The Muscular System

10) Place these structures of the skeletal muscle in order from largest to smallest: fascicle myofilament muscle fiber (cell) myofibril sarcomere A) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 B) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 C) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1 D) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 E) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1

A) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2

43) Which of the following muscles are antagonists: A) biceps brachii and triceps brachii B) bicpes femoris and biceps brachii C) vastus medialis and vastus lateralis D) masseter and temporalis E) gastrocnemius and soleus

A) biceps brachii and triceps brachii

38) Which one of the following is the action of the orbicularis oris: A) closes, purses, and protrudes the lips B) pulls the lower lip down and back C) draws the eyebrows together D) allows blinking, squinting, and various other protective mechanisms for the eye E) closes the jaw

A) closes, purses, and protrudes the lips

40) Which one of the following muscles is involved in abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint: A) deltoid B) biceps brachii C) triceps brachii D) latissimus dorsi E) pectoralis major

A) deltoid

27) Which of these pathways is the fastest way to regenerate ATP during muscle activity: A) direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate B) aerobic respiration C) anaerobic glycolysis and lactic acid formation D) oxidative phosphorylation E) both aerobic respiration and anaerobic glycolysis

A) direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate

44) Which congenital muscle disease results from the degeneration and atrophy of muscles: A) muscular dystrophy B) myasthenia gravis C) multiple sclerosis D) spina bifida E) scoliosis

A) muscular dystrophy

33) A muscle located on the ventral (anterior) side of the body is the: A) pectoralis major B) occipitalis C) gastrocnemius D) gluteus medius E) latissimus dorsi

A) pectoralis major

4) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle cell is called the: A) sarcolemma B) sarcomere C) myofilament D) sarcoplasm E) sarcoplasmic reticulum

A) sarcolemma

6) Which type of muscle tissue responds the fastest to stimulations to contract: A) skeletal B) visceral C) cardiac D) smooth E) tendons

A) skeletal

9) Which one of the following is composed of myosin protein: A) thick filaments B) thin filaments C) all myofilaments D) Z discs E) light bands

A) thick filaments

32) Which one of the following does NOT compress the abdomen: A) internal oblique B) external oblique C) transversus abdominis D) latissimus dorsi E) rectus abdominis

D) latissimus dorsi

45) Which one of the following is NOT a criteria generally used in naming muscles: A) relative size of the muscle B) number of origins of the muscle C) shape of the muscle D) method of attachment of the muscle to bone E) action of the muscle

D) method of attachment of the muscle to bone

19) Which of the following can actually shorten during a muscle contraction: A) myosin filaments B) A bands C) actin filaments D) sarcomeres E) myofilaments

D) sarcomeres

31) Which of these muscles is NOT located in the head: A) frontalis B) buccinator C) zygomaticus D) sartorius E) orbicularis oculi

D) sartorius

21) Which of these events must occur first to trigger the skeletal muscle to generate an action potential and contract: A) sodium ions rush into the cell B) acetylcholine (ACh) causes temporary permeability to sodium C) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell D) operation of the sodium-potassium pump E) acetylcholinesterase (AchE) breaks down acetylcholine (ACh)

B) acetylcholine (ACh) causes temporary permeability to sodium

5) Smooth muscle cells are: A) multinucleate B) involuntary C) branched D) striated E) cylindrical

B) involuntary

11) The light and dark banding pattern send in striated muscle, like skeletal muscle, originate from: A) presence of H zones and Z discs B) layers of thick and thin filaments C) alternating light and dark bands D) repetitive Z discs E) organization of M lines, H zones, and Z discs

B) layers of thick and thin filaments

26) Anaerobic glycolysis occurs without: A) ATP B) oxygen C) lactic acid D) carbon dioxide E) glucose

B) oxygen

1) Voluntary muscle tissue is; A) smooth muscle B) skeletal muscle C) dense regular D) cardiac muscle E) dense irregular

B) skeletal muscle

8) A sarcomere is: A) the nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle B) the contractile unit between two Z discs C) the area between two intercalated discs D) the wavy lines on the cell, as seen in a microscope E) a compartment in a myofilament

B) the contractile unit between two Z discs

20) A single, brief, jerky muscle contraction is termed: A) tetanus B) twitch C) isometric D) isotonic E) anaerobic

B) twitch

13) The mechanical force of contraction is generated by: A) shortening of the thick filaments B) shortening of the thin filaments C) a sliding of thin filaments past thick ones D) the "accordian-like" folding of thin and thick filaments E) the temporary disappearance of thin filaments

C) a sliding of thin filaments past thick ones

42) While doing "jumping jacks" during an exercise class, your arms and legs move laterally away from the midline of your body. This motion is called: A) extension B) flexion C) abduction D) adduction E) circumduction

C) abduction

18) During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin heads attach to active sites of: A) myosin filaments B) actin filaments C) Z discs D) thick filaments E) the H zone

C) actin filaments

2) Endomysium covers: A) fascicles of muscle cells B) an entire muscle C) an individual muscle cell D) myofibrils E) smooth muscle only

C) an individual muscle cell

35) What is the main function of the quadriceps femoris group: A) arm flexion B) hand supination C) thigh abduction D) knee extension E) foot inversion

D) knee extension

12) Why are calcium ions necessary for skeletal muscle contraction: A) calcium increases the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma B) calcium releases the inhibition on Z discs C) calcium triggers the binding of myosin to actin D) calcium causes ATP binding to actin E) calcium binds to regulatory proteins on the myosin filaments, changing both their shape and their position on the thick filaments

C) calcium triggers the binding of myosin to actin

24) The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by: A) the all-or-none law B) the inability to generate sufficient quantities of ATP due to feedback regulation of synthesis C) insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption D) a total lack of ATP E) inadequate numbers of mitochondria

C) insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption

36) A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n): A) antagonist only B) fixator only C) synergist only D) antagonist and synergist E) antagonist and fixator

C) synergist only

30) Sandra is playing the piano for her recital. Which muscle is NOT involved in the movement of her hands and/or fingers: A) flexor carpi radialis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) extensor digitorum D) extensor digitorum longus E) extensor carpi radialis

D) Extensor digitorum longus

28) The movement opposite to abduction is: A) flexion B) rotation C) circumduction D) addution E) supination

D) addution

16) Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the: A) myofibrils B) motor unit C) thick filaments D) axon terminals of the motor neuron E) sarcolemma of the muscle cell

D) axon terminals of the motor neuron

34) A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling or blowing a trumpet called the: A) platysma B) masseter C) zygomaticus D) buccinator E) temporalis

D) buccinator

25) Isometric contractions produce: A) contractions B) movement C) muscle shortening D) contractions and movement, but not shortening E) contractions and shortening, but not movement

D) contractions and movement, but not shortening

23) Creatine phosphate (CP) functions within the muscle cells by: A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B) forming a chemical compound with actin C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed E) storing energy that will be transferred to ATP to resynthesize ADP as needed

D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed

15) The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the: A) motor unit B) sarcomere C) neuromuscular junction D) synaptic cleft E) cross bridge

D) synaptic cleft

14) Acetylcholine is: A) an ion pump on the postsynaptic membrane B) a source of energy for muscle contraction C) a component of thick myofilaments D) an oxygen-binding protein E) a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle

E) a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle

29) Which of the following muscles closes the jaw: A) buccinator B) zygomaticus C) frontalis D) sternocleidomastoid E) both masseter and temporalis

E) both masseter and temporalis

7) Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system: A) production of movement B) maintenance of posture C) stabilization of joints D) generation of heat E) hematopoiesis

E) hematopoiesis

37) Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in dorsiflexion and/or plantar flexion of the foot: A) gastrocnemius B) tibialis anterior C) extensor digitorum longus D) soleus E) iliopsoas

E) iliopsoas

39) Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the hip: A) biceps femoris B) gastrocnemius C) tibialis anterior D) sartorius E) iliopsoas

E) iliopsoas

17) An elaborate and specialized network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that function in calcium storage is the: A) sarcolemma B) mitochondria C) intermediate filament network D) myofibrillar network E) sarcoplasmic reticulum

E) sarcoplasmic reticulum

41) What is the origin of the deltoid muscle: A) proximal radius B) proximal humerus C) distal humerus D) olecranon process of ulna E) scapular spine and clavicle

E) scapular spine and clavicle

3) The type of muscle tissue pictured in Figure 6.3 is: A) skeletal muscle B) voluntary C) striated D) found only in the heart E) smooth muscle

E) smooth muscle

22) A skeletal muscle twitch differs from a tetanic contraction in that: A) the tetanic contraction is considered abnormal, while the twitch is a normal muscle response B) the tetanic contraction is caused by a single stimulus, while the twitch is caused by very rapid multiple stimuli C) the muscle twitch is prolonged and continuous while a tetanic contraction is brief and "jerky" D) the muscle twitch occurs only in small muscles while a tetanic contraction occurs in large muscle groups E) the muscle twitch is a brief and "jerky" movement, while the tetanic contraction is prolonged and continuous

E) the muscle twitch is a brief and "jerky" movement, while the tetanic contraction is prolonged and continuous