b. Check security c. rate; disappear d. 10,000; practical

LL02: Complete the following statements for a controlled ejection from a T-6 aircraft (if time and conditions permit): a. Oxygen mask and helmet __________ b. Visor __________ c. Loose Equipment __________ d. Harness __________

a. Oxygen mask and helmet ___Fastened and tight; chin strap fastened____ b. Visor ___Down____ c. Loose Equipment ___Stow_______ d. Harness ___Locked_______

LL06: List the procedures for activating the SAR network prior to ejection.

a. Radio Call Declaring Emergency b. Broadcast Emergency Info c. Set IFF/SIF to Emer, squawk 7700

AP104: List additional advantages of aircraft pressurization.

a. Reduced need for supplemental oxygen b. Reduced expansion of G.I. gas c. Control temperature and humidity d. Move without encumbrance of oxygen equipment e. Minimize fatigue f. Protect ears/sinuses from rapid pressure change

LL06: List survival/signaling equipment located in the T-6.

a. URT-33D or URT-46 Locator Beacon (1) b. PRC-90-2 Radio w/Battery (1) c. MK-13 Flare or MK-124 Flare (2) d. Lensatic Compass (1) e. Signal Mirror (1) f. Survival Kit Individual (first aid kit) (1)

AP108: List the 4 sensory systems enabling you to maintain orientation, equilibrium, and balance.

a. Visual b. Vestibular c. Somatosensory d. Auditory

LL02: Number the following statements in their order of occurrence during a controlled T-6 ejection. a. _____ Altitude — 2000 feet AGL minimum (recommended) b. _____ Airspeed — 125 - 180 KIAS (recommended) c. _____ Distress call — Transmit d. _____ Notify crewmember of decision to eject (BOTH) e. _____ Transponder — 7700

a. __2___ Altitude — 2000 feet AGL minimum (recommended) b. __3___ Airspeed — 125 - 180 KIAS (recommended) c. __4___ Distress call — Transmit d. __1___ Notify crewmember of decision to eject (BOTH) e. __5___ Transponder — 7700

AP111: The most common cause of G-LOC is an improperly performed AGSM. What do the most common errors involve? a. __________ __________ b. __________ of the __________ c. Insufficient __________ __________ muscle __________.

a. breathing cycle b. timing; strain c. lower body; tensing

AP111: List the five factors determining the physical effects of G forces.

a. magnitude b. rate c. duration d. direction e. previous exposure

AP111: The elements of the AGSM are a. __________ tensing b. __________ breathing

a. skeletal muscle b. cyclic

AP111: An F-18 rolls into a dive toward a target, releases weapons, and begins a pullout. He is climbing, turning, and increasing speed from 360 KIAS to 450 KIAS. This time the pilot experiences __________ acceleration.

angular

AP103: Hypocapnia causes an excessive loss of __________ from the lungs and blood.

carbon dioxide

AP110: The two types of hearing loss you can suffer are __________ hearing loss and __________ hearing loss.

conductive; sensorineural

AP110: Noise (sound) intensity perceived by the human ear is measured in __________

decibels

LL02: The number one cause of ejection fatalities is the crewmember's inability to make a timely __________ to __________.

decision; eject