T&M All

1. The tendency for test takers to agree on most of the items is called a(n) a.guessing threshold. b.acquiescence response set.************** c.item difficulty. d.the miss rate. 2. This test item is an example of a a.polytomous format.*********** b.dichotomous format. c.Likert format. d.category format. 3. In order to correct for guessinga .a correction formula can be used.******************** b.distractors should be eliminated .c.the number of items should be increased. d.distractors should be increased. 4. The expected level of chance performance, for a 200-item multiple-choice exam with four choice alternatives, is a.25 correct. b.50 correct.***************** c.75 correct. d.100 correct. 5. What format do some personality tests use because it requires an absolute judgment? a.multiple-choice b.Likert c.dichotomous ********************* d.category 6. Under what circumstance is it NOT to your advantage to guess on a multiple-choice exam? a.when you are making a "wild guess" and a correction formula is being used ****************************** b.in any test situation where you are making a "wild guess" c.when you can rule out one or more of the alternatives as being incorrect d.when the guessing threshold is low 7. A test format that is typically used for attitude measurement is the a.checklist format. b.dichotomous format. c.category format. d.Likert format. ********************* 8. One method for measuring chronic pain asks the respondent to group statements according to how accurately they describe his/her discomfort. This would be an example of the a.Q-sort format. ********************** b.checklist format. c.Likert format. d.category format. 9. The following is an item from an attitude scale:​Physical punishment is essential in order to control children.Strongly disagreeDisagreeNeither agree or disagreeAgreeStrongly agree​This item is in the a.category format. b.Likert format. ******************* c.dichotomous format. d.polytomous format . 10. One problem with the use of category rating scales is that a.many respondents are confused by dichotomous formats .b.responses are sometimes influenced by the context in which objects are rated. *********************** c.rating scales must be at least 100 points in order to be meaningfully interpreted. d.category rating scale data do not have ordinal scale property. 11. Describing the chances that low-ability test takers will obtain each score is called the a.dichotomous format .b.polytomous format. c.guessing threshold. ************************* d.50% threshold. 12. Which testing method is popular for measuring self-rated health? a.q-sort technique b.visual analogue scale**************** c.checklists d.category formats 13. Which of the following is a disadvantage of true-false tests? a.They are typically only useful with simple information. b.They encourage memorization without understanding. ********** c.They are difficult to administer. d.They encourage rapid responding . 14. Dr. H likes to start off his tests with a few easier items in order to boost the confidence of the test takers. This is an example of a.human factors. *********** b.the psychometric properties of the test. c.optimum item difficulty. d.item difficulty. 15. When 100% of the test-takers get an item correct, the item will have a a.low difficulty index (0%). b.high discriminability index .c.discriminability index of approximately .5. d.very low discriminability index. ************* 16. Proponents of criterion-referenced tests have criticized item analysis procedures because they a.cannot be used for criterion-referenced tests. b.have statistical flaws. c.do not provide information about the type of errors that students make. ************* d.have no relevance for educational tests. 17. The approach to test construction in which the item characteristic curve for each individual item is analyzed is called a.prophecy theory. b.classical test theory c.item response theory. ****************** d.item analysis theory. 18. The average of a series of item characteristic curves is known as a.the average characteristic curve. b.the standard error of the item characteristic. c.a test characteristic curve. ********** d.the variance ratio curve. 19. The extreme group method and the point biserial method are both used to estimate a.reliability .b.validity. c.discriminability. ****************** d.difficulty. 20. The least frequent score in a frequency polygon is the a.negative discriminator. b.discrimination point .c.antimode. **************** d.criterion. 21. In experimental psychology, the proportion of the top third of the class that correctly answered the last question of the final was .93 while .89 of the bottom third of the class answered correctly. The professor should decide not to include this question in the next final because the discrimination index indicates a.negative discrimination .b.chance level performance. c.that students were incorrectly prepared. d.that the item does not discriminate well. ************* 22. The difference in proportion of correct responses for each item between the top third of the class and the bottom third of the class is an example of a(n) a.point biserial correlation. b.discrimination index. ******************* c.item difficulty. d.guessing threshold. 23. In most situations, a good test should contain items a.from a wide range of difficulty levels. ***************** b.at optimum difficulty levels. c.at levels appropriate for the test taker. d.mostly at our near average difficulty levels. 24. Which of the following methods is used in the analysis of item discriminability? a.test-retest b.extreme group ********************* c.characteristic curves d.factor analysis 25. What is the first step in developing criterion-referenced tests? a.Getting expert agreement about how to construct the test b.Clearly specifying the objectives in precise statements about what is to be learned *********************** c.Identifying the types of people who are likely to take the test and either score very well or very poorly d.Creating items with a wide range of difficulty and administering them to experts in the field 26. Which of the following is NOT true of item response theory? a.It assigns values to specific items. b.Tests based on this theory are easily adaptable for computer administration. c.It defines a respondent's score by the total number of items correct. ******************* d.It provides information about item functioning . 27. The optimal difficulty level for items is usually about halfway between 100% of the respondents getting the item correct and a.a 50/50 chance for choosing a correct response. b.the level of success expected by chance alone. ************ c.the highest possible variance in correct responses for the item set. d.zero respondents getting the item correct. 28. For essay items, the reliability of the scoring procedure should be assessed by determining the association(s) between a.the item score and score on the overall test. b.the test score and scores on tests measuring similar constructs. c.each item on the test. d.two scores provided by independent scorers.***************** 29. Items that retain their reliability over time tend to be those that focus on a.skills.************* b.abstract concepts. c.easier concepts. d.foundational knowledge. 30. Which of the following is NOT one of DeVellis (2016)'s guidelines for writing test items? a.Consider mixing positively and negatively worded items. b.Define clearly what you want to measure. c.Consider using "double-barreled" items that convey two or more ideas at the same time. ****************** d.Generate an item pool. 31. In order to choose questions for a final version of a test, the examiners created a graph with difficulty on one axis and discriminability on the other. The examiners should use the questions that a.all above the .50-point on the discriminability axis. b.fall below the .50 point on the discriminability axis. c.fall between .30 and .70 on difficulty and above .30 on discriminability. ******************** d.fall above the .50 point on discriminability and difficulty. 32. An item characteristic curve that rises gradually and then turns down for people at the highest levels of performance a.is likely to occur when students are making a wild guess. b.can happen when 'none of the above' is one of the multiple choice options. *************** c.turns down at a point referred to as the antimode. d.indicates an item with a high level of difficulty. 33. One of the major advantages of tests developed using item response theory is that they a.can be easily adapted for computer administration. ******** b.are longer. c.are easier to administer. d.can be developed with little effort .34. The optimal item difficulty of a six-alternative test is a..50. b..585. ******************* c..60. d..625. 35. What is the impact of adding distractors on polytomous item reliability? a.The number of distractors is inversely related to item reliability. b.Large numbers of distractors can greatly increase reliability. c.Adding distractors may not increase reliability if the distractors are implausible. ***************** d.Reliability is optimized when there are 8 to 10 distractors.

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1. According to recent research, growing numbers of four-year colleges are not relying on the SAT test partly because of a. budget constraints. b. diversity concerns. ********** c. reliability issues. d. quality control. 2. Psychological tests a. pertain only to overt behavior. b. always have right or wrong answers. c. do not attempt to measure traits. d. measure characteristics of human behavior. ******* 3. The specific stimulus on a test to which a person responds overtly is called a(n) a. overt event. b. answer. c. item. ***************** d. scale. 4. An individual test a. involves a single examiner for two or more subjects. b. involves only tests of human ability. c. can be given to only one person at a time. **************** d. involves more than one examiner for a single subject. 5. A group test a. can be given to multiple people by one examiner. ***************** b. can be given to only three people at a time. c. involves a group of examiners for a single subject. d. involves only tests of human ability. 6. Previous learning can best be described as a. achievement. ***************** b. aptitude. c. intelligence. d. ability. 7. Structured personality tests a. require you to produce something spontaneously. b. require you to choose between two or more alternative responses. ************* c. involve an ambiguous test stimulus about which the response is structured. d. involve an ambiguous test response. 8. Projective personality tests a. provide a statement, usually of the self-report variety. b. require the subject to choose between two or more alternative responses. c. are unstructured. **************** d. are structured. 9. Personality tests in which the test stimulus and/or required response are ambiguous are called a. projective personality tests. ******************** b. structured personality tests. c. individual personality tests. d. achievement personality tests. 10. Which of the following relates raw test scores to theoretical or empirical distributions? a. Transforms b. Reliability c. Scales ******************* d. Theories 11. The general potential to solve problems, adapt, and profit from experience is called a. ability. b. achievement. c. prediction. d. intelligence. *********************** 12. Which of the following is the most important function of testing? a. To determine what sort of treatment or other intervention is appropriate b. To develop accurate portraits of individuals c. To discriminate among related constructs d. To differentiate among individuals taking the test ******************* 13. If a particular test "X" is designed to measure success in a particular job, and it is accurate and useful for that purpose, then the test is said to be a. valid. ********************** b. structured. c. ambiguous. d. reliable. 14. What evolutionary constructs did Galton apply in his book Hereditary Genius? a. Genetics and epigenetics b. Survival of the fittest and individual differences ****************** c. Random differences and population variation d. Evolution and selective breeding 15. The origins of testing can be traced to a. Egypt. b. England. c. China. *********************** d. Russia. 16. The use of test batteries was common by the time of the a. Ling Dynasty. b. Han Dynasty. ************************** c. Tam Dynasty. d. Nam Dynasty. 17. Sir Francis Galton set out to show a. that some humans possessed characteristics that made them more fit than other humans. ****************************************** b. that humans did not differ significantly from each other. c. that life evolved on this planet partially because of individual differences among individual forms of life within a species or type of animal. d. that the concept of survival of the fittest was essentially incorrect. 18. The term mental test was coined by a. Charles Darwin. b. Sir Francis Galton. c. Alfred Binet. d. James M. Cattell. ******************************* 19. The work of Weber and Fechner represents which foundation of psychological testing? a. Individual differences b. Psychophysical measurement ****************************** c. Survival of the fittest d. Darwinian evolution 20. The first version of the Binet-Simon scale was published in a. 1896. b. 1905. **************************** c. 1908. d. 1911. 21. It is important to obtain a standardization sample a. to prevent bias in the development and scoring of the test. b. to provide a reference sample to which the results of a new subject can be compared. ************************************ c. to separate the intellectually subnormal from the normal individual. d. to ensure the representativeness of a sample. 22. Administering a test with precisely the same instructions and format is giving it under a. normative conditions. b. standard conditions. ********************************** c. facilitative conditions. d. group administration. 23. A child's mental age a. cannot be determined independently of the child's chronological age. b. provides a measurement of a child's performance relative to other children of a particular age group. ****************************** c. cannot be determined from a child's test score. d. can only be determined from large representative samples. 24. The use of standardized tests after World War I culminated with the publication of the a. Stanford Binet Test. b. Stanford Achievement Test. **************************** c. Army Beta. d. Army Alpha. 25. A trait is ____. a. dependent upon the situation b. defined as the motivating force behind behavior c. strongly impacted by changes in the environment d. an enduring disposition that distinguishes one individual from another ********************************************** 26. The first structured personality test was the a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. b. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. ******************************** c. Thematic Apperception Test. d. 16 Personality Factors test. 27. Who is associated with the development of the TAT? a. Murray & Morgan ********************************* b. Terman & Binet c. Levy & Beck d. Morgan & Beck 28. Who developed the Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire? a. J. R. Guilford b. R. B. Cattell ******************************* c. L. L. Thurstone d. Sam Beck 29. Today, psychological testing a. is regarded as having little room for improvement. b. remains one of the most important yet controversial issues. *************************** c. is mostly ignored because insurance companies will not pay for it. d. is losing its credibility. 30. Which of the following is one criticism of early personality tests? a. The tests made too few assumptions about the meaning of a test response. b. The questions were too complex to grade objectively. c. The tests did not accurately reflect modern testing theories. d. The test taker and the test administrator may have different interpretations of the questions. ************************* 31. In 1883, the U.S. government established this commission to develop and administer competitive examinations for certain government jobs: a. American Educational Testing Commission b. American Civil Service Commission ************************ c. Federal Employment Screening Commission d. Federal Employment Selection Commission 32. Which of the following is NOT a group that standardized tests tend to disadvantage? a. Women b. Students from low-income households c. Younger students ************************** d. Ethnic minorities 33. The most widely used and referenced personality test is the a. MMPI. ***************************** b. TAT. c. Rorschach. d. Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale. 34. The first attempt to apply factor analytic techniques to test construction was made by a. Sam Beck. b. R. B. Cattell. c. Henry Murray. d. J. R. Guilford. ****************************** 35. A method for finding the minimum number of dimensions to account for a large number of variables is called a. correlational analysis. b. multiple regression. c. factor analysis. ***************************** d. analysis of variance.

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1. For children up through about the 3rd grade, a friendly examiner a. significantly affects performance on a test. b. does not significantly affect performance on a test. ***************** c. increased IQ scores by nearly one standard deviation. d. decreased IQ scores by nearly one standard deviation. 2. Studies have demonstrated that a. disapproving comments by an examiner can hinder test performance.************ b. disapproving comments by the examiner can actually motivate children and enhance their performance. c. too much approval by the examiner can hinder performance. d. there is no relationship between the examiner's comments and test performance. 3. The "Rosenthal effect" occurs when a. race of the tester produces a bias. b. the administrators' expectations influence the respondents' scores.************* c. test-takers do poorly because they are fatigued. d. the gender of the test administrator is different than that of the examinee. 4. Research on the effects of examiners' expectations upon test scores have shown that a. examiners' expectations influence scores only when rapport has developed. b. examiners' expectations have little effect upon test scores. c. there is inconsistency with regard to the effect of examiners' expectations.******************* d. too few studies have been done to draw any conclusions. 5. Mrs. Morgan and Mrs. Malcolm are African-American and only want an African-American examiner to administer an IQ test to their children. They a. are justifiably concerned that their children's scores will be adversely affected by a Caucasian examiner. b. are operating under the widely held myth that the race of the examiner impedes performance of African-American children.******************** c. realize that strict standards for proper test administration do not exist. d. realize that it is important to have an examiner that is new and unknown to the test-taker. 6. Mr. and Mrs. Lozano have recently moved to Ohio from Mexico and have been notified that their son Reuben will be given an English IQ test to determine school placement. They should a. not be concerned about the language of the test because one of the secretaries has offered to translate. b. be pleased because the school is hiring a professional to translate the test especially for Reuben. c. ask the school to only use a test that has been translated and subjected to reliability and validity studies in Spanish speaking populations.******************* d. realize that by testing their son in English, they are helping him to acculturate to his new environment much faster. 7. As sample size increases, expectancy effects tend to a. become more important. b. decrease.***************** c. remain stable. d. increase. 8. One study showed that when 6- to 13-year-olds received tokens they could exchange for money each time they gave a correct response on the WISC verbal scale, performance was improved only for a. White children from middle income homes. b. White and African American children from low income homes. c. African American children from low income homes. d. White children from low income homes.************* 9. Why is it of concern that there is not a standardized protocol for training on how to administer the WAIS-R? a. Individuals with only undergraduate degrees are permitted to administer it, making training especially important. b. The courts have repeatedly ordered the development of standardized training for the WAIS-R, but it has not been done. c. There is no evidence that training will improve the ability of examiners to administer and score the WAIS-R. d. Research indicates that errors are common until examiners have administered 10 practice tests and declines thereafter.************** 10. When asking people to provide answers to sensitive health care questions, it might be better to a. conduct face-to-face interviews. b. use self-administered questionnaires.***************** c. conduct telephone interviews. d. use younger males to conduct the interviews. 11. Studies on computer-administered interviews have shown that a. people will sometimes divulge more personal information to a machine than they will to a human interviewer.***************** b. people are reluctant to give personal information unless an interviewer is warm and empathetic. c. the computer is too impersonal as a mechanism for obtaining personal information. d. students typically dislike computer-assisted interviews and thus do not pay attention to questions. 12. Test anxiety is an example of a(n) a. test variable. b. reactivity variable. c. expectancy variable. d. subject variable.******************** 13. Which of the following is true of self-report of health issues? a. People report more symptoms when a mailed questionnaire is used than when they are interviewed face to face.************************** b. People are typically reluctant to report symptoms when completing a mailed questionnaire because it feels so impersonal. c. Mailed questionnaires should not be used due to the possibility that private health information might be accidentally made public. d. It is important for an examiner to be present to explain difficult terms to those taking the test. 14. Which of the following is true concerning the language of the test taker? a. Language should not be of concern, since there are computer programs that will translate. b. The use of interpreters is helpful and typically will not affect reliability or validity. c. The test should be administered in the language of the majority, even if the test taker is not fluent. d. It is important to ensure that the translated version of the test is comparable to the original version.**************************** 15. Patterson and colleagues (1995) reported that in order to reduce administration errors, test administrators should a. be disciplined for mistakes. b. practice administration about 10 times.********************* c. always have a supervisor observe them. d. reinforce test takers. 16. When men and women are told that they are taking a test that measures gender differences, which outcome can be expected? a. Equally qualified women will perform worse than the men.************** b. Equally qualified men will perform worse than the women. c. The men and women will perform equally well. d. The test is more likely to capture true differences in men and women's performance. 17. Which of the following is true of computer-assisted test administration? a. It reduces biases in test administration.***************** b. Test items are presented in a standard order for each test taker. c. It is a more expensive approach than traditional paper and pencil testing. d. People across demographic groups tend to feel more comfortable interacting with computers. 18. The mode of administration for a test a. should be varied for each test taker according to their individual characteristics. b. is not a significant variable in test taking. c. has only small effects in most situations.******************* d. has a larger effect on educational testing than clinical testing. 19. Which of the following has been proven to reduce the risk of stereotype threat? a. Allowing individuals to take tests independently rather than in group format. b. Explaining to test takers the statistics on how various demographic groups tend to perform on a test. c. Placing demographic questions at the end of the test rather than the beginning.******************** d. Using test proctors from underrepresented groups. 20. Which of the following is an advantage of computer-assisted test administration? a. Use of computers greatly increases validity. b. Test takers can look ahead and skip back and forth to items they feel confident about. c. Computer generated reports are less likely to be misinterpreted. d. Items can be administered in any order.*************** 21. The school board decided to send professional test administrators into the schools in an attempt to establish stricter standardization procedures for the administration of IQ tests. If you are from a socio-economically disadvantaged area, you can expect that the test scores for your school district will a. benefit greatly from the use of outside examiners. b. be equal to the scores received by students in upper socio-economic groups. c. be more negatively impacted by the use of unfamiliar examiners than for wealthier districts.********************* d. be more positively impacted by the use of unfamiliar examiners than for wealthier districts. 22. In a study of examiner reinforcement on test takers, under which condition did children score the lowest? a. Examiners made approving comments. b. Examiners made disapproving comments.************ c. Examiners made neutral comments. d. Examiners made no comments. 23. Because situational variables can affect test scores, testing requires a. standardized conditions.*************** b. at least two test administrators. c. a test administrator and an observer. d. test administrators with similar backgrounds and characteristics. 24. Mrs. Collins and Mrs. Grey both administered the same IQ test to their regular classes by reading instructions, refraining from providing any verbal feedback, and generally following strict procedural guidelines. Even though the classes were comparable, Mrs. Grey's class had much lower test scores than Mrs. Collins. It is likely that a. the instructions were not clear. b. standard test administration does not work. c. some subtle non-verbal cue or body language affected scores.************* d. the race of the teachers affected test scores. 25. Patty has just received a graduate degree in psychology and has been hired by a local organization to administer the WAIS-R. They should a. have no qualms about her qualifications for this position because she has a degree. b. have no qualms about her qualifications because her program required that she engage in at least 5 practice administrations of this test. c. be aware that errors are likely to be high unless she has completed at least 10 practice sessions.************************* d. realize test administer training is a highly standardized process with high quality standards. 26. Dominic, a Caucasian male, is in the first grade and his reading skills are being assessed for placement next year. His teacher is out sick on the day of his assessment test. You can expect his test score to be a. substantially higher than if the test were administered by the regular teacher. b. unaffected by the change in examiner. c. significantly lower as a result of an unfamiliar examiner.****************** d. nothing more than a reflection of his reading ability. 27. Rosenthal asserted that expectancy effects are likely to result from subtle uses of a. reinforcement. b. nonverbal communication.******************* c. disapproving comments. d. gender and racial bias. 28. Studies on the effect of the race of the tester have demonstrated that a. African-American children consistently score higher when they are tested by African-American examiners. b. African-American children consistently score lower when they are tested by African-American examiners. c. White children consistently score higher when they are tested by White examiners. d. the race of the examiner does not have a consistent effect on the test scores of African-American or White children.****************** 29. Worry, emotionality, and lack of self-confidence are the three components of a. test anxiety.********************** b. expectancy effects. c. human factors. d. reactivity. 30. Test scores of paper and pencil tests compared to computer assisted tests indicate that a. better scores are achieved by paper and pencil tests. b. better scores are achieved by computer assisted tests. c. the scores are about equivalent.**************** d. poorer control with computer assisted tests. 31. Which of the following is one explanation for the negative impact of test anxiety on performance? a. It causes students to not study as hard. b. The test taker is distracted by self-doubting thoughts. c. The examiner may provide more negative feedback to test takers who appear anxious. d. Anxious test takers tend to give up on tests sooner.****************** 32. Donna wants to express empathy toward the individuals she is interviewing about very sensitive medical conditions. She nods in a warm and approving way each time they report a symptom. What might be expected? a. Participants will talk with her longer about each symptom.*********** b. Participants will be more honest about their symptoms. c. Participants will show long term improvements in their symptoms. d. Participants will report significantly more symptoms. 33. Which of the following is a common theory regarding how stereotype threat weakens test performance? a. Test takers attend to the test administrator's feelings and behaviors. b. Test takers feel afraid to do well on the test. c. Test takers take longer to read the test instructions to ensure they understand. d. Test takers dedicate attention to themselves rather than the test.*************** 34. Which comment of praise is most likely to increase a child's test performance? a. "You're so organized." b. "You are so smart." c. "How clever." d. "You worked so hard."******************* 35. Which of the following is true about the reliability of computer-administered testing in comparison to traditional assessment? a. It is more reliable. b. It is less reliable. c. It is just as reliable.************************* d. There is not yet enough research on the differences in reliability.

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1. In general, group tests a. are psychometrically sound.****************** b. lack documentation. c. are essay-type tests. d. lack reliability and validity. 2. When utilizing the results of group tests, it is wise to a. be suspicious of high scores. b. refrain from the use of additional testing. c. include the scores as only a part of the data.****************** d. look for wide discrepancies to verify findings. 3. Which of the following is important to remember when using group tests? a. Group tests typically lack validity and have other poorly defined psychometric qualities. b. Discrepancies in scores between group tests and other measures should be investigated.************************** c. Because they lack the detailed standardization of individual tests, group tests should be used cautiously. d. Contrary to stereotype, group tests require considerable expertise to administer and score. 4. Which of the following is characteristic of aptitude tests? a. Aptitude tests reflect the test-taker's learning experiences. b. Validity is related to content-related evidence. c. Aptitude tests measure the effects of unknown and uncontrolled experiences.********************************* d. Aptitude tests typically have only limited ability to predict future behavior. 5. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test? a. While most achievement tests rely increasingly on verbal items with increasing grade level, the KAT remains nonverbal throughout.****************** b. The KAT cannot be used with students who have disabilities of any type. c. Despite its wide use, there remains serious concerns about the reliability and validity of the KAT. d. The KAT is suited only for those who speak English at grade level. 6. Which of the following types of tests typically predicts general ability? a. aptitude b. achievement c. intelligence********************* d. group 7. The Kuhlmann-Anderson Test a. is an extremely sound instrument.********************* b. has good validity but poor reliability. c. is primarily a verbal test. d. is useful only for pre-school age children. 8. Validity for the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test a. is well documented.***************** b. is poorly documented. c. is not based on correlations with other IQ tests. d. relies on face validity. 9. Which test is especially useful if nonverbal items are needed? a. the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test****************** b. the Cognitive Abilities Test c. the Henmon-Nelson Test d. the Millers Analogies Test 10. Unlike most multi-level batteries, the Kuhlman-Anderson Test a. is primarily non-verbal.******************** b. is for individuals in pre-school through 2nd grade. c. has poor norms. d. is difficult to administer. 11. The Stanford and Metropolitan are both ____ tests. a. intelligence b. aptitude c. nonverbal d. achievement********************* 12. The major weakness of the SAT lies in its a. poor reliability. b. poor predictive power in discriminating students who score in the middle ranges.******************** c. lack of separate norms as a function of various demographic variables. d. relatively small normative sample. 13. The stability of the GRE has been evaluated by a. Kuder-Richardson.*************************** b. extensive test-retest reliability coefficients. c. inter-rater reliability coefficients. d. correlating scores to a number of students who completed graduate school. 14. One shortfall of the ACT is that a. it has low internal consistency coefficients.************************* b. it does not predict first year college GPAs. c. the ITED must be administered along with it. d. it does not compare well to the SAT. 15. One reason that GRE scores and graduate GPAs have low correlations may be a. underprediction of younger examinees. b. range restriction.*********************** c. selection bias. d. improper administration. 16. A score of 600 on the verbal section of the GRE would indicate that the individual scored a. at the mean. b. one standard deviation below the mean. c. one standard deviation above the mean.********************** d. two standard deviations above the mean. 17. The Raven Progressive Matrices Test a. cannot be administered to language-impaired individuals. b. measures general intelligence, or Spearman's g.**************** c. is poorly constructed psychometrically. d. is an individual test. 18. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery a. has poor psychometric characteristics. b. is not a valid predictor of training performance. c. does not have adequate norming information. d. now has a computerized adaptive version.******************** 19. Which of the following was developed by the U.S. Employment Service to measure occupational aptitude? a. IPAT Culture Fair Intelligence Test b. Wonderlic Personnel Test c. General Aptitude Test Battery**************************** d. Raven Progressive Matrices 20. The GRE is a strong predictor of a. clinical skills. b. first year graduate school grades. c. ability to solve real world problems. d. none of the above************************ 21. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group tests? a. They are cost-efficient. b. Scoring is more objective. c. Scores are more reliable. d. Examiners have more training.******************** 22. The COGAT Form 7 is a measure of a. crystallized intelligence. b. achievement. c. fluid intelligence.*************** d. visual-motor functioning. 23. Which test is a sensitive discriminator for giftedness? a. COGAT************** b. KAT c. Henmon-Nelson d. SAT 24. Which of the following group tests can be either group or individually administered? a. Cognitive Abilities Test b. Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test***************** c. Miller Analogies Test d. Henmon-Nelson Test 25. The IPAT Culture Fair Test was designed to a. eliminate cultural influences in an ability test.****************** b. estimate the intelligence of language impaired children. c. estimate the intelligence of language impaired adults. d. be used with children three years of age and younger. 26. The Miller Analogies Test a. is strictly verbal and timed.**************** b. is strictly verbal but not timed. c. contains verbal and performance items and is timed. d. contains verbal and performance items but is not timed. 27. Which test is likely to take two or three days to complete? a. COGAT********************** b. KAT c. Henmon-Nelson d. SAT 28. Although it has limits pertaining to the identification of giftedness and the identification of disabilities in minority groups, which of the following tests is a good choice when a quick measure is needed? a. COGAT b. KAT c. Henmon-Nelson***************** d. SAT 29. Which of the following group tests has advantages over the Henmon-Nelson Test in selecting minority, culturally diverse, and economically disadvantaged children? a. the Cognitive Abilities Test*********************** b. the Scholastic Assessment Test c. the Kuhlman-Anderson Test d. the Metropolitan Achievement Test 30. Scoring of group tests is ____ objective and ____ reliable than scoring of many individual tests. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more*************** d. less; less 31. A final examination in a school course is a type of ____ test. a. achievement********* b. aptitude c. performance d. intelligence 32. In general, a paper and pencil test is representative of a. individual tests. b. intelligence tests. c. verbal tests. d. group tests.*************** 33. Which of the following is an advantage of group tests? a. They provide information beyond the test score. b. They require minimal examiner skill to administer and score.*********** c. They allow interpretation of the test scores. d. They allow observation of behavior under standard conditions. 34. Which of the followings is an example of a K-12 group test? a. KAT*********** b. LSAT c. GRE d. ACT 35. A percentile band a. provides the range of percent correct for any given group of individuals. b. provides the range of percentiles that are likely to represent a subject's true score.****************** c. is formed as an interval one standard error of measurement above and below the true score. d. represents all scores below the mean score.

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1. One of the most influential advocates of the role of nonintellectual factors in intelligence tests is a. Binet. b. Terman. c. Wechsler.********************* d. Rapaport. 2. A major criticism of the Binet scale by Wechsler was that a. the Binet Scale was not an appropriate measure of adult intelligence.********************** b. the concept of an age scale was outdated. c. it was not reliable. d. the norms did not include non-whites. 3. The original Wechsler scale was the first one that a. was capable of directly comparing verbal and nonverbal measures.************************* b. used a large, representative sample. c. used a performance scale. d. could be generalized to various populations. 4. The concept of a Performance Scale a. was introduced by Wechsler in 1939. b. was introduced prior to the development of the Wechsler-Bellevue.************************* c. was found to be more applicable to adults than to children. d. was found to be more applicable to children than to adults. 5. The main reason for including a performance scale in a measure of intelligence is to a. facilitate scoring. b. increase ease of administration. c. improve examiner-examinee rapport. d. overcome language, cultural, and educational factors.********************************* 6. The information subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. concentration. b. anxiety. c. range of knowledge.************************ d. abstract thinking. 7. The similarities subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. abstract thinking.****************** b. planning ability. c. common sense or judgment. d. anxiety. 8. The comprehension subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. abstract thinking. b. analysis of part whole relationships. c. anxiety. d. common sense or judgment.************************* 9. The arithmetic subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. concentration.*********************** b. alertness to details. c. planning ability. d. common sense or judgment. 10. The digit span subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. alertness to details. b. nonverbal reasoning. c. visual-motor functioning. d. anxiety.************************* 11. Which WAIS-IV subtest is likely to reveal the character of a person's thought processes? a. information b. comprehension c. similarities***************** d. arithmetic 12. Which of the following subtests measures short-term and auditory memory? a. digit span************************ b. block design c. digit symbol d. picture completion 13. Which of the following is a supplemental verbal subtest? a. matrix reasoning b. letter-number sequencing*********************** c. analogies d. digit-symbol-coding 14. In the WAIS-IV, a full-scale IQ is obtained by a. multiplying verbal and nonverbal scores. b. dividing verbal scores by age and multiplying by 100. c. adding scores of the various scales.************************ d. adding weighted scores of various scales. 15. In the WAIS-IV, an index is created when a. two or more subtests are related to a basic underlying skill.********************* b. a specified number of items is missed. c. a criterion number of correct responses is obtained. d. at least one subtest is related to an underlying skill. 16. Lowered performance compared to a previously higher level is referred to as a. an index. b. deterioration.********************** c. a ceiling effect. d. manifold. 17. Information processing skills are measured by the a. digit-symbol coding subtest. b. matrix reasoning subtest.********************* c. block design subtest. d. information subtest. 18. The FSIQ has a mean of ____ and standard deviation of ____. a. 10; 3 b. 100; 3 c. 100; 10 d. 100; 15**************************** 19. Which of the following represents a Full Scale IQ two standard deviations above the mean? a. 110 b. 80 c. 120 d. 130*************************** 20. The index that refers to the information a person is currently holding in memory and actively manipulating is called a. verbal comprehension. b. perceptual index. c. working memory.*************************** d. processing speed. 21. IQ scores are determined on the WAIS-IV by a. summing the age-corrected scaled scores of the composite indexes.************************ b. summing the scaled scores and dividing by the ratio MA/CA c. the formula IQ = MA/CA X 100. d. summing the raw score for each IQ and comparing this sum to age appropriate norms. 22. Evaluating relatively large differences between subtest scaled scores is called a. factor analysis. b. verbal-performance comparisons. c. pattern analysis.************************ d. deviation analysis. 23. The reliability of the WAIS-IV a. is not well-established b. ranges from 0.90 to 0.98 for the indexes************************* c. has recently decreased sharply d. is of little importance 24. The validity of pattern analysis of the Wechsler Scales a. is well established in clinical settings. b. has yet to be resolved.************************ c. prevents practitioners from using interpretative patterns. d. cannot be determined empirically. 25. Which of the following describes the current consensus model of intelligence? a. individual abilities that group into multiple factors relatively independent of each other. b. a global model of general intelligence with little variation between grouped factors. c. a hierarchical model with a general factor at the top followed by group factors and finally individual abilities.********************** d. a model of individual abilities directly connected to a general intelligence factor. 26. While the WAIS-IV has ____ factors, factor analysis of the WISC-V indicated ____. a. 3; 4 b. 4; 3 c. 4; 5********************************** d. 5; 4 27. The Wechsler tests have all proven to be compatible with a. educational tests. b. clinical assessments. c. achievement tests.*************************** d. school performance. 28. Which of the following is NOT one the five indexes or primary scores used by the WISC-V and WAIS-IV? a. processing speed b. long term memory******************* c. fluid reasoning d. verbal comprehension 29. Success on the WISC-V is heavily based on a. creativity. b. stamina. c. accuracy on more difficult items. d. speed.******************** 30. The reliabilities for the Wechsler tests in general are a. low. b. moderate. c. high.********************** d. still undergoing testing to be determined. 31. The largest debate regarding the development of the Wechsler scales is regarding a. their validity for predicting achievement. b. their use with very young children. c. their validity with individuals with cognitive impairments. d. the number of factors and their stability.************************ 32. In general, the validity of the WAIS-IV a. rests on studies done with earlier versions of the test.********************* b. is undocumented, but promising. c. indicates the WAIS correlates poorly with other tests of intelligence. d. is weak when factor analytic data are considered. 33. WPPSI-IV users have the flexibility to use more or less subtests based on the needs of the evaluation and a. the child's diagnosis. b. the time of testing. c. the child's age.************************* d. the number of children being tested. 34. The Verbal IQ has a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____. a. 100; 15************************ b. 10; 3 c. 100; 10 d. 100; 3 35. Which WAIS-IV subtest asks questions such as, "What should you do if you see an injured person lying in the street?" a. information b. comprehension******************* c. similarities d. picture arrangement

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1. The personnel manager of ABC Company asked all of the applicants she interviewed the same questions in the same systematic fashion. She was conducting a(n) ____ interview. a. nondirective b. unstructured c. structured********************* d. diagnostic 2. An interview in which the person being interviewed is allowed to determine the direction of the interview is called a(n) ____ interview. a. nondirective*********************** b. directive c. structured d. selection 3. Studies have shown that in an interview, a. high activity in one participant is associated with reduced activity in the other. b. high activity in one participant is associated with increased activity in the other.********************** c. the activity of one participant has nothing to do with the activity of the other. d. high activity in one participant tends to lead to hostility in the other. 4. During a job interview, Geoffrey found his behavior began to mimic the behavior of the nervous and disorganized interviewer. This is best described as an example of a. social facilitation.******************* b. halo effect. c. interpersonal attraction. d. paraphrasing. 5. The fact that Roger is more impressed by how much his therapist appeared to care, rather than the numerous diplomas and certificates on the therapist's walls, suggests that Roger will likely evaluate the quality of the interview as a. poor. b. average. c. high.******************* d. indeterminate. 6. Which of the following communicates "I don't approve of this aspect of you?" a. evaluative statements*********************** b. probing statements c. hostile statements d. reassuring statements 7. Which type of statement tends to bring the interview to a halt, and thus violates the principles of keeping the interaction flowing? a. open-ended questions b. closed-ended questions************************* c. verbatim playback d. summarizing 8. An open-ended question a. requires the interviewee to produce something spontaneously.*************** b. usually can be answered specifically. c. have the disadvantage of limiting the topics. d. generally requires the person to recall something. 9. "Are you feeling good today?" is an example of a(n) a. open-ended question. b. evaluative statement. c. closed-ended question.****************** d. transitional phrase. 10. A transitional phrase a. brings the interview to a halt. b. implies that the interviewee should continue talking about the same topic.**************************** c. communicates empathy. d. should be avoided in unstructured facilitative interviews. 11. The statement, "Yes, I see" might best be described as a. probing. b. verbatim playback. c. transitional.*********************** d. clarification. 12. A powerful response that communicates that the interviewer understands how the interviewee must be feel is a(n) a. clarification response. b. therapeutic response. c. verbatim playback. d. empathic response.********************** 13. Which level of communication indicates only a superficial level of awareness of the meaning of a statement? a. level 1 b. level 2 c. level 3 d. level 4********************* 14. According to Carkhuff and Berenson, a level one response a. communicates some awareness of the meaning of a statement. b. is interchangeable with the interviewee's statement. c. goes beyond the statement given. d. bears little relationship to the interviewee's response.************ 15. Understanding responses are important because they a. help an interviewee explore themselves at deeper levels.*************** b. help the interviewee decide what action to take. c. indicate what the interviewee should not do. d. make an interviewee feel good. 16. Because they were interviewing for a public relations position that would involve dealing with very volatile situations on very short notice, the MEM Oil Co. deliberately induced a degree of anxiety in the interview process. They were using a technique known as the ____ interview. a. structured b. evaluative c. stress********************* d. probing 17. Although interviewers normally avoid ____ statements, they may be necessary when interviewing a child or someone with mental retardation. a. evaluative b. probing******************** c. hostile d. judgmental 18. Within Carkhuff and Berenson's five-point system, what is the minimum level of responding necessary to keep the interaction flowing? a. III ************************* b. I c. II d. V 19. Attempts to measure understanding began with the work of a. Carkhuff. b. Berenson. c. Saccuzzo.************************* d. Rogers. 20. Structured clinical interviews have been criticized because a. they rely completely on self-report data.*************** b. reliability is very low. c. they are very brief. d. it is difficult to define a specific group. 21. Susan just stated that she hates her brother. Which of the following statements is likely to keep the conversation flowing? a. "Hating is wrong." b. "I very much doubt that you actually hate him." c. "I hated my brother when I was your age." d. "You are angry with your brother."************************ 22. According to general standoutishness theory, a. more attractive applicants are treated more favorably in telephone interviews. b. less attractive applicants are more favorably treated in telephone interviews.************************* c. more attractive applicants are treated less favorably in in-person interviews. d. less attractive applicants are treated more favorably in in-person interviews. 23. To keep the interaction flowing in unstructured interviews, the interviewer must a. remain quiet and not interrupt the interviewee.************** b. ask several probing questions. c. stop the interviewee to insert their perspectives if they talk for too long. d. use social facilitation to model the behavior of talking a lot. 24. Which of the following elicits self-exploration? a. accurate empathy****************** b. false reassurance c. social influence d. transitional phrases 25. Which of the following is the most effective means for reducing bias in an interview? a. Matching interviewer and interviewee on race and gender b. Using more open-ended questions c. Focusing on more general rather than individuating information d. Using a highly structured interview****************** 26. Which of the following is NOT assessed during a mental status exam? a. attitudes b. case history******************* c. behaviors d. appearance 27. Which of the following describes interpersonal influence? a. The degree to which particular interview questions influence a respondent's behavior in the interview. b. The degree to which one person can influence another.******************* c. The degree to which interview type influences the responses elicited from respondents. d. The degree to which people share a feeling of understanding, mutual respect, similarity, and the like. 28. A(n) ____ interview was developed in order to help overcome the low reliability in psychiatric diagnosis. a. evaluation b. structured clinical******************* c. case history d. mental status 29. Why is the question "Why?" to be avoided in interviews? a. It is too open-ended and is ineffective in gathering needed information. b. It demands that interviewees explain their behavior and may be perceived as judgmental.******************************* c. It encourages interviewees to launch long explanations rather than addressing real issues. d. People are generally not very good at analyzing "why" questions to explain specific behaviors. 30. "Don't worry, everything will be all right" is an example of a. a probing statement. b. a clarification statement. c. false reassurance.************************ d. verbatim playback. 31. Which of the following is an open-ended question? a. Are you having problems? b. Is your father strict? c. What kinds of recreation do you enjoy?******************** d. Would you like to visit Paris? 32. In an effective interview, the interviewer maintains face-to-face contact and ____ to keep the interactions flowing. a. exerts minimal effort*********************** b. avoids directing the conversation c. exerts a great deal of effort d. uses closed-ended questions 33. By replacing "why?" statements with "tell me" or "how?" statements, an interviewer can occasionally make wise use of ____ statements. a. evaluative b. judgmental c. probing****************** d. hostile 34. Clarification statements a. serve to clarify the interviewee's response. b. remain very close to the meaning of the interviewee's response. c. may add to the interviewee's response. d. all of these******************* 35. Which of the following demands more information than the interviewee would be willing to provide voluntarily? a. evaluative statements b. probing statements************************ c. hostile statements d. reassuring statements

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1. Clinical neuropsychology is multidisciplinary and overlaps with the fields of a. psychiatry, neurology, and psychometric testing.************ b. operant conditioning, nuclear medicine, and neurology. c. counseling, neurology and psychometric testing. d. psychiatry, nephrology, and psychometric testing. 2. After suffering from a stroke, Louise has problems dressing and seems to have trouble telling her right from her left. She also has trouble reading because she cannot seem to recognize written words. It is quite likely that the damage from the stroke a. affected the right hemisphere of her brain. b. affected the left hemisphere of her brain.********************** c. is not responsible for the deficits she is experiencing. d. effected both sides of her brain. 3. Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by a. difficulty hearing. b. impaired verbal comprehension.**************** c. impaired reading ability. d. impaired psychomotor abilities. 4. Your textbook presents the case of a patient who exhibited deterioration in performance on the Draw-a-Clock task, which was administered three times from 1996 to 1999. The pattern of the patient's performance indicated that a. he was probably schizophrenic. b. he was most likely illiterate. c. parietal lobe functioning had deteriorated.************ d. dopamine production had deteriorated. 5. Dyslexia is an example of a a. subcortical dementia. b. speech disorder. c. short-term memory deficit. d. learning disability.************ 6. The Halstead-Reitan Battery can assist in assessing a. tumors from heart disease. b. left versus right hemisphere brain lesions.*************** c. subcortical versus cortical brain lesions. d. peripheral versus central nervous system lesions. 7. A standardized version of Luria's procedure was developed by a. Benton. b. Golden.****************** c. Mirsky. d. Geschwind. 8. Stress is a response to situations that involve a. demands, constraints, or deadlines. b. fear, frustration, or demands. c. frustration, constraints, or opportunities. d. demands, constraints, or opportunities.************** 9. The Test Anxiety Questionnaire distinguishes between the ____ drive and the ____ drive. a. learned task; learned anxiety************** b. stress; anxiety c. learned task; learned hopelessness d. learned helplessness; learned anxiety 10. Why is ANAM one of the most important developments in clinical neuropsychology? a. ANAM takes eight hours to administer. b. ANAM is the first neurological test to measure psychological disorder. c. ANAM is an automated neuropsychological test.************ d. ANAM only requires a single task. 11. Which of the following is associated with left-sided brain injury? a. visual-spatial defects b. problems recognizing written words****************** c. problems with spatial calculations d. inability to recognize a physical deficit 12. Which component of the Halstead-Reitan assesses current learning skills, mental efficiency, and abstract concept formation? a. category**************** b. trail making c. rhythm d. tactual 13. Decision theory approaches to quality of life measurement have the advantage of providing a. a complex profile of health status. b. a basis to compare patients with very different conditions.************* c. a method for predicting future illness. d. unweighted dimensions of health. 14. Why is brain injury in children difficult to detect? a. Neuroimaging tests are not safe to administer to children. b. The smaller size of children's brains makes it more difficult to detect injuries. c. Functional impairments may not appear until they are older and presented with new challenges.********************** d. It is difficult to get any child to attend to and perform well on neuropsychological assessments. 15. Which of the following is the LEAST stable over time? a. cognitive deficits b. stress levels**************** c. traits d. states 16. Despite its limitations, which of the following is the most commonly used behavioral measure in contemporary medicine? a. Nottingham Health Profile b. Sickness Impact Profile c. Index of Activities of Daily Living d. SF-36***************** 17. Which of the following is true of decision and utility theory? a. It makes managers more likely to use data. b. It is widely used in employee selection. c. It requires information that is difficult to estimate.*************** d. It has been rejected for use in medical research. 18. The percent of cases in which a test accurately predicts success or failure is known as the a. rate of accuracy (RA). b. positive percentile. c. hit rate.************ d. base rate. 19. In decision analysis, the detection rate is the same thing as a. the sensitivity.************** b. the specificity. c. the accuracy rate. d. the false positive rate. 20. Students selected on the basis of a test for a graduate training program frequently leave prior to completion because of poor grades. This is an example of a a. false negative. b. high cutting score. c. high base rate. d. false positive.********** 21. Suppose that 100 people applied for a job and that 50 will be selected. The base rate for success on the job is .60 and the applicants would be selected on the basis of a test with a validity of .80. What would the probability of success be given rejection? a. 44/50 b. 44/60 c. 6/60 d. 16/50*********** 22. Incremental validity a. is less valuable than face validity. b. defines the base rate in utility theory. c. is an estimate of the hit rate. d. tells you what you can gain by using a particular test.*********** 23. Jason had worked very hard to accurately and quickly perform every task assigned to him. Still, his supervisor gave him a low rating. Research indicates that supervisors a. are the most accurate judge of an employee's performance. b. are not influenced by petty concerns such as their own job security. c. are known to be inaccurate raters.*********** d. give lower performance ratings if they are conflicted about their own role. 24. According to Jung's theory, knowing something because we can see it would be considered a. intuition. b. sensing.*********** c. feeling. d. vision. 25. The purpose of the Myers-Briggs test is to determine a. whether people are clinically depressed. b. if a potential employee will be successful in a particular job. c. where people fall on the introversion-extroversion dimension.*********** d. the IQ of older employees compared to younger employees. 26. The WPT is a(n) a. computer adaptive test. b. very long test to administer. c. stable test with extensive norms.************* d. test with extensive validity documentation. 27. A work situation is described as follows: hot, high pressure for production, little reinforcement for production, and low pay. This description employs which approach to assessment? a. personality b. environmental classification************ c. persons-situation interaction d. job stress 28. The predictive validity of most selections tests a. is very low. b. is only modest.**************** c. is between .7 and .8. d. is never less than .9. 29. The percentage of applicants who are hired or admitted to a program is known as the a. base rate. b. reliability coefficient. c. selection ratio.************* d. validity coefficient. 30. All of the following have been associated with workplace depression EXCEPT a. working in isolated environments.*********** b. having little job latitude. c. feeling strain from work. d. being bullied by other employees. 31. Which of the following is predicted by the Perceived Person—Environment Fit Scale? a. Citizenship within organizations b. Citizenship within organizations************ c. Promotion potential d. Productivity 32. Initial impressions in job interviews can have _______ effects on overall evaluations and are often _______. a. strong; accurate b. strong; inaccurate************** c. weak; accurate d. weak; inaccurate 33. The template-matching technique attempts to match a specific template of behavior to a. job performance. b. test scores. c. personality.***************** d. interest inventories. 34. A(n) ____ is used by job analysts to describe the activities and working conditions associated with a job title. a. incident report b. checklist**************** c. base rate d. interview 35. Behavioral factors like smoking predict life expectancy ________ measures of physical indicators like blood pressure. a. only when considered along with b. as well as******************* c. better than d. worse than

Chapter 17/18

1. Much of the controversy regarding testing has centered on the finding that on average, the IQ scores of African Americans are a. 15 points above the scores of white Americans. b. 20 points below the scores of white Americans. c. one standard deviation below the scores of white Americans.**************** d. two standard deviations below the scores of white Americans. 2. A test has adverse impact if it a. decreases an individual's self-esteem. b. systematically rejects higher proportions of minority than non-minority individuals.********************* c. prevents non-minority applicants from being hired. d. is used by an untrained administrator. 3. African American children significantly outperform white children on which test? a. SAT b. Chitling******************* c. WISC-R d. Binet 4. Which of the following is true of biased test items? a. Items believed to be biased rarely are biased. b. Apparently biased test items actually decrease test score differences. c. Elimination of biased items does not eliminate test score differences.********************* d. It is impossible to eliminate bias because every item is, in some way, biased. 5. In one study on content bias in elementary reading tests, groups of experts were able to inspect the test and eliminate items that were potentially biased toward the majority group. How did this affect the differences between scores obtained by groups of majority and minority students? a. Differences were eliminated. b. Differences became greater. c. It had little or no effect.******************** d. Minority students scored better than majority students. 6. What did psychologist Carol Dweck identify as a crucial ingredient of intellectual growth of children and young adults? a. mindsets*********** b. reasoning abilities c. cultural awareness d. personality 7. A limitation of the BITCH is a. lack of manualized administration. b. too few items. c. little convincing validity data.*************** d. lack of normative data. 8. Which SOMPA component uses the norms within a particular subgroup for defining deviance? a. pluralistic************ b. social c. organizational d. communal 9. The phrase "everyone can succeed if they work really hard" reflects which type of mindset? a. growth************** b. unqualified individualist c. fixed d. ambitious 10. An intervention to increase growth mindsets among students from economically disadvantaged backgrounds had what effect? a. Increased GPAs********** b. Increased self-esteem c. Increased the percentage of students who changed majors after their first year d. Decreased test anxiety 11. Which term was coined in the most recent version of Standards For Educational And Psychological Testing to describe different patterns of association between test scores and criterion variables for different demographic groups? a. Unqualified individualism b. Stereotype threat c. Predictive bias*************** d. Criterion-related validity 12. A fixed mindset is associated with a ________ view of intelligence. a. environmental b. cognitive c. genetic************ d. cultural 13. Studies that have examined the correlation between measures of medical school success and success as a physician in practice have shown a. the correlation to be very high. b. only a moderate correlation. c. almost no correlation.******************8 d. that successful students make successful doctors. 14. The phrase "girls can't do math" reflects which type of mindset? a. fixed***************** b. biased c. gendered d. growth 15. Which of the following approaches leads to the highest expected performance on the criterion? a. regression******************** b. constant ratio c. Cole/Darlington d. quota 16. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) a. evolved from the Civil Rights Act of 1964.****************** b. evolved from the Equal Employment Act of 1964. c. only has influence in non-governmental agencies. d. was created during the Reagan Administration. 17. ABC Company has received 150 job applicants for a job opening: 100 white applicants, 25 Mexican Americans, and 25 African Americans. They hired 60 of the white applicants. How many of the other two groups do they have to hire in order to abide by the four-fifths rule? a. 12 from each group***************** b. a total of 24 in any combination c. 15 from each group d. a total of 30 in any combination 18. The organization most responsible for getting the Educational Testing Service to revise some of their policies was the a. EEQC. b. FDA. c. SDPD. d. NYPIRG.******************* 19. In 1980, the EEOC added specific guidelines on a. physical disabilities. b. sexual harassment.******************** c. educational requirements. d. racial discrimination. 20. If prospective employees feel they have been treated unfairly, they can file complaints with the a. EEOC.******************** b. FDA. c. SDPD. d. NYPIRG. 21. The New York Truth in Testing Law a. applies only to the ETS. b. was written for the ETS but applies to many companies.*************** c. was the result of an investigation into the NYPIRG. d. is a federal regulation. 22. The type of test that came under scrutiny in the Debra P. v. Turlington case was a a. standard intelligence test. b. multicultural pluralistic test. c. personnel test. d. minimum competency test.******************** 23. In ____, the courts found against a law school applicant and in favor of the university policy of using racial or ethnic group as one of several factors in the admissions policy. a. Hobson v. Hansen b. Diana v. State Board of Education c. Grutter v. Bollinger*********** d. Gratz v. Bollinger 24. Specific restrictions have been placed on the use of tests for the selection of employees through a series of Supreme Court decisions. The effect of these decisions a. denies that tests are valuable tools in the personnel field. b. denies that the use of tests can continue in the personnel field. c. has been to force employers to define the relationship between test scores and job performance and to define the measure of job performance.**************** d. groups and not specific individuals are protected from biased testing procedures. 25. In the case of Golden Rule Insurance Company v. Washburn, the settlement suggested that a. items for insurance licensing tests should be revised to reduce racial bias.**************************** b. items for police academy admissions tests should be revised to reduce racial bias. c. items for firemen selection tests should be revised to reduce racial bias. d. ETS would make an admission of guilt. 26. Although the Supreme Court refused to hear the case, Wards Cove Packing Company v. Antonio was significant because a. it strengthened previous civil rights cases. b. it overturned the Larry P. case. c. it overturned the Crawford case. d. it shifted the burden of proof from employer to employee.***************** 27. Meredith v. Jefferson County Board of Education was significant because it a. strengthened previous civil rights cases. b. overturned the Larry P. case. c. reversed the tide of racial cases related to education.************** d. shifted the burden of proof from employer to employee. 28. The Common Core State Standards Initiative attempted to define what students should know in which two subjects? a. language arts and mathematics*************** b. mathematics and science c. science and language arts d. social studies and science 29. African American children were disproportionately assigned to EMR classes on the basis of what? a. Course grades. b. Classroom behavior. c. IQ tests.************** d. Classroom participation. 30. Which of the following was NOT one of the policies enacted by NCLB? a. Schools were required to use a standard national test.*************** b. Funding was withdrawn from poorly performing schools. c. Student information was reported to military recruiters. d. Schools were rewarded for good test grades. 31. Which of the following is the only state with a legal ban on IQ testing of African American children? a. New York b. Illinois c. Washington d. California***************** 32. The major focus of the Americans with Disabilities Act is a. the prevention of selection bias among disabled individuals. b. the removal of physical barriers that may impede the education and employment of disabled individuals.**************** c. the elimination of psychological tests in employment decisions for people with disabilities. d. the education of the public regarding people with disabilities. 33. The Crawford v. Honig case a. reaffirmed the Larry P. case. b. lifted the ban on Intelligence Testing for African American children.********************** c. strengthened the ban on intelligence testing for African American Children. d. extended the ban on testing for African American children to Hispanic children. 34. The finding in the Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education case was overturned based on a. Brown v. Board of Education.***************** b. Plessy v. Ferguson. c. Hobson V. Hansen. d. Diana v. State Board of Education. 35. The class-action suit, settled out of court, that resulted in non-English speaking students being tested in their primary language was a. Hobson v. Hansen. b. Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education. c. Diana v. State Board of Education.******************* d. Larry P. v. Wilson Riles.

Chapter 19/20

1. Personality is defined as an individual's patterns of behavior that a. change over time and characterize a person's reactions to the environment. b. indicate relatively enduring tendencies to act, think or feel in a certain manner. c. are relatively stable and enduring and characterize a person's reactions to the environment.******************** d. indicate emotional states that vary from one situation to another. 2. Mrs. Bauer is normally a very happy person, but she recently learned her son had a chronic illness and has been somewhat gloomy and pessimistic. This behavior is typical of a personality ____. a. trait b. type c. state******************** d. concept 3. At the broadest level, strategies for the development of personality tests can be divided into what two types? a. logical content and theory b. factor analytic and criterion group c. deductive and empirical**************** d. external and empirical 4. The principal distinguishing characteristic of the logical-content strategy is that it assumes that the a. factor analytic technique will be used to group items appropriately. b. test taker is biased when giving responses to test items. c. test item describes a subject's personality and behavior.*************** d. meaning of a test item can only be determined by empirical research. 5. Which strategy relies on reason and logic as opposed to data collection and statistical analysis? a. deductive****************** b. external c. contrasted d. empirical 6. The two empirical strategies of test construction are the a. rational and logical-content. b. multivariate and external. c. criterion keying and theoretical. d. criterion group and factor analytic.************* 7. The two deductive strategies of test construction are the a. logical-content and rational. b. logical-content and empirical. c. logical-content and theoretical.******************* d. empirical and rational. 8. Which approach relies on reasoning and deductive logic? a. logical-content strategy******************** b. theoretical strategy c. criterion strategy d. factor analytic strategy 9. The first personality inventory was called the a. Bell Adjustment Inventory. b. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet.***************** c. Bernreuter Personality Inventory. d. Mooney Problem Checklist. 10. Logical-content approaches to personality test construction are not used extensively anymore because a. such tests did not meet the need for which they were designed. b. responses were too ambiguous. c. of its reliance on the logic of face validity.****************** d. the approach is too time consuming. 11. The CPI utilizes which approach to test construction? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy************ d. factor analytic 12. The FB scale of the MMPI-2 measures a. random responding. b. family problems. c. health concerns. d. cooperation throughout the test.*********** 13. Which of the following occurred as a result of Meehl's studies of individuals, which consisted of the same two scales that were elevated? a. Clinical scales were shown to be appropriately and correctly named. b. New criterion groups were created based on similarities in their MMPI profiles.****************** c. Clinical groups were identified on the basis of patterns of MMPI scores. d. Psychiatric diagnosis became even more important to the definition of criterion groups. 14. How many content scales does the MMPI-2 contain? a. 3 b. 8 c. 10 d. 15********************* 15. One problem that was not addressed in the MMPI-2 was a. sexist language. b. item overlap.***************** c. outdated language. d. an adequate control group. 16. Factor analysis suggests that most of the variance in the CPI can be accounted for by only two factors related to a. internal control and interpersonal effectiveness scales.***************** b. internal control and achievement potential c. interpersonal effectiveness and interest modes d. interest modes and achievement potential 17. The restandardization of the MMPI has eliminated the most serious drawback of the original version, a. an inadequate control group.************* b. lack of validity documentation. c. poor reliability. d. inter-item correlations. 18. The final restandardization group for the MMPI-2 a. was representative of the 1980 United States Census population. b. was recruited from the United States and Canada. c. included clinical populations and their family members who did not have psychiatric diagnoses. d. was more educated and had greater financial resources than the population as a whole.***************** 19. What strategy did R. B. Cattell use in developing the l6PF? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic************ 20. Which test presents scores in relative terms rather than as absolute totals? a. CPI b. 16PF c. Personality Research Form d. EPPS********************* 21. The NEO-PI-R was developed using a. factor analysis and theory.******************** b. deductive approaches. c. theory and external approaches. d. empirical strategies. 22. The Rosenberg Self-Esteem Scale was created for ____ populations. a. abnormal b. childhood c. adult********************** d. criminal 23. Positive and Negative Affect Schedule (PANAS) measures positive affect (PA) and negative affect (NA) by a. 10 positive and 10 negative adjectives.***************** b. a short interview. c. 10 items developed to assess individual differences in generalized optimism and pessimism. d. 100 positive and 100 negative items. 24. Tests of mental ability were originally created to distinguish a. those with average mental abilities from those who are mentally gifted. b. mental abilities between different demographic subgroups of people. c. those who would perform well in school from those who would perform poorly. d. those with subnormal mental abilities from those with normal mental abilities.******************** 25. The criterion groups used to develop the original MMPI consisted of a. university students. b. a normally distributed sample of the population. c. psychiatric inpatients.*************** d. soldiers in WWI. 26. Which approach relies on experimental research to determine the meaning of a test response? a. theoretical b. empirical************** c. factor analytic d. logical-content 27. The tendency to respond "true" on true-false items is referred to as a. acquiescence.*********** b. truth bias. c. self-assurance. d. malingering. 28. Research on the General Self-Efficacy Scale (GSE) indicates a. that the underlying construct is culturally specific. b. a negative correlation with work satisfaction. c. a positive correlation with depression. d. that self-efficacy is a global construct.*************** 29. According to the LOT-R, an individual's tendency to view the world and the future in positive ways is called a. openness to experience. b. agreeableness. c. satisfaction with life. d. dispositional optimism.*************** 30. The Personality Research Form utilizes which approach to test construction? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy********* c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic 31. Why did the MMPI-2 number the clinical scales rather than retain the scale names that specified clinical conditions such as paranoia and depression? a. Scales of the MMPI-2 no longer correspond directly to specific diagnoses. b. Elevations on a particular scale do not necessarily mean the individual has a particular diagnosis.************* c. The names of the scales made it easier for people to fake and indicate they had the condition when they did not. d. Use of numbers made it easier to perform statistical analyses such as regression. 32. Which test contains no item overlap and balanced keying among the various alternative responses? a. MMPI b. CPI c. 16PF*************** d. MMPI-2 33. Which test has been extended downwards to apply to children and adolescents? a. It lacks standardized statistical methods. b. It uses subjective factor names.************* c. It requires annual revisions. d. It can be used with clinical but not "normal" populations. 34. Which of the following scales is related to faking good (falsely presenting yourself in a favorable way) on the MMPI? a. L**************************** b. F c. Pd d. Si 35. The purpose of the MMPI and MMPI-2 is to a. assist in distinguishing normal from abnormal groups.************ b. evaluate normal personality. c. evaluate job satisfaction. d. evaluate vocational aptitude.

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1. Which type of therapy is based on principles of learning? a. cognitive b. client-centered c. behavior modification**************** d. personality 2. Cognitive-behavioral assessments focus on ____ as the main problem in a disorder. a. the behavior******************* b. repressed memory c. previous trauma d. personality 3. A behavioral assessment that involves evaluating the current frequency of a behavior, designing a treatment intervention using reinforcement, and then evaluating the effect of the treatment relative to a baseline, is based on a. classical conditioning. b. psychosocial effects. c. operant conditioning.************* d. backward conditioning. 4. Which of the following models assumes that overt manifestations of psychopathology are only symptoms of an underlying problem? a. Kanfer and Saslow's model b. the operant conditioning model c. the medical model************* d. the social ecology model 5. Cognitive-behavioral and traditional procedures differ in that a. cognitive-behavioral procedures are more direct and remain closer to observable behaviors.**************** b. traditional procedures have fewer inferential assumptions. c. traditional procedures measure the overt manifestations of psychological disorders. d. cognitive-behavioral procedures tend to be based on the medical model. 6. Joey's parents went to a therapist to help them overcome Joey's fear of going to school. Before she helped them create a reward system for each time their son went to school without crying, the therapist first determined the severity and frequency of the behavior. The therapist was a. establishing a baseline.**************** b. developing a diagnosis. c. establishing rapport. d. assessing the cause of behavior. 7. Ken is having trouble at work because his boss takes advantage of him and gives him twice as much work as anyone else. Ken has trouble saying 'no' to his boss but then gets very angry because of all the work he has to do. Ken's therapist is likely to use the ____ in order to assess Ken's behavior in this particular situation. a. Assertive Behavior Survey Schedule****************** b. Miller Analogies Test c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory d. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale 8. The school counselor has administered the ____ to Danielle to assess her belief that unless she gets an A in all of her courses, she will be viewed as stupid and incompetent. a. WAIS b. FSS c. IBT***************** d. DAS 9. Procedures and tools that are intended to increase a subject's awareness of a particular behavior by providing feedback are known as a. projective tests. b. personal profiles. c. structured tests. d. self monitoring devices.*************** 10. Self-report techniques of cognitive-behavioral assessment a. tend to focus on situations that lead to particular response patterns.********************** b. implicitly assume construct validity. c. include such procedures as the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. d. focus primarily on underlying personality traits. 11. The functional (behavior-analytic) approach to assessment is a product of a. the Self-Report Battery. b. Meichenbaum. c. Kanfer and Saslow.**************** d. the Fear Survey Schedule. 12. Research indicates that the effects of social desirability are ____ in computer-administered interviews as compared to face-to-face interviews. a. increased b. decreased****************** c. about the same d. increased for sensitive subject areas 13. Why are self-report methods often preferred to observer methods? a. The mere presence of an observer can influence the occurrence of the target behaviors.*********************** b. Self-report measures allow the individual to feel more in control of the situation. c. The mere act of self-report typically induces the desired changes. d. Insurance companies will not pay for observer ratings. 14. In cognitive-behavioral approaches, the primary determinant of the behavior is viewed as a. the individual's attitudes b. the situation********************* c. the reinforcement history d. lack of learning and knowledge 15. The premise underlying a Cognitive Functional Analysis is that a. overt behavior rather than underlying causes should be the primary focus of the assessment. b. what a person says to himself or herself plays a critical role in behavior.********************** c. assessment of the internal dialogue has no place in the cognitive-behavioral assessment process. d. self-report procedures are they only useful technique in cognitive-behavioral assessment. 16. Which of the following researchers in psychophysiological assessment demonstrated that the fear response was related to specific physiological changes? a. Klinger b. Powell c. Azrin d. Ax***************** 17. Which of the following has been an impediment to the widespread use of computers in cognitive-behavioral assessment? a. questionable reliability b. lack of acceptance by practitioners****************** c. difficulty with computerized test administration d. unreliable scoring of behavioral data 18. One potential drawback to the computerization of traditional tests is that a. there is a significant reduction in reliability. b. interpretations based on computer programs must be viewed with caution.*************** c. computerized test administration is cumbersome. d. there is a significant decrease in validity. 19. Jessica and her twin brother took a college entrance exam via computer. When talking afterwards, they found they had responded to different questions. The computer provided each question based on how well they had done on the previous question. This is known as a. individualized testing. b. computer adaptive testing.******************* c. selective assessment. d. projective testing. 20. A cognitive-behavioral intervention has failed when the critical behavior a. is formed. b. remains at or above baseline levels.****************** c. is modified in any way. d. drops below the baseline. 21. In the ideal situation, the behavioral observer will be a. an untrained, objective individual unknown to the subject or the behavior modification process. b. a parent or other person with intimate knowledge of the subject. c. a practitioner or trained assistant.********************** d. a familiar individual that the subject is comfortable with but that can be more objective than a parent (e.g. a teacher) 22. Eliza, the computer program developed to emulate the behavior of a psychotherapist a. produced a superficial interaction with clients. b. engendered positive emotions and a connection with clients.***************** c. was unable to exhibit empathy. d. used a cognitive-behavioral approach. 23. Internet administration of psychological tests is generally a. adequate.*********************** b. not recommended. c. better than other methods. d. worse than paper and pencil tests. 24. In general, the results of computerized testing are ____ when compared to paper and pencil testing. a. lower b. lower for adults, but not for children c. less accurate d. about the same***************** 25. One problem in psychophysiological assessment is that a. no relationship has been found between physiological processes and cognitive processes. b. there may be artifacts.************* c. they are too time intensive. d. they are not cost-effective. 26. In comparison to the Irrational Beliefs Test (IBT), the Irrational Beliefs Inventory (IBI) ​ a. is much longer and more complex. b. focuses on cognitions rather than negative affect.*************** c. lacks consistent psychometric properties across cultures. d. is less useful in clinical settings. 27. Which of the following is true of cognitive-behavioral self-report procedures? a. They are not yet well-established clinical tools.**************** b. They are strongly preferred by most clinicians. c. They require substantial skill to administer, score, and interpret. d. They typically lack face validity. 28. When cognitive-behavioral assessment methods are compared to traditional assessments, cognitive-behavioral assessments a. make fewer inferential assumptions.************* b. are plagued with problems related to definition. c. have fallen into disfavor. d. are generally of lower reliability and validity. 29. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) is an example of a. a self-report technique.************* b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach. c. a psychophysiological assessment. d. a psychophysical procedure. 30. Generally, all of the problems of early structured personality tests apply to a. self-report techniques.***************** b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach. c. psychophysiological assessment. d. psychophysical procedures. 31. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) is an example of a a. traditional psychological test. b. self-report measure.***************** c. projective behavioral test. d. psychophysiological procedure. 32. Organized cognitive frameworks that help organize experiences, interpret new experiences, and make predictions about what is likely to happen in the future are called a. schemas.************* b. self-concepts. c. biases. d. prototypes. 33. The evaluation of the frequency, intensity, and duration of a behavior is known as a. behavioral assessment. b. establishing a baseline.*************** c. a critical response. d. operant conditioning. 34. The first step in a cognitive-behavioral assessment is to a. develop reinforcers. b. identify critical behaviors.*************** c. determine a baseline. d. determine the cause of the problem behavior. 35. Cognitive-behavioral self-reports are best used in conjunction with other sources of information because a. they only address a small number of behaviors. b. they are very difficult to administer. c. little psychometric data is available for any of them.*********** d. very few such tests even exist.

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1. Who first introduced the Rorschach to the United States? a. Marguerite Hertz b. J. Kerner c. David Levy********************** d. Samuel Beck 2. Which of the following is true of the Rorschach? a. It was treated with suspicion from the beginning.******************* b. It is the most widely used psychological test. c. Recent scoring revisions have eliminated the most serious objections. d. It has finally become a widely accepted method in psychology. 3. Qualitative interpretation of the Rorschach is useful in a. estimating the skills of the administrator. b. specifying reliability. c. differentiating between normal and disordered conditions. d. determining whether the individual taking the test understands the instructions.*************** 4. What are the content types of the Rorschach? a. positive and negative b. human, animal, and nature*************** c. nature and nurture d. reality-based and fantasy-based 5. The Dd response refers to a. an unusual detail.******************** b. a divided response. c. a double response. d. animal content. 6. Early proponents of the Rorschach gave impressive demonstrations that seemed to support the reliability of the test. These demonstrations a. are unquestionable evidence of the effectiveness of the Rorschach. b. have been labeled as the result of the Barnum effect.**************** c. depended on the evaluator giving one specific analysis. d. were undoubtedly given before the analyst knew anything about the patient. 7. According to the text, Rorschach "virtuosos" a. performed significantly better in controlled studies than in clinical settings. b. were actually no better than chance in their clinical assessments. c. performed no better than chance when tested in controlled studies.********************* d. never actually had their expertise statistically analyzed. 8. The first phase of Rorschach administration is called a. free association.************** b. process monitoring. c. inquiry. d. initial interpretation. 9. In order to remedy problems identified in the Rorschach, Exner developed a. the concept of determinants. b. highly structured administration protocols. c. the Comprehensive System for scoring.*************** d. revised stimuli. 10. The Rorschach tends to ____ emotionally disturbed individuals. a. accurately identify b. underestimate the number of c. overestimate adults but not children as d. identify over half of normal subjects as**************** 11. The psychometric properties of the Rorschach have been difficult to evaluate because a. the Rorschach is difficult to administer. b. there is no universally accepted method of administration.***************** c. responses can only be subjectively evaluated. d. the Rorschach has no clinical utility. 12. Supportive evidence in favor of the Holtzman Inkblot Test a. is highly objective. b. is based on quantitative features. c. appears to depend on examiner skill.****************** d. depends on formal interpretive standards. 13. The work of which theorist underlies the Thematic Apperception Test? a. Beck b. Murray****************** c. Freud d. Jung 14. Almost all TAT methods of interpretation take into account a. hero, needs, and thought content. b. overt behavior, press, and themes. c. press, needs, and outcomes.**************** d. fantasies, press, and themes. 15. In TAT interpretation, the environmental forces that interfere with or facilitate the satisfaction of various needs are called a. press.*************** b. external stimuli. c. themes. d. determiners. 16. Word association tests can be traced back to a. Kerner. b. Galton.***************** c. Cattell. d. Guilford. 17. One of the most valid figure drawing tests is the a. Draw-a-Person Test. b. House-Tree-Person Test. c. Kinetic Family Drawing Test. d. Goodenough Draw-a-Man Test.****************** 18. Gruber and Kreuzpointer (2013) found higher reliability for the TAT when using a. split-half reliabilities. b. category scores as items rather than picture scores.**************** c. longer testing intervals. d. Kuder-Richardson reliabilities, as was studied in the Rorschach. 19. The first stimulus cards created by Rorschach were developed by a. throwing loose ink on blank paper hung on a clothes line. b. hand drawing unique and intricate abstract designs. c. dropping ink onto a piece of paper and folding it.***************** d. smudging ink onto paper using sponges. 20. Gruber and Kreuzpointer (2013) maintain that the problem of low reliability in projective testing stems from a. lack of validity of projective tests. b. use of category scores instead of image scores. c. incorrect use of internal consistency coefficients.******************* d. low sample size for reliability testing. 21. Despite findings that indicate it is perhaps the most psychometrically sound projective test, the ____ is rarely used in clinical settings. a. Draw-A Person Test b. Children's Apperception Test c. Washington University Sentence Completion Test*************** d. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank 22. On the Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank, a. short, humorous sentences generally receive the highest scores.***************** b. humor tends to lower scores. c. long, complex sentences generally receive higher scores. d. short, humorous sentences generally receive lower scores. 23. Validity studies of the TAT suggest that a. validity of the TAT depends on high test-retest reliability. b. validity of the TAT depends on high split-half reliability. c. there is content-related validity.*************** d. validity of the TAT does not depend on split-half reliability. 24. Compared to the Rorschach, standardization of administration and scoring of the TAT a. is clearly better. b. is about the same.****************** c. is clearly worse. d. is inconsistent. 25. Gamble (1972) reviewed the literature on the Holtzman and concluded that the a. Holtzman is clearly superior to the Rorschach. b. Holtzman is clearly inferior to the Rorschach. c. Holtzman and Rorschach are about equally sound. d. data are insufficient and it should not be considered any more useful than the Rorschach.***************** 26. Form quality is a scoring dimension that refers to a. where the perception was seen. b. what determined the response. c. the extent to which the response matched the stimulus qualities of the inkblot.************ d. what the perception was. 27. Use of the Kuder-Richardson formula a. corrects for faking. b. yields analyzable data. c. increases estimates of reliability.********** d. eliminates random variability. 28. Early demonstrations of the Rorschach included validation by a. reviews by content-area experts familiar with the underlying constructs. b. performance of individuals who analyzed the responses of individuals they had never met, making a diagnosis, and validating the diagnosis against other data sources.**************** c. large-scale field work that involved thousands of individuals tested by hundreds of administrators whose skill levels varied. d. standard psychometric methods that yielded surprisingly high validity. 29. The two phases of Rorschach administration are called a. phase I and phase II. b. free response and determinant. c. free association and inquiry.****************** d. associational and inquiry. 30. The main difficulty with the Holtzman Inkblot Test is a. cumbersome administration. b. questionable validity.******************** c. lack of an alternative form. d. lack of normative data. 31. Most researchers today feel that the Comprehensive System for scoring a. is an effective improvement to the Rorschach. b. has failed to remedy the problems associated with the Rorschach.************ c. still has a ways to go but at least provides adequate norms. d. makes improvements that allow the test to be used in forensic settings. 32. Scoring of content on the Rorschach a. is impossible. b. is extremely difficult. c. cannot be done reliably. d. is a relatively simple matter.*************** 33. TAT interpretation relies most heavily upon a. elaborate, complex scoring systems. b. quantitative methods. c. qualitative methods.************ d. computer scoring. 34. The Holtzman Test a. is an alternative to the Rorschach.**************** b. is an alternative to the TAT. c. has proven to be more useful than the Rorschach in clinical settings. d. has proven to be more useful than the alternatives to the traditional procedures. 35. An analysis of existing results concerning the reliability of the TAT indicates that when specific variables such as the need for achievement are studied, a. respectably high reliability figures are found.************* b. low reliability figures are found. c. modestly positive reliability figures are found. d. inconclusive results are found.

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1. Studies by Strong on occupational interests demonstrated that a. occupational interests are very unstable and may change from year to year. b. occupational interests are stable during high school years but become unstable during adulthood. c. occupational interests remain relatively stable after students have left school.******************* d. occupational interests are stable during high school and college years, become unstable during the 30s, and become stable once again later in life. 2. According to Holland's six personality factors, an individual that enjoys self-expression and being dramatic would fall on the ____ factor. a. realistic b. investigative c. artistic******************** d. social 3. Next to the Strong-Campbell, the second most widely used interest inventory is the a. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey.***************** b. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory. c. Career Assessment Inventory. d. Carnegie Interest Inventory. 4. Suppose you scored very high on the Dentist Scale of the SCII. This would suggest that a. you are interested in dentistry. b. your interests are similar to those of people who say they are happy working as dentists.**************** c. you have a high aptitude for dentistry. d. the chances are good that you will be a successful dentist. 5. Which of the following statements is true? a. Scores on the Kuder remain stable over the course of time, but scores on the SCII tend not to. b. Scores on the SCII remain stable over time while scores on the Kuder tend not to. c. Scores on both the Kuder and the SCII do not remains table over time. d. Scores on both the Kuder and the SCII remain stable over the course of time.****************** 6. Examinations of the psychometric properties of the KOIS indicate a. poor reliability. b. poor validity. c. good reliability and predictive validity measures.**************** d. Examinations of the psychometric properties of the KOIS indicateless predictive validity in college graduates. 7. Which of the following tests may help college students choose a major? a. Strong Vocational Interest Blank b. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey***************** c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory d. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory 8. Which of the following interest inventories is primarily designed for non-college bound individuals? a. the KOIS b. the SCII c. the CAI****************** d. the SII 9. The ____ is useful when planning a midlife career change a. MVII b. SCII c. KOIS d. JVIS************8 10. Marjorie wants to get some information about possible career choices she might like. She would prefer to use some assessment that she can complete on her own rather than arranging an appointment with a career counselor. Marjorie might be interested in the a. MVII. b. JVIS. c. SDS.*************** d. CAI. c 11. Which test includes a scale that assesses the degree of skill in a number of specific occupations in addition to the scales that assess interest in academic and occupational topics? a. KOIS b. CISS****************** c. SVIB d. JVIS 12. Which of the following is true of the 1966 SVIB? a. It included 54 occupations for men but only 32 for women.**************** b. It had very serious problems with reliability. c. It was developed using the theoretical approach. d. The interest patterns are not stable over time. 13. Which theorist had an influence on the Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory? a. Holland***************** b. Murray c. Maslow d. Skinner 14. Which of the following is a criticism of the 1977 version of the SCII? a. It is too similar to the SVIB. b. It lacks predictive validity. c. The individuals in the criterion groups were older than the individuals who typically take the test.******************** d. It is based on the assumption that an individual's interest in their late teens or early twenties will be stable. 15. Which of the following is true of Holland's Self-Directed Search? a. It helps individuals develop a personal career theory.************ b. It identifies individuals' strengths and weaknesses. c. It yields impressive correlations between test results and stated career aspirations. d. It is very difficult to score correctly and this has harmed its validity. 16. Which of the following approaches to assessment is used in Osipow's approach to occupational assessment? a. matching traits to occupations**************** b. assessing career maturity c. assessing career preferences d. using interview data exclusively 17. Who postulated that interests were an expression of personality that could be divided into one or more of six categories? a. D. P. Campbell b. E. K. Strong, Jr. c. R. L. Thorndike d. J. L. Holland************** 18. The approach of ____ involves the administration of an extensive test battery that includes the Purdue pegboard in order to learn as much about an individual's traits as possible a. Holland b. Osipow************** c. Roe d. Super 19. According to attribution theory, people determine what has caused some event in their environment using three criteria: a. persons, entities, or times. b. distinctiveness, consensus, or consistency.***************** c. who, what, or when. d. internal, external, or global. 20. Tina, who is generally easy going, became short tempered after a run-in with a rude, irate customer. According to attribution theory, her behavior would be considered a. consistent. b. global. c. stable. d. distinctive.***************** 21. Which of the following describes the sample used in the construction of the SVIB? a. Restricted to less than 20 occupations. b. An all male sample. c. A predominantly young adult sample. d. A good normative sample.**************** 22. Which test was carefully designed to be culturally fair? a. CISS b. CAI***************** c. KOIS d. SCII 23. Studies of the Self-Directed Search (SDS) have shown that respondents tend to score their own tests a. accurately.************ b. in a biased manner toward the career they were originally planning. c. in gender-specific ways. d. with a number of mathematical errors. 24. Which measure includes an extroversion scale that helps guide respondents to occupations with the appropriate amount and intensity of interpersonal relations? a. CISS**************** b. CAI c. KOIS d. SCII 25. Research on attribution theory suggests that people tend to describe others in terms of ____, but explain their own behavior in terms of ____. a. situations; traits b. traits; personalities c. traits; situations**************** d. specific context; situations 26. Scales like the SCII and the KOIS are based on a. measures that assess an individual's aptitude for a particular occupation. b. an assessment of crystallized intelligence. c. similar interests between test takers and persons in a particular occupation.**************** d. measures that predict how successful a person is likely to be in an occupation. 27. Barbara is motivated by power and political strength. Which of Holland's personality factors does this reflect? a. enterprising************** b. ego strength c. interpersonal d. dominance 28. Influencing, Helping, and Creating are three of the seven orientation scales that are part of the a. Campbell Interest and Skill Inventory.************ b. Jackson Vocational Interest Survey. c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory. d. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey. 29. The 1966 version of SVIB used standard scores with a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____. a. 0; 1 b. 50; 10**************** c. 100; 15 d. 100; 10 30. David is very active politically and generally likes to be the leader of any group he joins. According to Holland's six personality factors, David is likely to fall on the ____ factor. a. realistic b. investigative c. social d. enterprising**************** 31. Next to the Strong-Campbell, the second most widely used interest inventory is the a. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey.*************** b. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory. c. Career Assessment Inventory. d. Carnegie Interest Inventory. 32. The report that is generated for the KOIS presents ____ in the first section. a. dependability of the results**************** b. rank-ordered interest patterns c. ranks of different occupations d. matches with different college majors 33. The expectation that a person has about their ability to perform the tasks associated with a particular occupation is known as a. social desirability. b. egocentrism. c. self-efficacy.**************** d. attribution bias. 34. Which of the following is a valid criticism of the SVIB? a. It has problems with gender bias.**************** b. It lacks reliability. c. It yields unstable scores. d. It has poor predictive validity. 35. Which of the following is considered the first step in identifying an appropriate career path? a. Identifying the school subject in which you made the best grades. b. Evaluating your interests.************** c. Choosing a college major. d. Talking to individuals about their professions.

chapter 16